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718 Cards in this Set

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What are the sequence of events in neuronal development?
neural induction -> neural tube formation -> generation of neurons and glia -> axon growth from neurons -> synapses made with targets -> dendrite growth -> myelination
What is gastrulation?
the process that establishes all three germ layers (ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm) in the embryo, begins with formation of the primitive streak on the surface of the epiblast which has a primitive node on its cephalic end
What is the importance of gastrulation?
it defines the midline, A-P and dorsal ventral axes of all vertebrate embryos
Describe the formation of the 3 germ layers by the invagination of epiblast cells.
occurs when epiblast cells migrate toward the primitive streak, there they detach from the epiblast and slip beneath the primitive pit, once the cells have invaginated, some displace the hypoblast, creating endoderm and others come to lie between the epiblast and form mesoderm, cells remaining in the epiblast form ectoderm, endoderm formed first then mesoderm and ectoderm
Describe the formation of the notochord.
occurs during gastrulation, essential for the development of the nervous system, a cylinder of mesoderm that condenses at the midline of the mesoderm and extends from the mid-anterior to the posterior aspect of the embryo, generated by the primitive pit -> primitive streak, disappears once early development is complete
What is the neuroectoderm?
the ectoderm that lies immediately above the notochord, gives rise to the entire nervous system
What is the neurulation?
formation of the neural plate and neural tube
Describe the steps involved in neuralation.
notochord sends inductive signals to the overlying ectoderm that cause a subset of neuroectodermal cells to differentiate into neural precursor cells, thickens to form neural plate, lateral margins fold inward forming the neural tube (precursor to brain and spinal cord)
Describe the closure of the neural tube.
occurs when the neural folds approach each other in the midline, fusion begins in the cervical region (5th somite) and proceeds cranially and caudally, until closure is complete the cephalic and caudal ends communicatre with the amniotic cavity via cranial and caudal neuropores, cranial closes 2 days before posterior one completing neurulation
When does neural tube closure occur?
early, in the fourth week, day 25 and 27 for anterior and posterior ends respectively
What are neural crest cells?
formed from cells found at the lateral border of the neuroectoderm that dissociate from the neural tube, it undergoes an epithelium to mesenchymal transition as it leaves the neuroectoderm by active migration and displacement to enter the underlying mesoderm
What is the importance of neural crest cells?
are the precursor to melanocytes for skin and hair follicles and sensory ganglia, sympathetic and enteric neurons, Schwann cells and ells of the adrenal medulla
Describe the organizer experiment.
there is transplantation of the upper lip of the blastopore from one amphibian gastrula to another, often led to the induction of a second neural plate, in some instances an entire secondary embryo formed on the flank of the host, the stability of the upper lip of the blastopore to induce the formation of a secondary embryo suggested that this piece of tissue organized development in some fairly general way
What role does BMP-4 have on induction of the neuroectoderm?
inhibition of BMP-4 signaling induces neuroectoderm, important in neural induction and differentiation, including initial specification of the neural plate and subsequent differentiation of the dorsal part of the spinal cord and hindbrain
Describe the inhibition of BMP-4.
BMP-4 is secreted throughout the embryonic disc, in presence of BMP-4 mesoderm is ventralized to contribute to kidneys, blood, and body wall mesoderm, it would continue but BMP4 is blocked, this is why the node (dorsal lip of blastopores) is the organizer, inhibition causes cranial mesoderm to dorsalize into notochord, somites and somitomeres
What factors antagonize BMP-4?
chordin, noggin and follistatin, bind directly to BMPs and prevent their binding to BMP receptors (rescues ectoderm from becoming epidermis
Where is Shh found? noggin?
Shh is found in notochord and floorplate, noggin found from roofplate as well as the floor plate and notochord
Describe the ventral and dorsal signaling in the early CNS development.
signals from sonic hedgehog induce the floor plate, floor plate makes Shh too which induces formation of motoneurons and suppresses Pax genes expression (which is done by BMP4)
Describe the molecular specification of neuronal phenotypes.
there is an integrated network of local signals from the ventral and dorsal spinal cord that specifies sensory relaty neurons, interneurons and motor neurons, interactions between Shh, noggin/Chordin, BMP, RA and FGF leads to either expression or repression of a set of transcprtion factors that distinguish different precursors, these precursors go on to become sensory relay neurons (dorsal), interneurons or motor neurons (ventral)
What is spina bifida?
is a neural tube defect affecting the spinal region, it consists of a splitting of the vertebral arches and may or may not involve underlying enural tissue
What is spina bifida occulta?
a defect in vertebral arches that is covered by skin and usually does not involve underlying neural tissue, occurs in lumbosacral region and is usually marked by a patch of hair overlying the affected region, due to a lack of fusion of vertebral arches, affects about 10% of otherwise normal people, spinal cord is intact
What is spina bifida cystica?
severe neural tube defect, neural tissue and/or meninges protrude thorugh a defect in the vertebral arches and skin to form a cystlike sac, result in neurological deficits, not associated with mental retardation
What is meningocele?
a spina bifida in which only fluid-filled meninges protrude thorugh the defect
What is meningomyelocele?
neural tissue is included in the sac that protrudes through the defect
What is myeloschisis or rachischisis?
a spina bifida with neural folds that do not elevate but remain as a flattened mass of neural tissue, results in exposure of neural tissue that often becomes necrotic, the most severe type of abnormality
Can spina bifida cystica be diagnosed prenatally?
yes, by ultrasound and by determination of alpha-fetoprotein levels in maternal serum and amniotic fluid
What is anencephaly?
neural tube defect in which the cranial neural folds fail to close leading to tissue degernation and little or no formation of higher brain centers, cerebral cortex, is lethal, 70% of defects can be prevented by daily materanal use of folic acid beginning 2 to 3 months prior to conception and continuing throughout pregnancy
What are some important facts about NTDs?
1. is the most common human malformation incidence, of 1-8/1000 live births
2. etiology-failure of closure of the neural tube
3. multifactorial-chromosomal, diabetes, teratogens (such as medications for epilepsy), hyperthermia
4. prenatal diagnosis-alpha-fetoprotein (S-100), ultrasound (anencephaly)
5. prevention-folic acid (72% reduction)
What is the significance of folic acid?
reduces the incidience of NTDs by as much as 70% if 0.4 mg is taken daily beginning 2 months prior to conception
What are some examples of infection agent teratogens that affect neuronal development?
rubella (eye and ear defects), cytomegalovirus (eye defect, microcephaly), toxoplasmosis (hydrocephalus)
What are some examples of physical agents/temperature teratogens that affect neuronal development?
X-rays (spina bifida), hyperthermia (neural tube defects)
What are some examples of drug teratogens that affect neuronal development?
epilepsy medication (neural tube defects), vitamin A overdose (neural tube defects), folic acid antagonists (neural tube defects), alcohol (mental retardation)
What are the different types of malformation that may occur during different time periods of development?
weeks 0-3 usually leads to death of embryo, weeks 3-8 (organ formation) usually lead to malformation of embryo (heart defect), weeks 8-38 (growth and maturation of organ systems) may lead to functional disturbances of fetus (mental retardation)
When is the risk of a congenital anomoaly greatest?
during weeks 3-8, at about week 5 is at a max, then DEC with an INC in age
What are the physical representations of fetal alcohol syndrome?
thin upper lip, short palpebral fissures, flat nasal bridge, short nose, elongated philtrum, includes structural defects, growth deficiency and mental retardation
Describe the development of the eye.
placode and neural tube form the eye, optic vesicles from outpocketings of the forebrain, these vesicles come in contact with the ectoderm and induce changes for lens formation, optic vesicle then forms optic cup, then invaginats forming choroid fissure (where hyaloids artery enters the eye), lips of the choroid fissure fuse and eventually forms pupil, cells of surface ectoderm forms lens placode
What is the significance of the lens placode?
it invaginates and develops into the lens vesicle, which eventually forms the lens
What is the significance of the optic cup?
forms all the layers of the retina as well as the RPE and parts of the iris and ciliary body, muscles of the iris and ciliary body are formed by mesenchyme that invades the optic cup, this mesenchyme also forms the sclera and choroid
Where does the cornea come from?
cornea comes from surface ectoderm and the underlying mesenchyme, not the lens placode and optic cup, comes from a layer of surface ectoderm, the stroma and an epithelial layer bordering the anterior chamber
What is coloboma iridis?
defect in the eye due to a persistent choroid fissure (incomplete closure), usually restricted to the iris
Describe the development of the ear.
comes from the otic placode/otic vesicle
What does the otic placode do?
forms the membranous labyrinth and sensory neurons of CN VIII (inner ear), very slow development, otic vesicle detaches from surface ectoderm, divides into a ventral component (saccule and cochlear duct) and dorsal (utricle, semicircular canals and endolympahtic duct)
Where does the middle ear cavity and ossicles come from?
endoderm, cavity comes from the adjacent 1st pharyngeal pouch lined by endoderm, middle ear ossicles come from the mesenchyme of the 1st and 2nd arches which invade between the pouch and cleft
Where does the external auditory canal come from?
comes from the adjacent 1st pharyngeal cleft between the 1st (M and I) and 2nd (S) pharyngeal arches
Where does the auricle come from?
develops from auricular hillocks which are blocks of mesenchyme from the 1st and 2nd arches, defects in the auricle are often associated with other congenital malformations
What are some examples of physical agents/temperature teratogens that affect neuronal development?
X-rays (spina bifida), hyperthermia (neural tube defects)
What are some examples of drug teratogens that affect neuronal development?
epilepsy medication (neural tube defects), vitamin A overdose (neural tube defects), folic acid antagonists (neural tube defects), alcohol (mental retardation)
What are the different types of malformation that may occur during different time periods of development?
weeks 0-3 usually leads to death of embryo, weeks 3-8 (organ formation) usually lead to malformation of embryo (heart defect), weeks 8-38 (growth and maturation of organ systems) may lead to functional disturbances of fetus (mental retardation)
When is the risk of a congenital anomoaly greatest?
during weeks 3-8, at about week 5 is at a max, then DEC with an INC in age
What are the physical representations of fetal alcohol syndrome?
thin upper lip, short palpebral fissures, flat nasal bridge, short nose, elongated philtrum, includes structural defects, growth deficiency and mental retardation
Describe the development of the eye.
placode and neural tube form the eye, optic vesicles from outpocketings of the forebrain, these vesicles come in contact with the ectoderm and induce changes for lens formation, optic vesicle then forms optic cup, then invaginats forming choroid fissure (where hyaloids artery enters the eye), lips of the choroid fissure fuse and eventually forms pupil, cells of surface ectoderm forms lens placode
What is the significance of the lens placode?
it invaginates and develops into the lens vesicle, which eventually forms the lens
What is the significance of the optic cup?
forms all the layers of the retina as well as the RPE and parts of the iris and ciliary body, muscles of the iris and ciliary body are formed by mesenchyme that invades the optic cup, this mesenchyme also forms the sclera and choroid
Where does the cornea come from?
cornea comes from surface ectoderm and the underlying mesenchyme, not the lens placode and optic cup, comes from a layer of surface ectoderm, the stroma and an epithelial layer bordering the anterior chamber
What is coloboma iridis?
defect in the eye due to a persistent choroid fissure (incomplete closure), usually restricted to the iris
Describe the development of the ear.
comes from the otic placode/otic vesicle
What does the otic placode do?
forms the membranous labyrinth and sensory neurons of CN VIII (inner ear), very slow development, otic vesicle detaches from surface ectoderm, divides into a ventral component (saccule and cochlear duct) and dorsal (utricle, semicircular canals and endolympahtic duct)
Where does the middle ear cavity and ossicles come from?
endoderm, cavity comes from the adjacent 1st pharyngeal pouch lined by endoderm, middle ear ossicles come from the mesenchyme of the 1st and 2nd arches which invade between the pouch and cleft
Where does the external auditory canal come from?
comes from the adjacent 1st pharyngeal cleft between the 1st (M and I) and 2nd (S) pharyngeal arches
Where does the auricle come from?
develops from auricular hillocks which are blocks of mesenchyme from the 1st and 2nd arches, defects in the auricle are often associated with other congenital malformations
Where does the eardrum come from?
ectodermal epithelial lining at the bottom of the auditory meatus, endodermal epithelial lining of the tympanic cavity and an intermediate layer of CT that forms the fibrous stratum
What do Hox genes do?
regulate segmentation of the neuraxis, are important for patterning the embryonic axis, establishing different regions of the brain, determining the origin and type of gut derivatives, patterning the limbs and other similar phenomena, expressed in the notochord, prechordal plate and neural plate, segragates the brain into forebrain, midbrain and hindbrain regions, also guides differentiation of the embryo into distinct segments that give rise to the head, thorax and abdomen
Describe the development of the brain ventricles.
early in gestation the neural tube becomes subdivided into the presencephalon (anterior end of embryo), mesencephalon and rhombencephalon, spinal cord differentiates from the more posterior region of the neural tube, bending leads to can shape, further development distinguishes the telencephalon and diencephalon from the prosencephalon, the metencephalon and myelencephalon derive from the rhombencephalon, these subdivisions give rise to the rudiments of the major functional subdivisions of the brain while the spaces they enclose eventually form the ventricles of the mature brain
What are the different flexures of the neural tube?
the crook found at the anterior end of the tube, two types:
1. cephalic flexure-balloons out to form the prosencephalon giving rise to the forebrain, midbrain (mesencephalon) forms as a bulge above the cephalic flexure
2. cervical flexure-more caudal, forms the bindbrain (rhombencephalon), caudal to this flexure is the precursor of the spinal cord
What is hydrocephalus?
is incomplete closure of the cranial sutures, CSF accumulates and pressure from this accumulation enlarges the head, thinning the bones of the skull and cerebral cortex, usually due to a block in the circulatory pattern of the fluid, which occurs in the cerebral aqueduct of Sylvius
Describe the development of the pituitary gland.
develops from neural tube as a downward extension of the diencephalon (infundibulum) (gives rise to the posterior lobe composed of neurological cells and fibers from hypothalamus) and an ectodermal outpocketing of the stomodeum immediately in front of the buccopharyngeal membrane known as Rathke’s pouch (forms the anterior lobe)
Describe the development of the spinal cord.
neuroepithelial cells give rise to neuroblasts, neuroblasts form the mantle layer which forms the gray matter and extend their fibers to make the marginal layer which forms the white matter, neuroblasts are continually added to the mantle layer and form the basal (motor), alar (sensory) and floor (passageway for fibers to reach the other side) plates
Describe positional changes of the cord.
at 3 months, spinal cord extends the entire length of the embryo and spinal nerves pass through the intervertebral foramina at their level of origin, with INCing age vertebral column and dura lengthen more rapidly than the neural tube and the terminal end shifts to a higher level, as a result spinal nerves run obliquely from their segment of origin in the spinal cord to the corresponding level of the vertebral column
What are the different sources of neurons/glia?
neural tube (ventricular zone), placodes, neural crest, stem cells
What is the ventricular zone?
the precursor cells of neurons are found here, innermost cell layer surrounding the lumen of the neural tube, region of extraordinary mitotic activity
Describe neurogenesis in the ventricular zone.
the entire neuronal complement of the adult brain is produced during a time window that closes before birth, the precursor cells here undergo a stereotyped pattern of cell movements as they progress through the mitotic cyctle, leading to the formation of either new stem cells or postmitotic neuroblasts that differentiate into neurons
What is the difference between new stem cells and neuroblast generation?
new stem cells arise from symmetrical divisions of neuroectodermal cells, neuroblasts are generated from cells that divide asymmetrically
Describe the migration of the neural crest.
can go to somites, notochord or dorsal aorta, crest cells from the trunk region leave the nural folds and migrate via a dorsal pathway through the dermis where they enter the ectoderm for melanocytes and a ventral pathway through the anterior half of each somite to become sensory ganglia, also migrate from cranial neural folds contributing to the craniofacial skeleton
What structures do the neural crest cells go to and what type of cells do they become there?
DRG (unipolar neuron), pigment cells, sympathetic ganglion (multipolar neuron), developing adrenal gland (chromaffin cells), prevertebral plexus and plexus in the gut wall (parasympathetic (submucosal) plexus in gut)
Where are the different types of mesenchyme found and what do they give rise to in head/face development?
mesodermal mesenchyme is found in the myelencephalon and mesencephalon while neural crest mesenchyme is found in the pharyngeal branches, optic vesicle and diencephalon, mesodermal mesenchyme gives rise to the face while neural crest mesenchyme gives rise to the face skull
What contribution does the neural crest have on cranio-facial development?
pharyngeal branches give the head and neck their typical appearance in the 4th week, patterning of the skeletal elements of the pharyngeal arches is regulated by gene expression in pharyngeal pouch endoderm
What are the different types of trunk crest and what cranial crest do they give rise to?
1. spinal ganglia-cranial ganglia (V, VII, IX, X)
2. sympathetic ganglia-parasympathetic ganglia
3. glial cells of peripheral nerves-glial cells of peripheral nerves leptomeninges
4. melanocytes-melanocytes
5. adrenal medulla-carotid body, thyroid, skeleton (cranial bone and cartilage), CT (dermis, odontoblasts), muscle (ciliary, vascular)
What is an embryonic stem cell?
self-renewing, can give rise to all tissue and cell types (including germ cells)
What is somatic stem cell?
self-renewing, can give rise to full range of diploid, tissue-specific cell classes
What is neural stem cell?
self-renewing, can give rise to any diploid cell type in the CNS or PNS
What is neural progenitor cell?
no self-renewal, can give rise to only one class of neurons
Describe the lineage concerning the generation of neurons and glia.
1. neural tube -> neuroepithelium and mesenchyme
2. mesenchyme -> microglia cells
3. neuroepithelium -> apolar neuroblast, glioblast (spongioblast) and ependyma and epithelium of choroid plexus
4. apolar neuroblast -> bipolar neuroblast -> unipolar neuroblast -> multipolar neuroblast
5. glioblast -> astroblast (-> protoplasmic astrocytes and fibrous astrocytes) and oligodendroblast (-> oligodendrocytes)
What cells perform myelination?
Schwann cells in the PNS and oligodendrocytes in the CNS
What determines cell diversity: lineage or environment?
two different hypotheses:
1. cells acquire diverse fates while still at the precursor stage, relying primarily on information intrinsic to each cell, subsequent divisions result in the proliferation of these cells which differentiate according to their lineage
2. cells are descended from a pleuripotential precursor, diversity being generated among daughter cells by specific signals from other cells, experimental evidence in vertebrates favors this model
Describe the role of different signaling molecules in turning neural crest progenitors into different phenotypes.
cell signaling during migration of neural crest cells influences progenitor identity and termainl differentiation, each signal is available along a specfici migratory route taken by subsets of enural crest cells
What are the different cell signals that can affect neural crest progenitors and what effect do they have?
1. leukocyte inducing factor-turns neural crest progenitor into sensory neuron
2. FGF2-turns neural crest progenitor into sympathetic progenitor which can then be affected by NGF (to becomre adrenergic neurons) or ciliary neurotrophic factor (cholinergic neurons)
3. stem cell factor-turns progenitor into melanocyte
4. glucocorticoids-turns progenitor into chromaffin cell progenitor which becomes chromaffin cells
What are radial glia?
long processes that guides neuron migration, affect many neorblasts that migrate long distances within the CNS including those in the cerebral cortex, cerebellum and hippocampus, also thought to be neuronal progenitor cells in the developing CNS
Describe the course of the radial glia.
found in forebrain and radiates from the ventricle to the pial surface, there are also non-radially migrating cells that run perpendicular to the glial processes
What are some examples of neurons that migrate?
neural crest, mesencephalic nucleus of the trigeminal nerve, olfactory placode/hypothalamus (GnRH-neurons), oculomotor neurons (exchange across the midline)
What are growth cones?
a specialized structure at the tip of the extending axon, highly motile, explore the extracellular environment determining the direction of growth and then guiding the extension of the axon in that direction, have filopodia that extend from lamellipodium
Why are growth cones important?
activity is key for the construction of pathways and circuits in the developing brain, once a cone reaches and recognizes an appropriate target it is gradually transformed into either a presynaptic ending for an axon or the terminal domain of a dendrite
What role do the filapodia on growth cones play?
filopodia rapidly form and disappear from the terminal expansion like fingers reaching out to sense the environment
What role do the cytoskeletal elements in growth cones play?
growth cone motility reflects rapid, controlled rearrangement of cytoskeletal elements, these elements include actin (which regulates changes in lamellipodial and filopodial shape for directed growth) as well as the microtubules (responsible for the elongation of the axon itself)
What happens during attractive and repulsive cues in the growth cone?
