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226 Cards in this Set

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when is coronary artery calcium score indicated?

asymptomatic patients with intermediate risk of CAD (10%-20% 10-year risk) --> high score (>400) is an indication for more intensive preventive treatment

what is Fanconi syndrome?

disease of proximal renal tubules; where BAGUP (bicarbonate, amino acids, glucose, uric acid, phosphate) are passed into the urine, instead of being reabsorbed

findings in minimal change disease
normal light and immunofluorescence microscopies; effacement of podocyte foot processes on electron microscopy.
biopsy findings in primary membranous glomerulopathy
diffuse glomerular membrane thickening without cellular infiltration, and coarsely granular deposits of IgG and C3 along the capillary loops by immunofluorescence microscopy. Electron microscopy shows moderate podocyte foot process effacement
clinical clue to diagnosis of multiple myeloma
elevated total urine protein, (quantifies both albumin and non-albumin protein (paraprotein)) with small amounts of protein on urine dipstick (measures only albumin)
when to change HCTZ to furosemide
GFR <30, HCTZ becomes ineffective as a diuretic
kidney biopsy, what is an acceptable BP?
<160/95
contraindications to kidney biopsy (7)
uncontrolled HTN, coagulopathy, thrombocytopenia, hydronephrosis, atrophic kidney, numerous kidney cysts, and acute pyelonephritis
describe FENA in urinary obstruction
in early obstruction, urine sodium and FENa may be low; in late obstruction, urine sodium and FENa may be high (tubular damage)
lab findings in gentamicin toxicity
hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis
describe pathophysiology of gentamicin nephrotoxicity
Aminoglycosides are divalent cations that activate calcium-sensing receptor in TALOH; this inhibits Na-K-Cl cotransporter, mimicking effect of loop diuretics and leading to hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis
fibrosing skin disease caused by an inflammatory reaction to gadolinium that accumulates in the body due to kidney failure
nephrogenic systemic fibrosis
in DM, when to test for microalbuminuria?
annual testing to assess urine albumin excretion in patients with type 1 diabetes of 5 years' duration and in all patients with type 2 diabetes starting at the time of diagnosis by measuring the albumin–creatinine ratio
how is microalbuminuria diagnosed?

albumin–creatinine ratio of 30 to 300 mg/g; diagnosis requires an elevated albumin–creatinine ratio on two of three random samples obtained over 6 months

how do NSAIDs cause hyperkalemia?
inhibit renin synthesis, resulting in hyporeninemic hypoaldosteronism, decreased potassium excretion, and hyperkalemia
formula for TTKG
TTKG = [Urine Potassium ÷ (Urine Osmolality/Plasma Osmolality)] ÷ Serum Potassium OR Uffine K / serum K all div by Uosm/Posm
how to interpret TTKG?

TTKG in patient on normal diet is 8 to 9; >10 in hyperkalemic states, reflecting excretion of excess potassium; if not then prob hypoaldosterone state

fevers and leukopenia post kidney transplant

CMV infection

mechanism of kidney injury due to tenofovir (Viread)
drug-related damage to mitochondrial DNA (most significantly in renal tubules causing tubular dysfunction)
mechanism of kidney injury due to Bactrim?

Trimethoprim, particularly in acid urine, blocks the epithelial sodium channel in the cortical collecting duct, leading to increased lumen positive potential, impaired potassium and proton secretion, hyperkalemia, and metabolic acidosis

