Opp Sem 2 Test 1

Front 1

Which area of the spine has the least motion and the most motion?

Back 1

Cervical has most, Thoracic spine has least.

Front 2

when does the thoracic Primary curve develop?

Back 2

present at birth.

Front 3

is the thoracic primary curve relatively mobile?

Back 3

no. immobile

Front 4

What are Two anatomic causes for relative immobility of the thoracic spine?

Back 4

1. intimate connection of the T spine to the rib cage, ribs and sternum, via the costovertebral articulations.
2. ratio of intervertebral disk height to vertebral body height is small(1:5) which greatly reduces intersegmental motion.

Front 5

which two vertebrae are the inferior transition from the cervical lordosis?

Back 5

T1 - T2

Front 6

which thoracic vertebrae are part of the forward bent kyphosis?

Back 6

T3-T12

Front 7

where is the apex of the thoracic kyphosis?

Back 7

T5 - T6

Front 8

Back 8

Front 9

Which vertebrae are the transition from the thoracic kyphosis to the lumbar lordosis?

Back 9

T10 - T12

Front 10

What is the cervical transition area of the spine?

Back 10

OA

Front 11

Each vertebrae is ossified from ___ primary centers

Back 11

three

Front 12

During the ____ week, scleotomal cells (mesoderm) migrate medially to surround the spinal cord and notochord.

Back 12

fourth

Front 13

After proliferation of the caudal portion of the sclerotomes, the vertebrae are formed, each consisting of the _____ (caudal/cephalic) part of one sclerotome and the _____ (caudal/cephalic) part of the next.

Back 13

caudal, then cephalic

Front 14

The ___ persists in the areas between the vertebral bodies forming the nucleus pulposus. This with the surrounding circular fibers of the annulus fibrosus forms the intervening disk.

Back 14

notochord

Front 15

Spinal nerve bundles are gathered with formation of the vertebrae to pass out between the ____ ____.

Back 15

intervertebral foramina

Front 16

Segmentalization via ____.

Back 16

somites

Front 17

Bones, connective tissue, muscles are derived from ____.

Back 17

mesenchyme

Front 18

What are the atypical ribs?

Back 18

1,10,11,12

Front 19

Back 19

Front 20

How many transverse process facets are on the atypical ribs 1,10,11,12?

Back 20

0 on 11 and 12. 1 on 1 and 10.

Front 21

Most common SD for a coronary artery bypass graft IS _____ ribs on the side done. The ribs twists and actually point into the vert body.

Back 21

Inhale the Cabbage, inhaled rib same side.

Front 22

Intervertebral disc herniation is Not very common in thoracic spine. Its Limited by ____ longitudinal ligament, ribs

Back 22

posterior

Front 23

Rotatores are often responsible for which type of mechanic?

Back 23

Type II SD’s.

Front 24

Which type of mechanic is responsible for pain?

Back 24

Type II SD’s.

Front 25

Back 25

Front 26

Trapezius, Latissimus dorsi, Rhomboid minor, Rhomboid major, Levator scapulae - all receive nerve supply from ___ rami of the ____ nerves.

Back 26

anterior, cervical

Front 27

Trapezius, Latissimus dorsi, Rhomboid minor, Rhomboid major, Levator scapulae - all connect ___ ___ to trunk and work primarily on ____ ____.

Back 27

upper limb

Front 28

which muscles connect upper limb to trunk and receive nerves from anterior rami of cervical nerve?

Back 28

TRRLL - Trapezius, Rhomboid minor, Rhomboid major, Levator scapula, Latissimus dorsi

Front 29

Serratus posterior superior & inferior - have mostly ____ function with some minor respiratory function

Back 29

proprioceptive

Front 30

Muscles of back proper, (intrinsic), from cranium to pelvis, are innervated by what?

Back 30

Innervated by the posterior rami of spinal nerves T2-T12

Front 31

Back 31

Front 32

Back 32

Front 33

Muscles of back proper, (intrinsic), from cranium to pelvis, are the cause of what?

Back 33

Responsible for many of the TART changes seen in somatic dysfunction

Front 34

Muscles of back proper, (intrinsic), from cranium to pelvis, act to do what?

Back 34

maintain posture and control movement of the vert column.

Front 35

what is the superior attachment of the intrinsic back muscle fascia?

Back 35

At the skull inferior to the superior nuchal line

Front 36

what are the 2 lateral attachment of the intrinsic back muscle fascia?

Back 36

1. Laterally at cervical and lumbar transverse processes. 2. Laterally at angles of ribs

Front 37

Thoracolumbar fascia is part of this complex and forms the sheath of the ____ ____ muscle which becomes thinner as it ascends in the thorax.

Back 37

erector spinae

Front 38

Thoracolumbar fascia envelops the spinal _____.

Back 38

extensors

Front 39

thoracolumbar fascia In the lumbar region consists of ____ layers.

Back 39

three

Front 40

thoracolumbar fascia Provides origin for the ____ ____ and some of the abdominal muscles.

Back 40

Latissimus dorsi

Front 41

thoracolumbar fascia In the cervical region blends laterally with the ____ ____ .