G-actin is incorporated into F-actin at the leading edge of the filopodium in response to attractive cues, repulsive cues support disassembly and retrograde flow of G-actin toward the lamellipodium
What role do the microtubules play in the growth cone?
organized microtubules make up the cytoskeletal core of the axon, more broadly dispersed microtubule subunits are found at the transition between the axon shaft and the lamellipodium
What regulates the assembly and disassembly of subunits to filaments or tubules?
actine and tubulin-binding proteins, this process is influenced by changes in intracellular Ca2+ via voltage regulated Ca2+ channels as well as transient receptor (TRP) channels
What happens to growth cone morphology during crucial decision points?
growth cones change their morphology at crucial decision points (moments when cones encounter a potential target and extend numerous filopodia), suggest an active search for appropriate cues to direct subsequent growth
What are some non-diffusible signals for axon guidance?
1. on cell surface-cell adhesion molecules (CAMs), include neuronal, glial and cadherins
2. on extracellular matrix-laminin, collagen, fibronectin, there receptors are integrins
What are some diffusible signals for axon guidance?
netrins (commissures), ephrins (retinotectal map), and semaphorins (chemorepellent, can also be anchored to cell surfaces)
What are the different types of adhesion molecules?
laminin (found in the ECM with fibronectin and collagen), fibronectin, integrin, and CAMs
What do the ECM cell adhesion molecules do?
are secreted by the cell itself or by its neighbors, after secretion form polymers and create a more durable local EC substance
What do integrins do?
bind specifically to ECM cell adhesion molecules, do not have kinase activity, binding to ECM cell adhesion molecules triggers a cascade of events that generally stimulates axon growth and elongation
What do the CAMs do?
present on growing axons and growth cones as well as surrounding cells or targets, function as ligands and receptors, used in bundling of groups of axons as they grow, important determinants of final target selection in the transition from gworing axon to synapse
Describe the ability of growth cones to respond to multiple cues.
they can, react with chemoattractants and chemorepellants, chemoattractants can operate from a distance and reorient growth toward the source of the cue often by acting on a pioneer growth cone that sets out a course distinct form the fasiculated followers, chemoreulsive signals can also act from a distance, act at regions where axons must defasiculate from a nascent nerve in order to change their trajectory or avoid an inappropriate target
What do trophic signals do?
they support the furterh growth and differentiation of the axon and its parent nerve cell
What are netrins?
chemoattractant, they attract some axons, product of a gene that influenced axon growth and guidance, has no known enzymatic activity and thus must interact with the other proteins with catalytic activity
Describe netrin/slit commissural guidance.
netrin chemotropically regulate pathway formation in the developing spinal cord, commissural neurons send axons to the ventral region of the spinal cord including the floor plate, netricn and slit oppose each other at the ventral midline of the spinal cord, ensures that the axons relaying pain and temperature via the anterolateral pathway cross the midline at appropriate levels of the spinal cord and remain on the contralateral side until they reach their targets in the thalamus
What are stripe assays?
show the differences between anterior and posterior tectum, temporal retinal axons when presented with a choice of cell membranes derived from anterior or posterior tectal regions as a substrate, grow exclusively on anterior membranes, avoiding membranes derived from the wrong region of the tectum, the positive interactions are probably due to INC adhesion of the growth cones to the substrate whereas the failure to grow into inappropriate regions may result form repulsive interactions that tend to collapse the growth cones, temporal axons prefer to grown on anterior membranes, nasal retinal aoxons grow equally well on both stripes
How do ephrins establish gradients fro retinotopic maps?
posterior retinal axons project to the anterior tectum and anterior retinal axons to the posterior tectum, when the optic nerve of a frog is surgically interrupted the axons regenerate with the appropriate specificity
What do complementary gradients of Eph receptors and ephrins lead to?
lead to differential affinities and topographic mapping, retinal growth cones with a high concentration of Eph receptors would be more likely to recognize a lower concentration of ligand whereas a growth cone with low Eph receptor concentration would recognize a higher concentration of ligand
What is the neurotrophic hypothesis?
the idea that developing neurons compete for a limited supply of trophic factors secreted by their targets, those that receive factors survive those that don’t die
What happens during manipulation of targets?
it changes neuronal survival, target-derived trophic support regulates survival of related neurons, spinal cord generates an excess of neurons prior to differentiation and innervation of the limb, surgery to remove limb depletes the pool of motor neurons that would have innervated the missing extremity, adding an extra limb rescues early-generated neurons that normally would have died leading to an abnormally large number of limb motor neurons on the side related to the extra limb (these are recruited from the pool of cells overproduced rather than generated de novo
Describe the neurotrophin receptors.
there are TrkA, B and C receptors (which are specific for neurotrophins) and p75 receptors (these bind all types of neurotrophins), for the tyrosine kinases (Trk) there is some degree of cross-activation under certain conditions, are high affinity, p75 is low affinity, confers the ability to respond to a broad range of neurotrophins
What are the different families of trophic factors?
neurotrophins (NGF-like factors), GDNF-like trophic factors, FGF (fibroblast growth factors) and IGFs (insulin-like growth factors)0
What are some sources of trophic factors?
PNS and CNS, can be anterograde or retrograde
What type of trophic factors do distinct DRG neurons react with?
functionally distinct DRG neurons depend on different trophic factors, neurotrophins have distinct effects on different target neurons, distinct classes of peripheral somatosensory receptors and the DRG cells that give rise to these sensory ending depend on different trophic factors in specific target tissues
What are different DRG neurons that react with different trophic factors?
1. hair follicle-NT4/5
2. merkel disk-BDNF
3. free nerve ending-NGF
4. muscle spindle-NT3
Describe the elimation of polyneural innervation.
the number and pattern of synapses is adjusted during the first few weeks of postnatal life in the mammalian peripheral nervous system, in muscles and in peripheral ganglia each axon innervates a large number of target cells at birth than in maturity, rudimentary multiple innervation eliminated after birth, but complexity and size of arborization INC (get more and more terminal branches and synaptic endings
What is the importance of the elimination of polyneural innervation
leads to removal of immature contacts from all but one of a few axons of each target and the focus on fewer target cells by a progressively INCing amount of synaptic machinery for each axon that remains
What are neurites?
used to describe neuronal branches when it is not known whether they are axons or dendrites
What is the effect of the neurotrophin NGF on the outgrowth of neurites and survival of neurons?
in the absence of NGF there are few if any neuronal branches that grow out into the medium, adding NGF stimulates a halo of neurite outgrowth from the ganglion cells, NGF influences the survival of newborn rat sympathetic ganglion cells, these cells depend on NGF
What is the effect of NGF on PC12 cells?
when NGF is added to a medium of PC12 cells, leads to differentiation of PC12 cells, leads to formation of long thread like fibers
What is the importance of signaling cascades?
give the signal for survival (Trk receptor) or apoptosis (P75NTR receptor) for cells, Trk is via PLC-gamma and Ras cascade which leads to activation of CREB, p75 acts via TRAF5 and NRIF to activate NF-kappaB, BAD and caspase (leading to DNA cleavage)
What signaling cascades does the Trk receptor activate?
1. PI-3 kinase which activates PKB and Akt kinase which leads to cell survival
2. ras-activates kinases and MAP kinases which leads to neurite outgrowth and neuronal differentiation
3. PLC-leads to activation of IP3 (-> Ca2+ release) and DAG (-> PKC) which leads to activity-dependent plasticity
What signaling cascades does the p75 receptor activate?
1. SC1-cell cycle arrest
2. NADE-cell death
3. RhoA-neurite growth
How does experience/environment influence formation of neural circuits?
example: visual system development, ocular dominance columns, binocular vision, importance in other sensory and motor development
Describe transneuronal transport.
a neuron in the retina is shown taking up a radioactive amino acid (usually proline), incorporating it into proteins and moving the proteins down the axons and across the extracellular space between neurons (via anterograde axonal transport), this process is repeated in the thalamus and eventually label accumulates in the thalamocortical terminals in layer 4 of the primary visual cortex
What are ocular dominance columns?
an alternating series of eye-specific domains in cortical layer 4 from afferent terminals, can be visualized by injecting tracers such as radioactive amino acids into one eye and following their path
Describe the course of the labeled amino acids.
the labeled amino acids travel through the optic tract, cross the lateral geniculate nucleus and through the optic radiation, terminates in layer 4 of the primary visual cortex, found in ipsilateral but not in contralateral retinal ganglion cells axons
What role does transynaptic transport have on which regions are labelled
due to the transynaptic transport of the label, geniculocortical terminals related to the injected eye are visible as a pattern of bright stripes, the dark areas are the zones occupied by geniculocortical terminals related to the other eye
Describe the development of ocular dominance columns.
during early development, axons cross over multiple layers, as development continues, each of these axons become specialized to a specific layer and branch more and more until a point is reached (at 13 weeks) when each layer has only one axon innervating it
What happens during the critical period when there is light deprivation?
it reduces layer IV input, terminal arborizations of lateral geniculate nucleus axons in the visual cortex can change rapidly in response to monocular deprivation during the critical period, after only a week of monocular deprivation axons terminating in layer 4 of the primary visual cortex from LGN neurons driven by depreived eye have greatly reduced numbers of branches compared with those form the open eye, deprivation for longer periods does not result in appreciably larger changes in the arborization of geniculate axons
Describe the test involved in looking at the effect of age of eyelid closure on the distribution of cortical neurons driven by stimulation of both eyes?
histogram plots the number of cells that fall into one of the seven ocular dominance categories, defined based on the freq. of AP activity elicited from visual cortical neurons following illumination in the relevant eye, light is shined into both wide-open eyes to elicit responses in the visual cortex
What happens in normal adults?
cells in group 1 were activated exclusicely by the contralateral eye, cells in group 7 by ipsilateral eye, there were no cells that were not responsive to light stimulation in the retina
What happens in monocular deprivation in kitten?
one eye of a newborn kitten was closed from 1 week to 2.5 months, then allowed to mature, deprivation was relatively short, light presented to the open but transiently deprived eye elicited no electrical responses in visual cortical neurons, the only visually responsive cells responded to the ipsilateral eye
What happens in monocular deprivation in an adult?
a much longer period of monocular deprivation in an adult cat showed little effect on ocular dominance, although overall cortical activity is diminished, most of the responsive cells were driven by both eyes, in addition some cells are uniquely or mostly responsive to the deprived eye
What does the experiment for monocular deprivation for 3 vs. 6 days show?
shows the consequences of a short period of monocular deprivation at the height of the critical period in the cat, just 3 days of deprivation produced a significant shift of cortical activation in favor of non-deprived eye, six days of deprivation produced a shift of cortical activation in favor of the non-deprived eye that is almost as complete as that elicited by 2.5 months of deprivation
What is the effect of strabismus induced during the critical period on ocular dominance?
the number of binocularly driven cells (groups 3, 4, 5) is sharply DEC as a consequence of strabismus, most of the cells are driven exclusively by stimulation of one eye or the other, this enhanced segregation of the inputs presumably results from the greater discrepancy in the patterns of activity between the two eyes as a result of surgically interfereing with normal conjugate vision, this pathological state is thought to enhance the relative degree of correlation within inputs from each eye, and DEC the possibility of correlation between eye inputs
What is Hebb’s postulate?
hypothesis that states that the coordinated activity of a presynaptic terminal and a postsynaptic neuron strengthens the synaptic connection between them, originally formulated to explain the cellular basis of learning and memory, it implies that synaptic terminals strengthened by correlated activity will be retained or sprout new branches, whereas those terminals that are persistently weakened by uncorrelated activity will eventually los their hold on the postsynaptic cell
Describe how Hebb’s postulate is represented as it might operate during development of the visual system.
the cell represents a postsynaptic neuron in layer 4 of the primary visual cortex, early in development, inputs from the two eyes converge on single postsynaptic cells, the two sets of presynaptic inputs have different patterns of electrical activity, each pattern is more correlated with terminals driven by the same eye than that driven by the opposite eye
In this example, how do the right and left eye inputs differ?
the three left eye inputs are better able to activate the postsynaptic cell, these inputs cause the postsynaptic cell to fire a pattern of Ap that follows the pattern seen in the input, as a result, the activity of the presynaptic terminals and the postsynaptic neuron is highly correlated, according to Hebb’s postulate these synapses are therefore strengthened, the inputs from the right eye carry a different pattern of activity that is less well correlated with the majority of the activity elicited in the postsynaptic cell, these synapses gradually weaken and are eventually eliminated while the correlated inputs form additional synapses
What is imprinting?
a rapid and permanent form of learing that occurs in reponse to early experience
What did Konrad Lorenz do in imprinting experiments?
showed that goslings follow the first large, moving object they see and hear during their first day of life, they can imprint on a wide range of animate and inanimate objects, in many mammals auditory and visual systems are poorly developed at birth and maternal imprinting relies on olfactory and/or gustatory cues, experiments shows that many complicated behaviors, emotional responses and other predilections are well established in the nervous system prior to any significant experience and that the need for certain kinds of early experience for normal development is predetermined
What is the critical period?
temporal windows where environmental factors are especially influential in early life, allows for the individual to adapt to and are influenced by the particular circumstances of an individual’s environment, specific stimuli only work during the critical period and will not work outside of it, some last long, others are short, a given behavior requires a specific environmental influence in order to develop normally
What human behaviors fall to critical periods?
language, vision, auditory, somatic sensory and olfactory systems
Is the brain hard-wired?
the mature brain is not entirely hard-wired, some forms of neuronal plasticity extend into adulthood including short and long term synaptic plasticity
What is short term plasticity?
synaptic connectivity between neurons is a dynamic entity that is constantly changing in response to neural activity and other influences, most short term affect the amount of neurotransmitter released from presynaptic termainls in response to a presynaptic AP, usually enhance it and are caused by persistent actions of Ca2+ ions within the presynaptic terminal
What are the different types of short term plasticity?
facilitation, augmentation and potentiation, also synaptic depression
What happens when a train of stimuli is applied to a presynaptic motor nerve?
it produces changes in EPP amplitude causing it to DEC, once stimulus is removed and given some time to rest, EPP returns to normal with a single stimulus
What are the steps of dynamic changes in transmitter release caused by the interplay of severl forms of short term plasticity?
facilitation (INC release) and augmentation (DEC release back to normal levels) of the EPP occurs at the beginning of the stimulus train and are followed by a pronounced depression of the EPP, potentiation (INC from the <1 area) beings late in the stimulus train and persists for many seconds after the end of the stimulus, leading to post-tetanic potentiation
What is synaptic facilitation?
a rapid INC in synaptic strength that occurs when two or more APs invade the presynaptic terminal within a few milliseconds of each other, a result of prolonged elevation of presynaptic Ca2+ levels following synaptic activity
What is synaptic depression?
opposes facilitation, causes neurotransmitter release to decline during sustained synaptic activity, depression depends on the amount of neurotransmitter that has been released, lowering external Ca2+ conc. causes the rate of depression to be slowed, amount of depression is proportional to the amount of transmitter released from the presynaptic terminal
What elicits potentiation and augmentation?
elicited by repeated synaptic activity and serve to INC the amount of transmitter released from presynaptic terminals, both enhance the ability of incoming Ca2+ to trigger fusion of synaptic vesicles with the plasma membrane but they work over different time scales (few seconds for augmentation while augmentation outlasts the tetanus)
What is habituation?
a DEC in the response to a benign stimulus when that stimulus is presented repeatedly, reduced mobilization of transmitter vesicles to the active zone
What is sensitization?
an enhanced response to a wide variety of stimuli after the presentation of an intense or noxious stimulus
What is short-term presynaptic facilitation of synaptic transmission?
signal transduction cascade involving neurotransmitters, second messengers and ion channels
What is long-term presynaptic facilitation of synaptic transmission?
changes in gene expression, protein synthesis (PKA and MAPK translocate to nucleus, PKA phosphorylates CREB, activation of transcription), INC in number of synapses
What is sensitization?
allows an animal to generalize an aversive response elicited by a noxious stimulus to a variety of other, non-noxious stimuli
Describe sensitization in the snail, Aplysia.
sensitization of gill withdrawal is elicited by pairing a strong electrical stimulus to the animal’s tail with another light touch of the siphon, this stimulus elicits a strong withdrawal of the gill bec the noxious stimulus sensitizes the gill withdrawal reflex to light touch, remains enhanced for an hour but if repeatedly done can enhance for weeks
Describe the mechanism involved in sensitization in the snail Aplysia.
touching the siphon skin activates sensory neurons that excite interneurons and gill motor neurons, a shock to the animal’s tail sitmulates modulatory interneurons that alter synaptic transmission between siphon sensory neurons and gill motor neurons resulting in sensitization
Describe the presynaptic mechanism of sensitization.
1. serotonin is released by facilitatory interneurons and binds to G-protein-coupled receptors on presynaptic terminals of siphon sensory neurons
2. INC production of cAMP
3. cAMP binds to PKA
4. PKA phosphorylates several proteins probably including K+ channels
5. this reduces the probability that the K+ channels open during a presynaptic AP, this prolongs the presynaptic AP thereby opening more presynaptic Ca2+ channels
6. enhanced influx of Ca2+ into the presynaptic terminals INC transmitter release onto motor neurons during a sensory AP
Describe how the hippocampus can act as a model for plasticity.
identified as having long term synaptic plasticity, either undergoeing long-term potentiation or long-term depression, studied at the excitatory synapses here, important in memory formation and retrieval, shown to be activated during certain kinds of memory tasks and that damage here results in an inability to form certain types of new memories
What is long-term potentiation (LTP)?
long-lasting INC in synaptic strength
What is long-term depression (LTD)?
long-lasting DEC in synaptic strength
What synaptic connections in the hippocampus show areas of LTP?
dentate gyrus where the signal affects granules cells, from the granule cells to the CA3 pyramidal cells, and from the CA3 pyramidal cell to the CA1 pyramidal cells via Schaffer collaterals
Describe long-term potentiation of Schaffer collateral-CA1 synapses.
two stimulating eletrodes each activate separate populations of Schaffer collaterals providing test and control synaptic pathways, after a single stimuli either minutes before and one hour after a high freq. train of stimuli the high frequency stimulus train INC the size of the EPSP evoked by a single stimulus, if the pathway does not receive high frequency stimulation, the EPSP is unchanged
Describe the time course of changes in the amplitude of the EPSPs evoked by stimulation of pathways.
high frequency stimulation of pathway 1 causes a prolonged enhancement of the EPSPs in this pathway, this potentiation persists for several hours while the amplitude of EPSPs produced in 2 remain constant
What happens when presynaptic and postsynaptic activity is paired?
get LTP, single stimli applied to a Schaffer collateral synaptic input evokes EPSPs in the postsynaptic CA1 neuron, these stimuli alone do not elicit any change in synaptic strength, however when the CA1 neuron’s membrane potential is briefly depolarized in conjunction with the Schaffer collateral stimuli, there is a persistent INC in the EPSPs
Describe the LTP at a CA1 pyramidal neuron receiving synaptic inputs from two independent sets of Schaffer collateral axons?
strong activity initiates LTP at active synapses without initiating LTP at nearby inactive synapses, weak stimulation of pathway 2 alone does not trigger LTP, however when the same weak stimulus to pathway 2 is activated together with strong stimulation of pathway 1 both sets of synapses are strengthened
What are the properties of LTP?