X-linked disease affecting basement membranes due to a collagen protein synthesis defect. Clinical disease is characterized by sensorineural hearing loss, ocular abnormalities, and a family history of kidney disease and deafness
Alport syndrome
differential diagnosis of combined increased anion gap metabolic acidosis and respiratory alkalosis

salicylate toxicity, liver disease, and sepsis

ferritin levels that exclude or diagnose iron deficiency

>100ng/mL excludes and <15 diagnoses iron def

formula for urine potassium–creatinine ratio
Urine Potassium (meq/L) × 100 [(mg × L)/(dL × g)] ÷ Urine Creatinine (mg/dL)
interpretation of urine K-crea ratio
> 20 meq/g c/w kidney potassium wasting, << 15 meq/g suggests extrarenal potassium loss, cellular redistribution, or decreased intake
metabolic alkalosis, urine cl levels low, differentials?
vomiting or decreased effective arterial blood volume (prior diuretics)
metabolic alkalosis, urine Cl levels high, differentials?
on diuretics, Bartter or Gitelman syndrome
define hypercalciuria

urine calcium >300

treatment of calcium stones with hypercalciuria
thiazide diuretic, promotes distal reabsorption of calcium
kidney injury which results when a patient with vascular risk factors and hypertension attains a blood pressure lower than usual measurements
normotensive ischemic AKI
time frame for AIN to occur
1 week after exposure
JNC 7 definition of prehypertension
average blood pressure reading of 120 to 139 mm Hg systolic or 80 to 89 mm Hg diastolic. Remember goal blood-pressure for people with diabetes regardless of age is a BP less than 130/80.
blood pressure that is higher at home than in the office setting
Masked hypertension
White coat hypertension
3 office BP >140/90 mm Hg, 2 home BP <140/90 mm Hg and no target organ damage.
Resistant hypertension
BP above goal despitee 3 antihypertensives, including 1 diuretic
pathophysiology of Gitelman syndrome

defect is due to inactivating mutations in the gene for the thiazide-sensitive sodium chloride cotransporter in the distal convoluted tubule, and the electrolyte profile is analogous to that induced by thiazide diuretics (hypokalemia, hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis)

electrolyte and acid base abnormality in diuretic abuse and surreptitious vomiting

hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis

define gestational hypertension
refers to hypertension that develops after 20 weeks' gestation in the absence of proteinuria or other maternal end-organ damage
what is preeclampsia?
new-onset hypertension accompanied by the development of proteinuria, develops any time after 20 weeks of pregnancy but usually occurs close to term.
classic presentation of AIN
fever, rash, and eosinophilia with elevated crea (only in 10%)
how to interpret fractional excretion of urea
<35% prerenal (less influenced by diuretics)
propofol-related infusion syndrome is characterized by
type B lactic acidosis, hypertriglyceridemia, rhabdomyolysis, and J-point elevation or a Brugada-like pattern on EKG
treatment of primary membranous glomerulopathy
control risk factors - ACEi for HTN and statin if HL
differentiate type A and type B lactic acidosis
Type A due to tissue hypoperfusion / hypoxia. Type B due to medication / toxin; or in advanced malignancy, liver disease, or G6PD def
drugs that cause type B lactic acidosis
linezolid, acetaminophen overdose, metformin, the NRTis stavudine and didanosine, propofol, and salicylates
kidney stones that will pass and will not pass?
5mm or less will pass, 10mm or more will not
at what levels of creatine kinase should one suspect rhabdo?
>5000
abnormal ARR
>25 considered abnormal
when to start bicarbonate therapy in CKD?
Stage 4-5 with bicarb 15-20 (delays progression of CKD)
treatment of hyperoxaluria
calcium carbonate supplements
When to consider evaluating for secondary causes of HTN? (6)
young age, no family history, no risk factors, rapid onset, abrupt change, endocrine abnormality
Indications for rasburicase (being that it is more expensive) (2)
high risk for tumor lysis syndrome or very high UA levels in chemo
NOTE: Plain AXR has no role in
the acute diagnosis of kidney stones.
NOTE: There is no role for the routine measurement of
EPO in CKD.
How does GFR relate to creatinine?
inversely proportional; 50% reduction in GFR = doubling of serum crea
medications that block tubular secretion of creatinine (resulting in higher crea without change in GFR)
TMP, cimetidine
alternative marker of GFR that is less influenced by age, gender, muscle mass, and body weight compared with serum creatinine
cystatin C
high urinalysis pH
strict vegetarians, distal RTA (Type 1), urease–splitting organisms (Proteus and Pseudomonas)
urine dipstick reads negative or trace for protein but shows increased positivity for protein by the SSA test
consider multiple myeloma – presence of urine light chains or Ig not detected by urine dipstick
at what serum glucose does glucosuria occur?
180–200 mg/dL
differential diagnosis for (+) ketones
DKA, starvation / alcoholic ketoacidosis; salicylate toxicity, isopropyl alcohol poisoning
ketones detected by urinalysis
acetoacetate, not B–OH
when is nitrites (+)?
GN UTI (Kleb, E. coli, Proteus, Pseudomonas)

