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46 Cards in this Set

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a PTA completes a developmental assessment on a 7 month old infant. assuming normal development, which of the following reflexes would not be integrated.



a. asymmetrical tonic neck reflex


b. moro reflex


c. landau reflex


d. symmetrical neck reflex

c. the landau reflex is an equilibrium response that occurs when a child responds to prone suspension by aligning their head and extremities in line with the plane of the body. although the response begins around 3 months, it is not fully integrated until the child's second year.

a 13 year old girl discusses the possibility of ACL reconstruction with an orthopedic surgeon. the girl injured her knee while playing soccer and is concerned about the future impact of the injury on her athletic career. which of the following factors would have the greatest influence on her candidacy for surgery.



a. anthropometric measurements


b. hamstring/quad strength ratio


c. skeletal maturity


d. somatotype

c. due to the potential impact on future bone growth, lack of skeletal maturity can be a contradiction to ACL reconstruction surgery.

a PTA positions the pt in supine prior to performing a MMT of the supinator. to isolate the supinator and minimize the action of the biceps, the PTA should position the the pts elbow in:



a. 30 degrees of elbow flx


b. 60degrees of elbow flx


c. 90 degrees of elbow flx


d. terminal elbow flx

placing the biceps in a maximally shortened position significantly limits the muscle's ability to function as a supinator. therapists should avoid maximum pressure in this position since the shortened position of the biceps can result in significant cramping.

a PTA reviews a lab report for a 41 yr old male diagnosed with COPD. which of the following would be considered a normal hemoglobin value?



a. 10gm/dL


b. 15gm/dL


c. 20gm/dL


d.25gm/dL

b. although the exact lower and upper values of normal may vary slightly depending on the source, 15gm/dL is well within the range of normal.

a PTA attempts to palpate the lunate by moving his finger immediately distal to Lister's tubercle. which wrist motion will allow the PTA to facilitate palpation of the lunate?



a. extension


b. flexion


c. radial deviation


d. ulnar deviation

b. the lunate is palpable just distal to the radial tubercle. flexion of the wrist facilitates palpation of the lunate.

a PTA employed in a school setting observes a 10 yr old boy attempt to move from the floor to a standing position. during the activity the boy has to push on his legs with his hands in order to attain an upright position. this type of finding is most commonly associated with:



a. cystic fibrosis


b. down syndrome


c. duchenne muscular dystrophy


d. spinal muscular dystrophy

c. duchenne muscular dystrophy causes mechanical weakening and cell destruction. pseudohypertrophy of the calf muscles is often the first observed finding, however, all muscles are eventually affected including respiratory and cardiac muscles.

a pt in the intensive care unit rehabilitating from a serious infection is connected to a series of lines and tubes. which LE IV infusion site would be the most appropriate to administer an IV?



a. median cubital vein


b. basilic vein


c. cephalic vein


d. saphenous vein

d. the saphenous vein is a superficial vein that extends from the foot to the sapheous opening. the vein is the only listed option that is located in the LE.

a physically active 19 yr old male receives pre-operative instruction prior to ACL reconstruction. the pts past medical history includes a medial menisectomy of the contralateral knee eight months ago. the most likely functional level of the pt following rehabilitation is:



a. able to participate in light recreational activities


b. able to participate in all recreational activities


c. able to return to recreational and competitive athletic activities with a derotation brace


d. able to return to previous functional level

d. a physically active, young pt should return to his previous functional level within 4-6 months following ACL reconstruction.

a PTA works with a pt referred to physical therapy diagnosed with anterior compartment syndrome. the pt presents with an inability to dorsiflex the foot and mild sensory disturbance between the first and second toes. the nerve that is most likely most likely involved:



a. deep peroneal nerve


b. medial plantar nerve


c. tibial nerve


d. lateral plantar nerve

a. the deep peroneal nerve innervates the ant. tib., extensor hallucis longus and brevis, lumbricals, interossei, extensor digitorum brevis, and peroneus tertius muscles.

a 35 yr old female is admitted to the hospital following a recent illness. lab testing reveals a markedly high platelet count. this finding is typical with:



a. emphysema


b. metabolic acidosis


c. renal failure


d. malignancy

d. malignancy is defined as cells that have the ability to spread, invade, and destroy tissue. a tumor that is malignant may or may not respond to tx or may return after removal. blood values vary based on type, degree, and location of the malignancy, however, are often increased as a manifestation of an occult neoplasm such as lung cancer.