1. it is state dependent-the state of the membrane potential of the postsynaptic cell determines whether or not LTP occurs
2. input specificity-LTP induced by activation of one synapse does not occur in other, inactive synapses that contact the same neuron, thus LTP is restricted to activated synapses rather than to all of the synapses on a given cell
3. associativity-weak stimulation of a pathway will not by itself trigger LTP, if one pathway is weakly activated at the same time that a neighboring pathway onto the same cell is strongly activated, both synaptic pathways undergo LTP
What role does Mg block from NMDA receptors have on LTP?
it is one mechanism of LTP, the NMDA receptor channel can open only during depolarization of the postsynaptic neuron form its normal resting level, depolarization expels Mg2+ from the NMDA channel, allowing current to flow into the postsynaptic cell, this leads to Ca2+ entry which in turn triggers LTP
What effect do retrograde effects have on LTP?
retrograde effects may be rleased from the postsynaptic neuron to go back to the presynaptic terminal and have an affect there, can include NO or BDNF
Describe the signaling mechanisms underlying LTP.
during glutamate release, the NMDA channel opens only if the postsynaptic cell is sufficiently depolarized, Ca2+ enters the cell through the channel (NMDA) and activates postsynaptic protein kinases, these postsynaptic kinases trigger a series of reactions that leads to insertion of new AMPA receptors into the postsynaptic spine, thereby INCing the cell’s sensitivity to glutamate (and entrance of Na+)
Describe the mechanism responsible for long-lasting changes in synaptic transmission during LTP.
the late component of LTP is due to PKA activating the transcriptional regulator CREB, which turns on expression of a number of genes that produce long-lasting changes in PKA activity and synapse structure
Describe the mechanism of long-term synaptic depression in the cerebellum.
glutamate released by parallel fibers activates both AMPA receptors and metabotropic glutamate receptors, the latter produces two second messengers (DAG and IP3) which interact with Ca2+ that enters when climbing fiber activity opens voltage-gated Ca2+ channels, this leads to activation of PKC which triggers clathrin-dependent internalization of postsynaptic AMPA receptors to weaken the parallel fiber synapse
Describe the role of kinases and phosphatases in LTP and LTD.
kinases affect LTP and phosphatases affect LTD
What is required to maintain LTP?
requires protein synthesis and formation of new synapses, repetitive high frequency stimulation induces LTP that persists for many hours, treatment with anisomycin (an inhibitor of protein synthesis), causes LTP to decay within a few hours after the high frequency stimulation
What is epilepsy?
recurrent seizures, a seizure is a sudden, synchronized excessive activation of a large number of neurons, seizure is a symptom of epilepsy, may be due to too much LTP
What are the triggers for epilepsy?
hypoxia, fever, light flashes, alcohol, loss of sleep, brain trauma, tumor
How is epilepsy diagnosed?
history, EEG and MRI
How is epilepsy treated?
medication (e.g. Phenobarbital), surgery (in extreme cases)
What does the nissl stain do?
stains RNA blue and is used to highlight important structural features of neurons, nissl substance appears dark blue due to the staining of ribosomal RNA giving the cytoplasm a mottled appearance
How long does it take to regenerate nervous tissue?
~3 months, also possible for the nervous tissue to not be repaired after several months
What is Wallerian degeneration?
the process by which the distal portion of a damaged axon segment degenerates, it is an active destructive process (not due to loss of energy), removal of myelin by Schwann cells, invasion of macrophages, denervated Schwann cells secrete NGF, divide and form bands of Bungner, all these events promote the Regeneration Process (prepare pathway for axonal regeneration)
What types of cells are responsible for myelination?
in the PNS, Schwann cells are, they myelinate only 1 neuron at a time, in the CNS, oligodendrocytes are and can myelinate multiple axons at one time
What role do Schwann cells play in regeneration?
they support regeneration, theyh produce a number of developmentally regulated molecules that promote axon growth and synapse formation, once macrophages clear debris from the degenerating peripheral stump the Schwann cells proliferate, express adhesion molecules on their surface and secrete neurotrophins and other growth-promoting signaling molecules, parent neurons release gene products that make receptors so they can react with Schwann cell factors
What is necessary for successful regeneration?
survival of cell body, axon growth and functional connection with target
What are the trophic responses to injury for the different parts of the nervous system?
1. CNS-INC in NGF and trkB
2. DRG-DEC p75, DEC trkA, INC trkB
3. distal nerve stump-INC NGF, INC BDNF, DEC NT-3, INC NT-4, INC p75, INC trkB, INC trkC
4. muscle-INC BDNF
5. skin-INC NGF
What are some different trophic factors and where do they play a role in regeneration?
1. NGF-DRGs, sympathetic ganglia
2. BDNF-motor neurons
3. CNTF-motro neurons
4. GDNF-motor neurons
5. FGF-retinal ganglion cells
6. IGF-sciatic nerve
What is NGF?
nerve growth factor, small secreted protein which induces the differentiation and survival of particular target neurons, critical for the survival and maintenance of sympathetic and sensory neurons, released from target cells, binds to and activates high affinity receptor (trkA) and is internalized into the neuron
What is BDNF?
brain-derived neurotrophic factor, protein that acts on certain neurons of the CNS and PNS that helps to suppor the survival of existing neurons and encourage the growth and differentiation of new neurons and synapses, active in hippocampus, allows for neural stem cells to make new neurons, binds to TrkB
What is CNTF?
ciliary neurotrophic factor, gene, promotes neurotransmitter synthesis and neurite outgrowth in certain neuronal populations, survival factor for neurons and oligodendrocytes
What is GDNF?
glial cell line-derived neurotrophic factor, potently promotes the survival of many types of neurons, promotes the survival and differentiation of dopaminergic neurons and also prevents apoptosis of motor neurons induced by axotomy
What is FGF?
fibroblast growth factor, involved in wound healing
What is nervus suralis?
nervus suralis (sural nerve) acts as a substrate graft to bridge nerve segments, found on the posterior part of the leg, and on the lateral side of the foot and little toe
Describe successful regeneration of motor nerve.
if a nerve is cut and a muscle two muscles are denervated, during successful regeneration, only one motor nerve axon is reinnervated and innervates its muscle fiber, there is then a connection made between the 1st and 2nd muscle fiber, other nerve fiber is degenerated, the glia scaffold still remains
What are the molecular and cellular responses that promote peripheral nerve regeneration?
the Schwann cells is essential for this process, once the macrophages have cleared the debris from the degenerating peripheral stump the Schwann cells proliferate, express adhesion molecules on their surface and secrete neurotrophins and other growth promoting signaling molecules, in parallel, the parent neuron of the regenerating axon expresses genes that restore it to a growth state, the gene products are often receptors that allow the cell to respond to the factors provided by the Schwann cell
Describe CNS axon degeneration.
removal of debris is slow, growth cones hardly advance, astrocytes form scars
What are some examples of attractive cues in the CNS?
1. adhesive markers-laminin, fibronectin, cadherin, cell adhesion molecules (N-CAM, Ng-CAM)
2. diffusible markers-netrins, ephrins
What are some examples of repellent cues in the CNS?
1. adhesive markers-semaphorins, collapsing, myelin-associated protein
2. diffusible markers-semaphroins, netrins
What is Nogo?
is a membrane protein of oligodendrocytes, an inhibitor of neurite outgrowth specific to the CNS, blocking Nogo during neuronal damage (from diseases such as MS) will help to protect or restore the damaged neurons, possible treatment for auto-immune mediated demyleinating diseases and spinal cord injury regeneration
What are the differences between the PNS and CNS that are important for regeneration?
in the PNS, the Schwann cells in the distal nerve stump line up to form channels through which the axons can regrow, in the CNS, clearance of axonal debris and myelin is slow distal to the injury and astrocytes form a dense scar, the axonal growth in the injured CNS is limited to the site of the lesion
What happens in regeneration in the CNS?
in the absence of a glial scar, which are particularly prominent in long axon pathways in the brain, there is a series of local cellular changes at or near an injured site, these include the local degeneration of myelin as well as other cellular elements, the clearing of this debris by microglia that act as phagocytic cells in the CNS, and the local production of inhibitory factors by reactive astrocytes, oligodendroglia and microglia
What supports CNS regeneration?
PNS grafts, the growth promoting properties of peripheral nerve sheaths and Schwann cells facilitate growth of damaged axons within the CNS, severed axons from the optic nerve are apposed to a peripheral nerve graft, the axons now grow through the peripheral nerve graft to reach the superior colliculus a normal target for retinal ganglion cells, regenerated axons make synapses with targets in the superior colliculus
What improves regeneration in the spinal cord?
antibodies to myelin-associated proteins (such as Nogo) improve regeneration in the spinal cord
What role does neurtrophin-3 have on regeneration?
neurotrophin-3 enhances sprouting of corticospinal tract during development and after adult spinal cord lesion, recovery from spinal cord injury can also be mediated by antibodies to neurite growth inhibitors
How does Nogo inhibition enhance CNS regeneration?
selectively expressed in oligodendroglial cells and is not found in Schwann cells, thorugh that blocking an inhibitory factor such as Nogo would lead to improved regeneration of long axon pathways in the CNS
Describe the delivery of trophic factors.
1. intracerebral/intraventricular infusion
2. slow-release implants
3. carrier-mediated transport across BBB
4. grafting of cells producing trophic factor
5. development of low-molecular weight agonists
6. fusion proteins with trafficking motifs for delivery along spinal/CNs
What are some characteristics of spinal cord injury?
1. compression, secondary hemorrhagic necrosis
2. large myelinated axons more affected
3. spill of ion contents (INC K+, DEC Na+, DEC Ca2+)
4. edema (- corticosteroids)
5. instability (immobilization and traction)
6. irreversible and reversible components
7. effects of hypothermia
What are some statistics concerning spinal cord injury?
8500 per year, 40% fatal (USA), caused by car accidents, falls, gun shot/stab wounds, diving, motor cycle
What is the acute management for spinal cord injuries?
immobilization, MRI, corticosteroids, gastric dilation, ileus, shock, infection
What is the long-term management for spinal cord injuries?
bladder and bowel functions, skin (decubitus ulcers), pulmonary, physiotherapy
What is prospect for spinal cord injuries?
10-20% will regain some modest functions
What happens in optic nerve crush?
loss of retinal ganglion cells, BDNF, GFDN, antibodies to myelin
What happens in Parkinson’s?
loss of substantia nigra neurons, BDNF, GDNF, fetal tissue transplant, stem cells
What happens in Alzheimer’s?
loss of cholinergic basal forebrain neurons, NGF, BDNF
What happens in amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?
loss of motorneurons, CNTF, BDNF, GDNF, IGF
What is the primary mechanism for neuronal apoptosis after injury?
apoptosis can be elicited by excitotoxicity via excess glutamagte, and by the binding of inflammatory cytokines to receptors in the neuronal membrane, in addition, loss of neuronal connections to a target and resultant deprivation of trophic support can initiate apoptosis, any or all of these stimuli, once present, result in the removal of the anti-apoptotic gene Bcl-2, cytochrome c is then released from mito, activatin caspacse-3 and obligating the cell to apoptotic death as caspase-3 stimulates destructive changes in downstream molecules
What are some stimuli for apoptosis?
DNA damage, hypoxia, stress, growth factor withdrawal
What happens with blockage of Bcl-2?
allows cytochrome c to be released by mito, cytochrome c leads to activation of caspase-9 and caspase-3
What happens during apoptosis?
chromosome condensation, DNA fragmentation, membrane blebbing, cytoskeletal changes
What are some strategies to treat loss of specific neurons?
1. drugs to enhance function of still remaining neurons (Parkinson’s: L-DOPA, Alzheimer’s-AChE inhibitors)
2. trophic factors to resuce remaining neurons
3. grafts (transplants) of embryonic or genetically engineered neurons to replace lost neurons
4. stem cells to replace lost neurons
5. prosthetic devices to replace function of lost neurons (pacemakers; cochlear implants)
What are some drugs to enhance function of still remaining neurons?
Parkinson’s: L-DOPA
Alzheimer’s: AChE inhbitors
those that are symptomatic, wears off as additional neurons degenerate, little benefit in advanced stages
What effect does supplying trophic factors to rescue remaining neurons have?
delivery problematic, side effects with systemic treatment, targeted delivery needed, supply of the trophic factor may not be the problem, but rather downstream problems with receptors or signal transduction
Describe grafts (transplants) of embryonic or genetically engineered neurons to replace lost neurons.
clinical results are too variable, in case of Parkinson’s outcomes are not better than deep brain stimulation, immunosuppressive treatment may be needed
In mammals what are some examples of normal generation and replacement of neurons in the adult?
olfactory receptor cells, taste receptor cells, interneurons in olfactory bulb, interneurons in hippocampus
In other vertebrates what are some examples of normal generation and replacement of neurons in the adult?
auditory and vestibular hair cells in birds, retinal cells (including retinal ganglion cells) in fish, song control neurons in forebrain of birds
Describe the use of stem cells to replace lost neurons.
risk of teratomas (engineer embryonic stem cells with regulatable suicide genes), will stem cell-derive dopaminergic neurons be more successful than primary dopaminergic neurons in fetal grafts?, immunosuppressive treatment needed?
What do adult neural stem cells form?
adult neural stem cells can be induced to form glial or neuronal phenotypes
What is the mechanism for adult neural stem cell to glial or neuronal phenotypes?
adult neural stem cell -> progenitor -> oligodendrocyte, astrocyte, immature neuron (-> maturation and integration to become mature neuron)
Where are stem cells located?
stem cells hide among ependymal cells in the subventricular zone, an ependymal cell undergoes asymmetric cell division to generate a subventricular zone progenitor cell, the progenitor cell undergoes several rounds of division to generate migratory neuronal precursor cells
Describe the steps in neurogenesis in the adult mammalian brain.
proliferation -> fate determination -> migration -> integration
Where is stem cell therapy headed in the future?
recent progress shows that neurons suitable for transplantation can be generated from stem cells in culture, and that the adult brain produces new neurons from its own stem cells in response to injury, these findings raise hope for the development of stem cell therapies in human neurodegenerative disorders, before clinical trials are initiated, we need to know much more about how to control stem cell proliferation and differentiation into specific phenotypes, induce their integration into existing neural and synaptic circuits and optimize functional recovery in animal models closely resembling the human disease
What can improve hearing?
1. cochlear implants
2. Atoh1 gene therapy-auditory hair cell replacement and hearing improvement by Atoh1 gene therapy in deaf mammals
Which forms of hearing loss are the most common?
by far the most common forms of hearing loss involve the peripheral auditory system, namedly those structures that transmit and transducer sounds into neural impulses, monaural hearing deficits are the defining symptom of a peripheral hearing loss, can be conductive or sensorineural
What is conductive peripheral hearing loss?
involve damage to the outer or middle ear, can be due to occlusion of the ear canal by wax or foreign objects, rupture of the tympanic membrane, arthritic ossification of the middle ear bones
What is sensorineural peripheral hearing loss?
stems from damage to the inner ear, due to congenital or environmental insults that lead to hair cell death or damage to the auditory nerve
How is conductive hearing loss treated?
an external hearing aid is used to boost sounds to compensate for the reduced efficiency of the conductive apparatus, contain microphone, speaker and amplifier
How is sensorineural peripheral hearing loss treated?
if auditory nerve is intact can use cochlear implants to partially restore hearing, consists of a peripherally mounted microphone and digital signal processor that transforms a sound into its spectral components and additional electronics that use this information to activate different combinations of contacts on a threadlike multisite stimulating electrode array
What else are cochlear implants good for?
good for restoring hearing to people with hair cell damage, permitting them to engage in spoken communication
What happens with damage to the phrenic nerve?
breathing problems, if have damage to phrenic nerve there are breathing pacemaker systems available
Describe MS plaques.
MS in the medulla, have chronic inactive plaques that are seen in the center and right, whereas a shadow plaque is seen on the left above the inferior olive
What is an example of loss of glial cells?
MS, loss of oligodendrocytes, optic nerve, corticospinal tract, autoimmune disease, symptomatic treatment (corticosteroids)
What are the emotional states?
subjective experiences, visceral motor response, somatic motor responses, an emotional motor system
Describe fear.
it is a primary emotion experienced by all social animals and is an evolutionary need, it is a visceral motor and somatic motor response
How is fear measured in animals?
1. heart rate and BP
2. salivation
3. respiratory rate
4. scanning
5. startle
6. urination/defecation
7. freezing
How is fear measured in humans?
1. heart pounding or racing
2. dry mouth
3. pale skin
4. respiratory rate
5. hypervigilance
6. INC startle
7. urination/diarrhea
8. apprehensive expectation
Describe the sympathetic component of fear.
fight or flight, noradrenergic, postganglionic innervation includes the heart, salivary glands, airways, pupils, bladder and bowel
Describe humor.
it is a secondary emotion, it may be unique to humans and may have an evolutionary need, it is subjective, is a visceral and somatic motor response
What are some other secondary emotions?
pride, gratitude, shame
Describe the parasympathetic division.
for rest, digestion and enjoyment, cholinergic (Ach), postganglionic innervation includes the heart, salivary glands, airways, pupils, bladder and bowel
Describe the emotional response to a visual stimulus.
retina -> optic nerve -> occipital lobe -> visual association cortex -> then what?
Describe the integration that occurs in the cortex.
the emotional association structures, looks to see how a horror flick causes sympathetic activation and how a favorite song causes a sense of joy, also looks at what mediates external stimuli into subjective responses and physiologic responses
What brain structures mediate emotion?
hypothalamus, limbic system (including the limbic cortex and amygdale), brainstem
What is the hypothalamus?
a deep brain structure made up of a number of nuclei (under the thalamu), integral in emotional and sexual (and other) behaviors
Where is the hypothalamus?
base of the forebrain, behind the optic chiasm, forms part of the walls of the 3rd ventricle, contiguous with infundibular stalk to pituitary
What does the hypothalamus do?
integration of emotional response, forebrain, brain stem, spinal cord, sexual response and preferences, endocrine responses (neurosecretory, oxytocin, vasopressin directly to posterior pituitary
How do we know that the hypothalamus integrates emotions and behavior?
ablation studies, stimulation studies, primary emotions involved include fear and anger
Describe ablation studies in cats.
transaction through the midbran, disconnecting the hypothalamus and brainstem abolishes sham rage, the integrated emotional responses associated with sham rage survive removal of the cerebral hemispheres as long as the caudal hypothalamus remains intact (i.e. remove cerebral hemispheres get rage, remove hemispheres and hypothalamus then no rage)
Describe stimulation studies on cats.
lateral hypothalamic stimulation leads to rage and attack, other areas cause the cats to become defensive and fearful
What is the route of information for the hypothalamus?
input comes from the cortex (relatively unprocessed), output to brainstem’s reticular formation
What is the reticular formation of the brainstem?
is a brainstem web containing 100+ cell groups, controls sleep/awake cycle
What is the route of information for the reticular formation (and other brainstem motor pools)?
receives hypothalamic and cortical output (separate descending projections that run parallel to volitional motor system), output to somatic and autonomic effector systems (widespread visceral and somatic motor responses, affects cardiac, respiratory, bowels and bladder)
What is the limbic system?
link between higher cortical activity and the lower systems that control emotional behavior
What are the contents of the limbic system?
limbic lobe and deep lying structures including the amygdale, hippocampus, and mammilary bodies
What is the limbic lobe?
primitive cortical tissue, cingulated gyrus, parahippocampal gyrus
Where is the limbic lobe?
encircles the upper brain stem, around the corpus callosum
What does the limbic system do?
integrates information from cortical association areas, know this from experiments by Kluver and Bucy
Describe Kluver and Bucy’s experiment.
they removed the temporal lobe (destroying much of the limbic lobe) in the monkey, preoperation, the monkey was aggressive and had rage, post-op the monkey was docile, orally fixated, had INC sexual and compulsive behaviors, stimulate sympathetic NS stimulation
What is Kluver-Bucy syndrome?
in humans, is severe temporal lobe damage as seen in tumors, surgery or trauma, leads to visual agnosia (unable to recognize objects, although not blind), apathy, placidity, disturbance in sexual function, dementia, aphasia, amnesia
What are some additional structures in the limbic system?
orbital and medial prefrontal cortex, nucleus of thalamus, amygdala (nuclear mass) plus the limbic lobe
Where is the amygdala?
buried in the white matter of the temporal lobe, in front of the hippocampus
What does the amygdala do?
connects to the olfactory lobe, cerebral cortex (frontal and association areas of temporal lobe) and brainstem and hypothalamus, it is the emotional association area, links cortical areas that process sensory info to hypothalamus and brainstem effector systems, allows for emotional learning
Describe the pathways in the rat brain that mediate the association of auditory and aversive somatic sensory stimuli.
information processed by the auditory centers in the brainstem is relayed to the auditory cortex via the medial geniculate nucleus (1), the amygdale receives auditory information indirectly via the auditory cortex (2) and directly from one subdivision of the medial geniculate (3), the amygdale also receives sensory information about other sensory modalities, including pain (4), thus the amygdale is in a position to associate diverse sensory inputs leading to new behavioral and autonomic responses to stimuli that were previously devoid of emotional content (5)
What role does the amygdala play in learned emotions?
learned fear in rats via classical conditioning (associative learning, long term potentiation), abolish the fear response (infuse NMDA antagonist into amygdale during learning (no learning of fear) or remove one amygdale and block visual information from the eye on that side
Describe learned fear.
plays a possible role for amygdala in clinical disorders, in humans there are adaptive responses and non-adaptive responses (overreactive learned fear response, PTSD, phobias, gender differences)
Describe the interaction between fear and the amygdala.
conscious and unconscious, students shown images of fearful faces too quickly to register, amydala activity increased
Describe the interaction between pleasure and the amygdala.
emotional coloring of environments, INC recall when activated, learned rewards (anticipation of pleasure (or fear), drugs of abuse), emotional significance of environment (adapt/survive/reproduce)
How does functional nueroimaging show up during craving?
use PET and fMRI, activation of amygdala and anterior cingulated cortex, degree of cue activation correlated with craving severity, degree of activation correlated with likelihood of relapse (cocaine, alcohol, heroin, nicotine), as a result of intracellular changes, the previously cocaine addicted brain has persistently altered functioning (craving, drugs have a persistent effect)
Describe the activation of brain sites for cocaine users and normal pleasures.
cocaine abusers may experience a powerful urge to use when they encounter environmental cues associated with use, limbic regions of the brain are activated when watching cocaine related videos, activates the amygdala and anterior cingulate
What happens with lesions to the amygdala?
