More A+

Front 1

What is SATA and eSATA?

Back 1

SATA connects host bus adapters to mass storage devices such as HDDs, optical drives, and SSDs. eSATA supports external devices.

Front 2

What is the Southbridge (I/O controller hub) on a motherboard?

Back 2

An intel chipset that manages the basic forms of input/output such as USB, serial, audio, and integrated drive electronics (IDE) and Industry Standard Architecture (ISA) in a computer

Front 3

What is AGP?

Back 3

Accelerated Graphics Port is a point to point channel that is used for high speed video output

Front 4

What does a DHCP IP address look like?

Back 4

192.168.0.3

Front 5

What is SMART?

Back 5

Smart is Self-Monitoring and Repair Tool. It’s a feature in all modern magnetic hard drives (not SSD drives) that monitors the HDD to ensure it performs properly and notifies the user if failure is about to occur so that they can do a back up of the drive before total failure occurs

Front 6

How much data can single and dual layer optical discs store?

CD-RW, DVD-R, and BD-R

Back 6

CD stores up to 700mb

DVD single layer: 4.7GB and 8.5GB dual layer.

Blu-ray: 25GB single layer, and 50 GB dual layer

Front 7

Which is the virtualization technology supported by most modern intel processors?

Back 7

VT. Virtualization technology.

Front 8

What are the two types of processors?

Back 8

Intel and AMD

Front 9

What are important things to have when you’re building a virtualization work station? (Three things)

Back 9

Multiple-core processor. Lots of memory. A fast HDD.

Front 10

What port(s) does NetBIOS protocol use?

Back 10

Operates in TCP/UDP ports 137 and 139

Front 11

What networking hardware is installed in a computer or server to connect to an Ethernet switch using a CAT 6 cable?

Back 11

Network Interface Card. It enables a PC to connect to a LAN.

Front 12

What is QoS and what is it designed for?

Back 12

Quality of Service. Is a network protocol to prioritize certain traffic types over others. Used to make sure voice or video calling is given higher priority

Front 13

What is an APIPa or link-local address?

Back 13

An automatic private IP addressing used when there is no DHCP server available. But APIPA can’t communicate with DHCP. Addresses 169.254.0.1-169.254.255.254 is considered APIPA.

Front 14

What are the 6 steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology?

Back 14

1. Identify the problem.

2. Establish a theory of probable cause.

3. Test the theory to determine the cause

4. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution.

5. Verify full system functionality and implement preventative measures.

6. Document findings, actions, and outcomes

Front 15

What are the dimensions of a ATX and MicroATX motherboard?

Back 15

ATX is 12” x 9.6”

And mATX is 9.6” x9.6”

Front 16

What are the common voltages produced by the power supply of a computer?

Back 16

3.3 VDC, 5 VDC, and 12 VDC

Front 17

What is most likely the solution to fix an “OS not found” error?

Back 17

Repair the MBR.

Front 18

What is the difference between CAT 6a and CAT 6?

Back 18

CAT6a can support 10Gbs for up to 100 meters in length. Cat 6 can support 10Gbs but only for 55 meters

Front 19

What types of data should be transferred over UDP?

Back 19

Streaming media, since it’s faster than TCP, streaming videos or making VoIP calls rely on UDP for their transmission

Front 20

What port is a Serial SCSI connection that uses a D-shaped connector that supports 800 Mbps of bandwidth

Back 20

FireWire

Front 21

What frequency has more channels 5.0 GHz or 2.4 GHz?

Back 21

The 5.0 GHz has more individual channels giving it less congestion and interference than the 2.4 GHz.

Front 22

What frequency has more channels 5.0 GHz or 2.4 GHz?

Back 22

The 5.0 GHz has more individual channels giving it less congestion and interference than the 2.4 GHz.

Front 23

Which frequency supports higher data rates due to lower levels of congestion and interference, 2.5 GHz or 5.0 GHz?

Back 23

5.0 GHz.

Front 24

What frequency has the longer wavelength and makes it better for propagating through solid surfaces? What does the longer wavelength allow?

Back 24

2.4 GHz longer wavelength makes it better with solid surfaces and gives the frequency the ability to cover longer range using the same power output levels.

Front 25

What network does 802.1s have and what can be said about the network?

Back 25

A wireless mesh network (WMN) topology where all nodes, including client stations, can provide forwarding and path discovery to improve coverage and throughput compared to using fixed access points and extenders.

Front 26

What type of cable is most commonly used to terminate a serial connection to a modem?

Back 26

DB-9 is used to terminate an RS-232 serial cable.

Front 27

What type of cable is most commonly used to terminate a serial connection to a modem?

Back 27

DB-9 is used to terminate an RS-232 serial cable.

Front 28

What kind of connection is used to terminate a fiber optic cable?

Back 28

ST (Straight Tip). SC (Subscriber Connector or Square Connector). LC (lucent connector). MTRJ (mechanical transferred registered Jack)

Front 29

What type of connector is used to terminate phone lines?

Back 29

An RJ-11.

Front 30

What type of connector is used to terminate a copper twisted pair Ethernet cable?

Back 30

RJ-45

Front 31

A computer is attempting to power on, but it keeps booting the incorrect hard drive. What can be done to potentially fix this problem?

Back 31

Reconfigure the boot order within the BIOS/UEFI.

Front 32

Which of the following cloud services should an organization choose to develop a new iPhone app without having to configure and set up its own development environment?

Back 32

PaaS. is a complete developmental and appointment environment in the cloud with resources that enable you to deliver everything from a simple cloud-based apps to sophisticated cloud enabled enterprise applications

Front 33

What is IaaS? what does it do?

Back 33

Is a type of cloud computing service that offers essential compute storage and networking resources on-demand, on a pay-as-you-go basis.

Front 34

What is SaaS and what does it do?

Back 34

Software as a service allows users to connect to and use cloud-based apps over the Internet such as Microsoft office 365

Front 35

What are the two most important components to upgrade if you want to simultaneously run numerous VMs?

Back 35

CPU should support virtualization and have a multi-core processor and RAM should have 16 GB to host numerous VMs effectively

Front 36

Which wire standard should be used when installing ethernet cable in an office or data center?

Back 36

T-568B and T-568A standards are used when installing Ethernet cabling.

Front 37

Which wire standard should be used when installing ethernet cable in an office or data center?

Back 37

T-568B and T-568A standards are used when installing Ethernet cabling.

Front 38

What is it called when both ends of the Can le use T-568A?

Back 38

The cable is called a straight through or patch cable

Front 39

Which wire standard should be used when installing ethernet cable in an office or data center?

Back 39

T-568B and T-568A standards are used when installing Ethernet cabling.

Front 40

What is it called when both ends of the Cable use T-568A?

Back 40

The cable is called a straight through or patch cable

Front 41

What is it called when one end of the cable is T-568A and the other is 7-568B?

Back 41

The cable is called a cross-over cable

Front 42

What motherboard form factor measures 6.7” x 6.7” in size? what case are they usually in? What are these motherboards designed for?

Back 42

The mITX. There’s no specific size called ITX. A small form factor (SFF) case. These motherboards are designed for passive cooling and low power consumption.

Front 43

What are the specs of 802.11g?

Back 43

Uses 2.4 GHz frequency and provides speeds up to 54 Mbps.

Front 44

What are the specs of 802.11g?

Back 44

Uses 2.4 GHz frequency and provides speeds up to 54 Mbps.

Front 45

What specs does 802.11a have?

Back 45

Uses 5 GHz frequency and speeds up to 54 Mbps.

Front 46

What are the specs of 802.11g?

Back 46

Uses 2.4 GHz frequency and provides speeds up to 54 Mbps.

Front 47

What specs does 802.11a have?

Back 47

Uses 5 GHz frequency and speeds up to 54 Mbps.

Front 48

What specs does 802.11b have?

Back 48

Uses 2.4 GHz frequency and speeds up to 11 Mbps.

Front 49

What specs does 802.11n have?

Back 49

Uses 2.4 GHz frequency and speeds up to 108 Mbps. Or a 5 GHz frequency to provide speeds up to 600 Mbps. And supports MIMO (multiple input multiple output) and supports channel bonding.

Front 50

What specs does 802.11ac?

Back 50

Has 5 GHz frequency. And speeds up to 3.5 Gbps. Uses orthogonal frequency division multiple access (OFDMA) and uses channel bonding and has MU-MIMO (multiple users- Multiple input- Multiple output)

Front 51

What specs does 802.11ax have?