Back 41

prevertebral fascia

Front 42

thoracolumbar fascia Provides a ____ for separating muscle groups

Back 42

plane

Front 43

Back 43

Front 44

When you Breath in what happens to the diaphragm? AP, transverse, vertical diameters? Abdominal Pressure?

Back 44

Flattens. AP, vertical, transverse diameter increases. Abdominal pressure increases. Reverse on exhalation.

Front 45

Superior angle of scapula is at the level of which vertebral body?

Back 45

T2

Front 46

Inferior angle of scapula is at the level of which vertebral body?

Back 46

T7

Front 47

Jugular notch is at the level of which vertebral body?

Back 47

T2

Front 48

Sternal angle (manubrosternal joint, aka angle of Louis) is where the ____ costal cartilages attach. It lies at the level of the IV disc between T4 & T5

Back 48

2nd

Front 49

Sternal angle (manubrosternal joint, aka angle of Louis) is where the 2nd costal cartilages attach. It lies at the level of the IV disc between vert bodies ___ and ___.

Back 49

T4 - T5

Front 50

spine of scapula at what vert level?

Back 50

T3

Front 51

inf angle of scapula at what vert level?

Back 51

T7

Front 52

rotational motion in the thoracic spine is limited by what?

Back 52

multiple ligamentous tensions

Front 53

SB/lateral motion in the thoracic spine is limited by what?

Back 53

articular processes on the side of movement, contralateral ligamenta flava, intertransverse ligaments, RIBS and STERNUM

Front 54

Back 54

Front 55

flexion motion in the thoracic spine is limited by what?

Back 55

extensor mm., interspinous ligaments, ligamenta flava, posterior longitudinal ligament, RIBS

Front 56

extension motion in the thoracic spine is limited by what?

Back 56

the impact of the articular processes and the spinous processes (shingle effect)

Front 57

what muscle(s) handles Backward bending (extension)?

Back 57

Interspinales thoracis

Front 58

what muscle(s) handles Backward bending (extension) when acting Bilaterally?

Back 58

Intertransversari thoracis, Multifidus, Longissimus thoracis, Iliocostalis thoracis

Front 59

what muscle(s) handles Backward bending & Rotation (to opposite side)?

Back 59

Semispinalis thoracis, Rotatores thoracis

Front 60

what muscle(s) handles Sidebending (lateral flexion)?

Back 60

Longissimus thoracis, Intertransversari thoracis, Iliocostalis thoracis

Front 61

what muscle(s) handles Sidebending and Rotation (to opposite side)?

Back 61

Multifidus

Front 62

Back 62

Front 63

what muscle(s) handles Flexion?

Back 63

abdominal muscles

Front 64

When sidebending is introduced into a neutral spine, the bodies of the vertebra will rotate towards the side of _____.

Back 64

convexity. Fryette's 1st.

Front 65

When sidebending is introduced into a non-neutral spine, the bodies of the vertebrae will rotate toward the side of ____.

Back 65

concavity. Fryette's 2nd.

Front 66

Back 66

Front 67

What are two superficial intrinsic muscles of the back?

Back 67

Splenius cervicis and capitis

Front 68

intermediate intrinsics are what muscles?

Back 68

Erector spinae - These lie in a ‘groove’ on each side of the vertebral column (between spinous processes and rib angles). 1. illiocostalis. 2. Longissiumus. 3. Spinalis

Front 69

Semispinalis superficial,spans __ to __ segments

Back 69

4 to 6

Front 70

what muscle has a span of 4-6 segments?

Back 70

Semispinalis

Front 71

Multifidus mid depth, spanS ___ to ___ segments

Back 71

2 to 4

Front 72

what muscle has a span of 2-4 segments?

Back 72

Multifidus

Front 73

Back 73

Front 74

Rotatores deepest, spans __ to __ segments

Back 74

1 to 2

Front 75

what muscle has a span of 1 to 2 segments?

Back 75

Rotatores

Front 76

which muscle group spans from the transverse processes of vertebrae to spinous processes of one or more superior vertebrae.

Back 76

Deep intrinsics

Front 77

Deep intrinsics span from the ___ processes of vertebrae to ____ processes of one or more superior vertebrae.

Back 77

transverse , spinous

Front 78

Back 78

Front 79

____ are the best developed in the thoracic region.

Back 79

Rotatores

Front 80

Rotatores are the best developed in the ____ region.

Back 80

thoracic

Front 81

Smaller or larger muscles have lower density of muscle spindles - sensors of proprioception?

Back 81

larger

Front 82

It is proposed that these (larger or smaller) muscles maintain somatic dysfunction, especially non-neutral somatic dysfunction, most often occuring in single segments.

Back 82

smaller

Front 83

Celiac ganglion anteriorly receives innervation from what nerves?

Back 83

T5-T9

Front 84

Superior mesenteric ganglgion get which nerves?

Back 84

T10-T11

Front 85

There is a problem at T10, which ganglion is affected?

Back 85

Superior mesenteric

Front 86

T12-L2 is associated with what ganglion?