DEC learned rewards, DEC drug seeking behavior in animals (cocaine, heroin)
what is the orbitofrontal cortex?
posterior frontal lobe, mediates aggression and emotional responsiveness (damage to parts of frontal lobe: disinhibition, Phineas Gage), lesion input from amygdala DEC rage from disappointed primates
What are some examples of structural clinical disorders?
1. frontal lobe injuries
2. temporal lobe epilepsy (TLE)
3. amygdala abnormalities (Kluver-Bucy, Urbach-Wiethe)
4. rabies
5. lobotomy
6. stroke
Who is Phineas Gage?
was the foreman of a railway construction gang, on September 13 1848 as accidental explotion of a charge he had set blew his tamping iron through his head, the tamping iron was 3 feet 7 inches long and weighed 13.5 pounds, the tamping iron went in point first under his left cheek bone and completely out through the top of his head, landing about 25 to 30 yards behind him, he remained conscious and physically recovered
Describe Gage before the accident.
capable of efficient foreman, well-balanced, shrewd, smart businessman, sociable
Describe Gage after the accident.
fitful, disrespectful, profane, impatient and stubborn, unable to create and stick to future plans, his friends said he was no longer Gage
Describe frontal lobe syndromes.
impulse control, emotional incontinence, problems with planning, organization, motivation, rational decision making
Describe the maturation of the brain.
brain not adult until 20s
Describe temporal lobe epilepsy.
abnormal activity (seizure) of temporal lobe, olfactory/gustatory hallucinations, déjà vu/jamais vu, derealization/depersonalization, INC psychiatric disorders interictally, special EEG leads
What are the symptoms of the Kluver Bucy Syndrome?
agnosia, apathy, disturbed sexual behavior, dementia, aphasia, amnesia
What are the causes of Kluver Bucy Syndrome?
tumors, trauma, herpes, surgery
What is Urbach-Wiethe?
rare genetic disease, bilateral calcification and atrophy of anterior temporal lobes, unable to identify fear from photos
What experiment shows that the amygdala is a key brain center for the experience of fear?
patients with brain damage outside of the anterior-medial temporal lobe and damage to the amygdala were ask to rate the emotional content of a series of facial expressions, patients with damage to the amygdala recognized happiness, surprise, anger, disgust, sadness, and neutral qualities in facial expressions about as well as controls, however they failed to recognize fear
What happens during rabies virus infection of the temporal lobes?
anxiety/rage
What happens during a lobotomy?
separation of tracts from orbitofrontal cortex to amygdala
Describe the lateralization of emotions.
compare it to other lateralized brain functions (speech, attention (neglect syndromes)), left brain functions (number skills, written language, reasoning, spoken language, scientific, right hand), right brain functions (insight, 3-D forms, art, imagination, music awareness, left hand control)
Describe the importance of the right hemisphere.
expression and comprehension of emotional (affective) content, speech (prosody), images, L hemifield/L ear better at detecting emotional nuances of speech/images, L face may be more expressive of emotion, the understanding and expression of affective (mood) components to speech, relatively more L facial expression
What happens with R hemisphere damage?
(posterior frontal, right parietal), leads to aprosody, unable to read emotional coloring of speech, email (why we use emoticons such as :( and :), symbols to add prosody
What happens with left hemisphere aphasia?
poor comprehension of words, still understand emotional content, clinical situations
What do the left and right hemisphere contribute to mood?
L is for positive emotions (left lesions lead to a risk of depression), R is for negative emotions (R lesions may have elevated mood)
What happens during a stroke?
L anterior damage leads to depression, R anterior damage leads to euphoria, depression more than triples the likelihood of dying in the 10 years after a stroke, treatment with antidepressants may improve survival
What is the limbic system?
generates primitive emotional responses to situations, emotion allows for survival, allows to identify danger/threats (fear and aggression), allows to identify pleasure (natural rewards, eating, sex, social interaction)
What is the reward pathway?
specialized brain areas for producing and regulating pleasure (sex), includes the ventral tegmental area (VTA), nucleus accumbens (NA), prefrontal cortex, areas of limbic system (amygdala, hippocampus, hypothalamus), dopamine transmission
What are some characteristics of the reward pathway?
1. vulnerable
2. dysregulated when exposed to illicit drugs
3. normally adaptive goal directed behavior now directed to harmful substance
What is the nucleus accumbens?
it is the sweet spot for dopamine release in response to rewards
How do dopamine levels change in nucleus accumbens when a patient reports feeling high?
the higher a patient feels high the larger the change in dopamine levels
What is the VTA and NA?
primitive brain stem and limbic areas, activated by drugs of abuse, activation of these primitive areas can override more evolved cortical areas, drugs activate the pathway with force and persistence not seen with natural rewards
What do drugs of abuse do to neurotransmission of emotions?
disrupts it, synthetically produce feelings of pleasure in the reward system by altering neurotransmission of dopamine neurons, variety of sites and receptors where drugs affect transmission, all substances have a common endpoint
Describe synaptic transmission.
after binding, neurotransmitters release from receptor and goes back into the cleft, removed by enzymes or reuptake pump/transporter back into terminal, quick removal of transmitters allow for precise communication between neurons
What happens with stimulation of brain reward areas?
direct electrical stimulation of brain reward areas will lead to elevated dopamine, stimulates natural rewards
What effect does sex and food have on dopamine levels?
important for evolution, linking pleasurable feelings to food and sex is important in continuing the species
What do differenet drugs do to different levels of transmitters?
1. amphetamines INC DA levels 1000%
2. cocaine INC DA levels 350%
3. nicotine INC accumbens activity 225%
What is the definition of addiction?
addiction is a disease of brain reward centers that ensures the survival of organisms and species
What are drug effects on neurotransmission?
alcohol, heroin, nicotine excite the dopamine neurons in the VTA to INC dopamine release, stimulants can stimulate dopamine dumping and block reuptake
Describe the relationship between drug abuse and addiction.
drug abuse is initially voluntary behavior, drug addiction is compulsive drug abuse in the presence of adverse consequences, drug use and addiction are associated with long term physical functional changes in the brain, addiction is influenced by social, genetic and behavioral factors
What are drug’s effects on the cell?
drugs of abuse all directly or indirectly INC dopamine binding to postsynaptic receptor with acute behavioral effects, chronically, this INC cAMP levels and leads to a cascade of changed cell activity, activation of transcription factor CREB and changes in gene expression (changes in synapses, cell structure and function), the resulting intracellular changes appear to be the molecular and cellular basis of addiction (persistent behavioral abnormalities)
What effect do drugs have on learning?
intracellular changes for addiction similar to learning, both activities share intracellular signaling cascades (cAMP) and depend on activity of CREB, INC neuronal capacity for excitatory inputs, another transcription factor-delta fosB
Describe the relationship between learning and addiction.
learning and addiction show similar changes in neuron morphology, similar changes at the level of the synapse, multiple similar changes in the neuron, long term changes, addiction is long term, phasic dopamine release signals prediction of reward, gambling
What is tolerance?
needing INC doses of drug to achieve same response, body more efficient in clearing drug, cells more resistant to drug effect, receptor down regulation or DEC efficiency with activating cAMP
What is craving?
intense desire, can occur even after initial use, single dose of cocaine in rats can INC glutamate transmission for 5 days (back to baseline in 10 days)
What happens with cocainie addicted brains?
as a result of intracellular changes the previously cocaine addicted brain has persistently altered functioning (ie craving), amygdala (again)
Describe chronic drug effects.
over time, brain activity, as measured by PET, trends towards normal, neurophysiological function may never normalize
What is the effect of drug use on descision making?
studied using the Iowa gambling task, compare with patients with brain damage (ventromedial prefrontal cortex), 63% of addicts as impaired as brain damaged patients (some variability), impaired decision making, unable to learn from recent feedback
What is the Bechara gambling task?
patients are presented with four decks of cards, they select from different card decks to receive imaginary rewards and penalties, unknown to the patient, some of these decks give good rewards, but occasionally dole out hefty penalties, in contrast, the good decks give moderate rewards and only small penalties, normal subjects soon stop selecting cards from bad decks but orbitofrontal patients do not stop
What are the correlates for the Iowa gambling task?
oblivious to future positive or negative consequences, guided by immediate prospects
What are some different drugs that impair decision making?
alcohol, cannabis, cocaine, opiod, methamphetamine, meth may be more harmful than others, some substance users will not have impaired decision making
What are the take homes for the emotion lecture?
drug addiction happens at a cellular level, permanent brain changes include craving, deficits in memory, mood, stimulants are key offenders
What is the take home message on depression?
severe depressed mood and impaired functioning, #2 among disabling disease of Westernized countries, 15% lifetime risk of completed suicide, Nevada ranks 1 to 4 rate in the country, Nevada rate for elderly suicide is 300% of national average, strong genetic component, can be neurotransmitter, structural or functional problem
How is depression diagnosed?
need 5 or more symptoms of 2+ weeks
1. depressed mood
2. DEC energy
3. sleep and appetite changes
4. memory/concentration changes
5. thoughts of death/suicide
6. guilt
7. DEC interests
8. tearfulness
What is the role of depression on the amygdala?
INC blood flow in depression, asymmetry R amygdala gets more, correlates with severity of depression
What is the role of the left prefrontal cortex on depression?
depression as a power failure of L PFC, moderates negative emotional output of amygdala (dread, fear, sadness, stroke patients, DEC blood flow on PET scans of depressed (non-stroke) patients, activity normalizes with medication treatment
What happens with asymmetries in PFC function?
peppy L PFC (extraversion), levels of corticsol are lower, less reactive to stressors, individual differences measured in infants, adults
Describe the left prefrontal cortex in depressed patients.
smaller volume of ventral anterior cingulated in depressed patients (40% smaller) on PET scans with less blood flow, blood flow normalizes with treatment of depression, smaller volume may be related to loss of glial cells (cell loss from toxic cortisol levels secondary to stress)
Describe the role of the hippocampus on depression.
animals experiencing repeat stress (shrinking of hippocampus), hippocampus may shrink in people with recurrent depression, hippocampal cell loss may lead to cognitive decline, atrophy of neurons with chronic exposure to stress and cortisol, death of neurons with severe and prolonged stress, neuroendangerment with moderate levels of stress/cortisol
Why are some individuals more vulnerable to depression?
stress/loss, genetic traits
What role does stress play on the body?
stress plays a role in inflammation (IL, cytokines), stress DEC BDNF in hippocampus (could contribute to atrophy and DEC functioning of neurons)
What is the summary on emotion lecture?
1. emotional responses mediated by hypothalamus and limbic structures
2. injuries to different areas lead to disturbed behaviors and emotions
3. addiction is a brain disease
4. depression is a brain disease (environment contributes, strong genetic component, treatment: neurotransmitter manipulation)
What is sexual dimorphism?
two forms, have different behaviors, anatomy, hormones and physiology
What are sexual dimorphic behaviors?
in animals includes sexual behaviors and rearing of young, in humans includes sexual affiliation, spatial thinking, use of language and what is attractive in a mate
Describe sexual behaviors.
all behaviors are based on underlying neuronal circuitry
Describe anatomical differences in sexual dimorphics.
brain differences (in rodents two distinct forms, in humans there is a continuum), reflects behavioral differences as well
What is the genotypic definiation of sex?
XX female, XY male, XXY (rare), XO (rare), unchangeable
What is Turner’s Syndrome?
XO, short stature, low hairline, shield-shaped thorax, widely spaced nipples, shortened metacarpal IV, small finger nails, brown spots (nevi), characteristic facial features, fold of skin, constriction of aorta, poor breast development, elbow deformity, rudimentary ovaries, gonadal streak (underdeveloped gonadal structures), no menstruation
What is the phenotypic definition of sex?
internal and external genitalia, XX (have ovaries, uterus, vagina, labia), XY (testes, seminal vesicles, penis and scrotum), this is modifiable
What is gender identification?
subjective perception of one’s sex (fixed age 3 or 4), confusing for some, societal expectation, sexual orientation (social construct-homosexualitey diagnosed and treated 50 years ago), divergence in how brain vs. body are masculinized
What influence does hormones have on dimorphism?
1. genotypes-> gonads
2. gonads -> sex hormones
3. sex hormones -> developmental effects on the brain
4. fetuses sexually bipotential in early weeks
What role does the hypothalamus have on sex?
mediates sexual behaviors, multiple factors (arousal, vascular and smooth muscle control, hormones), ablate parts of the hypothalamus (preoptic area) and male rats will lose copulatory behaviors
In females, what role does the hypothalamus have on sex?
1. estrous cycle-most animals (seasonal mating), some species have males cycle with day length
2. menstrual cycle-hidden estrous, sexual behavior only partially influenced by cycle/hormonal states
3. GnRH-LH, FSH from anterior pituitary
What hormones are secreted by the hypothalamus?
anterior pituitary releases FSH and LH, testes (testosterone and sperm production) and ovaries (estrogen secretion, ovulation) feedback to the brain
What hormones are released from the anterior pituitary?
ACTH, TSH, prolactin, GH, FSH, LH
What hormones are released form the posterior pituitary?
oxytocin, vasopressin (anti-diuretic hormone ADH)
In males, what role does the hypothalamus have on sex?
parallel feedback loops on hormones (GnRH-cyclical release LH/FSH), nonseasonal sexual behaviors, sexual activity limited by female receptivity
What happens with hypothalamic dysfunction?
1. Kleine Levin Syndrome
2. Periodic hypersomnolence
3. periodic hypersexuality
4. also appetite, mood and memory changes, may respond to lithium treatment
What effect do sex hormones have on the brain?
testosterone to female rat pups (reduction of synapses in hypothalamus region, brain became more male), castrating male rat pups (INC synapses in region, brains more female, behavior more female (lordosis), reversed if add testosterone to castrated male rat pups
What is the sexually dimorphic nucleus (SDN)?
nucleus in rodent hypothalamus, different size in males than females, development under influence of hormones
What do hormones do to the fetal brain?
organize it, testosterone -> estradiol in male brain, estrogen -> estradiol in female brain, timing of midgestational hormonal surges key to establishment of sex differences in fetal brain, testosterone also acts on androgen receptors
In development, when is there a fetal testosterone surge?
weeks 7-22
What is alpha-fetoprotein?
binds circulating materal estrogens but not testosterone, prevent fetal brains from early exposure to maternal estrogens, in fetal circulation and CSF (screen for neural tube defects, Down’s syndrome)
Describe brain masculinization.
default is female, timing of testosterone surge important for adequate number and type of receptors, too soon and inadequate receptor sites, TDF gene on Y chromosome signals testosterone secretion, need aromatase to convert testosterone to estradiol
Describe body masculinization.
default is female, testosterone converted to DHT, binds to peripheral androgen receptors
Describe the mechanism of brain and body masculinization.
both the brain and body of mammals are initially organized according to a female characteristic plan, maleness emerges from two distinct influences of testosterone on body tissues, masculinization of the brain mediated by estrogen and of the body by dihydrotestosterone (DHT), different tissues can convert testosterone to different products because of the enzyme they contain, DHT is manufactured in cells containing 5-alpha-reductase, and E is manufactured in those that contain aromatase
Describe the binding of hormones in rat brain.
hormone freely diffuse into cells, receptors and binding proteins in cytoplasm, distributions of receptor types, rat brain estradiol receptors (hypothalamus, amygdala)
Describe the estrogen receptor.
binds estradiol, transcriptional factor activates gene transcription, sexually dimorphic neural circuits, estrogen binds to estrogen receptor/transcription factor, this then binds to DNA and promotes or inhibits transcription
What are the types of brain changes via hormone binding?
neuronal size, dendritic length and spine density, branching, number of synapses
Describe estrogen as a growth factor.
fetal and adult brains, brain changes can be cyclical (with hormonal/estrous cycles), pregnancy and delivery, hypothalamus/hippocampus, substance response can depend on menstrual phase, PMS (cyclical effects of hormone on limbic system)
Describe the relationship between CNS dimorphisms and sexual functioning.
spinal nucleus of the bulbocavernosus (rodents), Onuf’s nucleus in sacral spinal cord (humans), smaller muscle in females, fewer neurons in females
What role does the hypothalamus have on structural dimorphisms?
in rodents and monkeys, sexually dimorphic nucleus of preoptic area, high level of neuronal firing in males during specific phases of copulation, lesions (abnormal sexual behaviors, DEC sexual response, abnormal mate selection), in humans, interstitial nuclei of anterior hypothalamus (INAH)
Describe the interstitial nuclei anterior hypothalamus (INAH).
4 nuclei, dimorphic at different developmental stages (2X larger in males, N1 same size in females until age 2, N1 DEC in size after age 50 both gender, changes related to sex hormones)
What is the corpus callosum?
fiber bundle connecting hemispheres (female brains less lateralized/more cross hemispheric communications), different shape to the splenium (more bulbous in women, unclear significance)
What structures are larger in healthy male brains relative to cerebrum size?
orbitofrontal cortex, amygdala, corpus callosum
What structures are larger in healthy female brains relative to cerebrum size?
cingulated gyrus, occipital lobe
What are some structural dimorphisms?
apoptosis, trophic factors (size differentiation)
What are some functional dimorphisms?
lactation, parenting, language, anxiety, depression, paraventricular nucleus and the supraoptic nucleus are the same size and shape, female nuclei sensitive to postpartum hormonal surges, formation of gap junctions (oxytocin surges), mediate lactation
Describe the difference in cognitive function between males and females concerning brain dimorphisms.
language, in F, more aphasia if L anterior damage (less aphasia in general), in M, more aphasia if L posterior damage
Describe the development of lateralization.
boys lateralize visuospatial info age 6, girls lateralize at 13, effects of circulating hormones, amygdala activated more than in females (R for male and L for female)
Describe the relationship between the brain and sexual orientation.
differences among one gender that may be related to straight/gay, brain structures (hypothalamic nuclei) through to differ in gay/straight male brains do not appear to reliably correlate, fMRI suggest male and lesbian brains may share response to hormone activation on the hypothalamus
What is some other evidenece for the biology of homosexuality?
nonhumans, genetics, this is a highly politicized area of research, must be cautious in reviewing agenda, methods, analysis and interpretation
What is some nonhuman homosexual behavior?
fruit flies (some males court other males), marine birds (some females pair off to raise chick)
Describe homosexuality in sheep.
a hypothalamic nucleus is smaller in male sheep that prefer to mount other rams, the volume of a sexually dimorphic nucleus in the ovine medial preoptic area/anterior hypothalamus varies with sexual partner preference, over 200 species
Describe the genetics of homosexuality.
variable research findings, 30% concordance in MZ twins, 0-22% in DZ twins
Describe the rearing effects of homosexuality.
children raised by one or two homosexuals (no difference in sexual orientation, psych illnesses, IQ or moral attitudes, INC tolerance to diversity, discussions about sex, less likely to be abused sexually or physically)
Describe the relationship between maternal exposures and homosexuality.
femal fetuses exposed to diethylstilbestrol (saturates alpha-fetoprotein, more tomboy behavior), female fetuses with adrenogenital syndrome (high levels of circulating androgens in utero, not bounded by AFP, fetal brain exposed, children with male play behavior, INC homosexuality (up to 40%)
Describe the relationship between maternal stress and homosexuality.
female rats exposed to stress during third week of gestation, INC sexual ambiguity in male offspring (normal 80% males are studs, 20% duds (asexual), stressed 20% studs, 60% bisexual, 20% duds, ratios can be altered by social rearing conditions, change in stressed mothers: peak testosterone too early)
Describe the relationship between maternal factors and homosexuality.
androgen production may be DEC in stressed or ill women, fetal androgen production may be premature relative to receptor status, male sibling birth order, boys born to wartime mothers: higher rates of homosexuality, what social factors also play a role
Describe maternal stress.
dud males more nurturing of rat pups, female offspring of stressed mothers less interested and able to care for young
Give a summary concerning brain structure and human sexuality.