Back 51

Uses 2.4 GHz or 5 GHz frequencies and provides speeds up to 9.6 Gbps.

Front 52

What is 8.8.8.8?

Back 52

Address provides the DNS server which is open all over the internet and there is no blocking to access and ping this IP address

Front 53

Which cloud computing concept is focusing on replacing the hardware and software required when creating and testing new applications and programs from a customer’s environment with cloud-based resources?

Back 53

PaaS. Allows for the renting of fully configured systems that are set up for specific purposes. They provide the end user with a developmental environment without having to configure it themselves.

Front 54

What hard drive form factor would be connected to your laptop internally using a Micro SATA connection?

Back 54

1.8” when a 1.8” for factor is used, the drive is connected to the laptop using a Micro SATA connector since a regular SATA connection will not fit due to the connects large size.

Front 55

What component of a laser printer is used to apply an electric charge to the paper so that the paper attracts the toner during the imaging process?

Back 55

The transfer roller.

Front 56

Which connector type should be used to connect the Tab tuner to the wall Jack when using a coaxial cable?

Back 56

F-Type. It is used with coaxial cables.

Front 57

How does a DHCP reservation work?

Back 57

By matching a MAC address to an IP address within the DHCP scope.

Front 58

You turn on a PC and after a few seconds, you hear a single beep. What does that single beep indicate?

Back 58

The BIOS completed the POST.

Front 59

What is an intermediary device between your clients and the web servers they want to connect to make an HTTP request from client, check it, and then forward it to its destination?

Back 59

A proxy server. It takes the whole HTTP request from a client, checks it, then forwards it to the destination computer on the internet.

Front 60

What connection-oriented protocol utilizes TCP?

Back 60

SSH.

Front 61

Which type of internet connection is terminated at a local switching center that requires a different media type between the switching center and the end customer?

Back 61

DSL technology.

Front 62

You want to create a new mobile application and develop it in the cloud. You just signed up for a cloud based service providers offer allowing you to develop it using their programming environment, what best describes this type of service?

Back 62

PaaS.

Front 63

What does HFC mean?

Back 63

Hybrid Fiber-coaxial connection

Front 64

What type of internet connection allows for high speed bi-directional data communication over a hybrid fiber-coaxial connection?

Back 64

Cable.

Front 65

Which of the following types of servers should you configure to accept requests through HTTP and HTTPS and provide resources back to the requester?

Back 65

A web server.

Front 66

A full disk encryption laptop with an onboard hardware based cryptographic processor contains what?

Back 66

A TPM. Trust platform module, that is a hardware based cryptographic processing component that is part of the motherboard.

Front 67

What is AAAA?

Back 67

A record that associates your domain name with an IPv6 address.

Front 68

What is a CNAME?

Back 68

It’s a canonical name or alias name, which associates one domain name as an alias of another. Like YouTube.com and www.YouTube.com

Front 69

What network device uses ACLs to prevent unauthorized access into company systems? What is an ACL?

Back 69

A firewall. And an ACL is a list that shows which traffic or devices should be allowed or denied from accessing the network.

Front 70

A printer began to print pages that appear to have dust-like coating when handled by users, which component should be replaced based on this description?

Back 70

A fuser.

Front 71

Which connector type should be used to connect the Tab tuner to the wall Jack when using a coaxial cable?

Back 71

F-Type. It is used with coaxial cables.

Front 72

How does a DHCP reservation work?

Back 72

By matching a MAC address to an IP address within the DHCP scope.

Front 73

You turn on a PC and after a few seconds, you hear a single beep. What does that single beep indicate?

Back 73

The BIOS completed the POST.

Front 74

What is an intermediary device between your clients and the web servers they want to connect to make an HTTP request from client, check it, and then forward it to its destination?

Back 74

A proxy server. It takes the whole HTTP request from a client, checks it, then forwards it to the destination computer on the internet.

Front 75

What connection-oriented protocol utilizes TCP?

Back 75

SSH.

Front 76

Which type of internet connection is terminated at a local switching center that requires a different media type between the switching center and the end customer?

Back 76

DSL technology.

Front 77

You want to create a new mobile application and develop it in the cloud. You just signed up for a cloud based service providers offer allowing you to develop it using their programming environment, what best describes this type of service?

Back 77

PaaS.

Front 78

What does HFC mean?

Back 78

Hybrid Fiber-coaxial connection

Front 79

What type of internet connection allows for high speed bi-directional data communication over a hybrid fiber-coaxial connection?

Back 79

Cable.

Front 80

Which of the following types of servers should you configure to accept requests through HTTP and HTTPS and provide resources back to the requester?

Back 80

A web server.

Front 81

A full disk encryption laptop with an onboard hardware based cryptographic processor contains what?

Back 81

A TPM. Trust platform module, that is a hardware based cryptographic processing component that is part of the motherboard.

Front 82

What is AAAA?

Back 82

A record that associates your domain name with an IPv6 address.

Front 83

What is a CNAME?

Back 83

It’s a canonical name or alias name, which associates one domain name as an alias of another. Like YouTube.com and www.YouTube.com

Front 84

What network device uses ACLs to prevent unauthorized access into company systems? What is an ACL?

Back 84

A firewall. And an ACL is a list that shows which traffic or devices should be allowed or denied from accessing the network.

Front 85

A printer began to print pages that appear to have dust-like coating when handled by users, which component should be replaced based on this description?

Back 85

A fuser.

Front 86

Microsoft word becomes frozen and unresponsive. Which feature in Task Manager would terminate an unresponsive program?

Back 86

Processes can manage and terminate running apps and services.

Front 87

Which type of attacks are usually used as part of an “on-path” attack?

Back 87

Spoofing. It’s often used to inject the attacker into the conversation path between the two parties. It disguises communication from an unknown source as being from a known trusted source. On path is when the attacker secretly relays and alters communications between two parties

Front 88

Which windows 10 power option will turn off individuals devices connected to a laptop to save energy?

Back 88

USB selective suspend.

Front 89

Which of the following backup rotation schemes used a three-tiered approach to ensure at least one monthly backup is conducted?

Back 89

Grandfather-father-son which is used to combine full and incremental backups to reduce backup time and enhance storage security. Grandfather is a full back up that is stored offsite once per month, the father is a weekly full backup, and the son is an incremental or differential backup conducted each day.

Front 90

What is used to uniquely identify one piece of hardware installed on a corporate network including servers, desktops, laptops, printers and monitors?

Back 90

Asset ID.

Front 91

What port must be allowed through the firewall to upload files to a remote server securely?

Back 91

Port 22. SFTP or secure file transfer protocol.

Front 92

Which type of wireless encryption uses a 40-bit encryption key with an RC4 encryption cypher?

Back 92

WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy)

Front 93

Which backup rotation scheme requires at least one monthly full backup to be stored safely off-site?

Back 93

The 3-2-1. 3 for one primary back up and two copies of data. 2 for save the backup on two different types of media. And 1 for keep at least one copy off-site.

Front 94

Which of the following OPENED SOURCE access tools allows users to connect to their desktop remotely, see what’s on screen, and control it with their mouse and keyboard?

Back 94

VNC or virtual network computing. It’s a remote access tool and protocol used for screen sharing on Linux and macOS.

Front 95

What does SSH do? What’s its port number?

Back 95

Secure Shell uses port 22 to securely create communication sessions over the internet for remote access to a server or system

Front 96

What does SSH do? What’s its port number?

Back 96

Secure Shell uses port 22 to securely create communication sessions over the internet for remote access to a server or system

Front 97

What is telnet and what port does it use? Is it secure?

Back 97

Telnet uses port 23 to provide a bidirectional interactive text-oriented communication facility using a virtual terminal connection. But sends its data in plain text making it an insecure protocol.

Front 98

What is RDP? What port does it use and is it proprietary to a particular company?

Back 98

Remote Desktop protocol uses port 3389 and is a proprietary protocol developed by Microsoft which provides a user with a graphical interface to connect to another computer over a network connection.

Front 99

After installing an OS and rebooting the computer, you see “OS not found” error on display. You verify that the boot.ini file is configured properly, but error still appears. What 5 things can cause this error message?

Back 99

1. The BIOS doesn’t detect the Hard Disk. 2. The hard disk is damaged. 3. Sector (0) of the physical hard disk has an incorrect or malformed Master Boot Record (MBR). 4. An incompatible partition is marked as Active. 5. A partition that contains the MBR is no longer active.