Back 86

Inferior mesenteric ganglion

Front 87

The sympathetic chain ganglia lie ___ and ___ to the vertebral bodies of their corresponding levels, attached to the associated spinal nerve by the white and grey rami communicantes. This is also directly anterior to the corresponding rib head and it’s associated fascia.

Back 87

anterior and lateral

Front 88

The majority of outflow of the sympathetic system originates in the _____ region. Distribution of the sympathetic system to almost every tissue and area of the body makes this a very important one for all body functions. (Esp immune function). Disturbances of the thoracic vertebrae and their associated musculature that affect the function of the sympathetic system can have widespread consequences.

Back 88

thoracic

Front 89

sympathetic autonomic innervation to the head and neck is from what nerves?

Back 89

T1-4

Front 90

sympathetic autonomic innervation to the heart and lungs is from what nerves?

Back 90

T1-6

Front 91

sympathetic autonomic innervation to the stomach, duodenum, liver, gall bladder, pancreas, spleen, is from what nerves?

Back 91

T5-9

Front 92

sympathetic autonomic innervation to the small intestines, kidney, ureters, gonads, right colon, is from what nerves?

Back 92

T10-11

Front 93

sympathetic autonomic innervation to the left colon and pelvic organs, (bladder and prostate), is from what nerves?

Back 93

T12-L2

Front 94

In what nerve roots would cutting, touch, or cold pain from the heart be directed to?

Back 94

none. Only metabolic products (via ischemia) stimulating nerve endings in the myocardium could cause pain.

Front 95

The afferent pain fibers of the heart run centrally in the ____ and ____ cervical branches and especially in the ____ cardiac branches of the sympathetic trunk.

Back 95

middle and inferior cervical branches. thoracic cardiac branches.

Front 96

The axons of the afferent heart pain fibers primary sensory neurons enter spinal cord segments T1–T4 or T5, especially on the ___ side.

Back 96

left

Front 97

Visceral pain is transmitted by visceral afferent fibers accompanying ____ fibers and is typically referred to somatic structures or areas such as the upper limb having afferent fibers with cell bodies in the same spinal ganglion, and central processes that enter the spinal cord through the same ____ roots.

Back 97

sympathetic, posterior.

Front 98

The thoracic cavity communicates with the neck and upper limb through what?

Back 98

the superior thoracic aperture also known as the (boney) thoracic inlet

Front 99

What passes through the thoracic inlet?

Back 99

Trachea, esophagus, major vessels and nerves pass through here

Front 100

Lymphatic drainage for the whole body drains into the venous system immediately posterior to what?

Back 100

the medial end of the clavicle and 1st rib

Front 101

Inferiorly, the thoracic cavity communicates with the abdomen through what?

Back 101

the anatomic thoracic outlet, closely associated with the abdominal diaphragm.

Front 102

thoracic inlet boundary posteriorly?

Back 102

T1 vertebrae

Front 103

thoracic inlet boundary laterally?

Back 103

Laterally by medial margins of 1st ribs and costal cartilaces

Front 104

thoracic inlet boundary anteriorly?

Back 104

Anteriorly by superior/posterior border of manubrium

Front 105

what covers the thoracic inlet? From what muscle group is it from?

Back 105

The cervicothoracic (diaphragm) fascia. It is the deep fascia of the scalenus muscle group. Including variably fibrous bands, this fascia inconsistently includes muscle fibers from scalenus minimus. This fascial covering of the superior dome of the lung is also referred to as Sibson’s Fascia (Grey’s Anatomy)

Front 106

What is Sibson's fascia?

Back 106

The cervicothoracic (diaphragm) fascia covering the thoracic inlet. It is the deep fascia of the scalenus muscle group. Including variably fibrous bands, this fascia inconsistently includes muscle fibers from scalenus minimus. This fascial covering of the superior dome of the lung is also referred to as Sibson’s Fascia (Grey’s Anatomy)

Front 107

The ____ fascia covering the thoracic inlet. It is the deep fascia of the scalenus muscle group. Including variably fibrous bands, this fascia inconsistently includes muscle fibers from scalenus minimus. This fascial covering of the superior dome of the lung is also referred to as Sibson’s Fascia (Grey’s Anatomy)

Back 107

cervicothoracic (diaphragm)

Front 108

The thoracic ____ is often referred to the area bounded by the scapulae, 1st ribs and the clavicles.

Back 108

outlet

Front 109

The thoracic outlet is often referred to the area bounded by what structures?

Back 109

the scapulae, 1st ribs and the clavicles.

Front 110

A compression syndrome can act upon the neurovascular bundle as it travels from the ___ ___ to the neck.

Back 110

scalene triangle

Front 111

thoracic outlet syndrome can compress the neurovascular bundle, squeezing the ___ vein and artery and the ____ plexus.

Back 111

subclavian, brachial

Front 112

arch of aorta lies superior to what vert level?

Back 112

T4

Front 113

anterior portion of 2nd rib lies at what vert level?

Back 113

T4

Front 114

bifurcation of trachea lies at what vert level?

Back 114

T4

Front 115

Umbilicus vert level?

Back 115

L3/L4

Front 116

What are 6 soft tissue techniques?