differentials for (+) urobilinogen in urinalysis

hemolytic anemia or hepatic necrosis (NOT obstructive causes)
differentials for (+) bilirubin in urinalysis

severe liver disease or obstructive jaundice

sterile pyuria differentials
M. tuberculosis, AIN, kidney stones, kidney transplant rejection
common causes of AIN
antibiotics, NSAIDs, PPI
differentials for urine eosinophil (+) in urinalysis
allergic reaction, atheroembolic disease, RPGN, small vessel vasculitis, UTI, prostatic disease, parasitic infections
blood in urine: isomorphic RBCs
tumor, stone or infection. The fact that the RBCs are isometric by definition determines their origins not at the glomeruli level.
blood inurine: acanthocytes and RBC casts
GN, severe interstitial nephritis, ATN
casts in urinalysis
hyaline casts – hypovolemia; pigmented granular (muddy brown) casts – tubular injury; RBC casts – GN; WBC casts – tubulointersitial inflammation of kidney, pyelonephritis

urine crystal shapes

-Calcium oxalate: envelope / dumbell / needle



-Calcium phos: prism, needle, star–like clump



-Uric acid: rhomboid / needle / rosette



-Struvite or Mag ammonium phos: coffin



-Cystine: Hexagonal

Nephrotic–range proteinuria
protein–creatinine ratio greater than 3.5 mg/mg
ADA recommendation: when to check urine albumin–crea ratio in DM?

typ1DM x 5 years; all type 2 DM at time of diagnosis

ADA definition of microalbuminuria
urine albumin–creatinine ratio of 30 to 300 mg/g; two of three random samples over 6 months
transient proteinuria differentials
fever, rigorous exercise
proteinuria increases during the day and decreases at night when the patient is recumbent
orthostatic proteinuria
diagnostic test for orthostatic proteinuria
split urine collection
imaging used in the evaluation of hematuria
CT urography, MR urography, US, IVP
which urinary tract imaging to choose in hematuria
CT uro for high–risk patients with preserved GFR; MR uro when GFR 30–60; US in <40y/o with no RF for urologic malignancy; noncontrast abd CT if stones suspected; IVP no longer recommended
hematuria ffd by negative evaluation of upper urinary tract, next step

cystoscopy; assess for lower ureteral, bladder or urethral causes

gold standard for quantifying the glomerular filtration rate and renal plasma flow
radionuclide kidney clearance scanning

when to order MRI of kidneys

mass lesions and cysts

test of choice for the evaluation of urologic bleeding in patients at high risk for bladder cancer with an estimated GFR above 60 mL/min/1.73 m2

CT urography
can identify non–uric acid–containing kidney stones
KUB xray
Indications for kidney biopsy
suspected glomerular pathology such as glomerulonephritis and the nephrotic syndrome, acute kidney injury of unclear cause, and kidney transplant dysfunction