1. small differences in brain structure: large differences in sexual behaviors
2. brain dimorphisms result form effects of circulating hormones during development
3. discrepancies: timing of hormone surges, size of M vs. F vs. homosexual not consistent
What does testosterone contribute too?
contributes to male and female sexuality, male levels peak teens-20s, improve libido
Describe the neurochemical activation of adult sexuality in males.
arginine vasopressin (AVP), in amygdala and hypothalamus, mediates both aggressive and sexual drives (extra AVP: more territorial and combative (sexual jealousy), released from pitutitary during anticipatory sexual behavior)
Describe the neurochemical activation of adult sexuality in females.
oxytocin, manufacture is under control of estrogen, if released into male circulation: orgasm, in females: more relevant to courting and copulation (peripherally critical for birth and nursing), block oxytocin in female rats: no sexual receptivity, mediates sexual pleasure in females, women who breast feed
Describe the neurochemical mediaion of sexual pleasure.
dopamine and opioids implicated in reward system, opiate blockade more effective in DECing sexual reward in males, opiate addicts: “orgasmic rush” (dopamine, nucleus accumbens)
Describe intersexuality.
1-2% of live births, chromosomal abnormalities, testicular feminization, 5 alpha reductase deficiency, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, hermaphrodism
Describe Kleinfelter’s syndrome.
XXY, small gonads, passive, possibly developmentally slow or delayed, can also be XYY (lower IQ, tall), tall stature, slightly feminized physique, tendency to lose chest hairs, female-type pubic pattern, testicular atrophy, osteoporosis, breast development, poor beard growth, frontal baldness absent
Describe testicular feminization (androgen insensitivity syndrome).
defective gene fro androgen receptor, internal genitalia Male, external genitalia Female (or ambiguous), XY gender ID = female, amenorrhea (Joan of Arc)
Describe 5 alpha reductase deficiency.
“testes at twelve”, Dominican Republic, 5 alpha reductase: converts testosterone and allows for external male genitalia, born female, at puberty: testicular secretion of androgens INC and male genitalia develop
Describe congenital adrenal hyperplasia.
females with overactive adrenals during development (ambiguous genitalia), high levels of circulating androgens, tomboys as children, later choice of female sexual partner
Describe hermaphrodism.
both testis and ovary present (ovotestis), spectrum of external genitalia, XX, XY or mosaic, rare
Are there brain differences in transsexuals?
bed nucleus of the stria terminalis, smaller in women than men, transsexuals: smaller than in women
In conclusion, what determines gender?
genes, X, Y, synchronization of hormonal surges, effects of enzymes and intact receptor systems, mismatches between brain and body development are possible
Describe the neurophysiology of bonding.
evolutionary adaptive, secure base associated with optimal personality development, chronic insecurity-developmentally impaired adults (trust, intimacy)
What are nurturant brain circuits?
more developed in women than men, probably evolved from subcortical systems that involve female sexual urges, pituitary hormones: oxytocin (uterine contractions, lactation, sexual feelings, proliferation of receptors in the brain in response to estrogen levels (stria terminalis)
What does oxytocin do for maternal feelings and behaviors?
nesting, other behaviors, damage to this structure signifantly impairs maternal behavior
What role does oxytocin have on maternal behaviors in rats?
virgin females exhibit maternal behavior with direct oxytocin administration (nest building, retrieving, attempts to nurse), maternal behaviors following first delivery can be blocked by oxytocin antagonists (not true of later deliveries (learned behavior), presence of estrogen and prolactin enhances oxytocin response, maternal behavior can also be learned (modeling)
What role does oxytocin have on maternal behaviors in humans?
released in nursing mothers, causes the suckling reflex (conditions to various infant stimuli), directly activates brain reward processes (dopamine and opiods), blocks tolerance to opiod reward (sustains high affective arousal in brain’s opioid experiences
What are the implications?
baby to the brest right after delivary, nursing reinforces the social bond between mother and child via oxytocin and opioids (short and long term)
What are some other benefits of breast feeding?
immune system, IQ, protective effects for infant (leukemias, obesity and diabetes, schizophrenia), protective effects for mother (breast cancer, post partum depression)
Describe learned behavior.
nurturance can be modeled and learned, adoptive parents can bond, some adoptive mothers can lactate
Describe social bond.
positive social interactions derive part of their pleasure form endogenous opioid release (play in young, grooming in adults), understanding of opioid addiction and related behaviors
More on social bond.
1. animals prefer to spend more time with animals in whose present they experienced high brain oxytocin and opioid activites
2. primitive emotional reason we choose to be with friends/family vs. strangers
3. friendships cemented by same chemical systems that mediate maternal and sexual urges
4. understanding behaviors related to drug addiction
Give a summary for the sexuality lecture.
1. default female phenotype, fetal hormonal exposure for male genotype
2. deep brain structures mediate sexual behaviors
3. vasopressin/oxytocin integral
4. nurturant and social bonding appear to have evolved from older sexual circuitry
How is CN I tested?
test ability to identify familiar aromatic odors, one naris at a time with eyes closed, scratch n sniff test, whole cloves or peppermint, don’t use noxious odors (kerosene), elicits pain fibers
How is CN II tested?
test vision with Snellen chart and Rosenbaum near vision chart, ophthalmoscopic exam, look at optic disk, visual acuity, color vision, visual fields to confrontation, papillary response (miosis-pupil gets smaller, mydriasis-when pupil gets really large), direct response, consensual response, accommodation, convergence movements, optokinetic nystagmus (allows the eye to follow objects in motion with the head still)
How is CN III tested?
test visual fields by confrontation and extinction of vision, test extraocular eye movements
What is diplopia?
double vision
How is CN IV tested?
inspect eyelids for drooping, test extraocular eye movements
How is CN VI tested?
inspect pupils’ size fore equality and their direct and consensual response to light and accommodation, test extraocular eye movements
How is CN V tested?
inspect face for muscle atrophy and tremors, palpate jaw muscles for tone and strength when patient clenches teeth, test superficial pain and touch sensation in each branch (test temperature sensation if there are unexpected findings to pain or touch)
How is CN VII tested?
inspect symmetry of facial features with various expressions, test ability to identify sweet and salty tastes on each side of the tongue
How is CN VIII tested?
test sense of hearing with whisper screening tests or by audiometry, compare bone and air conduction of sound, test for lateralization of sound
How is CN IX tested?
test ability to identify sour and bitter tastes, test gag reflex and ability to swallow
How is CN X tested?
inspect palate and uvula for symmetry with speech sounds and gag reflex, observe for swallowing difficulty, evaluate quality of guttural speech sounds (presence of nasal or hoarse quality of voice)
How is CN XI tested?
test trapezius muscle strength (shrug shoulders against resistance), test sternocleidomastoid muscles strength (turn head to each side against resistance)
How is CN XII tested?
inspect tongue in mouth and while protruded for symmetry, tremors and atrophy, inspect tongue movement toward nose and chin, test tongue strength with index finger when tongue is pressed against cheek, evaluate quality of lingual speech sounds
When checking Cn V, VII, IX, X and XII what is the difference between dysarthria and Broca’s aphasia?
dysarthria is a production problem, can’t move tongue or throat to make words, Borca’s aphasia is a brain problem, can’t think of word but can say words (words make no sense but can make words out), stroke common cause for both, myasthenia also can cause dysarthria
What makes up the motor exam portion of the neurological exam?
1. observation-involuntary movements, tremor, hypokinesia
2. inspection-muscle wasting, fasciculations
3. palpation-tenderness (myositis), fasciculations
4. muscle tone-hyporeflexia, hyperreflexia
5. functional testing-drift, fine finger movements, rapid toe tapping
6. strength of individual muscle groups
What is hypokinesia?
slow or diminished movement of body musculature, associated with basal ganglia diseases, 4 types include bradykinesia (slowness of movement), freezing (can’t move), rigidity (INC in muscle tension when moved by an outside force), postural instability (loss of ability to maintain an upright posture)
What are fasciculations?
a muscle twitch, a small, local, involuntary muscle contraction visible under the skin arising from the spontaneous discharge of a bundle of skeletal muscle fibers, associated with lower motor neuron pathology
What is myositis?
inflammation of the muscles, considered likely to be caused by autoimmune conditions, rather than directly due to infection, see an elevation of creatine kinase
What is hyporeflexia? hyperreflexia?
1. hyporeflexia-presence of below normal or absent reflexes, generally associated with a lower motor neuron deficit
2. hyperreflexia-overactive or overresponsive reflexes, include twitching or spastic tendencies, indicative of upper motor neuron disease
What makes up the reflex portion of the neurological examination?
1. deep tendon reflexes-compare both sides, reinforcement, clonus
2. plantar response-babinski’s sign
3. reflexes tested in special situations-suspected spinal cord damage, frontal release signs, posturing
4. frontal lobe release-snout, grasp, palmomental
What is clonus?
is a series of involuntary muscular contractions due to sudden stretching of the muscle, sign of certain neurological conditions, associated with upper motor neuron lesions, rapidly dorsiflex the ankle
What is Babinski’s sign?
identifies disease of the spinal cord and brain, exists as a primitive reflex in infants, check lateral side of the sole of the foot by running from heel to the metatarsal pads, if toes curve inward and the foot everts this is normal, if toes fan out the Babinski sign is + indicating damage to the CNS, can indicate UMN damage to the spinal cord in the thoracic or lumbar region, or damage to the corticospinal tract
What makes up the coordination and gait portion of the neurological examination?
1. appendicular coordination-rapid alternating movements (dysdiadochokinesis), finger-nose-finger test, heel-shin test, ataxia, overshoot
2. Romber test
3. gait-ordinary gait, tandem gait, special gait testing
What is Dysdiadochokinesis?
the inability to perform rapid, alternating movements, feature of cerebellar ataxia, and is the result of lesions to the posterior lobe of the cerebellum, thought to be caused by the inability to switch on and switch off antagonizing muscle groups
What is the Romberg test?
used to asses the dorsal columns of the spinal cord which are essential for joint position sense (proprioception), if + suggests that ataxia is sensory in nature, ask person to stand erect with feet together and eyes closed and watch their movements, + if swaying
hat makes up the sensory exam of the neurological examination?
1. primary sensation-asymmetry, sensory level, pain (sharp vs. dull), temperature (cold vs. warm), vibration sense (tuning fork), joint position sense, light touch and two-point discrimination
2. cortical sensation-graphesthesia, sterognosis (identify objects by touch)
3. extinction, hemineglect (lesion of right parietal lobe)
4. dermatomes, myotomes, sclerotomes
What is graphesthesia?
ability to recognize writing on the skin purely by the sensation of touch, tested in order to test for certain neurological conditions
What is stereognosis?
ability to perceive the form of an object by using the sense of touch, this sense along with tactile spatial acuity, vibration perception, texture discrimination and proprioception are mediated by the dorsal column-medial lemniscal system of the CNS
What is hemineglect?
is a neurological condition in which after damage to one hemisphere of the brain, a deficit in attention to the opposite side of space is observed, most commonly on right cerebral side, if affect right parietal lobe can lead to neglect for the left side of the visual field causing a patient with neglect to behave as if the left side of sensory space is nonexistent, can still turn left
What makes up the coma exam of the neurological examination?
1. level of consciousness
2. ophthalmoscopic exam
3. vision (blink-to-threat)
4. papillary responses
5. vestibule-ocular reflex
6. corneal reflex
7. gag reflex
8. withdrawal from painful stimulus
9. posturing reflexes
What is scotoma?
is an area or island of loss or impairment of visual acuity surrounded by a field of normal or relatively well-preserved vision, blind spot is a scotoma, caused by demyelinating disease such as MS
What is the oculocephalic reflex?
medical sign seen in comatose patients in which the eyes will move opposite the direction the head is turned, thus maintaining a more-or-less steady gase, determines if a comatose patient has intact function of the brainstem, normally in a conscious person this reflex is suppressed by the cerebral cortex
What happens during an upper motor neuron lesion vs. a lower motor neuron lesion in the face?
UMN lesion leads to weakness of inferior facial muscles, LMN lesion leads to weakness of superior and inferior facial muscles
What is decorticate?
posture position, decorticate (flexor, present with arms flexed or bent inward on the chest, hands are in fist and legs extended caused by disinhibition of the lateral vestibulospinal tract and red nucleus, facilitates motor neurons in the lower cord serving extensor muscles of the lower extremities)
What is decerbrate?
decerbrate (involuntary extending of the upper extremities in response to external stimuli, head is arched back, arms are extended by tehs ides and legs are extended, extended elbows, caused by damage to brain stem below the level of the red nucleus)
Compare LMN and UMN defects.
1. strength-DEC, DEC
2. muscle tonus-flaccid, spastic
3. atrophy-present, disuse/less
4. reflexes-DEC, INC
5. plantars-flexor, extensor
6. fasciculations-present, absent
What is spasticity?
INC resistance to passive movement with sudden collapse (clasped knife collapse, UMN sign), pyramidal sign
What is rigidity?
cogwheel and plastic tonus, paratonia (basal ganglion signs), extrapyramidal sign
What is monoparesis?
UMN lesion but occasionally LMN lesion, hemiparesis, paraparesis and quadriparesis are signs of UMN lesions, associated sensory, autonomic, cerebellar and other signs triangulate the lesion
Describe the extent of the association cortex.
the association cortex is almost everywhere, the association cortex is the seat of human cognitive ability and is defined as the remainder of the neocortex after excluding the primary sensory and motor regions, the term association refers to the fact that these regions of the cortex integrate information derived from other brain regions, constitutes about 75 percent of the cortical surface of the brain
What is the study of cognition?
essentially the study of association cortex functions, primary function of the association cortex is cognition
What is cognition?
selective attention to external stimuli and internal motivation, recognition and identification of stimuli (with regard to motivational state), planning responses to stimuli
In terms behavioral psychology, what is the association cortex.
the association cortex lowers the predictability of the stimulus-reponse bond, a bond that allows for the very accurate predictions of a response given a known stimulus in animals with relatively little association cortex
What is the function of the parietal lobe in cognition?
attending to complex stimuli in the external and internal environment
What is the function of the temporal lobe in cognition?
identifying the nature of complex information that has been pre-processed by parietal association cortical structures by matching it to some stored template
What is the function of the frontal lobe in cognition?
planning (and executing) a behavioral response to such stimuli, active aspects of attention as well
What makes up the neocortex?
association cortex along with the primary and secondary sensory and motor areas, it is six layers, however not all neocrotex is alike-cytoarchitectonically speaking, association is not the most differentiated and is not the newest cortex to emerge, what is new in humans is its relative mass, not all cortex is neocortex
What is not classified as neocortex?
hippocampal cortex and in general a great deal of the cortex on the underside of the brain is three or four layered archiocrotex, not six layered neocortex, while not typically referred to as association cortex, these cortically structures function much as association cortex
What are the commonalities of all neocortical regions?
1. each cortical layer has a primary source of inputs and a primary output target
2. each area has connections in the vertical axis (columnar) and connections in the horizontal axis (lateral)
3. cells with similar function tend to be arrayed in radially aligned groups
4. interneurons within specific layers provide for extensive local horizontal connections (within a given cortical layer) linking functionally similar groups of cells
Describe the association cortex connectivity.
The most extensive inputs to any given region of the association cortex come from other cortical regions (cortico-cortical connections). The immediately adjacent regions provide the most input, and levels of input taper down as regions of origin become more distant. Connections are ipsilateral and contralateral—the latter via the corpus callosum and anterior commussure.
What is the major source of inputs to the association cortex?
thalamus, some primary connections include:
1. other cortical regions -> pulvinar nucleus -> parietal association cortex
2. other cortical regions -> lateral posterior nucleus -> temporal association cortex
3. other cortical regions -> medial dorsal nucleus -> frontal association cortex
What do the signals coming into the association cortex carry?
The signals coming into the association cortices via the thalamus carry highly processed sensory and motor information from multiple areas of the cerebral cortex. (An important clinical implication of this is that thalamic lesions may produce symptoms that mimic cortical lesions).
Where are some other strong inputs from? what are they involved in?
Other strong inputs are from the brainstem and basal forebrain regions—dopaminergic, noradrenergic and serotonergic nuclei from the brainstem reticular formation and the cholinergic nuclei of the brainstem and basal forebrain. These pathways are involved in psychiatric and degenerative neurologic conditions and are a focal point of most of the effects of drugs aimed at altering emotional or cognitive symptoms.
Where do the outputs of the association cortex go?
Outputs from association areas go primarily to hippocampus, basal ganglia, cerebellum, thalamus, and other association cortices.
What are the effects of lesions to the parietal lobe on the right side?
1. defects appear to be in the spatial distribution of attention
2. contralateral neglect syndrome (hemi-neglect)
3. disruption in spatial frame of reference
What are the effects of lesions to the parietal lobe on the left side?
1. receptive aphasic deficits
2. sub-clinical defect in spatial distribution of attention
3. also right-left confusion, finger agnosia and others
what are the effects of lesion to the temporal lobe on the right side?
1. object agnosia-failing to match a highly processed sensory representation of an object to a stored template to achieve recognition
2. prosopagnosia-a special case of object agnosia, most broadly a failure to identify individual objects within a category while identifying the category
What are the effects of lesion to the temporal lobe on the left side?
1. anomia-the representation of the word for the recognized object is not accessible
What are the effects of lesion to the frontal lobe on the right side?
1. aprosodias
2. motor program deficits
what are the effects of lesion to the frontal lobe on the left side?
1. expressive aphasias
2. motor program deficits
What are the effects of lesion to the frontal lobe in general (mostly prefrontal, medial and orbital-frontal)?
1. compromise the ability to plan behavior in relation to the environment and to use memories to guide the appropriateness of behavior in various situations
2. defects in the impulse to act (lack of or too much)
3. defects in active attention
Describe the clinical study of localization.
The clinical study of the localization—relating specific cognitive functions to specific brain structures, is largely confined to patients who have suffered small and localized strokes, small penetrating injuries, small tumors, or to patients who have (again small) neurosurgical lesions. Such patients are a small subset of brain-injured patients.
Describe the patients who are most likely to show symptoms due to injury to the association cortices?
1. middle cerebral artery stroke
2. traumatic brain injury-particularly in decelerating brain injuries
3. neurologic degenerative diseases
What is neuropsychological testing?
The fundamental principals of neuropsychological testing are the same as those guiding a basic mental status examination (and many aspects of the basic neurological examination). What is added to the medical examination is the science of psychometrics.
What domains are sampled in neuropsychological testing?