Back 116

1. Inhibition 2. Prone Stretching 3. Rhomboid Stretching 4. Prone Kneading 5. Lateral Recumbent Kneading 6. Supine Kneading

Front 117

what type of technique is Inhibition?

Back 117

Soft Tissue

Front 118

what type of technique is Prone Stretching?

Back 118

Soft Tissue

Front 119

what type of technique is Rhomboid Stretching?

Back 119

Soft Tissue

Front 120

what type of technique is Prone Kneading?

Back 120

Soft Tissue

Front 121

what type of technique is Lateral Recumbent Kneading?

Back 121

Soft Tissue

Front 122

what type of technique is Supine Kneading?

Back 122

Soft Tissue

Front 123

Direct pressure applied to an area of soft tissue change/“tightness” is which technique?

Back 123

Inhibition

Front 124

Force applied in the direction of the muscle fibers is which technique?

Back 124

Stretching

Front 125

Force applied in the direction perpendicular to the muscle fibers s which technique?

Back 125

Kneading

Front 126

Tenderness of supraspinous ligament is a common finding of which type of SD? SB, FB/BB, or rotation?

Back 126

FB/BB - also found is a Separation or approximation of spinous processes

Front 127

a flexed SD is equivalent to a BB ____.

Back 127

BB restriction = F SD = Flexed.

Front 128

In FB SD, the SP of the Flexed vertebrae will approximate (get closer to) the vert above or below it?

Back 128

ABOVE. SP will not approximate with SP on segment below during extension if there is SD.

Front 129

In BB SD, the SP of the Flexed vertebrae will approximate (get closer to) the vert above or below it?

Back 129

BELOW. E SD SP will not separate from the SP of segment below during flexion when there is SD.

Front 130

an extended SD is equivalent to a FB ____.

Back 130

FB restriction = E SD = Extended SD.

Front 131

Sidebending is determined by the direction of ease of motion and named for the side of ____.

Back 131

concavity

Front 132

Rotation is determined by the direction of ease of motion and named by movement of a point on the ___/____ surface of the vertebral body

Back 132

superior/anterior

Front 133

If a posteriorly rotated process moves anteriorly with flexion it is what type of mechanic?

Back 133

Type 2. the diagnosis is FRxSx

Front 134

If a posteriorly rotated process moves anteriorly with extension it is what type of mechanic?

Back 134

Type 2. the diagnosis is ERxSx

Front 135

If rotational component does not change with either maneuver, it is what type of mechanic?

Back 135

Type 1. the diagnosis is NSxRy

Front 136

Still technique steps?

Back 136

Indirect. Pressurize. Move thru Neutral to Direct. Release when there is release.

Front 137

One of the most common thoracic Type I somatic dysfunctions is at ___ .

Back 137

T1. To treat this use the head and neck as if you were performing a treatment on the neck.

Front 138

What is the location for the AT1 tenderpoint(s)?

Back 138

Midline episternal notch

Front 139

What is the location for the AT2 tenderpoint(s)?

Back 139

Midline, junction of manubrium and sternum (angle of Louis)

Front 140

What is the location for the AT3-AT5 tenderpoint(s)?

Back 140

Midline at level of corresponding rib;

Front 141

What is the location for the AT6 tenderpoint(s)?

Back 141

Midline xiphoid–sternal junction

Front 142

What is the location for the AT7 tenderpoint(s)?

Back 142

Midline or inferolateral to tip of xiphoid;

Front 143

What is the location for the AT8 tenderpoint(s)?

Back 143

3 cm below xiphoid at level of T12, midline or lateral

Front 144

What is the location for the AT9 tenderpoint(s)?

Back 144

1–2 cm above umbilicus at level of L2, midline or 2–3 cm lateral

Front 145

What is the location for the AT10 tenderpoint(s)?

Back 145

1–2 cm below umbilicus at level of L4, midline or 2–3 cm lateral

Front 146

What is the location for the AT11 tenderpoint(s)?

Back 146

5–6 cm below umbilicus below level of iliac crests at superior L5 level, midline or 2–3 cm lateral

Front 147

What is the location for the AT12 tenderpoint(s)?

Back 147

Superior, inner surface of iliac crest at mid-axillary line

Front 148

Which tenderpoint is the following location referring to? ( Midline episternal notch ).

Back 148

AT1

Front 149

Which tenderpoint is the following location referring to? ( Midline, junction of manubrium and sternum (angle of Louis) ).

Back 149

AT2

Front 150

Which tenderpoint is the following location referring to? ( Midline at level of corresponding rib;).

Back 150

AT3-AT5

Front 151

Which tenderpoint is the following location referring to? ( Midline xiphoid–sternal junction ).

Back 151

AT6

Front 152

Which tenderpoint is the following location referring to? ( Midline or inferolateral to tip of xiphoid;).

Back 152

AT7

Front 153

Which tenderpoint is the following location referring to? ( 3 cm below xiphoid at level of T12, midline or lateral).

Back 153

AT8

Front 154

Which tenderpoint is the following location referring to? ( 1–2 cm above umbilicus at level of L2, midline or 2–3 cm lateral ).