Front 100

You are formatting a 4 TB external HDD on your MacBook. The drive will be used to share large video files between your MacBook and your friends windows 10 desktop, which file format should you use?

Back 100

The only file system that would work for this situation is xFAT. macOS can format a hard drive as APFS, HFS, HFS+, exFAT and FAT32. Windows system can only read exFAT and FAT32. But FAT32 only supports up to 32GB and file sizes up to 4 GB. And exFAT supports size up to 128 petabytes.

Front 101

What are the seven steps of the malware removal procedures?

Back 101

1. Investigate and verify malware symptoms. 2. Quarantine the infected systems. 3. Disable system restore in windows. 4. Remídase the infected systems, update the anti-malware software, scan the system, and use removal techniques (safe-mode, pre-installation environment) 5. Schedule scans and run updates. 6. Enable system restore and create a restore point in Windows, and 7. Educate the end user.

Front 102

Which type of upgrade or repair should a technician use if they’re trying to replace an existing OS files with a new copy of the same version without deleting or modifying users applications and data during the upgrade/installation?

Back 102

Repair installation. Is a type of installation that attempts to replace the existing version of the OS with a new copy of the same version. It’s useful when trying to repair a windows computer that will not boot or when you believe the system files have been corrupted. It will only affect the system files and not any of the settings, customizations, or applications.

Front 103

What installation or upgrade would a technician use to completely replace the OS software on the computer with a new OS?

Back 103

Clean Install. This will delete all of the users data, settings, and applications.

Front 104

What installation or upgrade would a technician use to completely replace the OS software on the computer with a new OS?

Back 104

Clean Install. This will delete all of the users data, settings, and applications.

Front 105

What upgrade would a technician use to preserve Then applications, user settings, and data files that already exist on a computer?

Back 105

An in-place upgrade. Preserves applications, user settings and data files that already exist on the computer

Front 106

What upgrade would a technician use to preserve Then applications, user settings, and data files that already exist on a computer?

Back 106

An in-place upgrade. Preserves applications, user settings and data files that already exist on the computer

Front 107

What installation type would a technician use on an OS to revert most system settings to their default and recopy the system files?

Back 107

Refresh installation is a type of installation that will re-copy the system files and revert most system settings to their default configuration while preserving user personalization settings data files and applications installed through the windows store.

Front 108

Which file system type is used by default when installing macOS on a modern workstation?

Back 108

APFS (Apple File System) is the default file system for Mac when using macOS 10.13 or later.

Front 109

Which command line on a windows machine while running a program to determine where the network connectivity outage is occurring? The tool tests end-to-end connection and reports on each hop found in a connection. It will determine if the issue is on the intranet portion of your network or if it’s your ISP?

Back 109

Tracert. is a command line utility used to trace an IP packets path as it moves from its source to its destination.

Front 110

What does the nslookup tool do?

Back 110

NSlookup tool is used to troubleshoot DNS issues

Front 111

What does the netstat tool do?

Back 111

Netsat tool is used to display network statistics and active connections

Front 112

What does the netstat tool do?

Back 112

Netsat tool is used to display network statistics and active connections

Front 113

What does the ping tool do?

Back 113

The pink tool is used to test an end to end connection but it will not provide any data on the hops found in the connection. It will not tell you where the connection is broken

Front 114

What does the netstat tool do?

Back 114

Netsat tool is used to display network statistics and active connections

Front 115

What does the ping tool do?

Back 115

The ping tool is used to test an end to end connection but it will not provide any data on the hops found in the connection. It will not tell you where the connection is broken

Front 116

In linux what numbers do the letter permissions represent for an unmask?

Back 116

R = 4 (read-only). W = 2 (write only). And X = 1 (execute)

RWX = 7. RW= 6. R=4.

Front 117

What are the ranges of Class A private IP addresses?

Back 117

Class A go from 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255.255

Front 118

What are the ranges of Class A private IP addresses?

Back 118

Class A go from 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255.255

Front 119

What ranges does Class B private IP address have?

Back 119

Class B ranges contain 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255

Front 120

What is the Class C private IP range?

Back 120

Class C private IP ranges from 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255.

Front 121

What are the IP ranges of APIPA/link-local auto configuration?

Back 121

APIPA ranges from 169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255

Front 122

What type of data would DNA genetic testing be classified as?

Back 122

Protected Health Information (PHI). Refers to medical insurance records plus associated hospital and laboratory results

Front 123

What type of data would DNA genetic testing be classified as?

Back 123

Protected Health Information (PHI). Refers to medical insurance records plus associated hospital and laboratory results

Front 124

What type of data classification is used to identify, contact, or locate an individual?

Back 124

Personal identifiable information. (PII) is data that can be used to use to identify, contact, or locate. Such as SSN, DoB, email, phone numbers, addresses, and biometric data.

Front 125

What type of data would DNA genetic testing be classified as?

Back 125

Protected Health Information (PHI). Refers to medical insurance records plus associated hospital and laboratory results

Front 126

What type of data classification is used to identify, contact, or locate an individual?

Back 126

Personal identifiable information. (PII) is data that can be used to use to identify, contact, or locate. Such as SSN, DoB, email, phone numbers, addresses, and biometric data.

Front 127

What type of information is classified as created and owned by a company?

Back 127

Proprietary Information or intellectual property (IP).

Front 128

What type of data would DNA genetic testing be classified as?

Back 128

Protected Health Information (PHI). Refers to medical insurance records plus associated hospital and laboratory results

Front 129

What type of data classification is used to identify, contact, or locate an individual?

Back 129

Personal identifiable information. (PII) is data that can be used to use to identify, contact, or locate. Such as SSN, DoB, email, phone numbers, addresses, and biometric data.

Front 130

What type of information is classified as created and owned by a company?

Back 130

Proprietary Information or intellectual property (IP).

Front 131

What is the data classification for federal non-classified information that must be safeguarded by implementing sets of requirements and information security?

Back 131

Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI). Is federal nine classified information that must be safe guarded by implementing a uniform security requirements and information security controls to secure sensitive government information

Front 132

What is the minimum processor required to install windows 10 (x86) on a device? What else is required (RAM and HDD space)?

Back 132

1 GHz single-core processor. 1 GB of RAM. And at least 16 GB of hard drive space.

Front 133

What is the minimum processor required to install windows 10 (x86) on a device? What else is required (RAM and HDD space)?

Back 133

1 GHz single-core processor. 1 GB of RAM. And at least 16 GB of hard drive space.

Front 134

What is the minimum processor required to install Windows 10 (64-bit) OS? What other component requirements?

Back 134

Requires 1 GHz Processor, 2 GB of RAM, and at least 20 GB of HDD space.

Front 135

What are the requirements for Windows 11 (64-bit) operating system?

Back 135

Requires a dual-core 1 GHz processor, 4 GB of RAM, and at least 64 GB of HDD space.

Front 136

Which of the following commands is used on a Linux system to separate for lines that match a pattern within a file?

Back 136

grep (Global Regular Expression Print). Is a command-line utility for searching plain text data sets for lines that match regular expression. It works on Unix, Linux, and macOS.

Front 137

Which of the following features of WPA 3 is used to provide a password based authentication using the dragonfly handshake instead of the older WPA 4-way handshake?

Back 137

SAE. Simultaneous authentication of equals is a password based identification and password authenticated key agreement method used in WPA 3 that replaced the 4-way handshake.

Front 138

Which of the following features of WPA 3 is used to provide a password based authentication using the dragonfly handshake instead of the older WPA 4-way handshake?

Back 138

SAE. Simultaneous authentication of equals is a password based identification and password authenticated key agreement method used in WPA 3 that replaced the 4-way handshake.

Front 139

What is the minimum amount of storage space required to install windows 11 (x64) on a device?

Back 139

The minimum requirements are a dual-core 1 GHz processor, 4 GB of RAM, and at least 64 GB of hard drive space.

Front 140

Which remote access protocol should you use to connect a Linux server securely over the Internet?

Back 140

SSH is used to remotely connect to a network switches and routers to configure them securely.

Front 141

Which remote access protocol should you use to connect a Linux server securely over the Internet?

Back 141

SSH is used to remotely connect to a network switches and routers to configure them securely.

Front 142

What is the minimum amount of RAM needed to install windows 10 on a 32-bit system?

Back 142

For Windows 10 (32-bit) operating system, the minimum requirements are a 1 GHz processor, 1 GB of RAM, and at least 16 GB of hard drive space.