1. perception
2. recent memory
3. visuo-spatial abilities
4. language
5. abstraction (thinking and reasoning)
6. executive functions
7. affect
8. impulse
9. insight
What is behavioral neurology?
Essentially it is the neurological study of syndromes associated with injury to the association cortex.
What is lateralization?
Lateralization refers to the functional specialization of one hemisphere for a particular cognitive activity.
What is the difference between speech and language?
Speech is distinct from language. About 200 phonemes are the basic building blocks of speech. You could say that speech is the ability to quickly and fluidly produce long sequences of phonemes. Assigning meaning to these arbitrary phoneme sequences is language.
What is aphasia?
Aphasia involves the compromise of essential language (symbolic) functions while leaving the sensory and motor components of verbal (and written) communication intact. The emphasis on the loss of the ability to produce or understand symbolic as opposed to realistic representations is important. The more symbolic the representation, the less understanding in the presence of an aphasia.
Who is Paul Broca?
Paul Broca was one of the first to associate language with the left hemisphere.
Who is Carl Wernicke?
Carl Wernicke distinguished receptive language deficits from expressive ones. Later Norman Geschwind elaborated on the distinctions first made by Wernicke resulting in our current heuristic model for the aphasias.
What causes focal brain syndromes?
-All focal brain syndromes can be considered to be the result of:
1. The destruction of a particular information processing center (e.g., Broca’s area, Wernicke’s) or
2. A disconnection of inputs to, or outputs from, such a center.
-Appreciating this leads to the basis for the current conceptual model of the aphasias.
What is conduction aphasia?
Conduction aphasia is a classic example of a disconnection syndrome.
What are the different types of aphasia?
Broca’s aphasia
Wernicke’s aphasia
Conduction aphasia
thalamic aphasias
What is atherosclerosis?
Atherosclerosis: decades-long process; progression favored by hypercholesterolemia, HTN, cigarette smoking, fatty streak, focal plaques and complicated fibrous plaques
What are fatty streaks?
Fatty streak: yellowish discoloration on intimal surface of blood vessel; microscopically, lipid –filled macrophages called “foam cells” (may be present even in childhood)
What are focal plaques?
Focal plaques: eccentric thickening at bifurcations; addition of massive extracellular lipids that displaced normal cells and matrix (late childhood or early Adolescence)
What are complicated fibrous plaques?
Complicated fibrous plaques: central acellular area of lipid covered by a cap of smooth muscle cells and collagen (third decade of life); with endothelial injury, caps thicken quickly as a result of thrombosis-dependent fibrotic organization
What is the response to injury hypothesis of artherogenesis?
Atherosclerosis begins as a response to chronic minimal injury to the endothelium and interactions among monocytes, lipoproteins, platelets, lymphocytes, and smooth muscle cells abet and continue the pathogenic process
What are the 3 types of vascular injury?
1. Type I injury: functional alterations of endothelial cells; primarily caused by
turbulence of blood flow
Other factors: HTN, hypercholesterolemia, circulating vasoactive amines, immunocomplexes, viral infections, and a chemical irritant in tobacco smoke
2. Type II injury: denuding of endothelium and superficial intimal injury accompanied by platelet deposition with or without thrombus formation
3. Type III injury: deep intimal and medial damage with marked platelet aggregation and mural thrombosis (usually seen following plaque rupture)
What is the role of monocytes?
Monocytes bind to endothelium after vascular cell adhesion molecule (VCAM) is expressed, insinuate themselves between endothelial cells . Once in the intima, they are transformed into macrophages and ingest modified lipids (primarily oxidized lipids).
What are T lymphoctyes?
T lymphocytes help to mobilize macrophages.
Describe the oxidation of LDL-cholesterol.
-“Scavenger receptor” on macrophages readily takes up oxidized LDL
-Oxidation induced by free radicals produced by macrophages, endothelial cells, or smooth muscle cells
-Oxidized LDL-cholesterol contribute to atherogenesis in 3 other ways: 1) its cytotoxic properties promote endothelial injury; 2) acts as chemoattractant for monocytes; and 3) inhibits egress of macrophages from plaques
Describe smooth muscle cell migration and proliferation.
-Makes up substantial bulk of plaque
-Factors involved: 1) growth factors (PDGF), 2) eicosanoids, 3) certain cytokines (eg, tumor necrosis factor, interleukin-1 and interferon), and 4) nitric oxide
What are the role of platelets?
-Contribute to formation of capsule of “fatty lesions”, of subendothelial “fibrointimal lesions” and stimulate migration and proliferation of smooth muscle cells
-Platelet activation: incited by exposed collagen; activated platelets acquire enhanced capacity to catalyze interactions between activated coagulation factors
-Platelet adhesion: promoted by damage to intimal surface, toxic products released by macrophages; platelets adhere to subendothelial receptors (mainly, GP-Ib-IX)
-Platelet aggregation: interplatelet bridging (receptor GP IIb-IIIa)
Describe thrombosis.
-Activation of coagulation cascade culminates in generation of thrombin which converts soluble fibrinogen to fibrin forming a blood clot. Fibrin molecules aggregate together, trapping platelets, erythrocytes, and leukocytes
-Thrombosis on atherosclerotic plaque may precipitate acute episodes of transient ischemia and ischemic stroke (as well as MI and unstable angina)
What determines the severity of brain dysfunction and thus the severity of stroke?
Duration, severity and location of focal cerebral ischemia determine the severity of brain dysfunction and thus the severity of stroke.
What is the requirement of constant energy supply?
The transient change in voltage induced by the action potential is determined by the concentration of ions on either side of cell membrane. Maintaining these ionic gradients is an energy-consuming process that requires constant supply of glucose and oxygen to the neuron.
What happens with inadequate energy supply?
-Cellular energy stores depleted due to lack of glucose and oxygen
-“Leaky” membrane leads to K+ and ATP loss
-5-10 minutes required for irreversible brain damage
-One or more branching mechanisms may independently lead to cell death:
-May involve 1) deterioration of ion gradients or 2) effects of anaerobic metabolism
Describe the deterioration of ion gradients leading to excitotoxicity.
• Anoxic depolarization (equilibrium of intracellular and intracellular ions) causes potassium exit & sodium, chloride and calcium entry
• Massive release of glutamate & aspartate
• Glutamate further activates sodium & calcium ion channels in the neuron membrane ---- cytotoxic edema
• Activation of calcium channels result in furher influx of calcium
• Entry of calcium through N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) channel activation: further depletion of energy, activation of proteases, lipases, and nucleases
• These enzymes & their metabolic products (oxygen free radicals) cause cell death
• Neuroprotective agents: drugs that would block above steps; still investigational
What is the ischemic penumbra?
• Core ischemic zone: blood flow below 10% to 25 %, severe ischemia can result in necrosis of neurons and glial cells
• Penumbral zone: mild to moderately ischemic tissue between normally perfused area and the area in which infarction is evolving; ailing but salvageable tissue; supplied by collaterals; extent varies directly with the number and patency of collateral arteries; if reperfusion not established in the early hours, cells may die
What are the cerebral infarcation/effects of edema?
• Edema may cause further damage by compressing neurons, nerve tracts, and cerebral arteries
• May increase intracranial pressure (ICP) or shift structures within cranial vault
• Two major types of edema: 1) Cytotoxic: onset within minutes to hours; swelling of all cellular elements of the brain (neurons, glia, endothelial cells); increased intracellular calcium activates phospholipases and the release of arachidonic acid, leading to release of free radicals and infarction, 2) Vasogenic: increase in extracellular fluid volume due to increased permeability of brain capillary endothelial cells (onset within hours to days)
Describe the anaerobic glycolytic pathways.
• Compensate for loss of oxygen & provide source of energy
• Produce damaging byproducts including lactic acid and hydrogen ions (latter facilitate ferrous-iron-mediated free radical mechanisms; irreversibly affect neuronal integrity)
What is transient ischemic attack (TIA)?
A clinical syndrome characterized by an acute loss of focal brain or monocular function with symptoms lasting less than 24 hrs and which is thought to be due to inadequate cerebral or ocular blood supply, without ischemic changes in Diffusion Weighted Imaging (DWI)
What is stroke?
Clinical syndrome characterized by an acute loss of focal brain or monocular function with symptoms lasting greater than 24 hrs and which is thought to be due to inadequate cerebral or ocular blood supply.
Describe the importance of cerebrovascular accident or brain attack.
 Third leading cause of death
 750, 000 cases/year
 Leading cause of significant disability
 Cost: $40 billion/year
What are the different types of stroke?
 Ischemic, 80% (non-hemorrhagic, bland stroke)
-thrombosis, 50% (small & large-vessel), usually when sleeping or lying down
-embolism, 30% [now believed significantly higher], usually when active
 Hemorrhagic, 20%
- intracerebral (HTN (hypertension) as risk)
- subarachnoid (aneurysm)
What are some non-modifiable risk factors of stroke?
 Age
 Gender (male)
 Race (asians, blacks, females more prone to intracranial stenosis)
 Diabetes mellitus (treated or not)
 Prior stroke or transient ischemic attack
 Family history
 Asymptomatic carotid bruit (playing alone and then listening to colleagues and then hear a bruit when they are asymptomatic)
What are some less well-documented non-modifiable risk factors of stroke?
 Geography/ climate
 Socioeconomic factors
Describe diabetes mellitus as a non-modifiable risk factor of stroke.
 Non-modifiable risk factor
 Stroke 2.5 – 4 X more common
 Microvascular complications (retinopathy, nephropathy, neuropathy, stroke), Macrovascular complications: MI, Peripheral Vascular Disease (PVD), stroke)
Describe hypertension as a treatable risk factor for stroke.
Hypertension: accelerates atherosclerosis, promotes microaneurysm formation (in the subcortical areas of the brain, why HTN is a known culprit for hemorrhage)
Describe heart disease as a treatable risk factor for stroke.
Heart disease (atrial fibrillation, recent MI, valvular disease)
Describe cigarette smoking as a treatable risk factor for strok.
Cigarette smoking: increases BP, CO, platelet aggregation 50% risk overall, if stop smoking then risk goes down, but chances of lung cancer are a lot higher, High cholesterol & lipids, obesity, inactivity
What are some less well documented risk factors for stroke?
 Alcoholism-it alters platelet function, may give rise more to hemorrhagic stroke than bland stroke
 Drug abuse (cocaine, methamphetamine), if taking slimming pills, more you do these durgs the more prone the vessels are to microhemorrhage
 Bacterial infections, tonsilitis esp. in kids, can get some type of vasculitis (is a strong risk factor for stroke)
What are some potential genetic risk factors for stroke?
 Presence of Apolipoprotein E4 forms part of VLDL,
 High homocysteine level (may be born with high homocysteine, most common cause is folate deficiency)
 Factor V mutation resistance to anticoagulant protein C
What are the stages of atherosclerosis and thrombosis?
1. Fatty streak-fatty streak at age 11 or 12
2. Focal plaques
3. Complicated fibrous plaques
What role do statins have on atherogenesis?
 Statins prevent the Oxidation of LDL cholesterol (oxidized LDL promotes more injury, attracts more monocytes, inhibits egress of macrophages from plaques
 Smooth muscle cell migration and proliferation, makes plaque stable
What is the role of platelets on atherogenesis?
1. adhesion
2. activation
3. aggregation
Describe thrombosis.
 Activation of coagulation cascade
 Generation of thrombin (converts fibrinogen to fibrin)
 Trapping of platelets, erythrocytes, monocytes (red fibrin clot)
 Thrombosis on atherosclerotic plaque may precipitate cerebrovascular accident (CVA), MI or unstable angina
What is the difference between diffusion weighted MRI and perfusion-weighted MRI?
-diffusion-weighted can display an area of infarction
-perfussion-weighted can show the wider area of ischemia, the difference between the lesion as shown on perfusion-weighted MRI and diffusion weighted MRI represents tissue that is potentially salvageable
Describe the core zone in the ischemic penumbra.
 Core zone: severely ischemic, blood flow below 10%-25%
 Penumbral zone: viable but ailing since collateral flow is inadequate to maintain neuronal demand for oxygen and glucose
What are the effects of edema/cerebral infarction?
 The infarcted tissue causes edema, shift of brain substance causing further damage by compressing other structures (neurons, nerve tracts and cerebral arteries)
a) Cytotoxic edema: neurons, glia, and endothelial cells swell (within minutes)
b) Vasogenic edema: increased permeability of capillary endothelial cells to serum proteins (delayed onset)
Describe the deterioration of ion gradients.
 Egress of K+, ingress of Na+, Cl-, Ca++
 Massive release of glutamate and aspartate (excitatory)
 Activation of Na+ and Ca++ ion channels
 Accumulation of Na+ and Ca++, accompanied by inflow of water ---- cytotoxic edema
 Entry of Ca++ causes activation of proteases, lipases, nucleases --- damage of cell membranes, genetic material, structural proteins --- cell death
What are the 5 basic objectives of emergent evaluation of stroke patients?
 Confirm that stroke is the cause of symptoms (make sure it is not due to bell’s palsy)
 Provide information about possible reversibility of the pathology
 Give clues about etiology
 Predict likelihood of complications; and
 Begin appropriate treatment
What does the AHA stroke council recommended for the assessment of a person with a suspected stroke?
 EMS should be instructed in the rapid recognition, evaluation, treatment and transport
 Baseline assessment within minutes, CT scan ASAP; use National Institutes of Health Stroke Scale (NIHSS)
What characterizes the immediate evaluation of persons suspected with stroke?
1. Airway
2. Vital signs
3. General medical assessment (including evidence of injury, cardiovascular abnormalities)
4. Neurological assessment (frequent)
What is the clinical presentation of acute stroke?
 Can be maximal at onset, stepwise (“stuttering”), or fluctuating
 Ischemic & hemorrhagic: clinical presentations overlap
 DDx: seizures (Todd’s paralysis), brain tumors, hypoglycemia, other metabolic disturbances
What does the middle cerebral artery supply?
 supplies the lateral surface of hemisphere except for:
1. frontal lobe
2. strip along superomedial border of frontal lobe
3. lowest temporal convolutions
 Most frequently affected in embolic & thrombotic stroke
Describe a left MCA territory stroke: dominant hemisphere.
 Cortex & white matter (WM) of the lateral & inferior aspects of frontal lobe, motor cortex (areas 4 & 6, center for contraversive eye movements, motor speech area of Broca), cortex & WM of the lateral parietal lobe (sensory cortex, angular & supramarginal gyri), lateral & superior parts of the temporal lobe, insula
How does a left MCA territory stroke: dominant hemisphere present clinically?
global aphasia, eyes deviated to left (when have a seizure eyes deviate away from where it is firing, if destructive then eyes deviate to site of lesion); right hemiparesis (arm weaker than leg), right hemisensory deficits, right homonymous hemianopsia (right visual field cut)
Describe right MCA territory stroke: non-dominant hemisphere.
 Aphasia not present
 Spatial disorientation (with disorder of body image), left hemineglect, anosognosia
 Dysarthria may be present
Describe a posterior circulation (vertebrobasilar territory) stroke.
 Ataxia, gait abnormalities
 Diplopia, oscillopsia, nystagmus, dysconjugate eye movements
 Nausea & vomiting (center is in area post-rema)
 Crossed hemiparesis, hemisensory deficits
 Headache more common
Describe the evaluation and work-up of a stroke patient.
 History and PE
 Computed Tomography (CT) scan of the head
 12-lead EKG, chest X-ray
 Complete blood count, PT, PTT
 Chemistries (sodium, phosphate, glucose abnormalities may mimic stroke)
 Urine and serum toxicology (drugs and alcohol)
What are some other neuroimaging techniques and ancillary tests?
 Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI), Diffusion Weighted Imaging (DWI), Magnetic Resonance Angiography (MRA)
 Ultrasound (Carotid Duplex, Transcranial Doppler, 2-D echo)
 Conventional Angiography
 Single Photon Emission Computed Tomography (SPECT)
 Positron Emission Tomography
What other tests may be required under special circumstances?
 Cervical spine x-ray
 Arterial blood gas
 Lumbar puncture
 Electroencephalogram (EEG)
Describe emergent supportive care.
 Maintenance of adequate tissue oxygenation: protecting the airway, O2 inhalation
 Maintaining optimal blood pressure (autoregulation faulty or lost in stroke patients
 Management of blood glucose abnormalities (hyperglycemia associated with poorer prognosis)
 Management of fever and infections (ischemia worsened by hyperthermia, improved by hypothermia
What are the therapies with FDA approval?
 IV TPA (< 3hours)
 IA fibrinolysis (< 6 hours)
 IA MERCI retriever < 8 hours
 Endovascular temperature control
Describe acute stroke treatment.
 Intravenous recombinant tissue plasminogen activator (TPA): within 3 hours of stroke symptom onset
 Intraarterial TPA: within 6 hours; MCA territory stroke by angiography
What are some known factors that cause stroke progression?
 Hypotension
 Hyperglycemia
 Hyperthermia
 Infection
 Cerebral hypoperfusion
What is the treatment of brain swelling?
 Cerebral perfusion pressure =MAP-ICP
 Fluid Restriction (1200 ml /day/m2)
 Controlled hyperventilation: 25 mm Hg
 Mannitol, 0.25 mg/kg IV over 20 minutes; repeat PRN, serum osmolality maintained in the range of 300-320mOsm/l
 Barbiturate coma, with ICP monitoring (subarachnoid bolt, IV catheter or Camino catheter): maintain CPP greater than 50 mmHg; pentobarbital serum level of 2-4 mg/dl
 Surgery (wait 2 weeks)
Describe the management of cerebral edema, INC intracranial pressure and hydrocephalus.
 Brain edema peaks at 3-5 days
 Treatment includes:
1. hyperventilation (lower PCO2)
2. osmotic diuretics
3. drainage of CSF (ventriculostomy)
4. surgery (lobectomy)
Describe neuroprotective agents.
 Several trials going on
 So far, trial on one free-radical scavenger showed positive results
 Phase II trials have proven beneficial; Phase III (human efficacy trials) non-benefial to negative
 Common measures may “neuroprotect”
Describe stroke prevention.
 Anticoagulants (Heparin, Warfarin)
 Antiplatelets (aspirin, clopidogrel dipyridamole/ASA combination, ticlopidine)
 Carotid endarterectomy if indicated
 Risk factor control!
Describe the concept of stroke teams and stroke units.
 “Time is brain”
 Stroke awareness
 Common mistakes may lead to fatal consequences
 Boutique stroke neurology: Patients will receive best care; length of stay shortened
what is learning
adaptive change in behavior caused by experience (observable change in activity important to the welfare of the organisms
what is memory
internal storage and recall of previously learned behaviors
what is foregetting
loss of memory function, retrograde vs. anterograde amnesia
What are the classifications of memory?
by function and temporality
Describe the functional classification of memory
1. declarative (explicit)-storage and recall information available to the conscious mind, 2 subtypes (EPISODIC memory-specific personal events, can be looked up, SEMANTIC memory-generic facts and meaning about the world around us, the gist (of course semantic memory must somehow be extracted from episodic experience)
2. non-declarative (implicit, procedural)-storage and subconscious retrieval of skills and associations, performance skills (how to) and interpretation 9attractive funny) can’t be readily verbalized
Describe the temporality classification of memory
1. immediate-rapid decay (seconds or less) orf a sensory experience
2. working-retention and recall of events for a period of seconds to minutes (actually attentional looping of immediate memory and LTM with suppression of distraction stimuli
3. short-term-minutes to a few hours
4. long-term-permanently available (due to storage of engram)
What is the difference between biological memory and CPU memory?
unlike CPU memory, biological memory arises from activity of the processors (neurons) themselves, in the context of behavior. the brain is not a computer
Describe the epidemiology of dementia.
Worldwide, at least 7 per cent of persons over 65 and nearly half of those over 85 have some form of dementing illness
Including milder forms of dementia, the prevalence may rise to 15 per cent of the elderly
Prevalence closer to 8-10 per cent in US and other developed countries with longer life spans
What is the effect of age on dementia.