Back 154

AT9

Front 155

Which tenderpoint is the following location referring to? ( 1–2 cm below umbilicus at level of L4, midline or 2–3 cm lateral).

Back 155

AT10

Front 156

Which tenderpoint is the following location referring to? ( 5–6 cm below umbilicus below level of iliac crests at superior L5 level, midline or 2–3 cm lateral).

Back 156

AT11

Front 157

Which tenderpoint is the following location referring to? ( Superior, inner surface of iliac crest at mid-axillary line ).

Back 157

AT12

Front 158

What is the classic treatment position for AT1 - AT6? Abbreviation?

Back 158

Flexion to dysfunctional level. F

Front 159

What is the classic treatment position for AT7? Abbreviation?

Back 159

Flexion to dysfunctional level, side bending toward and rotation away F St RA

Front 160

What is the classic treatment position for AT8? Abbreviation?

Back 160

Flexion to dysfunctional level, side bending toward and rotation away F St RA

Front 161

What is the classic treatment position for AT9? Abbreviation?

Back 161

Flexion to dysfunctional level, side bending toward and rotation away F St RA

Front 162

What is the classic treatment position for AT10? Abbreviation?

Back 162

Hip flexion 90–135 degrees, slight side bending, rotation toward (type I) or side bending toward, rotation away (type II) F St RT or F St RA

Front 163

What is the classic treatment position for AT11? Abbreviation?

Back 163

Hip flexion 90–135 degrees, slight side bending, rotation toward (type I) or side bending toward, rotation away (type II) F St RT or F St RA

Front 164

What is the classic treatment position for AT12? Abbreviation?

Back 164

Hip flexion 90–135 degrees, slight side bending, rotation toward (type I) or side bending toward, rotation away (type II) F St RT or F St RA

Front 165

How many secondary curves are there?

Back 165

2. the primary curve is a kyphosis. The secondary curves are the lordoses of the cervical and lumbar area.

Front 166

when does the cervical curve develop?

Back 166

child begins to hold its head up

Front 167

when does the lumbar curve develop?

Back 167

child begins to stand and walk

Front 168

What is the normal Ferguson angle?

Back 168

30-40 degrees

Front 169

Sagittal plane orientation of the facets favors which movements?

Back 169

F and E, not so much Rotation and SBing

Front 170

what percent of the population have congenital osseous asymmetry? And which one is most common? (sacralization, lumbarization, spina bifida occulta, facet asym)

Back 170

40% and facet asym

Front 171

what is facet asym?

Back 171

facet is in a different plane

Front 172

where is the most likely place on the vertebral body for a compression fracture and why?

Back 172

Anterior triangle becomes weak link for compression fracture due to lack of bone deposition. (wolfe's law points out bone deposition along line of stress, which this area does not usually have any).

Front 173

what is the batwing deformity?

Back 173

sacralization

Front 174

of the nucleus propulsus, the annulus is embryogically from ____.

Back 174

mesenchyme

Front 175

of the nucleus propulsus, the notocord (soon to be propulsus) is embryogically from ____.

Back 175

ectoderm

Front 176

what does the nucleus propulsus have a high content of?

Back 176

water

Front 177

Decreased disc thickness causes an increased weight load on the ___ joint

Back 177

facet

Front 178

what position applies the greatest load possible to the IV disc?

Back 178

sitting with poor posture

Front 179

which ligament around the spine is broad and limits extension?

Back 179

ant longitudinal ligament

Front 180

which ligament around the spine is narrow and limits flexion?

Back 180

posterior longitudinal ligament

Front 181

superiorly, the ant longitudinal ligament continues on as what?

Back 181

atlanto-Axial ligament, running straight up

Front 182

superiorly, the post longitudinal ligament continues on as what?

Back 182

tectorial membrane, (runs just over the transverse ligament).

Front 183

the iliolumbar ligaments are commonly strained in traumatic injuries. What are their superior attachment points?

Back 183

transverse processes of L4 and L5

Front 184

what is the attachment point of the diaphragm's left crus?

Back 184

L1-L2

Front 185

what is the attachment point of the diaphragm's right crus?

Back 185

L1-L3

Front 186

what is the origin and insertion of Quadratus lumborum?

Back 186

Originates on inf. border of 12th rib and tips of lumbar transverse processes. Inserts on Iliolumbar ligament and iliac crest.

Front 187

what is the origin and insertion of Psoas major?

Back 187

Originates on transverse process of T12-L5. Inserts on lesser trochanter of femur.

Front 188

what is the origin and insertion of Psoas minor?

Back 188

Originates on transverse process of T12-L1. Inserts on Pectineal line.

Front 189

what is the origin and insertion of Latissimus dorsi?

Back 189

Originates on Humerus (intertubecular groove). Inserts on T7-12,Iliac crest, Thoracolumbar fascia.

Front 190

what is the origin and insertion of Gluteus maximus?

Back 190

Originates in Thoracolumbar fascia and on dorsal sacrum. Inserts on Iliotibial band and femur.

Front 191

what is the innervation of Quadratus lumborum?