Front 143

Which type of back up only copies data modified since the last full back up?

Back 143

Differential back up only creates a copy of the selected data that has been modified since the last back up.

Front 144

Attempting to boot a Windows 10 laptop and receive an “OS not found” error on screen. You can see the hard disk listed in the BIOS/UEFI of the system. Which of the following commands should you use to repair the boot sector of the hard disk?

Back 144

To repair the drives boot sector you should use the command “bootrec /fixboot” and reboot the computer.

Front 145

If the system firmware reports the disk’s presence, but windows still will not boot? What should you do?

Back 145

Use a start up repair tool to open a recovery mode command prompt and use the bootrec tool to repair the drives boot information.

Front 146

If the system firmware reports the disk’s presence, but windows still will not boot? What should you do?

Back 146

Use a start up repair tool to open a recovery mode command prompt and use the bootrec tool to repair the drives boot information.

Front 147

What command is used to attempt a repair of the master boot record of a drive?

Back 147

The “bootrec / fixmbr” command is used to attempt to repair the master boot record of a drive.

Front 148

If the system firmware reports the disk’s presence, but windows still will not boot? What should you do?

Back 148

Use a start up repair tool to open a recovery mode command prompt and use the bootrec tool to repair the drives boot information.

Front 149

What command is used to attempt a repair of the master boot record of a drive?

Back 149

The “bootrec / fixmbr” command is used to attempt to repair the master boot record of a drive.

Front 150

What Windows command is used to add missing installations to the Boot Configuration Database (BCD)?

Back 150

The “bootrec / rebuildbcd” command is used to add missing Windows installations to the Boot Configuration Database (BCD).

Front 151

When building a new computer for video editing, the new computer will use an octa-core Intel processor, 3 TB of DDR4 memory, and a RAID 0 with two 4 TB SSDs for optimal performance. Which of the following editions of Windows 10 would support all of this computers memory properly?

Back 151

Windows 10 Enterprise and Windows 10 Pro FOR WORKSTATIONS are designed to run devices with high-performance configurations including server grade Intel Xeon and AMD Opteron processors. They both support up to four physical CPUs and 6 TB of RAM. Windows 10 Pro and Windows 10 education only support two physical CPUs and 2 TB of RAM. Windows 10 Home only supports one physical CPU and up to 128 GB of RAM.

Front 152

Which command line tool and option on a Windows system is used to force a background refresh of all group policy settings on a system?

Back 152

“gpudate /force” Group Policy (GP) is the primary administrative tool for defining and controlling how programs, Network resources, and the operating system operate for users and computers in an organization.

Front 153

Which command line tool and option on a Windows system is used to force a background refresh of all group policy settings on a system?

Back 153

“gpudate /force” Group Policy (GP) is the primary administrative tool for defining and controlling how programs, Network resources, and the operating system operate for users and computers in an organization.

Front 154

What does the “gpresult /force” command do on a windows system?

Back 154

The gpresult command is used to display the Resultant Set of Policy (RSoP) information for a remote user and computer because you can apply overlapping policy settings to any computer user, the Group Policy feature generates a resulting set of policy settings when the user logs on. It displays the resulting set of policy settings that were enforced on the computer for the specified user when the user logged on.

Front 155

Which command line tool and option on a Windows system is used to force a background refresh of all group policy settings on a system?

Back 155

“gpudate /force” Group Policy (GP) is the primary administrative tool for defining and controlling how programs, Network resources, and the operating system operate for users and computers in an organization.

Front 156

What does the “gpresult /force” command do on a windows system?

Back 156

The gpresult command is used to display the Resultant Set of Policy (RSoP) information for a remote user and computer because you can apply overlapping policy settings to any computer user, the Group Policy feature generates a resulting set of policy settings when the user logs on. It displays the resulting set of policy settings that were enforced on the computer for the specified user when the user logged on.

Front 157

What does the “dism /force” command do in a windows system?

Back 157

dism /force is a command-line tool used to mount and service windows images before deployment.

Front 158

Which command line tool and option on a Windows system is used to force a background refresh of all group policy settings on a system?

Back 158

“gpudate /force” Group Policy (GP) is the primary administrative tool for defining and controlling how programs, Network resources, and the operating system operate for users and computers in an organization.

Front 159

What does the “gpresult /force” command do on a windows system?

Back 159

The gpresult command is used to display the Resultant Set of Policy (RSoP) information for a remote user and computer because you can apply overlapping policy settings to any computer user, the Group Policy feature generates a resulting set of policy settings when the user logs on. It displays the resulting set of policy settings that were enforced on the computer for the specified user when the user logged on.

Front 160

What does the “dism /force” command do in a windows system?

Back 160

dism /force is a command-line tool used to mount and service windows images before deployment.

Front 161

What does the “sfc /force” command do in a Windows system?

Back 161

sfc /force is a system file checker command is a utility in Windows that allows users to scan for and restore corrupted Windows system files from the command line.

Front 162

Which command line tool and option on a Windows system is used to force a background refresh of all group policy settings on a system?

Back 162

“gpudate /force” Group Policy (GP) is the primary administrative tool for defining and controlling how programs, Network resources, and the operating system operate for users and computers in an organization.

Front 163

What does the “gpresult /force” command do on a windows system?

Back 163

The gpresult command is used to display the Resultant Set of Policy (RSoP) information for a remote user and computer because you can apply overlapping policy settings to any computer user, the Group Policy feature generates a resulting set of policy settings when the user logs on. It displays the resulting set of policy settings that were enforced on the computer for the specified user when the user logged on.

Front 164

What does the “dism /force” command do in a windows system?

Back 164

dism /force is a command-line tool used to mount and service windows images before deployment.

Front 165

What does the “sfc /force” command do in a Windows system?

Back 165

sfc /force is a system file checker command is a utility in Windows that allows users to scan for and restore corrupted Windows system files from the command line.

Front 166

What does the “dism /RestoreHealth” command do in a windows system?

Back 166

The dism /RestoreHealth option can run a scan to identify and repair any image or virtual hard drive corruption.

Front 167

All editions of Windows 11 can only support what processor?

Back 167

All additions of windows 11 only support x64 (64-bit) processors due to the high minimum memory requirements and a minimum of 4 GB of memory to operate.

Front 168

All editions of Windows 11 can only support what processor?

Back 168

All additions of windows 11 only support x64 (64-bit) processors due to the high minimum memory requirements and a minimum of 4 GB of memory to operate.

Front 169

What editions of Windows 10 can run x86 (32-bit) or x64 (64-bit) processors

Back 169

All additions of windows 10 are available in either x86 or x64 bit versions. When using a Windows 10 x86 (32-bit) version, a maximum of 4GB of RAM is supported.

Front 170

All editions of Windows 11 can only support what processor?

Back 170

All additions of windows 11 only support x64 (64-bit) processors due to the high minimum memory requirements and a minimum of 4 GB of memory to operate.

Front 171

What editions of Windows 10 can run x86 (32-bit) or x64 (64-bit) processors

Back 171

All additions of windows 10 are available in either x86 or x64 bit versions. When using a Windows 10 x86 (32-bit) version, a maximum of 4GB of RAM is supported.

Front 172

Which of the following types of encryption is considered the most secure to utilize in a SOHO network?

Back 172

WPA 3 (Wi-Fi protected access version 3). Uses (SAE) simultaneous authentication of equals, to increase security of pre-shared keys. WPA3 provides the enhanced open mode that encrypts transmissions from a client to the access point when using an open network.

Front 173

All editions of Windows 11 can only support what processor?

Back 173

All additions of windows 11 only support x64 (64-bit) processors due to the high minimum memory requirements and a minimum of 4 GB of memory to operate.

Front 174

What editions of Windows 10 can run x86 (32-bit) or x64 (64-bit) processors

Back 174

All additions of windows 10 are available in either x86 or x64 bit versions. When using a Windows 10 x86 (32-bit) version, a maximum of 4GB of RAM is supported.

Front 175

Which of the following types of encryption is considered the most secure to utilize in a SOHO network?

Back 175

WPA 3 (Wi-Fi protected access version 3). Uses (SAE) simultaneous authentication of equals, to increase security of pre-shared keys. WPA3 provides the enhanced open mode that encrypts transmissions from a client to the access point when using an open network.

Front 176

What type of structure is a “Do While” in scripting?

Back 176

A Loop. It deviates from the initial program path to some sort of logic condition. A loop is when the computer repeats the task until a condition is met. Often implemented with “For” “For Next” “while” or “Do While” statements.