If the forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) test is negative for airway obstruction in 99% of individuals without lung disease, then the measurement of FEV1 is:



a. sensitive


b. specific


c. reliable


d. valid

b. specificity is the probability of obtaining a negative test among individuals without the disease (who should test negative). because 99/100 individuals without lung disease had a negative FEV test for airway obstruction, the test is highly specific.

a PTA observes a pt complete hip ABD and ADD exercises in standing, which axis of movement is utilized with these particular motions?



a. frontal


b. vertical


c. anterior-posterior


d. longitudinal

c. motions in the frontal plane occur around an anterior-posterior axis. the frontal plane divides the body into anterior and posterior sections.

a PTA reviews the medical record of a pt diagnosed with peripheral arterial disease prior to initiating tx. which objective finding would most severely limit the pts ability to participate in an ambulation exercise program?

a. signs of resting claudication
b. decreased peripheral pulses
c. cool skin
d. blood pressure of 165/90 mmHg
a. claudication pain is a sign of ischemia of the LE muscles caused by peripheral arterial disease. resting claudication pain is typically considered a contraindication to exercise with peripheral arterial disease and may be an indication that the disease process is more advanced.

a male pt rehabilitating from a LE injury is referred to physical therapy for gait analysis. the PTA observes the pt at free speed walking. the normal degree of toe out at this speed is:



a. 3 degrees


b. 7 degrees


c. 14 degrees


d. 21 degrees

b. the degree of toe out during speed walking is approximately 7 degrees

a PTA completes a respiratory assessment on a pt with T2 paraplegia. as a component of the assessment, the PTA measures the amount of chest excursion during inspiration. the most appropriate pt position to conduct the measurement is:



a. sitting


b. supine


c. prone


d. sidelying

b. the supine position creates support and resistance to the diaphragm. there is a direct correlation between the amount of chest expansion and intercostal strength

a 73 yr old male pt receiving outpatient physical therapy begins to experience acute angina. the pt indicates he uses nitroglycerin to alleviate the angina. the most appropriate mode of administration is:



a. oral


b. buccal


c. sublingual


d. topical

c. sublingual administration occurs when placing drugs under the tongue. sublingual administration of nitroglycerin is the most appropriate mode of administration with acute angina due to the rapid absorption into the systemic circulation.

a pt rehabilitating from a knee injury completes and isokinetic test. the pt produces 88 ft/lbs of torque with the hamstrings at 120 degrees per second. assuming normal quad/hamstring ratio, which of the following most accurately reflects the predicted quad value?



a. 67 ft/lbs


b. 109 ft/lbs


c. 136 ft/lbs


d. 183 ft/lbs

c. a quadricep value of 136 ft/lbs would reust in a quad/hamstring ratio of approximately 3:2


(i.e., 1.5:1.0)

a pt 2 days status post transfemoral amputation demonstrates decreased strength and generalized deconditioning. which of the following positions should be utilized when instructing the pt to wrap their residual limb?



a. sidelying


b. standing


c. supine


d. prone

c. a supine position would provide the pt with adequate access to the residual limb and provide a secure and stable environment to complete the wrapping

a PTA recommends a wheelchair for a pt rehabilitating from a CVA with the goal of independent mobility. the left UE and LE are flaccid and presents with edema. there is normal strength on the right, however, the pts trunk is hypotonic. the pt is cognitively intact. the most appropriate wheelchair for the pt is:



a. solid seat, solid back, elevating leg rests, and anti tippers


b. sling seat, sling back, arm board, and elevating legrests


c. lightweight, solid seat, solid back, arm board, and elevating legrests


d. lightweight, solid seat, solid back, arm board and standard footrests

c. independent propulsion is facilitated by the use of a lightweight wheelchair, while a solid seating system assists with posture and activities. and arm board allows the flaccid UE to be supported and and elevating legrest will assist to decrease dependent edema.


a PTA inspects the residual limb of a pt following ambulation activities with a patellar tendon bearing prosthesis. the PTA identifies excessive redness over the patella. the most likely cause is:



a. settling due to limb shrinkage


b. socket not properly aligned


c. excessive withdrawal in sitting


d. excessive number of residual limb socks

a. a PTA may elect to add additional one-ply socks to the residual limb of a pt with excessive redness over the patella in order to more normally distribute weight-bearing forces.