Contraindications to kidney biopsy

bleeding diatheses, active infection of the genitourinary system, hydronephrosis, atrophic kidneys, and uncontrolled hypertension; relative C/I: solitary kidney, severe anemia, and chronic anticoagulation
abnormal serum osmolal gap
>10 mosm/kg H20; reflects the presence of unmeasured solutes
Formula: plasma Osmolality (mosm/kg H2O)
2 × Sodium (meq/L) + Glucose (mg/dL)/18 + BUN (mg/dL)/2.8
normal effective osmolality
275–295 mosm/kg H204 to 6 meq/L (4–6 mmol/L) over the first 24 hours is sufficient
goal rise in sodium in patients with symptomatic hyponatremia
4–6 meq/L over 1st 24 hours

conditions causing pseudohyponatremia

Hyperglobulinemia or severe hyperlipidemia
most common form of hyponatremia
hypotonic hyponatrmeia
causes of hypertonic hyponatremia
marked hyperglycemia or exogenously administered solutes such as mannitol or sucrose
first step in the evaluation of hyponatremia
check plasma osmolality – normal in pseudohyponatremia (check chol, TG, serum total Pr)
how is cause of hypotonic hyponatremia established
history, vol status, urine osmolality, urine sodium level
Uosm for primary polydipsia and hyponatremia
<100

mechanism of hyponatremia in beer potomania

water excretion is in part solute dependent, chronic ETOH + low solute intake = decrease free water excretion; hyponatremia develops in setting of modest increases in fluid intake
when does reset osmostat occur?
quadriplegia, TB, advanced age, pregnancy, psych disorders
how to distinguish reset osmostat from SIADH
document excretion of dilute urine following a water load
What is cerebral salt wasting?
syndrome of hypotonic hyponatremia that may complicate subarachnoid hemorrhage or neurosurgery

risk factors for acute hyponatremia

pos–op hypotonic fluids; use of thiazides, use of ecstacy, overhydration with extreme exercise, primary polydipsia
treatment of symptomatic hyponatremia
hypertonic saline in symptomatic SIADH; NS for hypovolemic hyponatremia; seizure or coma – 100ml or 2ml/kg bolus infusions of 3% NS, repeated up to 2x as needed
maximum rate of correction of hyponatremia
not >10 meq/l within 24 hours or 18 within 48 hours
clinical features of osmotic demyelination syndrome
progressive quadriparesis, speech and swallowing disorders, coma, locked–in syndrome (IRREVERSIBLE)
treatment of asymptomatic hyponatremia
fluid restriction in SIADH or hypervolemic hyponatremia
causes of diabetes insipidus
decreased release of ADH (central diabetes insipidus); ADH resistance (nephrogenic diabetes insipidus); and metabolism of ADH by circulating vasopressinase (gestational diabetes insipidus)

define polyuria

urine volume >3L/24h
diff Dx of polyuria
DI, primary polydipsia, osmotic diuresis
urine osmolality in osmotic diuresis, primary polydipsia and DI
>300 in osmotic diuresis; <200 in Di and primary polydipsia
effect of water deprivation testing in primary polydipsia and DI
increases urine osmolality to ~600mosm/kg H20; <200 in DI
effect of desmopressin in central DI / gestational DI / nephrogenic DI
rise to 600 mosm/kg H20 except in nephrogenic DI
treatment of hypernatremia
in shock, NS – avoid boluses; estimate water deficit, D5 water
rate of correction of hypernatremia
no more than 10 meq/L to avoid cerebral edema
estimated water deficit formula
Total Body Water [0.6 in Men and 0.5 in Women × Body Weight (kg)] × [(Serum Sodium/140 [or target serum sodium]) – 1]
treatment of central and gestational DI
intranasal desmopressin
treatment of nephrogenic DI

thiazide diuretics (increase prox Na and water reabsorption); d/c lithium if possible or add amiloride

