Ndeb9

Front 1

The full palatal strap major connector is
indicated where
A. there is a high, narrow palatal vault.
B. a well-defined, undercut palatal torus
is present.
C. very few teeth remain in a flat or Ushaped
arch.
D. palatal tissue is soft and
compressible

Back 1

C

Front 2

The line drawn through the occlusal rests of two
principal abutments is
A. survey line.
B. terminal line.
C. axis of rotation.
D. line of greatest torque.

Back 2

C

Front 3

The leeway space in an 8 year old child
A. will provide space for eruption of the
permanent incisors.
B. is greater in the maxillary arch than in the
mandibular arch.
C. occurs with premature loss of primary
molars.
D. is approximately 3.5mm in the
mandibular arch.
E. allows accommodation of premolars that
are larger than the primary molars.

Back 3

D

Front 4

Which of the following may result in acetone
breath?
A. Prolonged fasting.
B. High carbohydrate diet.
C. High protein diet.
D. Poor oral hygiene.

Back 4

A

Front 5

Immediately following an inferior alveolar
nerve block, the patient exhibits facial
paralysis. The needle has penetrated through
which ligament?
A. Sphenomandibular.
B. Stylomandibular.
C. Stylohyoid.
D. Pterygomandibular

Back 5

A

Front 6

The central action of caffeine is principally on the
A. cerebral cortex.
B. corpus callosum.
C. hypothalamus.
D. spinal cord.
E. medulla.

Back 6

A

Front 7

Lymphatic spread from a carcinoma on the tip of the tongue would initially involve which nodes?
A. Submandibular.
B. Submental.
C. Deep parotid.
D. Mastoid.
E. Jugulo-omohyoid

Back 7

B

Front 8

Hardening of Type IV cast gold dental alloys
by heat treatment increases
A. ductility.
B. yield strength.
C. coring.
D. elastic modulus.
E. malleability

Back 8

B

Front 9

In endodontic therapy, the most effective
irrigating solution for dissolving organic debris
is

A. ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA).
B. sodium hypochlorite.
C. calcium hydroxide.
D. hydrogen peroxide.
E. sodium chloride

Back 9

B

Front 10

The smear layer created by root canal instrumentation can be removed by
A. hydrogen peroxide and ethyl chloride.

B. sodium hypochlorite and EDTA.
C. chlorhexidine and chloroform.
D. calcium hydroxide and phenol.

Back 10

B

Front 11

Which statement is FALSE regarding sodium hypochlorite when used as an irrigant?
A. It is used in 0.5% to 5.25% concentration.
B. Its combination with hydrogen peroxide does not improve its clinical effectiveness.
C. It is well tolerated if expressed beyond the tooth apex.
D. Warming the solution increases its clinical effectiveness

Back 11

C.
sodium hypochlorite beyond apex results in swelling and profuse bleeding

Front 12

A clinical diagnostic indication of palatal
impaction of maxillary permanent canines
does NOT include
A. proclined and laterally flared
permanent lateral incisors.
B. delayed exfoliation ofprimary
canines.
C. midline central diastema.
D. lack of canine buccal bulges in a 10
year old patient.

Back 12

C

Front 13

The rate limiting step of tooth movement is
A. bone deposition.
B. bone resorption.
C. force application.
D. occlusal interference.

Back 13

B
Rate limiting meaning that the amount of tooth movement cannot be more than the amount of bone resorbed.

Front 14

The best time to begin interceptive
orthodontic treatment for a patient with a
skeletal Class II malocclusion is
A. as soon as the malocclusion is
diagnosed.
B. immediately following complete
eruption of the deciduous dentition.
C. immediately following complete
eruption of the first permanent
molars.
D. several months prior to the prepubertal
growth spurt.
E. after skeletal maturity.