a PTA prepares to preform a series of grade l and ll mobilizations in an attempt to reduce the pts pain. which UE joint is characterized by osteokinematic motion and arthrokinematic glide occurring in the same direction?



a. acromioclavicular joint


b. glenohumeral joint


c. radiocarpal joint


d. radiohumeral joint

the radiohumeral joint consists of a concave radius and convex humerus. osteokinematic motion and arthrokinematic glide are in the same direction.

a PTA palpates the body structures of the wrist and hannd. which of the following structures would not be identified in the distal row of carpals?



a. capitate


b. hamate


c. triquetrum


d. trapezoid

c. the triquetrum is located on the medial side of the proximal row of carpals between the lunate and pisiform.

a pt rehabilitating from a SCI works on self ROM activities in sitting. suddenly, the pt begins to demonstrate S&S of autonomic dysreflexia. the most appropriate PTA action is to :



a. keep the pt in sitting, monitor BP, and check the bowel and bladder for impairment


b. lie the pt flat, monitor BP, and check the bowel and bladder for impairment


c. lie the pt flat, monitor the BP, and give the pt fluids


d. keep the pt in sitting and wait for medical assistance

a. the most immediate response in treating autonomic dysreflexia is to support the pt in a sitting position in an attempt to minimize the impact of the elevated BP. the pts bowel and bladder should be checked since they can serrve as the source of the noxious stimulus.

a PTA conducts a goniometric measurement of a pts UEs. which of following values is most indicative of glenohumeral ABD?



a. 60 degrees


b. 120 degrees


c. 155 degrees


d. 180 degrees

b. passive shoulder complex abduction is approximately 180 degrees, however, glenohumeral ABD is 120 degrees with approximately 60 degrees of motion occurring at the scapulothoracic articulation.

a PTA conducts an inservice on exercsie guidelines for a group of senior citizens. as part of the inservice the PTA discusses the benefits of improving cardiovascular status through a low intensity activity such as a walking program. what frequency of exercise would be the most desirable to achieve the stated objective?



a. twice per day


b. one time per week


c. three times per week


d. five times per week

d. since walking is a low intensity activity, more frequent exercise sessions are needed to improve cardiovascular status. five times per week is the most desirable option.

a PTA palpates the lateral portion of the calcaneous and gradually moves distally along the lateral border of the foot. what bony structure would a PTA expect to encounter immediately distal to the calcaneous?



a. navicular


b. cuboid


c. lateral cuneiform


d. fifth metatarsal

b. the cuboid is the most lateral bone in the distal row of tarsus. the cuboid articulates proximally with the calcaneous, medially with the lateral cuneiform and navicular, and distally with the 4th and 5th metatarsals. the lateral and inferior surface of the cuboid includes a grove for the tendon of the peroneous longus muscle.

a PTA employed in an acute care hospital reviews the medical record of a pt diagnosed with CHF. the PTA would like to implement a formal exercise program, but is concerned with the pts exercise tolerance. which condition is most responsible for the pts limited exercise tolerance?



a. diminished lung volumes


b. arterial oxygen desaturation


c. insufficient stroke volume during ventricular systole


d. excessive rise in BP

c. CHF may be due to diminished pumping ability of the ventricles secondary to muscle weakening (systolic dysfunction) or stiffening of the heart muscle that impairs the ventricles capacity to relax and fill (dyastolic dysfunction). with systolic dysfunction, the weak pumps a smaller volume of blood for each contraction of the ventricles (stroke volume), reducing cardiac output. the resultant decrease in the delivery of oxygenated blood to the active tissues limits the pts ability to exercise.

a PTA measures a pt for a wheelchair. when measuring back height, which method is most accurate?



a. measure from the seat of the chair to the base of the axilla and subtract 2 inches


b. measure from the seat of the chair to the base of the axilla and subtract 4 inches


c. measure from the base of the chair to the acromion process and subtract 2 inches


d. measure from the base of the chair to the acromion process and subtract 4 inches

b. back height should be determined by measuring from the seat of the chair to the base of the axilla and subtracting 4 inches. this method will allow the back height to fall below the inferior angle of the scapula. the height of the seat cushion used, if applicable, must be added to the obtained measurement.