DDx of hypokalemia
cellular redistribution, kidney (diuretics) or GI losses, decreased intake
conditions that result in increased intracellular uptake of serum K
marked leukocytosis (myeloprolif disorders), B2 agonists, epinephrine, insulin, Vit B12 repletion, systemic alkalosis; toxicity to barium, chloroquine, quetiapine, risperidone
rare syndrome that presents with acute episodic muscle weakness, often following a high carbohydrate meal or strenuous exercise
hypokalemia periodic paralysis
this amount of 24 hour urine K excretion suggests ongoing urinary potassium losses
>30meq/L
formula for urine potassium–crea ratio
(meq/g) = Urine Potassium (meq/L) × 100 [(mg × L)/(dL × g)] ÷ Urine Creatinine (mg/dL)
interpretation of urine K–crea ratio
>20 in kidney potassium wasting, <15 suggests cellular reditribution, decreased intake or extrarenal K loss
used for patients with concomitant metabolic acidosis due to renal tubular acidosis and hypokalemia
potassium citrate
the most efficient intervention that enhances intracellular potassium uptake
IV insulin +/– glucose
evolution of EKG changes in hyperkalemia
peaked T waves with a shortened QT interval initially, followed by an increased PR interval and QRS duration, decreased P wave amplitude, and eventually a sinoventricular pattern heralding ventricular standstill

NOTE: Severe leukocytosis (leukocyte count >120,000/microliters [120 × 109/L]) and thrombocytosis (platelet count >600,000/microliters [600 × 109/L])

can result in the release of intracellular potassium in serum specimens.
how to diagnose pseudo–hyperkalemia related to leukocytosis
by repeating a serum potassium measurement in a sample carefully transported to the laboratory without agitation immediately following phlebotomy or measurement of whole blood potassium in uncentrifuged specimens using ion–specific electrodes also confirms the diagnosis
what does TTKG estimate?
the ratio of the potassium level in the CCD to that in the peritubular capillary; capacity of kidney to excrete K in the setting of hyperK
formula for TTKG
[Urine Potassium ÷ (Urine Osmolality/Plasma Osmolality)] ÷ Serum Potassium
how to interpret TTKG
>10 under normal conditions; < 10 indicates kidney defect in K excretion
how is IV calcium given in hyperkalemia?
every 5 minutes until ECG changes resolve
When is IV calcium contraindicated in hyperkalemia?
digoxin toxicity
onset and duration of effect of glucose insulin solution in hyperkalemia
within 10 minutes and is sustained for 4 to 6 hours
Caveat with using sodium polystyrene sulfate in hyperkalemia
use sorbitol–free preparation – sorbitol implicated in GI necrosis and bleeding
treatment of mild–moderate hyperkalemia
dietary potassium restriction to less than 2500 mg/d
DDx of hypophosphatemia
chronic alcohol use, critical illness, malnutrition

presentation of hypophosphatemia

<2 symptomatic weakness, <1 resp muscle weakness, hemolysis, rhabdomyolysis

when to correct low phos with IV?

<1

NOTE: When hypophosphatemia is due to increased cellular uptake or extrarenal phosphate loss,

the 24–hour urine phosphate excretion is less than 100 mg/dL (32.3 mmol/L) and the fractional excretion of phosphate is less than 5%
risks of IV phosphate treatment
hypocalcemia and AKI. Because serum phosphate and calcium have an inverse relationship.
maximum dose of intravenous phosphate
doses of phosphate should be restricted to 80 mmol over 12 hours
DDx of hyperphosphatemia
advanced CKD, increased cell turnover, cell injury, or exogenous phosphate administration
normal reference range for the anion gap
8 to 10 meq/L ± 2 meq/L
correction of anion gap in hypoalbuminemia
For every 1 g/dL (10 g/L) decrease in serum albumin, for example, the expected or “normal” anion gap falls by approximately 2.3 meq/L (2.3 mmol/L).
define lactic acidosis
serum lactate level greater than 4 mg/dL
MOA fomepizole
inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase that prevents the formation of toxic acid metabolites
formula for corrected bicarbonate
24– change in AG
interpretation of delta delta

if measured HCO3 > corrected bicarb – concomitant MAlk in addition to HAGMA; if measured HCO3 < corrected – concomitant NAGMA + HAGMA