Front 177

Which command-line tool is used on a Windows system to erase all the data on a hard disk and ensure it is ready to accept new Windows files?

Back 177

format /fs:NTFS. The format command creates a new root directory and file system for the disk. It can check for bad areas on the disk, and it can delete all data on the disk. To use a new disk, you must first use the format command to format the disk.

Front 178

What does the chkdsk command do?

Back 178

It is used to check the file system and file system metadata of a volume for logical and physical errors. If used without parameters, chkdsk displays only the status of the volume and does not fix any errors. If used, /f, /r, /x, or/b parameters then it fixes errors on the volume.

Front 179

What does the chkdsk command do?

Back 179

It is used to check the file system and file system metadata of a volume for logical and physical errors. If used without parameters, chkdsk displays only the status of the volume and does not fix any errors. If used, /f, /r, /x, or/b parameters then it fixes errors on the volume.

Front 180

What does the diskpart command do?

Back 180

Is a command-line disk-partitioning utility available for Windows that is used to view, create, delete, and modify a computer’s disk partitions.

Front 181

What does the chkdsk command do?

Back 181

It is used to check the file system and file system metadata of a volume for logical and physical errors. If used without parameters, chkdsk displays only the status of the volume and does not fix any errors. If used, /f, /r, /x, or/b parameters then it fixes errors on the volume.

Front 182

What does the diskpart command do?

Back 182

Is a command-line disk-partitioning utility available for Windows that is used to view, create, delete, and modify a computer’s disk partitions.

Front 183

What does the sfc/ command do?

Back 183

The system file checker command is a utility in Windows that allows users to scan for and restore corrupted Windows system files from the command line.

Front 184

What is an APK?

Back 184

Android Application Package. It’s a third-party or custom program that is installed directly on an Android device to give users and business the flexibility to install apps directly on android devices.

Front 185

What is a WEP attack?

Back 185

A WEP attack is a brute force password attack conducted against wireless network that relies on WEP for its encryption and security.

Front 186

What is WPA 3?

Back 186

Wifi protected access version 3. It uses simultaneous authentication of equals (SAE) to increase capacity of preshared keys. WPA3 provides the enchanted mode that encrypts transmissions from a client to the access point using an open network.

Front 187

What is WPA 2?

Back 187

Wifi protected access version 2 features an improved method of key distribution and authentication for enterprise networks, though the pre-shared key method is still available for SOHO networks. WPA2 uses the improved uses the improved AES cipher with counter mode with cipher-block chaining message authentication protocol (CCMP) for encryption.

Front 188

What is WPA 2?

Back 188

Wifi protected access version 2 features an improved method of key distribution and authentication for enterprise networks, though the pre-shared key method is still available for SOHO networks. WPA2 uses the improved uses the improved AES cipher with counter mode with cipher-block chaining message authentication protocol (CCMP) for encryption.

Front 189

What is WPA?

Back 189

Wifi protected access. Is an improved encryption scheme for protecting wifi communications designed to replace WEP. WPA uses the RC4 cipher and a temporal key integrity protocol (TKIP) to overcome the vulnerabilities in the older WEP protection scheme.

Front 190

What is WPA?

Back 190

Wifi protected access. Is an improved encryption scheme for protecting wifi communications designed to replace WEP. WPA uses the RC4 cipher and a temporal key integrity protocol (TKIP) to overcome the vulnerabilities in the older WEP protection scheme.

Front 191

What is WEP?

Back 191

Wired Equivalent privacy (WEP). Is an older mechanism for encrypting data sent over a wireless connection. WEP is considered vulnerable to attacks that can break its encryption. WEP relies on the use of a 24-bit initialization vector to secure its preshared key.

Front 192

What are the steps of the seven-step malware removal process?

Back 192

1. Investigate and verify malware symptoms. 2. Quarantine the infected systems. 3. Disable system restore in Windows. 4. Remédiate the infected systems, update anti-malware software, scan the system, and use removal techniques. 5. Schedule scans and run updates. 6. Enable system restore and create a restore point in Windows. 7. Educate the end user.

Front 193

Which of the following encryption types was used by WPA to better secure wireless networks than WEP?

Back 193

TKIP. WPA uses the RC4 cipher and a temporal key integrity protocol (TKIP) to overcome the vulnerabilities in the older WEP protection scheme.

Front 194

Which file system type is used to mount remote storage devices on a Linux system?

Back 194

NFS. The Network File System (NFS) is used to mount remote storage devices into the local file system on a Linux system. It allows you to mount your local file systems over a network and remote hosts to interact with them while mounted locally on the same system.

Front 195

Which command-line tool is used on a Linux system to display a list of the files and directories within the current path?

Back 195

The ls command lists the files or directories in the current path on a Linux system. When invoked without any arguments, ls list the files in the current working directory.

Front 196

What does the pwd command display on a Linux system?

Back 196

The pwd command displays the present working directory (current directory) path to the terminal or display. If you’re working on Linux system and are unsure of where you are in the directory structure, type ‘pwd’ and hit enter to display the path to the screen.

Front 197

Which MacBook tool is used to allow both operating systems to exist?

Back 197

Boot Camp. it’s used to allow dual booting a Mac computer. It allows the user to boot into either MacOS or Windows as the computer is rebooted.

Front 198

Which Windows tool can a technician use to display information about the performance of hardware and software resources in real-time?

Back 198

resmon.exe. Resource monitor is a utility used to display information about the use of hardware and software resources in real-time. It helps check the performance of specific resources and decide a course of action to improve the performance.

Front 199

A user cant open a 4 GB.dmg file on their Windows 10 workstation and keep receiving an error, why?

Back 199

A .dmg file is a disk image file on a macOS computer. Windows can’t open .dmg files without using special software tools.

Front 200

Which command would a Linux user need to enter to change their password?

Back 200

The passwd command changes passwords for user accounts.

Front 201

Which of the following data types would be used to store the value of TRUE?

Back 201

A boolean stores a value of true or false.

Front 202

Which of the following data types would be used to store the value of 3.14 or 333.33 or any decimal?

Back 202

A floating-number data type.

Front 203

Which data type would be used to store the value of Hello, Python, or JasonDion?

Back 203

A String Data type.

Front 204

Which command is used to create a new disk partition on a Windows system?

Back 204

Diskpart. It’s used to view, create, delete, and modify a computer’s disk partitions.

Front 205

What linux command is used to copy and convert raw data from one source to another such as a hard disk to an image file?

Back 205

The dd command is a linux utility that is used to copy and convert raw data from one source to another such as a hard disk to an image file.

Front 206

What type of structure is “IF THEN FALSE” in scripting?

Back 206

A branch is used to control the flow within a computer program or script, usually based on some logic condition. Often implemented with IF THEN ELSE statements.

Front 207

Which Windows tool can be used to diagnose and fix boot issues?

Back 207

msconfig.exe. It’s used to disable or re-enable software, device drivers, and Windows services that run at startup, or to change boot parameters.

Front 208

What’s the difference between a public network and a private network?

Back 208

A public network will hide your computer from other devices on the network and prevent file and printer sharing. A private network is considered trusted, allows the computer to be discoverable to other devices on the network, and supports the use of file and printer sharing.

Front 209

Which tool should a technician use to modify the HOSTS (hosts.ini) file on a Windows 10 system to solve a website address resolution issue?

Back 209

Notepad. The hosts.ini file is a local text file that allows a user to specify specific domain names to map to particular addresses. It can be edited using any basic text editor, such as a notepad.

Front 210

What contains virtual memory that can supplement the physical system memory in a Linux system?

Back 210

Swap Partition. On a linux system is a portion of the hard disk formatted with a minimal kind of file system and used in situations when the operating system runs out of physical memory and needs more of it.

Front 211

Which backup rotation scheme requires backups to be stored to at least two different types of media?

Back 211

The 3-2-1 back up rule states that an organization should create (3) one primary backup and two copies of that data. (2) save the backups to two different types of media. (1) keep at least one backup copy off-site.

Front 212

Which file types are commonly used by scripts in a Linux command line environment?

Back 212

.sh A Shell script is a file that contains a list of commands to be read and executed by the shell in a Linux and macOS. A .sh is used for a shell script and its first line always begins with #!/bin/bash that designated the interpreter. The line instructs the OS to execute the script.

Front 213

What does the command “shutdown /s” do on a Windows workstation?

