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73 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
___ ____ are mechanoreceptors in muscles that report muscle stretch
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Muscle spindles
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Chapman’s Reflexes are what type or reflex?
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Viscero-somatic reflex
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Chapman's reflexes are Approximately what length in diameter?
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2-3mm
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how long do you hold a person in counterstrain?
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90 seconds
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if you give a person a lot of steroids (7 days) and then cut them off, what happens?
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adrenal insufficiency. Tender points in lung, (untapered steroids), but the adrenal reflex caused this (lungs will be clear).
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indirect Muscle Energy - antagonist muscle is contracted to inhibit the agonist. Give an example of this.
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biceps are stuck in flexion. Push it further into flexion, patient passive, triceps become extended, (antagonist), which will inhibit the biceps (agonist) further until there is a release. Think of snap power outlet on desk as example.
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DIRECT TECHNIQUE When applied by the physician the final activating force is described in terms of what two properties?
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1. AMPLITUDE: the distance over which the force is applied. 2. VELOCITY: the speed with which the force is applied.
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What are the types of Direct Techniques?
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6 total. 1. soft tissue 2. articulatory 3. springing 4. myofascial release 5. muscle energy 6. HVLA
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is soft tissue directed towards skeletal or arthroidal?
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neither
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which technique (and what type) has the following characteristics? 1. Directed at tissues other than skeletal or arthrodial. 2. Usually involves lateral / linear stretching, and/or deep pressure, traction and/or separation of muscle origin & insertion while monitoring tissue response & motion changes by palpation. 3. Therapeutic goal: muscular & fascial relaxation.
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Soft Tissue Technique. (Direct passive)
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vert level: rib 2?
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Sternal angle – T4/5 disc (rib 2)
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vert level: Sternal angle?
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Sternal angle – T4/5 disc (rib 2)
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vert level: umbilicus?
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Umbilicus – L3-4
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vert level: Sup angle of scapula?
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Superior angle of scapula – T2
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Counterstrain: technique to treat ___ ____.
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tender points
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which technique requires taking a limb through it’s full range of motion with specific attention directed at the dysfunctional barrier(s)?
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direct passive articulatory treatment.
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____ is A technique in which the restrictive barrier is engaged repeatedly to produce an increased freedom of motion.
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springing
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Which type of muscle contraction maintains constant muscle length?
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ISOMETRIC MUSCLE CONTRACTION
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Which type of muscle contraction has muscle length shorten?
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ISOTONIC MUSCLE CONTRACTION
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Which type of muscle contraction has muscle length increase?
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ISOLYTIC MUSCLE CONTRACTION
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Hypotonic, reflexively inhibited muscles are frequently treated with ____ contractions.
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ISOTONIC MUSCLE CONTRACTION
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what type of muscle contraction is Used for the treatment of fibrotic or chronically shortened myofascial tissues?
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ISOLYTIC MUSCLE CONTRACTION
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Also referred to as short restrictors, what type of muscles are considered key in maintaining Type II, segmental dysfunctions?
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MONOARTICULAR MUSCLES
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Also referred to as long restrictors, what type of muscles are considered key in maintaining Type I, group dysfunctions?
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POLYARTICULAR MUSCLES
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what muscle receives intrafusal gamma motor innervation and sends afferents through Ia and II nerve fibers?
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muscle spindle - senses stretch, found parallel to each other.
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in resting position, scapula lies between which ribs?
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2 thru 7
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the ___ Relies on muscles rather than bones/ligaments for support
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shoulder
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the shoulder is Composed of 3 joints and 1 “articulation”: sternoclavicular, acromioclavicular, and glenohumeral joints. The articulation is _______.
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scapulothoracic
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Glenohumeral – type of joint?
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ball and socket between
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the Sternoclavicular joint has an intra-articular disc - what type of joint is this?
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saddle
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Acromioclavicular - type of joint?
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planar
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the subacromial burse reducaes tension between the coracoacromial arch and what muscle?
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supraspinatus
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what are the rotator cuff muscles?
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SITS - Supra, Infraspinatus, Teres minor, Subscapularis
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What are the ligaments taking care of the AC joint?