What is the goal blood pressure for person younger than 80 years?
Less than 140/90
And what hemoglobin should erythropoietin stimulants be started in CKD?
Less than 10. With a target hemoglobin level of 10 to 11.
Acetazolamide causes kidney excretion of what:
Bicarb and sodium
When to start dual antihypertensive therapy?
When blood pressure more than 20 points above goal blood pressure based on age.
How long to treat UTI and patience with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease?
Cipro for 2 to 4 weeks
Most important thing to do to prevent tumor lysis syndrome?
Intravenous fluids at 250 mL per hour if possible
What is the most common primary nephrotic syndrome?
Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis. This condition as a predilection for African-Americans. Typically these patients at minimal edema.
Type of kidney disease seen with lupus?
Proliferative lupus nephritis
What is the most common primary nephrotic syndrome?
Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis. This condition as a predilection for African-Americans.
How soon to follow up on blood pressure in pre-hypertension?
Recheck in 1 year
What type of alcohol poisoning should Fomepizole be used?
Methanol and Ethylene glycol
I what pH is sodium HCO3 generally indicated in?
Persistent severe acidemia with pH less than 7.15
What test is done in the patient's home to confirm resistant hypertension?
Ambulatory blood-pressure monitoring
Conditions associated with lead toxicity:
-CKD
-Hypertension
-Gout
Best test for lead toxicity:
Chelation mobilization testing
NOTE: beta blockers are no longer universally recommended as first-line agents to treat hypertension in the absence of compelling indication such as history of MI or heart failure.
X
When to add Allopurinol in patients with recurrent uric acid stones?
After recurrent stones despite alkalinization (treatment with potassium citrate) of the urine.
Type of kidney injury caused by amyloidosis?
Nephrotic syndrome. Amyloidosis also affects the heart typically causing a restrictive cardiomyopathy and subsequent heart failure.
Describe liddle syndrome:
-Early onset hypertension
-Metabolic alkalosis
-Hypokalemia

in this condition renin and aldosterone are suppressed. Treated with amiloride or triamterene.
When his GFR calculation using chronic disease epidemiology collaboration equation best?
When GFR thought to be greater than 60. Use
How does dysmorphic RBCs look in glomerular hematuria:
Round in shape but with blebs protruding from their membranes.
Urine cast seen in acute interstitial nephritis (AIN)
Leukocyte casts
You're in cast seen in acute tubular necrosis (ATN)?

Muddy brown casts

Type of acute kidney injury seen with Intravenous bisphosphonate therapy?
Acute tubular necrosis
Characteristics of type 1 renal tubular acidosis:

-Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis
-hypokalemia
-Alkaline urine pH (>6)
-Nephrocalcinosis
-Urine ammonia less than 30

Lab values seen a laxative abuse:
-Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis
-Hypokalemia
Characteristics of proximal (type 2) renal tubular acidosis:
A defect in the regeneration of bicarbonate in the proximal tubule's.

-Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis
-Hypokalemia
-Glucosuria in setting of normal plasma glucose
-Renal phosphate wasting
-Acidic urine pH unlike that scene and type 1 RTA
When his GFR calculation using chronic disease epidemiology collaboration equation best?
When GFR thought to be greater than 60. Use modification of diet in renal disease study equation at lower GFRs.
Target blood pressure for people with diabetes regardless of age:
Less than 130/80
How does dysmorphic RBCs look in glomerular hematuria:
Round in shape but with blebs protruding from their membranes.
What is the normal urine albumin to creatinine ratio?
Less than 30
What is the normal urine protein to creatinine ratio?
Less than 0.2
Laboratory evidence of hemolytic anemia:
-Elevated reticulocyte count
-Elevated lactate dehydrogenase
What diseases associated with a classic triad of: microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, low haptoglobin level, and schistocytes?
Hemolytic uremic syndrome. Caused by some strains of E. coli including 0157-h7 that produces Shiga-like toxins.
Next test for sustained, isolated proteinuria?
Split urine collection: Protein urine collection during the day and collection during the night. to a valve for the benign condition of orthostatic pastoral proteinuria.
What is the normal urine protein loss over 24 hours?
Less than 150 mg/24 hours
Which chemotherapeutic agent is well known for causing type 2 RTA and or Fanconi syndrome?
Ifosfamide
Lab values associated with postinfectious glomerulonephritis secondary to strep or staph:
-Low complement levels
-Elevated antistreptolysin O antibodies when associated with streptococcal infection