Back 213

shutdown the workstation.

Front 214

What would you want to view on Windows 10 to fix an issue with a graphics card?

Back 214

The device manager. The device manager is used to view and control the hardware attached to the computer. The device manager will highlight a piece of hardware that is not working properly so a technician can repair or replace it

Front 215

Which security setting can be used to apply full disk encryption to protect the contents of a hard drive?

Back 215

BitLocker. Performs full disk encryption of the internal hard drive or solid state device on a Windows 10 system.

Front 216

What macOS program provides full disk encryption?

Back 216

FileVault

Front 217

What version of BitLocker provides full disk encryption of external storage devices?

Back 217

BitLocker to Go.

Front 218

Which command would you enter if you wanted to identify which version and build of Windows 10 is installed on a laptop?

Back 218

Winver. It’s a windows command-line tool that is used to display the name, version and build of the operating system.

Front 219

What does the PathPing command in Windows do?

Back 219

Is used to locate spots that have network latency and network loss between a client and a destination. Each node is pinged as the result of a single command and that the behavior of nodes is studied over an extended period.

Front 220

Which Linux command is used to delete a file from a directory

Back 220

rm. The rm command-line utility removes files or directories.

Front 221

What linux command moves files or directories from one place to another and removes them from their old original directory?

Back 221

The mv command supports moving single files, multiple files, and directories. It copies the file to the new directory and removed from the old directory.

Front 222

What Linux command copies files and directories?

Back 222

cp. The cp command copies files and directories. It supports moving one or more files or folders with options for taking backups and preserving attributes. Copies of files are independent of the original file, unlike the mv command.

Front 223

What linux command is used to terminate a process?

Back 223

kill. The kill command sends signals to specified processes or process groups, causing them to act according to the signal. The kill command is used to immediate kill a process, gracefully stopping it

Front 224

Which linux command is used to edit a text file on a server?

Back 224

vi. The visual utility is a popular screen-oriented text editor in Linux.

Front 225

What linux command is used to list the current running processes and their PIDs?

Back 225

The ps command lists the current running processes and their PIDs.

Front 226

What linux command is used to list the current running processes and their PIDs?

Back 226

The ps command lists the current running processes and their PIDs.

Front 227

What Linux command displays the present working directory?

Back 227

the pwd command displays the present working directory path to the terminal or display

Front 228

What linux command is used to list the current running processes and their PIDs?

Back 228

The ps command lists the current running processes and their PIDs.

Front 229

What Linux command displays the present working directory?

Back 229

the pwd command displays the present working directory path to the terminal or display

Front 230

What linux command changes the owner of a file?

Back 230

The chown command is used to change the owner of the file, directory, or link in linux.

Front 231

Which linux command is used to verify the IP address?

Back 231

The dig command is used to query the domain name system to obtain information about host addresses, mail exchanges, name servers, and related information.

Front 232

What is a PSK?

Back 232

A pre shared key.

Front 233

What encryption type uses a pre-shared key (PSK)?

Back 233

WEP uses a preshared key to secure a wireless network.

Front 234

Which log files contains a record of the events generated during the Windows installation or upgrade process?

Back 234

The set up log.

Front 235

What type of file extension should script: “net use s:\\fileserver\videos” use?

Back 235

.bat (batch) scripts run in Windows OS and contain several commands that are executed in a sequence. A .bat file is used for batch script

Front 236

Which linux command is used to change ownership of a file or directory?

Back 236

chown.

Front 237

What linux command sets the permission of files or directories on a linux system?

Back 237

chmod

Front 238

Which linux command would you use to find comprehensive documentation for any command from the Linux terminal?

Back 238

man. The man command in Linux is used to display the user manual of any command from the terminal.

Front 239

Which command tool in Windows would you use to end one or more processes that are hung up on the system?

Back 239

Taskkill. Is used to end one or more tasks or process in a Windows system

Front 240

Which linux commands is used to display the amount of disk space available on the file system?

Back 240

df command is used to display the amount of disk space available on the file system containing each file name argument.

Front 241

What IPv4 address is reserved for troubleshooting and testing and is a loop back address?

Back 241

127.0.0.1

Front 242

Which Linux command is used to edit a text file?

Back 242

nano. It’s an easy to use command line text editor for Linux systems. It includes the functionality of a regular text editor and a syntax highlighting, multiple buffers, search and replace with regular expression support, spell checking, UTF-8 encoding, and more.

Front 243

What would a technician use when trying to find the exact steps required to install a custom software packages within their organization?

Back 243

SOP. Standard Operating Procedure. It’s an inflexible, step by step listing of actions that must be completed for any given task.

Front 244

What is the minimum amount of storage space required to install Windows 11 (x64) on a device?

Back 244

64 GB.

Front 245

How could a company reduce its software licensing costs while still maintains the ability to access its application server remotely?

Back 245

Install and deploy thin clients without an OS for each user.

Front 246

How could a company reduce its software licensing costs while still maintains the ability to access its application server remotely?

Back 246

Install and deploy thin clients without an OS for each user.

Front 247

What is a Thin Client?

Back 247

A small device that can operate with or without an operating system installed on the client device. It can boot directly from a network based OS on a common server and access applications on the company’s application server. It can reduce the need for OS licenses and reduce deployment costs.

Front 248

Which network configuration is used to identify your computers individual host identifier and your computer’s network identifier?

Back 248

subnet mask.

Front 249

What is a gateway?

Back 249

Is the parameter the IP address of a router to which packets destined for a remote network should be sent by default.

Front 250

What is a gateway?

Back 250

Is the parameter the IP address of a router to which packets destined for a remote network should be sent by default.

Front 251

What is WINS?

Back 251

Windows Internet Name Service (WINS) is a legacy computer name registration and resolution service that maps computer NetBIOS name to IP addresses.

Front 252

Which Linux command is used to switch to another users account?

Back 252

su command. Which stands for substitute user, is used by a computer user to execute commands with the privileges of another user account.

Front 253

Which security concept should you implement to prevent a trusted insider from stealing your corporate data?

Back 253

DLP. Data Loss Prevention. The software detects potential data breaches/data ex-filtration transmissions and prevents them by monitoring, detecting, and blocking sensitive data while in use (endpoint actions), in motion(network traffic), and at rest (data storage)

Front 254

What is TACACS+?

Back 254

TACACS+ provides AAA services (accounting, authorization, and authentication) for access to routers, network access points, and other networking devices. It’s a remote authentication protocol which allows remote access servers to communicate with an authentication server to validate user access onto the network.

Front 255

What is NAC (network access control)?

Back 255

NAC is a means of ensuring endpoint security by ensuring that all devices connecting to the network conform to a health policy such as its patch level, antivirus/firewall configuration, and other factors.

Front 256

What is NAC (network access control)?

Back 256

NAC is a means of ensuring endpoint security by ensuring that all devices connecting to the network conform to a health policy such as its patch level, antivirus/firewall configuration, and other factors.

Front 257

What is ISAKMP (Internet Security Association and Key Management Protocol)?

Back 257

Used for negotiating, establishing, modification, and deletion of SAs and related parameters in the IPSec protocol.

Front 258

What condition could cause a large increase in the input power to a server room?

Back 258

Power Spikes. A significant over-voltage that occurs for a very short period of time is known as a power spike

Front 259

What condition could cause a large increase in the input power to a server room?

Back 259

Power Spikes. A significant over-voltage that occurs for a very short period of time is known as a power spike

Front 260

Which Windows command can be used to speed up a workstation that is operating slow when reading large files from its storage device?

Back 260

Chkdsk. It’s used to check the file system and file system metadata for logical and physical errors.

Front 261

Which of the following linux commands can be used to install software?

Back 261

yum. The Yum command is a package manager used with RPM-based linux distributions to install new software packages, removing existing software packages, upgrading existing software packages, and even upgrade the entire OS.

Front 262

Which of the following linux commands can be used to install software?

Back 262

yum. The Yum command is a package manager used with RPM-based linux distributions to install new software packages, removing existing software packages, upgrading existing software packages, and even upgrade the entire OS.

Front 263

What linux command allows the creation of single or multiple-files, view file contents, concatenate files, and redirect output in the terminal to a file?

Back 263

cat. Short for concatenate.

Front 264

Which of the following is the minimum amount of hard drive space needed to install Windows 10 on a 64-bit system?

Back 264

32 GB of hard drive space.

1 GHz processor, 2 GB of RAM, and at least 32 GB of Hard drive space

Front 265

Which Windows command should you use to verify system files are missing or corrupted and repair them if needed?