The epidemic nature of dementia derives from the sharp rise in its incidence with age
The elderly population is increasing rapidly both in absolute numbers and percentage of the population
Proportion of US population > 65 years of age
Moreover, the most rapidly growing age group are the very old, those 85 and older, who may account for 18.2 million people by mid 21st century
Describe the financial burden of dementia
In the US, dementia costs over $100 billlion per year
Approximately 10 per cent of all health care expenditures
Dementia patients account for a disproportionate use of health care resources
Dementia patients account for more hospitalization days than any other psychiatric condition among geriatric age group
Immense burden not only to patients but to their caregivers, the health care system, and society as a whole
What is the definition of dementia?
Dementia is a syndrome of acquired, persistent intellectual impairment that is due to brain dysfunction
How is dementia diagnosed?
Operationally, dementia implies impairment in three or more of the following domains of mental capacity: (Memory, Praxis, Executive Functions, Language, Calculations, Personality, Perception, Semantic Knowledge, Emotional Expression or Awareness
Compromise documented by mental status assessment, either by bedside mental status evaluation, clinical rating scales or by neuropsychological testing
Describe acquired dementia.
congenital mental, retardation and developmental delay
Describe persistent dementia.
delirium
Describe multiple cognitive deficits.
isolated, neuropsychological deficits (amnesia or aphasia)
What are some dementia myths?
(1) Dementia is a global impairment of intellectual function
(2)Dementia always impairs memory
(3) Dementia always impairs insight; patients aware of their deficits don’t have dementia (4) Dementia is a cognitive disorder and never primarily a behavioral disorder
(5) Dementia is an inevitable part of aging and is synonymous with “senility”
(6)Dementia is synonymous with Alzheimer’s disease
(7) Dementia cannot have an acute onset
(8) Dementia is an untreatable disorder
What are some characteristics of AD?
-Onset usually after age 65
-Gradually progressive course
-Early memory impairment with aphasia, agnosia, perceptual impairment, dysexecutive syndrome
What are some characteristics of vascular dementia?
-Stepwise deterioration
-Focal neurological deficits
-Evidence of vascular disease by history, exam and neuroimaging
What are some characteristics of dementia with Lewy bodies?
-Fluctuating cognition, alertness
-Visual hallucinosis and psychosis
-Parkinsonism
-neuroleptic drug sensitivity
What are some characteristics of frontotemporal dementia?
-Onset usually before age 65
-Insidious onset and gradual progression
-Alteration of judgment and social conduct
-Progressive aphasia, relatively intact memory
Describe the mental status assessment.
The ability to demonstrate alterations in mental functions is critical in the evaluation of dementia
Mental status evaluation (MSE) is the essential tool for this task
MSE can distinguish the intellectual changes of dementia from those associated to delirium, isolated cognitive deficits, normal aging and other conditions
Identifies patterns and profiles of neurobehavioral dysfunction which suggest specific dementing diseases
Establishes and communicates severity of dementia and follow course of patients over time
Describe the fundamental sphere of mental function.
-Arousal-Response to verbal or physical stimulation
-Attention-Ability to focus on selected stimuli without distraction
-Mental Control-manipulation of attention, initiation and performance action
Describe the instrumental sphere of mental function.
-Language-Symbolic communication: naming, verbal fluency and comprehension
-Memory-New learning and information retrieval
-Perception (visuospatial)-Interpretation of sensory input, drawing and copying
-Praxis-Integration and performance of learned, complex motor act
-Calculations-Interpretation of numeric symbols and calculation
-Semantic Knowledge-Knowledge of words, concepts, meanings
-Executive Functions- Goal-directed behavior, strategic planning and execution
Describe the behavioral fundamental sphere of mental function.
-Personality and Social-Social interactions and self-regulation
-Emotion-Emotional reactivity and engagement, awareness of others
Describe the arousal and attention elements of a screening mental status evaluation.
-Response to physical and verbal stimuli
-Assess novel tasks, digit span, orientation to time and place
Describe the language element of a screening mental status evaluation.
-Object naming (at least six common items)
-Category word list generation
Describe the memory element of a screening mental status evaluation.
-Orientation for time and place
-Word list registration and recall
Describe the perception and construction.
-Copy a cube or intersecting pentagons
-Clock drawing task
Describe the personality and emotion elements of a screening mental status evaluation.
-Observe propriety of interpersonal conduct and emotional behavior
What are some mental status behavioral rating scales?
-mini-mental state examination (MMSE) (most popular)
-mattis dementia rating scale (DRS)
-blessed dementia scale (BDS)
Describe the mini cog mental status evaluation.
Mini Cog combines the 3 item recall and Clock Drawing Test
Studied as a screening test for dementia among 249 community dwelling adults and compared with DSM-IV and NINCDS-ADRDA diagnostic criteria and other screening tests, the Mini Mental State Examination (MMSE) and Cognitive Abilities Screening Instrument (CASI)
Participants were judged to be demented if either the 3 item recall score was 0 or the 3 item recall score was 1 to 2 and CDT error score was rated between 1 (mild) and 3 (severe)
With this algorithm, Mini Cog had sensitivity of 99%, highest among the three instruments tested, and specificity of 93%
Describe the utilization of the standardized neuropsychological tests.
Can confirm dementia or impairment in mental status domains
Useful when thorough and precise analysis of cognitive function is required, and when mild deficits are suspected
Useful in quantifying cognitive impairment and residual strengths
Can help monitor progression or recovery; assess interventions
Useful in distinguishing dementia from depression
Describe normal aging vs. dementia.
Normal aging results in a characteristic pattern of cognitive and behavioral changes (this is not dementia)
Most consistently manifests as a generalized slowing of both intellectual and physical performance
What are some typical features of the classical aging pattern?
-Decreased complex or sustained attention
-Interference from redundant or irrelevant material
-Preserved crystallized intelligence (old solutions)
-Decreased fluid intelligence (new information for novel solutions)
-Relatively stable verbal IQ
-Decline in performance IQ
-Decreased working memory
-Slowed retrieval of stored memory
Describe mild cognitive impairment.
An amnestic syndrome in which pts have isolated impairments in memory beyond those of age-matched and education-matched cohorts
MCI pts show memory loss similar to that seen in AD but lack deficits in other domains and therefore do not have dementia
MCI “converts” to dementia at a rate of 10-15% per year while the conversion rate to AD in absence of MCI is 1-2% for general pop’n
MCI is emerging as a candidate transitional state between normal and AD and increasing diagnostic accuracy for MCI is an area of intense interest
At autopsy, MCI resembles AD with 60% or more that demonstrate neocortical and limbic neuropathology characteristic of AD
What is the differential diagnosis for delirium vs. dementia?
look at slide 20
What is the epidemiology concerning AD?
Currently 2-4 million Americans have AD
Mean cost of care per patient per year estimated at $20-30 K
Prevalence doubles approximately every five years after age 60: 1% affected at age 60, 2% at age 65-69, 4% at age 70-74, 8% at age 75-79 and ultimately between 26 and 45% of those 85 and older
AD may play a role in one-third of all deaths in North America
With increasing size of the aged population, it is predicted that in US alone, the number of persons with the disease may reach 14 million by year 2050
What is the diagnostic criteria for probable AD?
-Dementia established by clinical examination and documented by mental status scales
-Deficits in 2 or more cognitive domains
-Progressive deterioration of memory and other cognitive domains
-Absence of delirium
-Onset between ages 40 and 90
-Exclusion of systemic/brain disorders capable of producing dementia
What is the diagnostic criteria for possible AD?
-Atypical presentation or course of a dementia of unknown etiology
-Progressive deterioration of a single cognitive domain
-Presence of a systemic or other brain disorder not thought to be the cause of dementia
Does a diagnosis of AD during life guarantee the presence of AD at autopsy?
Despite these formal clinical criteria, a diagnosis of AD during life does not guarantee the presence of AD at autopsy
In early follow-up studies, accuracy of the clinical diagnosis 50-60%
Following implementation of NINCDS-ADRDA and DSM-IV criteria, the sensitivity of clinical diagnosis rose to 85-90%
Describe the memory clinical characteristics of AD.
-AD often begins with a 3-6 year preclinical period during which episodic memory deficits occur without other symptoms of dementia
-encoding deficit -> DEC delayed recall -> accelerated forgetting relative preservation of (Long-term memory, Procedural memory)
Describe the language clinical characteristic of AD.
In AD, initial word-finding difficulty progresses to poor naming (dysnomia) and impaired comprehension
In early disease, there may be poor word list generation, particularly for words in a given semantic category
As AD progresses, dysnomia worsens with paraphasias and spontaneous speech becomes increasingly empty
With further progression, impaired comprehension of speech and writing are apparent
Phonology and basic syntax are relatively spared
Describe the perception and construction clinical characteristic of AD.
Visuospatial impairment is another early manifestation of AD
Evident as inability to orient themselves in their surroundings
Simple drawing tests reveal an inability to copy elementary figures or 3-dimensional representations accurately
Left hemispatial neglect has been documented in association with decreased right parieto-occipital metabolism and blood flow
As disease progresses, agnosic difficulties may appear
Describe executive dysfunction as a clinical characteristic of AD.
Subtle executive impairments occur early in AD
Frontal-executive disturbances: (impaired insight, decreased goal-directed behavior, poor abstractions and reasoning)
Lack of concern for deficits may delay patients presentation for evaluation
Describe the behaviorl symptoms associated with the clinical characteristics of AD.
Personality and social behavior not markedly changed in early AD
Preserved behaviors allow patients to continue functioning socially and leads others to underestimate or excuse their cognitive deficits
What are the range of behavioral symptoms?
1. indifference and apathy
2. agitation, anxiety, aggression
3. disinhibition and wandering
4. depression (common and variably reported)
What are the symptoms associated with AD patients with delirium?
Nearly half of all AD patients exhibit delusions during the course of the disease. This generally carries a worse prognosis due to association with greater and more rapid cognitive decline: (Theft (35%), Phantom boarder syndrome (17%) , Interaction with deceased (18%), Copgras-like syndrome (17%), General persecutory (18%), Spousal infidelity (8%))
Describe sleep, appetite and sexual behavior in AD patients.
AD patients experience disturbances of sleep, appetite and sexual behavior (sleep fragmentation, increased latency to REM, Diminished SWS and REM sleep, REM behavior disorder, Nocturnal agitation (sundowning))
What are the neurological symptoms of AD?
Neurologic exam generally normal during first stage of disease
During later stages, motor system abnormalities appear: (extrapyramidal (parkinsonian) rigidity (EPS), gegenhalten, spasticity)
Eye movement difficulties: tracking errors, hypometric saccades, gaze impersistence
In later stages, spontaneous non-startle myoclonic jerks and seizures may occur
In terminal stages, AD patients become non-ambulatory and often mute, develop fecal and urinary incontinence and primitive and disinhibited cortical reflexes
Describe the disease course and prognostic factors.
Mean survival after symptom onset is 10.3 yrs, with a range of 2-20
Low intellect or educational level correlates with risk for AD in most but not all studies
Negative prognostic factors include a later age of onset of symptoms, prominent delusional and other psychotic symptoms, and comorbid cerebrovascular disease, heart failure, history of alcohol abuse and institutionalization
Death ultimately results from complications of terminal stage illness
What are the principal findings in the preclinical stage (1-3 years) of AD?
-Mild Cognitive Impairment
-Memory: new learning defective, remote recall mildly impaired
-Perception: topographic disorientation, poor complex constructions
-Language: poor word-list generation, mild dysnomia, empty speech
-Behavior: indifference, irritability, sadness or delusions in some
-CT/MRI: atrophy of mesiotemporal and hippocampal structures
-PET/SPECT: bilateral posterior parietal hypometabolism/hypoperfusion
What are the principal findings in stage 2 (2-10 years) of AD?
-Memory: recent and remote recall more severely impaired
-Perception: poor constructions, spatial disorientation, visual agnosias
-Language: fluent aphasia, anomia, paraphasia, poor comprehension
-Other cognitive impairment: apraxia and acalculia
-Behavioral: indifference or irritability, sadness or delusions
-Motor system: restlessness
-EEG: slowing of background rhythm
-CT/MRI: normal or ventricular dilatation and sulcal enlargement
-PET/SPECT: temporoparietal hypometabolism/hypoperfusion
What are the principal findings in stage 3 (8-12 years) of AD?
-Cognitive functions: severely deteriorated
-Speech: echolalia, dysarthria, mutism
-Motor: limb rigidity, gegenhalten, flexion posture
-EEG: diffusely slow
-CT/MRI: Advancing atrophy
-PET/SPECT: bilateral temporoparietal and frontal hypometabolism/hypoperfusion
Describe laboratory investigation for AD.
Although no definite laboratory test for AD, diagnostic tests can strengthen the clinical diagnosis by exclusion of other diseases
This depends on routinely obtaining: (blood count, thyroid function tests chemistries, Vitamin B 12, CT or MRI (recommended), genetic or CSF studies (only in select cases))
Other tests are supplementary and may be considered in select situations
Describe neuroimaging investigation for AD.
Brain CT or MRI may disclose other disorders masquerading as AD
In AD, imaging may be normal or may demonstrate non- specific generalized cerebral atrophy or focal atrophy in the mesiotemporal regions and hippocampal structures
On MRI, degree of hippocampal volume loss correlates well with degree of cognitive impairment and amount of hippocampal pathology at autopsy
Describe functional neuroimaging for AD.
Cerebral blood flow and metabolism are consistently reduced in AD and can be demonstrated with either positron emission tomography (PET) or single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT)
Decreases in metabolism are most prominent in the parieto-temporal regions bilaterally, followed later by reduction in the frontal association areas
In early stage disease, parietotemporal hypometabolism may be unilateral and at least one side is hypometabolic in 92% of AD patients (Salmon E et. al., J Nucl Med 1994;35:391-8)
In pts with clinically probable AD, SPECT may afford an additional 10-15% of accuracy of the clinical diagnosis
While useful, PET and SPECT are in no way pathognomonic of AD
Describe neuropathology in AD.
The definitive diagnosis of AD requires clinicopathologic correlation depending upon an identifiable clinical pattern combined with characteristic neuropathologic findings
What are the neuropathological hallmarks of AD?
-NFTs and neuritic plaques-primarily in cerebral cortex and in greater number and concentration than expected for the patient’s age
-Granuovacuolar degeneration
-Amyloid angiopathy
-Brain atrophy
-Neuronal cell loss-temporolimbic areas (entorhinal cortex > CA1 hippocampus, amygdala), temporoparietal neocortex, basal forebrain, brainstem
-Loss of synapses
What are neurofibrillary tangles?
NFTs consist of neurofibrils which are combined into bizarre shapes
Occur preferentially in pyramidal neurons of the neocortex, hippocampus and amygdala, in addition to the raphe nuclei and locus ceruleus
EM reveals that they are paired helical neurofilaments 100 Å wide with the helical twist occurring every 800 Å
Disrupt normal intracellular axonal transport facilitated by neurofilaments
NFT neurofilaments contain microtubule-associated protein tau in hyperphosphorylated state
What are neuritic plaques?
Neuritic plaques are spherical, silver-staining structures 5 to 150 Å in diameter located outside the neuron
They are concentrated in cerebral cortex and hippocampus but are also known to occur in the striatum, amygdala and thalamus
Central core of plaque contains beta-amyloid (Ab) around which are degenerating dendrites and axons, some of which contain paired helical filaments like those found in NFTs
Apolipoprotein e4 found within plaque
Inflammatory mediators found around plaque periphery
Reduced and altered synapses within the plaque disrupt intercellular communication and impair the essential function of synapses in learning, memory and cognition
What are the cholinergic and other neurotransmitter changes in AD?
Cholinergic abnormalities thought to play an important role in memory and cognitive changes associated with AD
Neuronal death and dysfunction in Nucleus Basalis of Meynert leads to reduction in choline acetyltransferase (ChAT) and subsequent deficiency in presynaptic Ach production
Cholinergic activity is reduced 80-90% in affected cortical regions
In contrast to AD, in MCI there is evidence of early upregulation of ChAT
Glutamate neurotransmission probably abnormal, with potential for increased vulnerability to excitotoxic cell death
Deficiencies of NE and serotonin along with reduced a-1 and a-2 adrenergic receptors and 5-HT1 and 5-HT2 receptors may influence the behavioral manifestations of AD
What are some established AD risk factors?
-Advanced age
-Family history of dementia
-Down’s syndrome
-Presinilin and APP gene mutations
-Apolipoprotein E e4
-Head trauma, particularly in preceding ten years
-Low educational attainment
-Small head size
What are some possible AD risk factors?
-Alcohol or other drug abuse
-Aluminum, zinc, mercury exposure
-Inverse association with smoking
-Advanced maternal age
-Family history of Down’s syndrome
-Cerebrovascular disease
-Dyslipidemia, elevated homocysteine
-Low B12, Folate, Thyroid disease
What are some theories of pathogenesis of AD?
-Amyloid cascade hypothesis
-Tau and Tangle hypothesis
-Cholinergic hypothesis
-Multiple neurotransmitter deficits
-Aluminum and other toxic exposure
-Chronic infection and inflammation
-Accelerated aging and decreased plasticity
What are some therapeutic strategies for AD?
1. antiamyloid-secretase inhibitors, immunization
2. tau normalization-kinase inhibitors
3. cholinergic-cholinesterase inhibitors
4. glutamatergic-cholinesterase inhibitors
5. antioxidative-vitamin E, selegiline, ginkgo biloba extracts
6. hormonal-nerve growth factor, estrogen
7. reduction of other risk factors-statins, vitamin B6, B12, folate
What is the definition of spinal trauma?
 injury has occurred to any of the following structures in the vertebral column: Bony elements, Soft tissues, Neurological structures
What are two concerns of spinal trauma?
– Instability of the vertebral column
-Actual or potential neurological injury
What is the epidemiology of spinal cord injuries?
• The annual incidence of SCI in developed countries varies from 11.5- 53.4/million population
• Mortality of 48- 79% at the time of the accident or on arrival to hospital
• Deaths after admission: 4.4- 16.7%
• 11% of all SCI die within the first hospitalization
• The 1-year case fatality rate for all patients is 46%
• Case fatality rate of 13% for those who reached the hospital alive
Over the past 20 years the incidence has stabilized but survival rate has increased
 Average age at time of SCI is rising
 Prevalence rates between 130 and 1124 per million
 Prevalence date indicate that the median age of persons with SCI is approximately 27 years
 Patients spend on average 171 days of their initial year in hospital
 Initial hospitalization will cost $US95,000; life time will cost $US500K- >$US2mil
What is primary injury?
Involves the initial mechanical injury due to local deformation and energy transformation
What is secondary injury?
encompass a cascade of biochemical and cellular processes which are initiated by the primary process and which may cause ongoing cellular damage and even cell death
What is the neurological level?
The neurological level (motor or sensory) is defined as the lowest level that has completely normal motor and sensory function bilaterally
What are the patterns of neurological injury?
The following syndromes need to be recognised:
-Central cord syndrome-Usually a cervical injury causing UL>>LL weakness
-Anterior spinal artery syndrome-Variable loss of motor, pain and temp, with intact proprio
-Brown-Sequard syndrome-Ipsilat motor and proprio loss and contral pain and temp
-Complete versus incomplete injuries
-Conus injuries
-Cauda equina syndrome
What are complete injuries?
 no preservation of any motor/sensory function more than 3 segments below the level of the injury
 About 3% of patients with complete injuries on initial examination develop some recovery within 24 hours
 Poor prognosis for recovery
What are Incomplete injuries?
 Sensation (including proprioception) or voluntary movement in the lower limbs
 “sacral sparing”: sensation around the anus and buttocks or anal tone is spared
What are stable injuries?
 Spine can withstand physical loads
 No significant displacement or deformity to bone or soft tissue
What are unstable injuries?
 Spine may not be able to carry normal loads
 Most likely have significant deformity and pain
 Potential for catastrophic neurological injury
What is the 3 column model (Denis)?
 Used to grade thoracolumbar and cervical fractures
 Based on 3-column theory of the spine:
– Anterior = ALL and anterior 2/3 of vertebral body/disc
– Middle = posterior 1/3 of vertebral body/disc and PLL
– Posterior = pedicles, lamina, facets, post. Ligaments
What is spinal shock?
