Midterm

Front 1

Which of the following statements about the functions of the respiratory system is (are) true?

Back 1

All of the above statements are true.

Front 2

What cells within the alveoli are capable of phagocytosis and can therefore engulf particulate matter that might reach the alveoli?

Back 2

alveolar macrophages

Front 3

The difference between the true and false vocal cords is that the false vocal cords:

Back 3

play no part in sound production

Front 4

Structures in the trachea that prevent its collapse or overexpansion as pressures change in the respiratory system are the:

Back 4

C-shaped tracheal cartilages

Front 5

If food particles or liquids manage to touch the surfaces of the ventricular or vocal folds, the:

Back 5

coughing reflex will be triggered

Front 6

Which of the following statements about the trachea is false?

Back 6

Stimulation by the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system will decrease the diameter of the trachea, thus making it more difficult to breathe.

Front 7

In a bronchiole, the release of histamine by activated mast cells and basophils:

Back 7

increases bronchoconstriction and decreases airflow

Front 8

The parietal pleura are attached to the:

Back 8

all of the above

Front 9

During internal respiration, the exchange of the respiratory gases takes place between which of the following?

Back 9

the systemic capillaries and the interstitial fluid that surrounds the cells

Front 10

Breathing, which involves the physical movement of air into and out of the lungs, is:

Back 10

pulmonary ventilation

Front 11

Air enters the respiratory passageways when the pressure inside the lungs is lower than the:

Back 11

atmospheric pressure

Front 12

During quiet breathing, the diaphragm and external intercostals muscles contract. What effect does this have on the thoracic cavity?

Back 12

increases the volume and decreases the pressure of the thoracic cavity

Front 13

During expiration there is a(n):

Back 13

increase in intrapulmonary pressure

Front 14

Which of the following statements about the respiratory membrane is (are) true?

Back 14

All of the above statements are True

Front 15

Which gas is most soluble in plasma?

Back 15

carbon dioxide

Front 16

The efficiency of pulmonary ventilation and pulmonary circulation occurs because:

Back 16

blood flow and air flow are coordinated

Front 17

The Po2 in the blood that travels through a pulmonary capillary and enters the left side of the heart is approximately:

Back 17

95 mm Hg

Front 18

Each molecule of hemoglobin has the capacity to carry __________ atoms of oxygen (O2).

Back 18

8

Front 19

What percentage of total oxygen (O2) is carried within red blood cells chemically bound to hemoglobin?

Back 19

98%

Front 20

What structure marks the beginning of the lower respiratory system?

Back 20

larynx

Front 21

When each hemoglobin molecule binds with four molecules of oxygen, the end product is:

Back 21

oxyhemoglobin

Front 22

Carbon dioxide is transported in the blood mostly as:

Back 22

a bicarbonate ion

Front 23

With an increase in skeletal muscle activity and an increase in body temperature, you would expect to see a(n):

Back 23

decrease in the percentage of oxyhemoglobin saturation

Front 24

Which of the following statements about the dorsal and ventral respiratory groups is (are) true?

Back 24

Both a and b are correct.

Front 25

The Hering-Breuer Reflex is important in regulating the forced ventilations that accompany strenuous exercise. This reflex is initiated by:

Back 25

stretch receptor stimulation located in the smooth muscle of bronchioles

Front 26

The paranasal sinuses include:

Back 26

frontal, sphenoid, ethmoid, and maxillary

Front 27

A rise in arterial Pco2 elevates carbon dioxide levels in cerebrospinal fluid and stimulates the chemoreceptive neurons of the medulla to produce:

Back 27

hyperventilation

Front 28

The primary function of pulmonary ventilation is to maintain adequate:

Back 28

alveolar ventilation

Front 29

The purpose of the fluid in the pleural cavity is to:

Back 29

reduce friction between the parietal and visceral pleura

Front 30

When the lungs are in the resting position, the factor that opposes their collapse is:

Back 30

an intrapulmonary pressure of 760 mm Hg

Front 31

If a person is stabbed in the chest and the thoracic wall is punctured but the lung is not penetrated:

Back 31

the lungs will collapse

Front 32

The most important factor determining airway resistance is:

Back 32

airway radius

Front 33

The parasympathetic division of the ANS causes __________ of airway smooth muscle; therefore, resistance is __________.