Back 265

SFC command. System file checker is a utility in Windows that allows users to scan for and restore corrupted Windows system files from the command line. (Chkdsk fixes errors on volume and is used with or without certain parameters /f, /r, /x.)

Front 266

What can attackers modify to redirect users to a malicious webpage? (User is trying to go to Google.com but is being directed to virus.com)

Back 266

host.ini file. The host file is usually the first process in the domain name resolution procedure. When a user requests a webpage, the host.ini file is first checked for the IP address.

Front 267

Which regulation applies when processing data within the European Union?

Back 267

GDPR. The general data protection regulation is a regulation created in the EU that creates provisions and requirements to protect the personal data of European citizens

Front 268

On Windows 10 you receive an “Operating System Not Found” error on the screen. You can see the hard disk listed in the UEFI/BIOS of the system. Which of the following commands should you use to repair the first 512-byte sector on the hard disk?

Back 268

bootrec /fixmbr. The master boot record (MBR) is the first 512-byte sector on a hard disk. It contains the partitioning info for a drive.

Front 269

What Windows command is used to attempt a repair of the boot sector of a drive?

Back 269

“Bootrec /fixboot”

Front 270

What Windows command is used to attempt a repair of the boot sector of a drive?

Back 270

“Bootrec /fixboot”

Front 271

What Windows command is used to add missing windows installations to the Boot Configuration Database (BCD)?

Back 271

“bootrec /rebuildbcd”

Front 272

Which compliance type should you be MOST concerned with dealing with credit cards?

Back 272

PCI-DSS. The payment card industry data security standard. Applies to companies of any size that accept credit card payments.

Front 273

If an office is frequently experiencing brownouts and sags, what would protect all of their workstations and servers from under-voltage events?

Back 273

Line conditioner. Line conditioners are used to protect an entire power circuit from under-voltage events and power sags. It can raise a sag or under-voltage event back to normal power levels, but cannot protect the line from complete power failure or power outage.

Front 274

What can be enabled to ensure no one can change the boot order and boot from an unauthorized operating system?

Back 274

BIOS password required.

Front 275

You are configuring a SOHO network that will contain 7 devices, but you only have a single public IP address. Which concept should be configured to allow the 7 devices to share a single IP when connecting to the internet?

Back 275

NAT. Network Address Translation is a network service provided by a router or proxy server to map private local addresses to one or more publicly accessible IP addresses.

Front 276

What is a security group?

Back 276

Is a collection of user accounts that can be assigned permissions in the same way as a single user object. They are used when assigning permissions and rights, as it’s more efficient to assign permissions to a group than to assign them individually to each user.

Front 277

What setting allows others to see workstations on a companies workgroups after the new workstation has been finished installing?

Back 277

Enable network discovery. It allows Windows 10 to find other computers and devices on the network.

Front 278

Which backup rotation scheme uses a complex mathematical puzzle to extend the number of unique days of backups stored with the least amount of tapes?

Back 278

Tower of Hanoi.

Front 279

Which physical security measure requires all users to use a PIV device when sending digitally signed and encrypted emails?

Back 279

Smart Card. It’s used in applications that need to protect personal information and/or deliver fast, secure transactions.

Front 280

Which file system formatting type should be used with a DVD?

Back 280

UDF. Universal disk format is an updated file system for optical media supporting multisession writing. It is a standard used by Windows referred to as the Live File System for CD and DVD recordable and rewritable discs.

Front 281

What legacy file system is used for CD optical disc media, CD-ROM, and CD-R?

Back 281

CDFS. The CD File System.

Front 282

What legacy file system is used for CD optical disc media, CD-ROM, and CD-R?

Back 282

CDFS. The CD File System.

Front 283

Which Control Panel section contains various tools like computer management, disk cleanup, print management, and registry editor?

Back 283

Administrative Tools.

Front 284

Which Linux command would display the network address and subnet mask of a wire connection?

Back 284

ip. The ip command is used to display information about the current wired network connection on a linux system, including its IP address, subnet mask, and MAC address.

Front 285

Which Windows tool can a technician use to gather information about a workstation and create a comprehensive list of hardware, system components, and the software environment used by that workstation?

Back 285

msinfo32.exe (system information) is a utility that gathers information about your computer and displays a comprehensive list of hardware, system components, and the software environment that can be used to diagnose computer issues.

Front 286

What Windows tool is used to collect info about devices to help troubleshoot problems with DirectX sound and video?

Back 286

dxdiag.exe it is a diagnostic tool used to test DirectX functionality and troubleshoot video-related or sound-related hardware problems. DirectX can save text files with the scan results.

Front 287

Which Windows utility is used to view and control the hardware attached to the computer and can highlight a piece of hardware that is not working so that a technician can repair or replace it?

Back 287

devmgmt.msc Device Manager will highlight a piece of hardware that is not working so that a technician can repair or replace it.

Front 288

Which linux command is used to delete all the files and directories in a Linux file system?

Back 288

rm -rf / The rm command is a command-line utility for removing files or directories. The rm -rf/ command is the most dangerous command to issue in Linux. It is one of the fastest ways to delete a folder and it’s contents.

Front 289

Which linux command is used to delete all the files and directories in a Linux file system?

Back 289

rm -rf / The rm command is a command-line utility for removing files or directories. The rm -rf/ command is the most dangerous command to issue in Linux. It is one of the fastest ways to delete a folder and it’s contents.

Front 290

Which technology should be used to provide a secure SSO solution for accessing both the corporate wireless network and it’s network resources?

Back 290

RADIUS. With RADIUS and SSO configured, users on the network can provide their user credentials one time when they initially connect to the wireless access point or another RADIUS client and are then automatically authenticated to all of the networks resources. The Remote Authentication Dial-in User Service is used to manage remote and wireless authentication infrastructure.

Front 291

Which file types are commonly used to create simple scripts in the Windows command-line?

Back 291

.bat (Batch) scripts run on the Windows operating system and in their simplest form contain a list of several commands that are executed in sequence. A .bat file is used for a batch script.

Front 292

Which internet option allows for the configuration of proxy settings, vpn’s, dial-up, and LANs?

Back 292

The connections tab in the Internet Options.

Front 293

In attempting to boot a Windows 10 an “Operating System Not Found” error on the screen and you can see the hard disk listed in the EFI/BIOS. Which command should be used to add the Windows installation to the boot manager?

Back 293

bootrec /rebuildbcd. The BCD (boot configuration data) stores the list of known Windows installations that can be booted from a hard drive. If a windows installation is not listed, the computer will be unable to boot into Windows. To add a missing Windows installation to the BCD you should use the command “bootrec /rebuildbcd” and reboot the computer.

Front 294

In attempting to boot a Windows 10 an “Operating System Not Found” error on the screen and you can see the hard disk listed in the EFI/BIOS. Which command should be used to add the Windows installation to the boot manager?

Back 294

bootrec /rebuildbcd. The BCD (boot configuration data) stores the list of known Windows installations that can be booted from a hard drive. If a windows installation is not listed, the computer will be unable to boot into Windows. To add a missing Windows installation to the BCD you should use the command “bootrec /rebuildbcd” and reboot the computer.

Front 295

Which Windows command should you use to display the machines active TCP connections?

Back 295

netstat. The netstat command is used to display active TCP connections, ports on which the computer is listening, Ethernet statistics, the IP routing table, IPv4 statistics, and IPv6 statistics on a Windows machines.

Front 296

Which feature allows a Linux server to provide file-sharing services to a company’s Windows 10 workstation?

Back 296

Samba. It’s used by Linux computers to enable the sharing and access of resources with Windows based networks. It can also be used by Linux servers to provide file sharing services to Window clients.

Front 297

What type of Malware monitors user activity and sends that information to someone else?

Back 297

Spyware.

Front 298

Which wireless technology allows a wireless device to automatically be configured for a SOHO wireless network with the push of a button?

Back 298

WPS. The WIFI protected setup is a mechanism for auto-configuring a WLAN securely for home users.

Front 299

Which wireless technology allows a wireless device to automatically be configured for a SOHO wireless network with the push of a button?

Back 299

WPS. The WIFI protected setup is a mechanism for auto-configuring a WLAN securely for home users. On some equipment, a user can push a button on the access point and connect adapters securely.

Front 300

Which wireless technology allows a wireless device to automatically be configured for a SOHO wireless network with the push of a button?