Back 191

Innervation T12,L1-4 ventral rami

Front 192

what is the innervation of Psoas major?

Back 192

Innervation L1-3(2-4) ventral rami

Front 193

what is the innervation of Psoas minor?

Back 193

Innervation L1 ventral rami

Front 194

what is the innervation of Latissimus dorsi?

Back 194

Innervation: Thoracodorsal nerve (C6-8)

Front 195

what is the innervation of Gluteus maximus?

Back 195

Innervation: Inferior Gluteal nerve (L5,S1-2)

Front 196

what is the function of Quadratus lumborum?

Back 196

Extension and sidebending

Front 197

what is the function of Psoas major?

Back 197

Flexes and internally rotates hip

Front 198

what is the function of Psoas minor?

Back 198

Flexes hip

Front 199

what is the function of Latissimus dorsi?

Back 199

Humerus motion and raises body to arms during climbing

Front 200

what is the function of Gluteus maximus?

Back 200

Extends hip and stabilizes torso

Front 201

what are the dirty half-dozen coined by Phil Greenman for "failed back"?

Back 201

4S's, Type 2, and Psoas muscle imbalance. S's are 1. Shear - Pubic. 2. Shear - Sup inominate (as in pregos). 3. Sacrum ext. 4. Shorty leg

Front 202

in radiology, a "bulging" disc means what?

Back 202

an incomplete disc herniation, (not ruptured).

Front 203

Disc herniations occur most often in which direction and in what part of the spine?

Back 203

Posterio-lateral herniation most common. Why? narrow posterior longitudinal ligament. 98% will be in L4-L5-S1

Front 204

which Nerve Root exits the foramina inferior to the superior pedicle of L4's vertebral body and superior to the intervertebral disc of L5?

Back 204

L4

Front 205

L4-L5 compression will compromise which nerve root?

Back 205

L5. X+1 rule. Nerve root X will have already exited the foramina and will be unaffected

Front 206

What are the 3 things to test for in L4 neuro exam?

Back 206

1. Foot inversion (Tibialis anterior) 2. Patellar reflex 3. Medial aspect of foot sensation

Front 207

What are the 2 things to test for in L5 neuro exam?

Back 207

1. Great toe extension (Extensor Hallicus longus) 2. Dorsum of foot sensation

Front 208

What are the 3 things to test for in S1 neuro exam?

Back 208

1. Foot eversion (Peroneus longus and brevis) 2. Achilles tendon reflex 3. Lateral foot sensation

Front 209

Positive Babinski reflex indicates what?

Back 209

upper motor neuron problems, specifically pyrimidal tract.

Front 210

Positive Babinski reflex indicates a problem in the Upper motor neurons. What are three spots this could have occurred?

Back 210

cortical, subcortical, spinal cord.

Front 211

What is the origin and insertion of Piriformis?

Back 211

Originates on the anterior lateral border of the sacrum. Insertion is on the upper border of the greater trochanter.

Front 212

what is the function of piriformis?

Back 212

Action is external rotation of extended thigh and abduction of flexed thigh

Front 213

what is the only muscle to bridge the anterior SI joint?

Back 213

piriformis

Front 214

What is the innervation to piriformis?

Back 214

Innervation is L4-S3

Front 215

the Left Colon is innervated by?

Back 215

T12 - L2

Front 216

the bladder is innervated by?

Back 216

T12 - L2

Front 217

the prostate is innervated by?

Back 217

T12 - L2

Front 218

the lower extremity is innervated by?

Back 218

T12 - L2

Front 219

Ileus is associated with an increase in parasymps or symps?

Back 219

sympathetics

Front 220

Constipation is associated with an increase in parasymps or symps?

Back 220

sympathetics

Front 221

Abdominal pain is associated with an increase in parasymps or symps?

Back 221

sympathetics

Front 222

Flatulence is associated with an increase in parasymps or symps?

Back 222

sympathetics

Front 223

Distension is associated with an increase in parasymps or symps?

Back 223

sympathetics

Front 224

Colitis is associated with an increase in parasymps or symps?

Back 224

parasympathetics

Front 225

Crohn’s is associated with an increase in parasymps or symps?

Back 225

parasympathetics

Front 226

IBS (both inc.) is associated with an increase in parasymps or symps?

Back 226

parasympathetics

Front 227

Diarrhea is associated with an increase in parasymps or symps?

Back 227

parasympathetics

Front 228

Vomiting is associated with an increase in parasymps or symps?

Back 228

parasympathetics

Front 229

Name the 1. test, 2. procedure, 3. positive sign, and 4. indication.

Back 229

Spurling's Test
E, rotates/SBs it to one side w/ compression.
Positive sign: pain ipsilateral arm (side of symptoms).
Indicates: cervical disc disease/nerve root irritation

Front 230

Name the 1. test, 2. procedure, and 3. indication.

Back 230

1. Adson’s test
2. Neck extended turned toward affected side
3. Compression of brachial plexus & subclavian artery between anterior & middle scalene

Front 231

Name and assessment of this test?