a PTA employed in an outpatient clinic observes a pt complete a series of exercises. during the tx session the pt mentions to the PTA that he is experiencing angina. after resting for 20 min the pts condition is unchanged, however, he insists that it is something he can work through. the most appropriate action is to:



a. allow the pt to resume exercise and continue to monitor the pts condition


b. reduce the intensity of the exercise and continue to monitor the pts condition


c. discontinue the tx session and encourage the pt to make and appointment with his physician


d. discontinue the tx and call an ambulance

d. if anginal symptoms are not relieved by cessation of exercise and rest, the pt should be transported to the nearest hospital emergency center.


a PTA transports a pt in a wheelchair to the parallel bars in preparation for ambulation


activities. the pt is status post abdominal surgery and has not ambulated in over two weeks. the most appropriate action to facilitate ambulation is:



a. assist the pt to standing


b. monitor the pts vital signs


c. demonstrate ambulation in the parallel bars


d. secure an additional staff member to offer assistance

c. demonstration allows the PTA to model the appropriate technique for the pt in a controlled learning environment

a PTA reviews the surgical report of a pt that sustained extensive burns in a fire. the report indicates that at the time of primary excision, cadaver skin was utilized to close the wound. this type of graft is termed:



a. allograft


b. autograft


c. heterograft


d. xenograft

a. an allograft is a temporary skin graft taken from another human, usually a cadaver, in order to cover a large burned area. a homograft is synonymous with the term allograft.

a physician completes a physical examination on a 16 yr old male who injured his knee while playing in a soccer contest yesterday. the physicians preliminary diagnoses is a grade ll ACL injury. which of the following diagnostic tools would be most appropriate in the immediate medical management of the pt?



a. bone scan


b. computed tomography


c. magnetic resonance imaging


d. x ray

d. x ray is a radiographic photo commonly used to assist with the diagnoses of musculoskeletal pathology such as fx, dislocations, and bone loss. and x ray is a relatively cost effective diagnostic test often utilized in the immediate medical management to rule out the possibility of an associated fx.

a PTA prepare to work with a pt diagnosed with a dorsal scapular nerve injury. which muscles would you expect to be most affected by this condition?



a. serratus anterior, pec minor


b. levator scapulae, rhomboids


c. lat dorsi, teres major


d. supraspinatus, infraspinatus

b. the levator scapulae and rhomboids are innervated by the dorsal scapular nerves

a PTA instructs a pt to make a fist. the pt can make a fist but is unable to flex the distal phalanx of the ring finger. the clinical finding can best be explained by:



a. a ruptured flexor carpi radialis


b. a ruptured flexor digitorum superficialis tendon


c. a ruptured flexor digitorum profundus tendon


d. a ruptured extensor digitorum communis tendon

c. the flexor digitorum proundus muscle acts to flex the distal interphalangeal joints of the index, middle, ring, and little finger, and assist in flexion o the proximal interphalangeal and metacarpophalangeal joints. a ruptured flexor digitorum profundus tendon would, therefore, make it impossible to flex the distal phalanx

a PTA works with a pt diagnosed with ACL insufficiency. the physician referral specifies closed kinematic chain rehabilitation. which exercise would not be appropriate based on the physician order?



a. exercise on a stair machine


b. limited squats to 45 degrees


c. walking backwards on a treadmill


d. isokinetic knee extension and flexion

d. isokinetic extension and flexion requires the distal segement to move freely in space, as a result the exercise is considered to be a form of open chain exercise.

a pt with complete paraplegia discusses accessibility issues with an employer in preparation for her return to work. the pt is concerned about her ability to navigate a wheelchair in certain areas of the building. what is the minimum space required to turn 180 degrees in a standard wheelchair?



a. 32 in


b. 48 in


c. 60 in


d. 72 in

c. 60 in is the minimum required width to turn 180 degrees according to the ADA.

a PTA employed by a HH agency visits a pt status post TKA. the pt was discharged from the hospital yesterday and according to the medical record had and unremarkable recovery. the orders include the use of the CPM machine. the most appropriate rate of motion would be:



a. 2 cycles per min


b. 4 cycles per min


c. 6 cycles per min


d. 8 cycles per min

a. a rate of 2 cycles per min (1 cycle = 30 sec) typically allows the pt to tolerate the CPM without diffficulty

an 11 month old child with CP attempts to maintain a quadruped position. which reflex would interfere with this activity if it was not integrated?