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Coracoclavicular ligament provides much of the weight baring support of the upper limb. Has two components, conoid, and trapezoid ligament
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The only bony attachment of the upper limb to the axial skeleton is at the _________ joint
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sternoclavicular
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There is a ___ to ____ ratio of glenohumeral to scapulothoracic motion during overhead reaching (flexion and abduction)
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2 to 1. When the arm is vertical at the side of the head (180 degrees of flexion or abduction) 120 degrees occurs at the glenohumeral joint while 60 degrees occurs at the scapulothoracic joint
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sympathetic innervation to the UE comes from what vert levels
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T2 - T8 of symp trunk
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The following muscles perform what function in the shoulder? 1. ant delt. 2. coracobrachialis. 3. pec major 4. biceps
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Flexion
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The following muscles perform what function in the shoulder? 1. anterior delt 2. supra spinatus 3. serratus anterior
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ABductors
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The following muscles perform what function in the shoulder? 1. pec major. 2. lat dorsi. 3. teres major. 4. delt anterior
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Adductors
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The following muscles perform what function in the shoulder? 1. lat dorsi. 2. teres major. 3. deltoid posterior. 4. triceps
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Extensors
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The following muscles perform what function in the shoulder? 1. infraspinatus 2. teres minor 3. delt posterior
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External rotators
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The following muscles perform what function in the shoulder? 1. subscap 2. pec major3. lat dorsi 4. deltoid (anterior)
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Internal rotators
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what is the most common dislocation of the glenohumeral joint?
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inferior anteriorly
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pain the dermatome of C4 affects what area of sensation?
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shoulder
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pain the dermatome of C5 affects what area of sensation? Motor? Reflex?
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lateral elbow, biceps, biceps
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pain the dermatome of C6 affects what area of sensation? Motor? Reflex?
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thumb and index finger, wrist extensor muscles, brachioradialis
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pain the dermatome of C7 affects what area of sensation? Motor? Reflex?
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middle finger, triceps, triceps
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pain the dermatome of C8 affects what area of sensation? Motor?
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ring finger and pinky, wrist flexor muscles
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pain the dermatome of T1 affects what area of sensation? Motor?
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medial elbow, interossi
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in deep tendon reflex, whats a 4 out of 4 grade?
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brisk with clonus (0 to 4 scale)
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in muscle testing, whats a 5 out of 5 grade?
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Full ROM, against gravity, + Full resistance
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in muscle testing, whats a 2 out of 5 grade?
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Full ROM, with gravity eliminated. (just barely apparently since +3 means no resistance)
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adhesive capsulitis aka ___ ____
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frozen shoulder
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what is Erb-Duchenne’s Palsy?
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brachial plexus injury at C5 to C6. birth trauma. Paralysis of deltoid, external rotators, biceps, brachioradialis and supinator
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in relation to the gravitational line, the lateral malleolus is ____
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posterior
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in relation to the gravitational line, the mid-knee is ____
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anterior
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the middle of which vertebrae is in the grav line?
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L3
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moment of inertia in humans is ___. They can turn readily.
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small
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in Adson’s test: the neck is ______, turned toward _____ side (TOS test)
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extended, affected
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what test narrow's interscalene space?
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adson's
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what test Checks patency of ipsilateral artery passing between scalene triangle?
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adson's
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Wright’s maneuver: shoulder is in _____ rotation, a_duction beyond 90 degrees
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external, abduction
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what does the wright's manuever compress?
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compresses below pec minor insertion
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what technique narrows costoclavicular space?
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Halstead maneuver - exaggerated military posture
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exaggerated military posture is part of what maneuver?
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Halstead maneuver
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what type of scoliotic Curve is reduced with side bending, rotation or forward bending?
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functional
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what are the degree ranges for mild moderate and severe scoliotic curves?
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5>15. 20>45. 50 on.
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a cobb angle higher than what degree has a high probability of requiring surgical correction?
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greater than 50 degrees
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which is a confirmation for scoliosis? Cobb or ATR?
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COBB. ATR (Angle of Trunk Rotation or Axial Trunk Rotation) is really a screening test. Referral for a radiologist after 7 degree ATR usually gives a 20 degree Cobb.
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What is a Cozen's test?
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tests for lateral epicondilitis - have the patient extend against resistance. (extensors are affected. Tennis Elbow. Medial epicondilitis would be the flexors. Golfer's Elbow.)
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Colle's fracture is also known as what?
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dinner fork fracture. distal fracture of the radius in the forearm with dorsal (posterior) displacement of the wrist
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what is a colle's fracture?
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distal fracture of the radius in the forearm with dorsal (posterior) displacement of the wrist
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