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161 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
purpose of the venous sinus technique
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increase venous flow
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how to perform a venous sinus technique
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directly spread apart the sutures that overly the occipital, transverse, and sagittal sinuses
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purpose of CV4 bulb decompression
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enhance amplitude of the CRI (cranial rhythmic impulse)
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does bulb decompression encourage the flexion or extension phase of the CRI
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encourages the extension phase
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which cranial technique can be useful for inducing uterine contractions in post-expected date pregnant women
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CV4 bulb decompression
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purpose of the vault hold
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to diagnose/address strains of the SBS (sphenobasilar synchondrosis)
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where do you place your fingers for a vault hold
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index fingers- greater wing of sphenoid
middle fingers- zygomatic arch ring fingers- mastoid process of temporal bone pinky fingers- occiput |
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purpose of the V spread
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separate restricted or impacted sutures
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purpose of the lift technique
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balance/relieve any membranous tension
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physiologic complications of performing cranial techniques
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may alter the HR, BP, respiration, and cause GI disturbances
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absolute contraindications for performing cranial techniques
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intracranial bleeds and skull fractures
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relative contraindications for performing cranial techniques
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brain trauma and epilepsy
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5 things that make up the primary respiratory mechanism (PRM)
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CNS, CSF, dural membranes, cranial bones, sacrum
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do the brain and spinal cord lengthen or shorten during exhalation
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lengthen during exhalation and shorten during inhalation
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what is the normal CRI
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8-12 cycles per minute
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what motions occur during craniosacral flexion
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flexion of the midline bones
sacral base moves posterior (counternutation) decreased AP diameter (wider head) increased tranverse diameter (wider head) external rotation of paired bones sphenoid rotates anteriorly foramen magnum moves superiorly basiocciput moves anterosuperiorly |
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what motions occur during craniosacral extension
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extension of midline bones
sacral base moves anterior (nutation) increased AP diameter (narrower head) decreased transverse diameter (narrower head) basiocciput moves posterioinferiorly internal rotation of paired bones sphenoid rotates posteriorly foramen magnum moves inferiorly |
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craniosacral motion occurs about what sacral axis
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superior transverse axis of the sacrum
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what are the midline bones (5)
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sphenoid, occiput, ethmoid, vomer, sacrum
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how is torsion name
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torsion is named for whichever wing of the sphenoid is more superior
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what type of strain is characterized by the sphenoid and occiput rotating in the opposite directions
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torsion
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what type of strain is characterized by sphenoid and occiput rotating in the same direction
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sidebending/rotation
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MOST common cause of compression strain of the SBS
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trauma to the back of the head
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which type of cranial strain can completely stop cranial rhythmic impulses
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compression strain
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vagal somatic dysfunction can be caused by somatic dysfunction at what vertebral levels
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OA, AA, C2
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condylar compression most commonly affects what cranial nerve
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CN XII
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which cranial nerves are involved with infant suckling
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CN IX, X, XII
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which cranial dysfunction can be considered physiologic if it doesn't interfere with normal cranial motion
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torsion
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what bones come together to form the pterion
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temporal, frontal, parietal, sphenoid
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what bones come together to form the bregma
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frontal and parietal bones
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what bones come together to form lambda
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occipital and parietal bones
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what bones come together to form the asterion
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temporal, parietal, and occipital
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what are the 5 principles of the PRM (primary respiratory mechanism)
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1. inherent motility of the brain and spinal cord
2. fluctuation of CSF 3. mobility of intracranial and intraspinal membranes 4. articular mobility of cranial bones 5. involuntary mobility of sacrum between the ilia |
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inherent motion of the CNS is caused by coordinated contraction of what CNS cells
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oligodendroglia
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pathway of CSF
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choroid plexus -> lateral ventricles -> foramen of monro -> 3rd ventricle -> cerebral aqueduct -> 4th ventricle -> foramen of Luschka and foramen of Magendie -> cisterna magna -> arachnoid granulations
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what makes up the reciprocal tension membrane
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falx cerebri, falx cerebelli, tentorium cerebelli, and spinal dura
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serrate (sawtooth) sutures allow what type of motion
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rocking
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squamous (scale-like) sutures allow what type of motion
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gliding
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harmonic (edge to edge) sutures allow what type of motion
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shearing
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mobility of the sacrum around ilia occurs about a transverse axis through which sacral level
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S2
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postulated hypothesis for the cause of the CRI
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coordinated contractions of glial cells
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2 conditions that increase the rate of CRI
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acute infection and fast metabolism
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3 conditions that decrease the rate of CRI
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slow metabolism, chronic infection, and fatigue
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2 conditions that decrease the amplitude of CRI
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dural tension, SBS compression dysfunction
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Major condition that increases the amplitude of CRI
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increased intracranial preussure
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should the amplitude of the flexion and extension stages be the same
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yes
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what are the rules of craniosacral bone motion
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1. midline bones follow flexion and extension
2. paired bones follow internal/external rotation 3. sacrum follows the occiput 4. temporals follow the occiput 5. facial bones follow the sphenoid |
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what is a "still point" of cranial motion
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a pause between CRI
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what are the paired cranial bones
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frontal, parietal, temporal, maxilla, zygoma, lacrimal, nasal, palatines
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is the mandible a paired bone
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no
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what vertebrae does the dura attach to
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C2, C3, S2
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what vessels travel through the superior orbital fissure
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CN 3,4,V1,6, and the ophthalmic vein
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what nerve traverses the foramen rotundum and ovale
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V2- foramen rotundum
V3- foramen ovale |
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what artery traverses the foramen spinosum
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middle meningeal artery
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what vessels/sinuses traverse the jugular foramen
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CN IX,X,XI, and both the petrosal and sigmoid sinuses
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what nerve traverses the cribiform plate
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CN I
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what vessels traverse the optic canal
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CN II, ophthalmic artery, and central retinal vein
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what nerves traverse the internal acoustic meatus
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CN VII,VIII
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what nerve traverses the hypoglossal canal
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CN XII
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innervation of the anterior cranial dura
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trigeminal (V1)
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innervation of the posterior cranial dura
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C1-C3 and superior cervical ganglion
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innervation to the spinal dura
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recurrent meningeal nerve of Luschka (aka sinuvertebral n.)