Note in this condition there should be a latency period between infection and the onset of kidney disease.
What two conditions should be thought of in the presence of resistant hypertension?
1. Primary hyperaldosteronism
2. Renovascular hypertensio
What is the treatment for primary membranous glomerulopathy?
Ace inhibitor and Statin
What condition is associated with: type B lactic acidosis, hypertriglyceridemia, rhabdomyolysis, myocardial abnormalities seen as J point elevation or Brugada like pattern on EKG
Propofol-related infusion syndrome
Treatment of mild to moderate salicylate toxicity:
Sodium bicarb infusion. Alkalinizing the arterial blood to a pH 7.5 to 6.6 is indicated to decrease intracellular uptake and toxicity of salicylic acid. additionally with hydration and urine alkalinization to a pH of 7.5 to 8.0 will promote salicylate excretion. Blood salicylate levels and other electrolyte should be done q2 hours while treating. Any hypokalemia should be corrected to prevent increased salicylate absorption in the distal tubule. Impaired mentation should be treated with intravenous glucose to attenuate salicylate induced neuroglycopenia.
When is hemodialysis indicated in salicylate toxicity?
-Serum salicylate levels that exceed 80 mg/dL are
-Altered mentation
-Pulmonary edema
-Advanced kidney disease
-When clinical status worsens despite optimal medical therapy
Expected lab values in syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion:
-Low plasma osmolality
-Urine sodium level exceeding 40
Definition of hyperkalemia:
Potassium over 5
Definition of abdominal compartment syndrome:
Defined by new organ dysfunction in the setting of sustained, abnormal increase in the intra-abdominal pressure. Things that increase pressure include: massive ascites, volume overload, intra abdominal or retroperitoneal bleed.
Medication to increase the likelihood of expulsion of ureteral stone if less than 10 mm in diameter?
Tamsulosin (Flomax)
What two conditions should be thought of in the presence of resistant hypertension?
1. Primary hyperaldosteronism
2. Renovascular hypertension.
Describe biopsy characteristics of primary membranous glomerulopathy:
-Diffuse glomerular membrane thickening
-No cellular infiltration
-Coarsely granular deposits of IgG and C-3 along capillary loops
-moderate podocyte foot process effacement seen on electron microscopy
Describe characteristic biopsy results of minimal change glomerulopathy:
This condition is common in children and is not an immune complex disease process.

-Normal light and immunofluorescent microscopy but effacement of podocyte foot processes on electron microscopy.
How to treat lithium induced partial nephrogenic diabetes insipidus if patient must continue on lithium?
Start Amiloride. This agent directly blocks the epithelial sodium channel and decreases lithium uptake, resulting in less long-term damage.