Back 231

Wright's test. Compression of neurovascular bundle between pectoralis minor muscle and thoracic cage

Front 232

Name this test and assessment?

Back 232

Halstead or Military Test. Compression of neurovascular bundle between the clavicle and the first rib

Front 233

Which test would you use for each impingement site for a thoracic outlet syndrome?

Back 233

Front 234

In Straight leg raise test, doc raises leg to what degrees?

Back 234

70 to 90

Front 235

what is a good follow up test to the straight-leg test? What do you do? What does it indicate?

Back 235

Braggard's test. Lower leg and then dorsiflex foot. If negative, but Straight leg test was positive, you might have tight hamstrings.

Front 236

Whats the thomas test?

Back 236

knee to chest, monitor the back of knee for lift. (shortened psoas m.)

Front 237

Hipdrop test screens for the ability of what?

Back 237

the lumbar and lumbothroacic region to sidebend away from the side of the hip drop

Front 238

what is a positive hip drop sign?

Back 238

the plane of the iliac crests drops less than 20 degrees and/or the lumbar and thoracolumbar spine does not side bend with a smooth lateral curve; named to the side being tested

Front 239

Which ribs are true?

Back 239

1 through 7

Front 240

Which ribs are false?

Back 240

8 thru 10

Front 241

what are the attachments points to the anterior chest for the true and false ribs?

Back 241

True Attach directly to the sternum via costochondral cartilage. False Attach via a synchondroses to the costochondral cartilage of rib 7

Front 242

which ribs are floating?

Back 242

11 thru 12

Front 243

what are the typical ribs?

Back 243

three thru 10

Front 244

what are the atypical ribs?

Back 244

1,2,11,12

Front 245

which part of the typical rib articulates with corresponding costotransverse process (one articulation)?

Back 245

Tubercle

Front 246

which part of the typical rib is the costovertebral articulation with corresponding and immediately superior vertebrae via demifacets (two articulations). (Also a strong ligamentous attachment to the annulus of the intervertebral disk )

Back 246

head

Front 247

which part of the typical rib is an area between tubercle and head

Back 247

neck

Front 248

Which rib is broad and flat and articulates via a unifacet, and has no angle? It is the lateral boundary of the thoracic inlet and has multiple types of dysfunction.

Back 248

rib 1

Front 249

which rib is atypical because of large tuberosity on shaft for serratus anterior?

Back 249

Rib 2. Anteriorly it articulates by a strong cartilaginous attachment with the manubriogladiolar junction of the sternum at the Angle of Louis. The second rib articulates by two demifacets with T1 and T2.

Front 250

which ribs are atypical b/c they articulates only with corresponding vertebrae, and have a lack of tubercles?

Back 250

Ribs 11,12

Front 251

Alteration of the Rib ____ profoundly influences' the function of the sternum and frequently contributes to pain syndromes in the upper extremity.

Back 251

rib 2

Front 252

Which ribs are both associated with the muscles of the posterior abdominal wall?

Back 252

ribs 11 and 12

Front 253

The quadratus lumborum muscle attaches to the inferior margin of the rib ____.

Back 253

rib 12

Front 254

The ____ rib is frequently asymmetric in length. Neither attaches to a costal arch.

Back 254

rib 12

Front 255

The costochonral articulations are primarily what type of joint?

Back 255

cartilaginous

Front 256

Ribs 6-9 interchondral articulations are ____ joints and 9-10 is mainly a ____ joint.

Back 256

synovial. fibrous .

Front 257

Rib 1 is a synchondrosis, which is synovial or not?

Back 257

not

Front 258

Ribs 2-7 are synovial joints or not?

Back 258

Synovial articulations

Front 259

which muscle Attaches to ribs 3-5 anterior and the coracoid process of the scapula? (This can be implicated in shoulder SD or various impingement syndromes. )

Back 259

pec minor

Front 260

four muscles of inspiration?

Back 260

scalenes, SCM, diaphragm, intercostals (mainly external)

Front 261

Diaphragm (The primary respirator) attaches to which ribs?

Back 261

Attaches to the lower 6 or seven ribs. Pulls these ribs inferiorly and flattens abdominal contents

Front 262

Pectoralis Major attaches to which ribs?

Back 262

2 thru 6

Front 263

serratus anterior works especially hard on which ribs during inspiration?

Back 263

7 thru 9

Front 264

which muscle is involved in inspiration and Originates on the SP of C7-T3 Inserts Ribs 2-5?

Back 264

Seratus posterior superior

Front 265

With arm above head, activation of this muscle pulls ribs 11 & 12 superiorly and laterally.

Back 265

lat dorsi

Front 266

name the muscles involved in quiet breathing exhalation.

Back 266

none. Elastic recoil of lungs.

Front 267

name the muscles involved in active breathing exhalation.

Back 267

1. Intercostalis int. 2. Rectus abdominis. 3. Obliques, int. & ext. 4. Transversus abdominis

Front 268

which muscle Originates on the SPs of T10-L2, Inserts on ribs 9-12?

Back 268

serratus posterior inferior

Front 269

which muscle Pulls the 12th and 11th ribs inferiorly?