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what traverses the foramen magnum
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spinal cord, CN XI, vertebral arteries, and the anterior/posterior spinal arteries
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strabismus is most commonly caused by damage to what cranial nerve
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abducens
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when does the occiput begin to ossify
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3 years old
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symptoms of Bell's palsy (CN VII lesion)
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facial muscle paralysis
loss of taste hyperacusis difficulty closing the eye of the affected side |
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how is a sidebending/rotation cranial dysfunction named
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side of convexity
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lateral strains occur about what 2 parallel axes
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an axis through the sphenoid and an axis through the foramen magnum
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how are lateral strains named
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based on the location of the base of the sphenoid
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how are vertical cranial strains named
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for the direction of sphenoid movement
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reason for frequent occurence of otitis media in children
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anatomical structure of the Eustachian tubes (in children, they are shoter, narrower, and more horizontal)
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are direct or indirect treatments best for children? what about adults?
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direct treatments are best for children
indirect treatments are best for adults |
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when are the sacral bones normally completely fused
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by age 20
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a seated flexion test is used to assess what type of dysfunction
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sacral (sacroiliac dysfunction)
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attachments of sacrotuberous ligament
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ILA to ischial tuberosity
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attachments of the sacrospinous ligament
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sacrum to ischial spine
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what ligament divides the greater and lesser sciatic foramen
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sacrospinous
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usually the first and most common ligament involved with lower back pain
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iliolumbar ligament
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muscles that make up the pelvic diaphragm
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levator ani and coccygeus
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sciatic nerve usually runs through what muscle
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piriformis
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respirations and craniosacral motion occur around what sacral axis
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superior transverse axis
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postural motion occurs around what sacral axis
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middle transverse axis
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innominate rotation occurs around what sacral axis
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inferior transverse axis
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tight quadriceps normally cause what innominate dysfunction
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anterior innominate rotation
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tight hamstrings normally cause what innominate dysfunction
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posterior innominate rotation
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tight rectus abdominus muscles normally cause what innominate dysfunction
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superior pubic shear
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tight adductors normally cause what innominate dysfunction
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inferior pubic shear
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falling on your ass or mis-stepping most commonly causes what innominate dysfunction
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upslipped innominate
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tests used to lateralize innominate dysfunction
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ASIS compression test or standing flexion test
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sidebending of L5 always occur towards or away from the oblique axis of the sacrum?
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SB always occurs towards to the oblique of the sacrum
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rotation of L5 always occurs towards or away from the direction of rotation of the sacrum?