Back 300

WPS. The WIFI protected setup is a mechanism for auto-configuring a WLAN securely for home users. On some equipment, a user can push a button on the access point and connect adapters securely.

Front 301

What is a WPS? What are its weaknesses?

Back 301

A Wifi Protected Setup is a mechanism for auto-configuring a WLAN securely for home users. It is subject to brute force attacks against the PIN used to secure them.

Front 302

Which wireless technology allows a wireless device to automatically be configured for a SOHO wireless network with the push of a button?

Back 302

WPS. The WIFI protected setup is a mechanism for auto-configuring a WLAN securely for home users. On some equipment, a user can push a button on the access point and connect adapters securely.

Front 303

What is a WPS? What are its weaknesses?

Back 303

A Wifi Protected Setup is a mechanism for auto-configuring a WLAN securely for home users. It is subject to brute force attacks against the PIN used to secure them.

Front 304

What is WEP and what are It’s weaknesses?

Back 304

Wire Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is an older mechanism for encrypting data sent over wireless connection. It’s considered vulnerable to attacks that can break its encryption. It relies on the use of a 24-bit initialization vector to secure its preshared key.

Front 305

What is WPA?

Back 305

Wireless protected access. Is an improved encryption scheme for protecting Wifi communications designed to replace WEP. WPA uses RC4 cipher and a temporal key integrity protocol (TKIP) to overcome the vulnerabilities in the older WEP protection scheme.

Front 306

What is WPA?

Back 306

Wireless protected access. Is an improved encryption scheme for protecting Wifi communications designed to replace WEP. WPA uses RC4 cipher and a temporal key integrity protocol (TKIP) to overcome the vulnerabilities in the older WEP protection scheme.

Front 307

What is WPA2?

Back 307

Wifi protected access version 2. Replaces the original WPA after the completion of the 802.11i security standard. WPA2 features an improved method of key distribution and authentication for enterprise networks, though the preshared key method is still available for SOHO networks. WPA2 uses the improved AES cipher with counter mode with cipher-block chaining message authentication protocol (CCMP) for encryption.

Front 308

What is WPA?

Back 308

Wireless protected access. Is an improved encryption scheme for protecting Wifi communications designed to replace WEP. WPA uses RC4 cipher and a temporal key integrity protocol (TKIP) to overcome the vulnerabilities in the older WEP protection scheme.

Front 309

What is WPA2?

Back 309

Wifi protected access version 2. Replaces the original WPA after the completion of the 802.11i security standard. WPA2 features an improved method of key distribution and authentication for enterprise networks, though the preshared key method is still available for SOHO networks. WPA2 uses the improved AES cipher with counter mode with cipher-block chaining message authentication protocol (CCMP) for encryption.

Front 310

Which attack involves changing the systems MAC address before it connects to a wireless network?

Back 310

Spoofing. It’s the act of disguising a communication from an unknown source as being from a known, trusted source.

Front 311

What do you configure in the Control Panel section on a Windows 10 laptop to more quickly find files when searching its hard drive?

Back 311

Indexing options.

Front 312

In a Windows 10 workstation it’s attempting to boot up when it receives the following error, “BOOTMGR is missing; press Crtl + Alt + Del to restart” to fix this, you insert your Windows installation disc and reboot into the command prompt, under the System Recovery Options, what command should you enter into the command prompt?

Back 312

bootrec /fixboot.

Front 313

What rights and permissions does a Power User have?

Back 313

The rights and permissions of Power User allow the installation of devices and to install programs that do not modify the operating system files. They have some of the permissions of an administrator but without the ability to change everything in a Windows workstation.

Front 314

What log file should you review to view a hardware conflict that is showing in the Device Manager?

Back 314

The System Log. It contains information about service load failures, hardware conflicts, driver load failures, and more.

Front 315

Which virtualization concept refers to a VMs ability to have memory allocated for its use?

Back 315

Resource pooling

Front 316

Which type of connector is used to terminate a Cat 5e Network cable?

Back 316

RJ-45

Front 317

What type of connector provides power to an internal hard drive from the computers power supply using a 4-pin connector?

Back 317

Molex.

Front 318

What printer components cause a ghost image to appear on a printout?

Back 318

Drum. Issues with drum cause ghost images.

Front 319

What port(s) does SMB Server Message Block use?

Back 319

Ports 139 and 445

Front 320

Which of the following ports uses Service Location Protocol when organizing and locating printers, databases, other resources in a network?

Back 320

SLP uses Port 427.

Front 321

Which USB connection can support data up to 480 Mbps?

Back 321

USB 2.0

Front 322

Which USB type can support up to 4.5 watts of power per connected device?

Back 322

USB 3.0

Front 323

Which port is used by LDAP by default?

Back 323

Port 389. The lightweight directory access protocol. Is a protocol used to access and update information in an X.500-style network resource directory

Front 324

Which port(s) uses SNMP?

Back 324

Port 161 and 162. Simple Network Management Protocol for managing and monitoring UDP ports 161 and 162

Front 325

What should be checked to determine if a system can run a virtual machine?

Back 325

You should enable virtualization within the BIOS

Front 326

Which optical disc can only support storing up to 700 MBs on a single piece of media?

Back 326

CD-RW

Front 327

When building a virtualization workstation that will run four different server OS’s simultaneously, what is the most important piece of hardware needed to run the system efficiently?

Back 327

Multi-core processor

Front 328

What command is used to test if your own networks card driver is working properly?

Back 328

ping 127.0.0.1

Front 329

Which power supply allows the installer to attach or remove cables from the power supply as needed to reduce clutter inside the computer case?

Back 329

Modular power supply

Front 330

Which port should you block at the firewall if you want to prevent a remote login to a server from occurring?

Back 330

Port 22. SSH

Front 331

What tool should you use to determine if a switch is defective or not?

Back 331

Loopback plug

Front 332

What describes the IP address of a router to which packets destined for a remote network should be sent by default?

Back 332

Gateway

Front 333

Which network standard allows for a networking device to provide up to 15.4W of power to a connected device?

Back 333

802.3af

Front 334

When using a type 1 hypervisor virtualized environment which type of hardware is necessary to connect the VMs to the corporate network?

Back 334

Virtual NIC.

Front 335

Which type of networking hardware is installed in a computer server to connect to an Ethernet switch using a CAT 6 cable?

Back 335

Network Interface Card

Front 336

Which network configuration on a VM are used to prevent the VM from accessing the internet, but still allow it to communicate with other VMs on the host and the host itself?

Back 336

Internal. Internal would prevent them from communicating with the internet. They could communicate with each other and the host machine.

Front 337

Which device is installed in a communication closet to connect network wall jacks to a network switch using pre-wired RJ-45 ports?

Back 337

Patch panel. It’s used in a structured cabling system. A computer is connected to a wall Jack in this cable system and then connected to a patch panel by cabling running through the walls

Front 338

Which type of internet connection is terminated at a local switching center and requires different media type between the switching center and the end customer?

Back 338

DSL. Is a technology used to transmit multimedia traffic at a high bit rate over twisted-pair copper wire

Front 339

What is the sequence (steps) of a laser printers imaging process?

Back 339

Processing. Charging. Exposing. Developing. Transferring. Fusing. Cleaning.

Front 340

What printer concept is using a page description language that produces higher quality outputs at the expense of speed?

Back 340

PostScript

Front 341

What feature can you use to ensure that unauthorized applications are prevented from being installed during the bootup process?

Back 341

Secure boot.

Front 342

What metric is used to compare performance of an SSD or HDD?

Back 342

IOPS. Input/output operations per second.

Front 343

What setting should a user use to print a large job on both the front and back sides of the paper?

Back 343

Duplex

Front 344

You want to boot from a removable USB device to troubleshoot your Windows 10 laptop, which key should you press to enter the boot order menu?

Back 344

F12

Front 345

Which type of internet connection allows for high-speed bi-directional data communication over a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC) connection?

Back 345

Cable.

Front 346

Which backup takes the longest to restore

Back 346

Incremental backup

Front 347

Which of the following would a technician use when trying to find the exact steps required to install a custom software package within their organization?

Back 347

SOP. Standard Operating Procedure.

Front 348

Which of the following would a technician use when trying to find the exact steps required to install a custom software package within their organization?

Back 348

SOP. Standard Operating Procedure.

Front 349

What document outlines all the work that is to be performed as well as agreed-upon deliverables and timelines?

Back 349

SOW. Statement of Work, or Scope of Work.