Back 14

D

Front 15

A 20 year old female patient is suspected of
having bulimia. Which of the following signs
will help confirm the diagnosis?
1. Enamel erosion of maxillary anterior
teeth.
2. Enlargement of the thyroid gland.
3. Calluses on the dorsum of the
fingers.
4. Bulky clothing to disguise weight
loss.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 15

B

Front 16

A 10 year old patient with a lateral functional shift due to a maxillary bilateral posterior crossbite
A. should not be treated until growth is complete.
B. should be diagnosed in the functional shift position.
C. requires mandibular arch expansion.
D. has a centric occlusion-centric relation (CO-CR) shift caused by occlusal interferences

Back 16

D

Front 17

There is an acute periradiuclar abscess on
tooth 1.3. The tooth must be extracted. In
addition to a palatal injection, the most
appropriate local anesthetic technique would be
A. vestibular infiltration.
B. infraorbital.
C. middle superior alveolar.
D. intraligamentary.

Back 17

B

Front 18

The mesial furcation of maxillary first molars is
best probed from the
A. buccal.
B. buccal or lingual.
C. lingual.

Back 18

C

Front 19

Which of the following are true statements
about incision and drainage of an acute
apical abscess?
1. A rubber dam drain may be placed
and sutured to assist drainage.
2. The procedure is only indicated with
a localized, fluctuant swelling.
3. Profound anesthesia of the surgical
site is not always possible.
4. Relief of the pressure and pain is
immediate after treatment.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 19

E

Front 20

Composite resin is a satisfactory core material
for endodontically treated teeth provided
A. the resin has a high contrast colour with
tooth structure.
B. there is an adequate ferrule.
C. the resin is autopolymerizing.
D. subsequent crown margins are not located
on cementum

Back 20

B

Front 21

The most important advantage of using reinforced zinc-oxide eugenol cement as a temporary restoration is that it
A. stimulates dentin repair.
B. occludes dentinal tubules.
C. desensitizes the pulp.
D. chelates to tooth structure

Back 21

C

Front 22

Isthmus fracture during function in a recently placed proximal-occlusal silver amalgam restoration (with occlusal extension through the occlusal fissure system), is most likely due to a preparation with
A. inadequate isthmus depth.
B. inadequate isthmus width.
C. a stepped buccal or lingual wall.
D. subgingival proximal extension.

Back 22

A

Front 23

Isthmus fracture during function in a recently placed proximal-occlusal silver amalgam restoration (with occlusal extension through the occlusal fissure system), is most likely due to a preparation with
A. inadequate isthmus depth.
B. inadequate isthmus width.
C. a stepped buccal or lingual wall.
D. subgingival proximal extension.

Back 23

Front 24

Proximal retention grooves are most
necessary to provide resistance for
proximal-occlusal silver amalgam
restorations when the
A. occlusal extension is wide
faciolingually relative to the
proximal extension.
B. restoration is a pin-retained cusp
replacement.
C. occlusal extension is narrow
faciolingually relative to the
proximal extension.
D. bonded amalgam technique is not
being used.

Back 24

C

Front 25

The placement of a reverse curve in a Class II amalgam preparation aids in

Back 25

B

Front 26

In the formulation of composite resins
A. decreasing filler content increases the
modulus of elasticity.
B. increasing filler content decreases
polymerization shrinkage.
C. increasing filler content increases the
degree of conversion.
D. decreasing filler content increases
radiopacity of the restoration.

Back 26

B

Front 27

Which of the following is NOT commonly used
by general dentists to treat temporomandibular
disorders and bruxism?

A. Hard acrylic splints.
B. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
(NSAIDs).
C. Corticosteroids.
D. Muscle relaxants.

Back 27

C

Front 28

The local anesthetic technique requiring the
needle to contact the neck of the condyle is the
A. posterior superior alveolar nerve block.
B. Gow-Gates block.
C. Vazirani-Akinosi block.
D. inferior alveolar nerve block.

Back 28

B

Front 29

Which of the following is a sign of a severe toxic reaction to ketoconazole?
A. Jaundice.
B. Hypertension.
C. Xerostomia.
D. Salivary gland swelling.
E. Renal failure

Back 29

A