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rotation always occurs away from the direction of rotation of the sacrum
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test to lateralize the side of sacral dysfunction
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seated flexion test
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MOST common sacral dysfunction after giving birth
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bilateral sacral flexion
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during the swing phase of the R LE, the sacrum moves around what axis
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L oblique axis
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forward torsion of the sacrum involves which Fryette principle
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type 1
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backward torsion of the sacrum involves which Fryette principle
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type II
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LOL and ROR are examples of which type of sacral dysfunction
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type I (forward torsion)
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LOR and ROL are examples of which type of sacral dysfunction
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type II (backward torsion)
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seated flexion test positive on the L suggests which dysfunctions
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L sacral extension
LOR L sacral flexion ROR |
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+ seated flexion test on the L
+ sphinx + spring ILA and sacral base on L are shallow |
LOR
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+ seated flexion test on the L
- sphinx - spring ILA and sacral base on L are deep |
ROR
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+ seated flexion test on the R
+ sphinx + spring ILA and sacral base on R are shallow |
ROL
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+ seated flexion test on R
- sphinx - spring ILA and sacral base on R are deep |
LOL
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only sacral dysfunction in which the sphinx and spring tests wont be the same
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bilateral sacral extension
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setup for treatment of ROR
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patient lies lateral recumbent with oblique axis towards the table
flex knees and hips >90 degrees patient hugs table |
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setup for treatment of LOR
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patient lies lateral recumbent with oblique axis towards the table
flex knees and hips <90 degrees patients looks to the sky |
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setup for treatment of R sacral extension
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patient lies prone
doctor places L hand on patient's R sacral base externally rotate R leg patient exhales and holds breath for 3-5 seconds when patient inhales again, physician resists movement |
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setup for treatment of R sacral flexion
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doctor places L hand on patient's R ILA
internally rotate L leg patient inhales and holds breath for 3-5 seconds when patient exhales, physician resists movement |
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what condition can give you a false positive standing flexion test
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tight hamstrings on contralateral side
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abductors of the innominate
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gluteus muscles
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trendelenburg test checks the strength of what muscle
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gluteus medius
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iliac crests are at what vertebral level
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L4
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PSIS is at what vertebral level
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S1
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gold standard test for iliosacral dysfunction
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standing flexion test
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what's the "rule of 3's"
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the spinous processes of T1-T3 are located at the same level as the corresponding vertebrae
the spinous processes of T4-T6 are located one half segment below its corresponding vertebrae the spinous processes of T7-T9 are located one full segment below its corresponding vertebrae T10 follows T7-T9 mechanics T11 follows T4-T6 mechanics T12 follows T1-T3 mechnanics |
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Suprasternal notch is at what vertebral level
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T2
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sternal angle (angle of Louis) is at what vertebral level
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T4
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what rib attaches to the sternal angle
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rib 2
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MAJOR thoracic motion
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rotation
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LEAST thoracic motion
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extension
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which ribs are atypical
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1,2,11,12
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why is the 1st rib atypical
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articulates with only 1 vertebrae and has no rib angle
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why is the 2nd rib atypical
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large tuberosity on the shaft
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why are ribs 11,12 atypical
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articulate only with the corresponding veterbrae and they lack tubercles
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which ribs are true ribs
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ribs 1-7
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which ribs are false ribs
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ribs 8-10
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which ribs are floating
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ribs 11,12
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which ribs have pump-handle motion
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ribs 1-5
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which ribs have bucket-handle motion
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ribs 6-10
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which ribs have caliper motion
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ribs 11,12
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ribs are "held up" in which dysfunction
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inhalation dysfunction
("held down" in exhalation dysfunction) |
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key rib in inhalation dysfunctions
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lowest rib
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key rib in exhalation dysfunctions
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highest rib
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which muscles attach to the 1st rib
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anterior and middle scalenes
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which muscles attach to the 2nd rib
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posterior scalene
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MAJOR muscle of inspiration during quiet breathing
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diaphragm
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MAJOR muscle of expiration during quiet breathing
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no specific muscle- passive motion
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muscles involved with inspiration during exercise
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external intercostals, scalenes, SCM, diaphragm
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muscles involved with exhalation during exercise
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rectus abdominis, internal/external obliques, transversus abdominis, internal intercostals
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vertebral level of the superior angle of the scapula
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T2
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vertebral level of the spine of the scapula
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T3
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vertebral level of the inferior angle of the scapula
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T7
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borders of the thoracic outlet
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clavicle, 1st ribs, scapula
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borders of the anatomical inlet
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manubrium, 1st ribs, T1
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borders of the functional inlet
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manubrium, ribs 1/2, and T1-T4
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what muscle attaches to the large tuberosity of rib 2
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serratus anterior
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bucket handle motion is best palpated where
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mid-axillary line
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pump handle motion is best palpated where
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mid-clavicular line
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bucket handle motion occurs around what axis
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costovertebral-costosternal line
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bucket handle motion occurs in what plane
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coronal
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pump handle motion occurs in what plane
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sagittal
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pump handle motion occurs around what axis
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costovertebral-costotransverse line
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caliper motion occurs in what plane
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transverse plane
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caliper motion occurs around what axis
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vertical axis
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treatment for scoliosis if angle is <20 degrees
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exercise and OMM
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treatment for scoliosis if angle is between 20-40 degrees
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braces and electrical stimulation
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treatment for scoliosis if angle >40 degrees
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surgery
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at what angle of scoliosis is heart/lung function usually compromised
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>60 degrees
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what type of curve is present in the thoracics
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kyphosis
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patient presents with chronic, dull chest pain with radiation to the shoulder; pain gets worse during coughing, sneezing, or deep inhalation; all lab values were within range; OMM treatment did not alleviate the pain; what's the most likely diagnosis?
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costochondritis
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MOST commonly fractured bone in children
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clavicle
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