Back 269

quadratus lumborum

Front 270

Diaphragmatic _____ (relaxation/contraction) increases relative negative pressure of thoracic cage and increases relative positive pressure in abdomen. Pressure gradient between the thoracic and abdominal cavities allow lymphatic and venous fluids to flow from the body to the upper thoracic area.

Back 270

contraction

Front 271

Which ribs are involved in Pump-Handle motion?

Back 271

Primarily ribs 1-5

Front 272

Which ribs are involved in Bucket-Handle motion?

Back 272

Primarily ribs 6-10

Front 273

Which ribs are involved in Caliper motion?

Back 273

Primarily ribs 11,12

Front 274

which type of motion is being described? 1. Ribs move laterally and increase transverse diameter with inhalation 2. Motion predominantly in coronal plane 3. Best palpated at mid-axillary line 4. Axis of motion is a costovertebral-costosternal line

Back 274

BUCKET HANDLE

Front 275

which motion is being described?1. Ribs move anterior and superior with inhalation 2. Motion predominantly in sagittal plane 3. Best palpated at mid-clavicular line 4. Axis of motion is costovertebral-costotransverse line

Back 275

PUMP Handle

Front 276

which motion is being described? 1. Ribs externally rotate with inhalation 2. Motion predominantly in transverse plane 3. Best palpated 3-5 cm lateral to transverse processes 4. Axis of motion is vertical line

Back 276

Caliper motion

Front 277

inhalation strain is synonymous with inhalation or exhalation rib dysfunction?

Back 277

inhalation rib dysfunction.

Front 278

There's an inhalation SD at ribs 4-6. which rib is key to treatment?

Back 278

rib 6, last rib

Front 279

theres a gap at ribs 6-7. what are the two possible SD's?

Back 279

Rib 6 has inhalation SD. OR rib 7 has exhalation SD.

Front 280

Scalane muscle check uses what test?

Back 280

Addsons'. Checks same side impingement.

Front 281

Thoracic outlet syndrome has five possible sources. List them. Important.

Back 281

1. Entrapment between the Scalenus anterior and medius. 2. Entrapment between the clavicles and the first rib. 3. Entrapment between tendon of Pectoralis minor and ribs. 4. Cervical ribs. 5. Fascial distortions.

Front 282

Anterior - sternal-xiphoid junction is at which rib?

Back 282

rib 7

Front 283

There's an exhalation SD at ribs 7-9. which rib is key to treatment?

Back 283

rib 7, first rib

Front 284

Ant and Mid scalenes is/are associated with which rib(s)?

Back 284

1

Front 285

post scalene is/are associated with which rib(s)?

Back 285

2

Front 286

pec minor is/are associated with which rib(s)?

Back 286

3 to 5

Front 287

Serratus anterior is/are associated with which rib(s)?

Back 287

6 to 9

Front 288

lat dorsi is/are associated with which rib(s)?

Back 288

10 and 11

Front 289

quadratus lumborum is/are associated with which rib(s)?

Back 289

12

Front 290

Rib 1 is associated with which muscle(s)?

Back 290

Ant and Mid scalenes

Front 291

Rib 2 is associated with which muscle(s)?

Back 291

post scalene

Front 292

Rib 3 to 5 is associated with which muscle(s)?

Back 292

pec minor

Front 293

Rib 6 to 9 is associated with which muscle(s)?

Back 293

Serratus anterior

Front 294

Rib 10 and 11 is associated with which muscle(s)?

Back 294

lat dorsi

Front 295

Rib 12 is associated with which muscle(s)?

Back 295

quadratus lumborum

Front 296

A somatic dysfunction is “an impairment or altered function of related components of the somatic (body framework) system" including what?

Back 296

SAM VLN. Skeletal, Arthroidal, and Myofascial structure and related Vascular, Lymphatic, and Neural elements.

Front 297

muscle spindles measure muscle ___ (tension/length) in ___ (parallel/series).

Back 297

length, parallel

Front 298

Golgi tendons measure muscle ___ (tension/length) in ___ (parallel/series).

Back 298

tension, series

Front 299

Chronic pain will Shift from sensory cortex to regions such as ____ ___ associated with affective-motivational processing

Back 299

cingulate gyrus

Front 300

Chronic pain will Shift from sensory cortex to regions such as cingulate gyrus associated with ___-____ processing

Back 300

affective-motivational

Front 301

3 factors of muscle imbalance are what?

Back 301

shortening, weakness, altered proprioception

Front 302

weakness of a muscle affecting muscle imbalance usually involves what type of muscles?

Back 302

phasic, fast-twitch

Front 303

What’s the differential diagnosis for left upper extremity paresthesia?

Back 303

V.I.N.N.D.I.C.A.T.E.S. Vascular . Inflammatory . Neoplastic . Neurologic . Drugs. Idiopathic. Congenital. Autoimmune. Traumatic . Endocrine/Metabolic. Skeletal/Musculoskeletal.

Front 304

definition of a trigger point?

Back 304

Discrete, focal, hyperirritable spots located in a taut band of skeletal muscle

Front 305

Draw the Anterior Tender Points Chart

Back 305