a. galant reflex


b. symmetrical tonic neck reflex


c. plantar grasp reflex


d. positive support reflex

b. head positioning is the stimulus for STNR. when the head is flexed the UE flex and the LE extend. when the head extends the UE extend and the LE flex. the reaction of the extremities would not allow the infant to maintain a quadruped position.

a PTA reviews the parameters of several pain modulation theories using TENS. when comparing sensory stimulation to motor stimulation, sensory stimulation requires:



a. greater phase duration


b. greater frequency


c. stronger amplitude


d. shorter tx time

b. frequency is significantly greater with sensory level stimulation compared to motor level stimulation

a PTA treats a pt with a fractured left hip. the pt is WBAT and uses a large base quad cane for gait activities. correct use of the quad cane would include:



a. using the quad cane on the left with the longer legs positioned away from the pt


b. using the quad cane on the right with the longer legs positioned away from the pt


c. using the quad cane on the left with the longer legs positioned toward the pt


d. using the quad cane on the right with the longer legs positioned toward the pt

b. the quad cane, positioned in the right hand with the longer legs pointing away from the pt, will allow for the proper distribution of the weight during gait and as a result, the pt will be less likely to trip over the longer legs of the cane

a PTA observing a pt complete a leg curl exercise notices 2 tendons visible on the posterior surface of the pts left knee. the visible tendons are most likely associated with the:



a. semimembranosus and semitendinosus muscles


b. semitendinosus and biceps femoris muscles


c. popliteus and semitendinosus muscles


d. semimembranosus and biceps femoris muscles

b. the semitendinosus and biceps femoris are hamstring muscles whose tendons become prominent when preforming a leg curl. the biceps femoris is the lateral tendon, while the semitendinosus is the medial tendon.

as a component of a cognitive assessment, a PTA asks a pt to count from 1 to 25 by increments of 3. wich cognitive function does this task most accurately asses?



a. attention


b. constructional ability


c. abstract ability


d. orientation

a. attention can be assessed by asking the pt to count from 1 to 25 by increments of 3. the task should be relatively easy for most individuals, however, it requires a person to exert a sustained, consistent effort. attention deficits are common with many neurological disorders including brain injury, stroke, and dementia

a pt with a suspected scaphoid fx is referred to physical therapy. which clinical sign is mos indicative of a scaphoid fx?



a. localized edema along the dorsum of the hand


b. crepitus with active ROM


c. localized bony tenderness in the anatomical snuff box


d. pain with resisted wrist extension

c. the anatomic snuff box is located between the tendons of the extensor pollicis longus and the extensor pollicis brevis. the scaphoid bone can be palpated inside the snuff box. tenderness of the scaphoid bone upon palpation is often associated with a fx.

a pts job requires him to move boxes weighing 35 lbs from a transport cart to an elevated conveyor belt. the pt can complete the activity, however, is unable to prevent hyperextension of the spine. the most appropriate action is:



a. implement a pelvic stabilization program


b. design an abdominal strengthening program


c. review proper body mechanics


d. use and elevated platform when placing the boxes on the belt

d. in order to eliminate hyperextension of the spine it may be necessary to modify the work station. the most reasonable modification would be to utilize an elevated platform in order to minimize the height of the conveyor belt. in many instances, it is possible to modify a work site without utilizing large amounts of resources

the PTA performs a MMT on a pts shoulder medial rotators. which muscle would not be involved in this specific test?



a. pec major


b. teres major


c. lat dorsi


d. teres minor

d. the teres minor acts to laterally rotate the shoulder joint and stabilize the head of the humerus in the glenoid cavity. the muscle is innervated by the axillary nerve (C5, C6)

a pt in an acute care hospital has a catheter inserted into the internal jugular vein. the catheter travels through the superior vena cava and into the right atrium. the device permits removal of blood samples, administrations of medication, and monitoring of central venous pressure. this device is best termed:



a. arterial line


b. central venous pressure catheter


c. hickman catheter


d. swan ganz catheter

c. a hickman catheter (indwelling right atrial catheter inserts into the right atrium of the heart. potential complications associated with the use of hickman catheters include sepsis and blood clots.