Tolvaptan is not used in this case because the diabetes insipidus caused by lithium is only partial," not complete.
When is Hemodialysis of the ofindicated in salicylate toxicity?
-Serum salicylate levels that exceed 80 mg/dL are
-Altered mentation
-Pulmonary edema
-Advanced kidney disease
-When clinical status worsens despite optimal medical therapy
The primary temporizing measures for hyperkalemia?
-Intravenous calcium
-Insulin-dextrose solution
Differential diagnoses of combined increased anion gap metabolic acidosis + respiratory alkalosis:
-Salicylate toxicity which can be found in oils of wintergreen, aspirin
-Liver disease
-Sepsis
What is the best diagnostic test to diagnose fibromuscular dysplasia?
Catheter-based kidney angiography
Treatment of choice for ESKD and setting of Alport syndrome?
Kidney transplantation. There are no specific therapies were Alport syndrome.
Types of kidney stones seen post gastric bypass surgery?
Calcium oxalate stones secondary to enteric hyper oxaluria. Oxalate absorption is increased because calcium, which normally buns to oxalate in the gut and limits oxalate absorption, binds to fatty acids. Treatment is calcium carbonate supplements, low-fat diet, good hydration.
Over-the-counter medications and other nonprescription drugs that can cause hypertension:
-Decongestants with pseudoephedrine or phenylephrin
-NSAIDs
-Recent caffeine intake
-Cigarette smoking
Best treatment to reduce risk of preeclampsia in patients with high risk?
Low-dose aspirin 75 to 150 mg/day
Definition of preeclampsia:
-Systolic blood pressure greater than or equal to 140 or diastolic BP greater than or equal to 90
-24 hour urine protein greater than 300 mg
-After 20th we could just station in a woman who did not have hypertension or proteinuria early in pregnancy
The most common disease associated with rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis?
ANCA vasculitis. If severe, patient may require induction therapy with plasmapheresis and then cyclophosphamide and steroids. Followed with maintenance therapy with Azathioprine and steroids
If suspecting kidney disease confirmed by laboratory data what is the next test to get?
Kidney ultrasound. Do this prior to biopsy to rule out obstruction, determine kidney size, or evaluate for kidney cysts. And remember kidney biopsy is predominately used for patients with glomerular disease.
Test to check in cases of metabolic alkalosis?
-Blood pressure
-dehydration status
-urine chloride level
What is the goal LDL level in CKD?
Less than 100 and preferably less than 70.
What is the first line medication for management of hypertension during pregnancy?
Labetalol. Methyldopa works but may cause sedation and has to be given TID to be effective.
What brain conditions should be screened for an autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease?
Cerebral aneurysms with MR angiography.
Method of PTH suppression in CKD:
Vitamin D treatment. Use vitamin D3 or cholecalciferol if actually vitamin D deficient. If intact PTH level elevated but 25 hydroxy vitamin D be more than 30, use active or vitamin D such as calcitriol.
Normotension definition:
BP less than 120/80
Define chronic hypertension during pregnancy versus hypertensive disorder of pregnancy:
Normally during pregnancy BP levels typically decrease early in the first trimester and may remain lower then nun pregnant levels until term. Therefore when hypertension is present before 20 weeks just station, this represents chronic hypertension.
What are the lab values associated with gentamicin toxicity:
Hypokalemic, metabolic alkalosis
What test order for iron deficiency anemia:
1. Serum iron level -Typically low
2. Ferritin level -Typically low
3. TIBC -Typically high

Because ferritin is an acute phase reaction it can be normal or elevated in the presence of our deficiency anemia. But generally if ferritin greater than 100 it excludes iron deficiency and is less than 15 confirms iron deficiency.

Describe electrolytes and acid base seen in Bartter's syndrome:

- Hypokalemia, hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis, spot urinary Cl: greater than 20



Due to abnormal chloride transporters in the ascending loop of Henle. Onset during childhood or adoles.

Describe electrolytes and acid base seen in Gitelman's syndrome:

- Hypokalemia, hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis, spot urinary Cl: greater than 20



Due to abnormal chloride transporters in the distal tubules. This condition is also associated with hypocalciuria.

GFR in stage 2 CKD:

60-89

GFR in stage 3 CKD:

30-59

GFR in stage 4 CKD:

15-29

GFR in stage 5 CKD:

Less than 15