 Transient physiological disruption which leads to a hypotonic areflexic state
 Should not impair initial assessment as motor and sensory components only affects for <1 hr
 The higher the level of injury, and the more severe the SCI, the longer and more profound the spinal shock
 Different to neurogenic shock
What are the expected outcomes of spinal cord injury?
 Complete injuries rarely walk again
 Incomplete injuries may make a near normal recovery
What is the clinical suspicion of SCI?
 The following should be suspected of having a SCI until proven otherwise:
1. All victims of significant trauma
2. Trauma patients with LOC
3. Minor trauma patients with complaints referrable to the spine (neck or back pain or tenderness) or spinal cord (numbness or tingling in an extremity, weakness or paralysis)
4. Any patient with priapism or diaphragmatic breathing
What is pre-hospital care for SCI?
 At scene:
– Initial manual in-line immobilization
– A. Rigid hard collar
– B. Sandbags, straps and taping as required
– C. Spinal board
– D. Log rolls and spine lifts
 Helmet removed by 2 persons
What are the key points of assessment for SCI?
 Don’t confuse hypovolemic shock with neurogenic shock
 Be aware that other fractures may be present
 Be aware of other injuries (e.g. abdomen) that may be masked
 Don’t underestimate the respiratory status
What are the goals of surgery?
 Reduction / Realignment
 Decompression
 Stabilization
What is the timing of decompression in cervical spine trauma?
 Neurologically deteriorating patient
– urgent decompression warranted
 Neurologically stable patient
– controversial
– biological rationale for early intervention
– no compelling evidence exist from clinical human studies
Define concussion?
When the head is hit hard, the brain is damaged as it bounces, first hitting one side of the skull and then the other.
This may cause a CONCUSSION.
What is a concussion?
 Transient alteration in mental function due to angular rotation of brain structures
 No gross or microscopic changes
 LOC is typical
 CT and MR is normal
Describe skull fractures.
 Base of skull
 Linear (simple)
 compound
 depressed
– Epidural Hematoma
– Subdural Hematoma
– Intracerebral Hematoma
Describe the occurrence of the different types of intracranial hematomas.
 Extradural 16%
 Extradural & ICH 7%
 Subdural 22%
 Subdural and ICH 34%
 Intracerebral 20%
Describe epidural hematoma.
 generally younger age group (<5% over 50 years)
 M:F=4:1
 <10-27% have classical presentation
 Overall mortality 20-55% (higher in older series)
 Mortality is higher without lucid interval
Describe acute subdural hematoma.
 more lethal than EDH
 no “lucid interval”
 blood 2dry to:
 tearing of bridging veins
 parenchymal damage
 Needs craniotomy
 Mortality 50-90%
 If OT within 4 hrs: 30% mortality, otherwise 90% (“4 hour rule”)
 Underlying brain injury in addition to the clot
Describe cerebral contusion.
 Bruising of the brain
 Causes swelling
 May cause local dysfunction or pressure problems
 Typically frontal/temporal/occipital
 Contra-coup (counter-blow)
Describe the assessment of head injuries.
 Vital signs
 GCS
 Pupils
 Motor responses
-Glasgow Coma Scale
-Neurological Exam
-Localization Test
What are the values of the Glasgow coma scale?
Motor Exam
6- Follows commands
5- Localizes to axillary pinch
4- Withdrawal to nail bed pressure
3- Flexor to nail bed pressure (decorticate)
2- Extension to nail bed pressure (decerebrate)
1- Flaccid to nail bed pressure
Describe the pupillary exam head injuries.
 The initial pupil exam, with the GCS score establishes a neurological baseline
 The pupil exam in conjunction with the GCS score aids in determining treatment
 The pupillary exam should be performed:
– after resuscitation
– before administration of sedatives or paralytics
 Afferent: optic nerve
 Efferent: IIIrd CN palsy via midbrain
Describe the results of the pupillary exam.
 Pupil reactivity to light
– positive reaction > 1mm constriction
 Pupil asymmetry
– significant asymmetry > 1mm difference
 Fixed/Dilated Pupils
– pupils that are  4mm and react < 1mm
What are some significant pupillary findings?
-Pupil Asymmetry-Pupils that are greater than 1mm difference in size are considered asymmetric.
-Fixed & Dilated Pupils-Pupils that are greater than or equal to 4mm in diameter and constrict less than 1mm in reaction to bright, direct light are considered fixed and dilated.
Describe the management of head injury.
 ATLS guidelines
 Assessment / Treatment
– Airway
– Breathing
– Circulation
– Cervical Spine
– Disability
– Exposure
What are the signs of cerebral herniation?
In an unconscious and unresponsive patient:
 Patient with dilated and unreactive pupil(s)
 Patient with asymmetric pupils
 Patient non-responsive to painful stimuli
 Patient displaying extensor posturing
What are the treatment of mild head injuries?
 Majority do not require any specific treatment
 Duration of PTA guides severity of TBI for concussions etc.
 Reasons for admission and observation:
– patients with altered levels of consciousness at the time of evaluation
– focal neurological symptoms or signs
– open penetrating injuries
– a history of neurological deterioration
– confusion
– skull fracture
– difficulty in assessing the patient
– the absence of supervision by a responsible adult
What is the guideline of intracranial pressure?
Hypotension (SBP < 90 mm Hg) or hypoxia (apnea of cyanosis in the field or a PaO2 < 60 mm Hg) must be scrupulously avoided, if possible, or corrected immediately
What are the complications of head injury?
 Mental dysfunction
 Motor or other deficit
 Coma
 CSF leak- meningitis
 Taste disorder- common
 Memory problems
 Headaches
 Vertigo
 Deafness
 Concentration problems
 Hydrocephalus
 death
What is a seizure?
n Paroxysmal, excessive and disorderly discharging of neurons
n particular site of discharge in the brain determines clinical expression
What are the Components of a seizure?
n aura-earliest portion of seizure
n ictus- actual seizure
n post-ictal- immediately after seizure
What is epilepsy?
n Epilepsy is defined as a syndrome of recurrent seizures
– There are multiple classifications of epilepsy
– Epilepsy is not a benign disease
n SUDEP occurs in 0.35/1000 cases
n Psychosocial factors
n Cost of hospitalization, medications, lost work, etc
n 50% of epileptics continue to experience seizures despite treatment
n One seizure does not an epileptic make
What are the different classifications of seizure?
n Partial seizures
n Generalized seizures
– convulsive
– nonconvulsive
n Status Epilepticus
n Non-epileptic seizures
What are the different types of generalized seizures?
n Typical absense seizures (petit mal)
– atypical absense
n Myoclonic
n Clonic
n Tonic
n Tonic-clonic (grand mal)
n Atonic
What are the epilepsy syndromes of adolescents?
n Juvenile absence epilepsy
n Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy
n Epilepsy with TC upon awakening
n Benign partial seizures of adolescence
n Temporal lobe epilepsy
n Progressive myoclonic epilepsies
n Mitochondrial encephalopathies
What are the causes of localization-related epilepsies?
n Vascular-stroke, AVM,SAH,venous thrombosis, carotid dissection, SCA
n Infectious- meningitis, encephailits,abscess
n Tumor
n Degenerative- MS
n Traumatic
n Congenital
What are some factors that identify epileptic syndromre?
n Seizure type by history
n EEG
n Etiology
n Response to AEDs
n Inheritance
n Natural History
What are some conditions that may be mistaken for seizures?
n Syncope
n Non-epileptic seizures (pseudoseizures)
n Breath holding spells (children)
n Paroxysmal REM sleep behavior
n Panic attack
What are some common causes of provoked seizures?
n Massive sleep deprivation
n Excessive use of stimulants
n Withdrawal from sedatives or alcohol
n Substance abuse
n High Fever
n Hypoglycemia
n Electrolyte imbalance
n Hypoxia
Describe the history of the event in evaluating single seizure history.
– careful review of events days before sz
– presence of prodromal syndrome (aura)
– description of sz from witness
– post-ictal observations--time to recovery
Describe the medical history of the event in evaluating single seizure history.
– Febrile convulsions as child
– History of head trauma
– Cerebrovascular or Cardiovascular Disease
– Cancer
– Substance Abuse
– Infectious Disease
Describe family history in evaluating single seizure history.
– Febrile convulsions
– Epilepsy in siblings, parents, or close relatives
– History of other neurologic disorders
Describe social history in evaluating single seizure history.
– Travel
– Occupation
Describe physical examination of single seizure examination.
– Injury Pattern (tongue biting, burns, etc)
– Cardiovascular system
– Skin (neurofibromatosis, etc)
Describe neuro examination of single seizure examination.
– Focal post-ictal deficits
– Focal neuro deficits after recovery
– Neuropsychologic assessment
Describe the lab workup for the evaluation of the single seizure.
n Routine Labs
– Electrolytes, CBC, LFTs, glucose
– Tox screen
– ?Prolactin
n Structural Study
– MRI preferable
n EEG
n ?Lumbar Puncture
When should a patient be treated after a single seizure?
n Structural lesion
n Infection of CNS or meninges
n History of epilepsy in sibling
n History of childhood febrile seizures
n Significant head trauma
n Todd’s post-ictal paresis
n Status epilepticus at onset
When should a patient not be treated after a single seizure?
n Alcohol withdrawal
n Drug abuse
n Seizure from hypoglycemia or electrolyte imbalance
n provoked by excessive sleep deprivation
n immediate post-impact seizure
Describe the recurrence risk after first unprovoked seizure.
n Hauser et al,1990 --followed 208 patients for 5 years and found that the overall risk for a second seizure was 34% at five years.
How are anti-epileptic drugs chosen?
based on seizure type, groups include:
1. partial-simple, complex or secondarily generalized
2. absence
3. myoclonic
4. generalized tonic-clonic
Describe the evaluation of recurrent seizure on monotherapy.
n Rule Out:
– Non-compliance
– Inadequate dosing
– Infection
– Electrolyte disturbance
– Provocation (substance abuse, fever, sleep deprivation, stress, etc)
n If above ruled-out, consider second agent (or referral to neurologist)
Describe vagus nerve stimulator.
-VNS lead transmits signals from the generator to the vagal nerve
-generator is implanted under the skin in the upper left chest
Describe the treatment of epilepsy in women in child-bearing years.
n Daily supplementation of folic acid
n AEDs decrease effectiveness of oral contraceptives
n Oral contraceptives do not (usually) affect seizure threshold
n Menstrual cycle variation
– Estrogen is epileptogenic
– Progesterone is anti-epileptogenic
n Pregnancy Risk vs Benefit Analysis for continuing AEDs
n North American Registry for Epilepsy in Pregnancy
Describe driving with epilepsy in Nevada.
n Mandatory physician reporting to the DMV
– Nevada one of only six states with mandatory reporting
n Exceptions to mandatory loss of license:
– Breakthrough seizure caused by MD-directed change in medication
– Isolated seizure where additional seizures are unlikely
– Seizure related to temporary illness
– Established pattern of only nocturnal sz
– Established pattern of simple partial sz
– Patients are eligible to reapply for license after being seizure-free for 3 months
Describe the epidemiology of brain tumors.
-Varies with geographical location
USA 5-6 per 100,000
Kuwait 1 per 100,000
Iceland 10 per 100,000
-Lowest in Asians and highest in Caucasians
-Male:female ratio is 1.4:1
Describe brain tumor mortality.
• Second leading cause of neurologic death after stroke.
• Age
• Functional status
What are the different types of brain tumors?
• Tumor type dictates survival
– Nerve sheath
– Meningioma
– Ependymoma
– Oligodendroglioma
– Medulloblastoma
– Astrocytoma
– GBM
Describe the symptoms of brain tumors.
• Headache
• Seizure
• Mental change
• Hemiparesis
• Vomiting
• Dysphasia
• Impaired consciousness
• Visual failure
Which headaches do you scan in fear of a brain tumor?
• Headaches upon awakening
• Headaches that vary with position
• Worst headache of patient’s life
• Headaches accompanied by other neurologic signs or symptoms
• Headache which appears and won’t go away
• Severe headache without migraine characteristics
What are the different types of intracranial CNS tumors?
– Supratentorial, (70% adult)
• Astrocytoma
• GBM
• Metastasis
• Meningioma
– Infratentorial, (70% children)
• Medulloblastoma
• Astrocytoma
• 4th ventricle ependymoma
What are the different types o intraspinal CNS tumors?
– Extradural
• Epidural mets
• Bone tumors
– Intradural
• Intramedullary
– Ependmoma
– Astrocytoma)
• Extramedullary
– Schwannomas
– Meningioma
What are the different classifications of cerebral gliomas?
1. astrocytoma
2. oligodendroglioma
3. mixed neuronal and glial tumors
a. ganglioglioma
b. ganglioneuroma
c. central neurocytoma
d. dysembryoplastic neuroepithelial tumor (DNET)
What are the different classifications of astrocytic tumors?
1. astrocytoma-grade 1, pilocytic, giant cell
2. astrocytoma-grade 2, fibrillary, protoplasmic, gemistocytic
3. anaplastic astrocytoma-grade 3, very cellular and pleomorphic
4. glioblastoma multiforme-grade 4, endothelial proliferation and necrosis, multicentric glioma, gliomatosis cerebri
Describe glioblastoma multiforme.
• Age: 45-55
• Male:female 2:1
• 20% of all Intracranial tumors
• 50-55% 0f all cerebral gliomas
• Ring-like enhancement on MRI
• Butterfly when it crosses the corpus callosum
• Tx: Surgical resection, XRT,chemo
• Mean survival:
– 6 months without treatment
– 1 year with treatment
Describe the different types of intraventricular tumors.
1. neuroepithelial cyst
2. ependymoma
3. giant cell astrocytoma
4. central neurocytoma
5. choroid plexus papilloma
6. meningioma
7. ectopic pinealoma
8. epidermoid tumor
9. CSF seeding of tumor
What some nerve sheath and meninges tumors?
• Schwannoma
– Acoustic schwannomas most common
– Bilateral in NF2
• Neurofibroma
– NF1
• Meningioma
– 15% of all intracranial tumors
– 25% of all intraspinal tumors
Describe metastatic tumors.
• Most common infratentorial tumor in adults
• 80% are supratentorial
• Gray-white junction with vasogenic edema
• 50% appear solitary at presentation
• Leptomemingeal carcinomatosis
• Spinal cord compression
What is multiple sclerosis?
• Multiple Sclerosis- Scarred areas
• Lesions in the CNS
• Demyelination
What is the pathology of MS?
-Plaques- scars, lesions
-Areas of inflammation
-Infiltration of macrophages and T-cells
-Destruction of myelin
What is the mechanism of pathology?
destruction of myelin as well as destruction of axons
Describe the etiology of MS.
• Autoimmune disease
• Environmental
• Infectious
• Genetic
Describe the epidemiology of MS.
• Age of onset 20-40 yrs
• Most common neurological disease of young adults
• Female to male 2:1
• Genetic factors
– 1st degree relatives 20x risk
– Monozygotic twins 30% concordance
• Geographical distribution
– Associated with first 15 years
Describe the clinical course of MS.
• Extremely variable course among individuals
• Common symptoms include visual disturbances, vertigo, limb weakness, optic neuritis, numbness
• Fatigue
• Pain
Describe the disease patterns in MS.
• Relapsing-Remitting (RRMS) 75%
• Secondary Progressive (SPMS)
• Primary Progressive (PPMS) 10-15%
• Progressive-Relapsing (PRMS)
What are the pathological patterns in MS?
• Mayo Clinic- Brain biopsies
• 4 pattern types (not the same as clinical)
– Each patient has only one type
• May lead to specific treatments
• Early disease may be inflammatory and later may be degenerative
How is MS diagnosed?
• History & Physical
• Neurological exam- lesions separated by space and time
• MRI
• Spinal tap
• Evoked potentials
What is the treatment for MS?
• Management of acute attacks
• Management of symptoms
• Modification of disease course
• Improvement or maintenance of physical function
• Psychosocial support
What is the general treatment for MS?
• Exercise – aerobic
• Nutrition
• Rest / sleep
• Stress avoidance
• Heat avoidance
• Avoid infections- flu shots
What is the treatment of disease course for MS?
• Disease modifying agents
-Avonex - beta interferon
-Betaseron - beta interferon
-Copaxone – polypeptide
-Rebif- beta interferon
-Tysabri- monoclonal antibody
• Immunosupressant
-Novantrone (mitoxantrone)
What are the treatments for progressive MS disease?
– Steroids
– Chemotherapeutic agents
– Plasma exchange
– Radiation
What are alternative treatments for MS?
– Cranial sacral massage
– Bee venom
– Goats blood
What is the future of MS treatment?
• Research
– Repair- stem cells
– Genetics
– Immunology
• Testing
– Antibody testing
– Genetics
• Medicines
– HmgCoA reductase inhibitors
– Small molecule
– Biologics
– Numerous drugs in trials now – many are oral
What can cause CNS infections?
 Bacteria
 Viruses
 Fungus
 Parasites
What are some routes of infection?
 Hematogenous
 Abscess
 Respiratory
 GI/GU
 Venous spread
 Pericranial sites –sinuses, middle ear
 Less Common
 Penetrating trauma
 Entry through congenital defects
What are the different types of infection?
 Meningitis- meninges usually arachnoid
 Encephalitis- brain
 Myelitis- spinal cord
When are CNS infections emergencies?
 Brain and Spinal Cord do not repair well
 Brain is enclosed- increased intracranial pressure, untreated can lead to brain herniation- necrosis
 Can lead to sepsis
What are the signs and symptoms of acute bacterial meningitis?
 Signs & Symptoms
 Headache
 Nausea & vomiting
 Fever
 Meningismus
 Altered consciousness
 In children < 28days old , fever > 100.6 full septic work-up including lumbar puncture
How is bacterial meningitis diagnosed?
 History & Physical
 CT of Head to rule out space occupying lesion –if quick
 Lumbar puncture
 Blood cultures
What are CSF findings in pyrogenic meningitis?
pyrogenic meningitis can lead to neutrophils, elevated protein, DEC sugar, + gram stain
What is the treatment for pyrogenic meningitis?
 Antibiotics
 Hospitalization
 Steroids
 Supportive Care
What is viral meningitis?
 Headache
 Fever
 Viral Syndrome
 Meningismus
What are CSF findings in granuloamtous and viral meningitis?
lymphocytes, elevated protein, DEC sugar, negative gram stain
What is the treatment for ganulomatous and viral meningitis?
 Supportive Care
 Most cases resolve after 7-10 days
 Antivirals- for some cases
What are the signs and symptoms of encephalitis?
 Confusion
 Personality change
 Altered mental status
 Fever
 Seizures
How is encephalitis diagnosed?
 History and physical
 Brain imaging to rule out space occupying lesion
 Lumbar puncture
 Culture of CSF (some organisms)
 Antibody titers
 PCR of CSF for Herpes encephalitis
 Brain biopsy in exceptional cases
What are the signs and symptoms of brain abscesses?
 Headache
 Focal neurologic deficits
 Fever, chills and other signs of infection usually do not occur
 Papilledema (with increased ICP)
 Nausea, vomiting (with increased ICP)
What is the treatment for brain abscesses?
 Antibiotics
 Surgical drainage
What are the indications for lumbar puncture?
 Suspected cases of meningitis & encephelitis
 Diagnostic workup
 severe headaches
 MS
 Subarachnoid hemorrhage
 Treatment
 Pseudotumor Cerebri
 Increased ICP
Describe the procedure of lumbar puncture.
 Tell the patient what you are doing
 Mark site
 Sterile! Sterile! Sterile!
 Prepare wide area –Betadine or alcohol
 Drape
 Local anesthetic -lidocaine
 Introducer needle –direction
 Spinal needle with stylet
 Advance slightly cranial
 Usually feel “pop” of dura
 Measure pressure – fill tubes
Describe CSF specimens.
 Tube #1: glucose and protein
 Tube #2: cryptococcal antigen, Gram stain
 Tube #3: bacterial cultures
 Tube #4: cell count and differential

 About 1-2 cc/tube
What are some possible complications of lumbar puncture?
 Spinal Headache
 Nerve damage
 Back pain
 Infection
What are some contraindications of lumbar puncture?
 Patient refusal
 Skin infection or abscess
 Bleeding disorder