Back 33

constriction; increased

Front 34

The substance administered during an asthmatic attack to decrease resistance via airway dilation is:

Back 34

epinephrine

Front 35

With regard to local regulation of gas transport, if the Pco2 in the bronchioles increase, the bronchioles:

Back 35

dilate

Front 36

The volume of alveolar air and capillary blood in the right proportion to each alveolus produces:

Back 36

lung efficiency

Front 37

If a person is breathing 15 times a minute and has a tidal volume of 500 ml, the totalrespiratory minute volume is:

Back 37

7,500 ml/min

Front 38

Residual volume is the volume of air:

Back 38

that remains in the lungs after maximal expiration

Front 39

The maximum amount of air moved in and out during a single breath is:

Back 39

vital capacity

Front 40

If a person is breathing 12 times per minute and the tidal volume is 500 ml, what is the alveolar ventilation rate?

Back 40

4,200 ml/min

Front 41

The most effective means of increasing alveolar ventilation is:

Back 41

breathe slowly and deeply

Front 42

In respiratory distress syndrome of the newborn, the administering of adrenal steroid serves to:

Back 42

enhance surfactant-synthesizing maturation

Front 43

The partial pressure of O2 at sea level is:

Back 43

104 mm Hg

Front 44

It is important that free H+ resulting from dissociation of H2CO3 combine with hemoglobin to reduce the possibility of:

Back 44

an acidic condition within the blood

Front 45

In the pulmonary capillaries, the bicarbonate ion is always returned to the:

Back 45

RBC

Front 46

If you desired to control the rate of respiration voluntarily you might:

Back 46

hold your breath

Front 47

One of the early symptoms of emphysema is:

Back 47

a reduced expiratory volume

Front 48

As the number of molecules of gas dissolved in a liquid increases:

Back 48

the pressure of the gas increases

Front 49

Movement of air into and out of the lungs is accomplished by the process of __________, while all movement of gases across membranes is by __________.

Back 49

bulk flow; passive diffusion

Front 50

The correct sequential transport of O2 from the tissue capillaries to O2 consumption in cells is:

Back 50

erythrocytes, plasma, interstitial fluid, cells

Front 51

To which of the following would the immune system not respond?

Back 51

decreased levels of blood flow at the kidney

Front 52

The anatomical barriers and defense mechanisms that cannot distinguish one potential threat from another are called:

Back 52

nonspecific defenses

Front 53

The major componentsof the lymphatic system include:

Back 53

lymphatic vessels, lymph, and lymphatic organs

Front 54

An example of a free macrophage is a(n):

Back 54

alveolar macrophage

Front 55

Lymphocytes that assist in the regulation and coordination of the immune response are:

Back 55

helper T and suppressor T cells

Front 56

Normal lymphocyte populations are maintained through lymphopoiesis in the:

Back 56

bone marrow and lymphatic tissues

Front 57

The largest collection of lymphoid tissue in the body is contained within the:

Back 57

adult spleen

Front 58

Mucous, sweat gland secretions, hairs, and sebaceous secretions all contribute to the effectiveness of which type of nonspecific defense?

Back 58

physical barriers

Front 59

The "first line" of cellular defense against pathogenic invasion is:

Back 59

phagocytes

Front 60

NK cells contain the proteins perforin and protectin that provide a type of immunity called:

Back 60

immunological surveillance

Front 61

The two major ways that the body "carries out" the immune response are:

Back 61

direct attack by T cells and attack by circulating antibodies

Front 62

A specific defense mechanism is always activated by:

Back 62

an antigen

Front 63

The type of immunity that develops as a result of natural exposure to an antigen in the environment is:

Back 63

naturally acquired immunity

Front 64

The fact that people are not subject to the same diseases as goldfish describes the presence of:

Back 64

active immunity

Front 65

Elephantiasis is

Back 65

a parasite-induced form of lymphedema

Front 66

Before an antigen can stimulate a lymphocyte, it must first be processed by a:

Back 66

macrophage

Front 67

The T cells that limit the degree of immune system activation from a single stimulus are:

Back 67

suppressor T cells

Front 68

Which of the following lymphatic structures does not display the outer cortex/inner medulla pattern?

Back 68

both a and c

Front 69

Activated B cells produce plasma cells that are specialized because they:

Back 69

synthesize and secrete antibodies

Front 70

An antibody exhibits a high degree of flexibility due to the interchangeability of the:

Back 70

variable segment

Front 71

Antibodies may promote inflammation through the stimulation of:

Back 71

basophils and mast cells

Front 72

The antigenic determinant site is the certain portion of the antigen's exposed surface where:

Back 72

the antibody attacks

Front 73

For a B cell to be activated it must:

Back 73

both a and b

Front 74

The effect(s) of tumor necrosis factor (TNF) in the body is (are) to:

Back 74

all of the above

Front 75

The ability to demonstrate an immune response after exposure to an antigen is called:

Back 75

immunological competence

Front 76

A baby developing in the womb has _____________________ immunity because it receives __________ antibodies from its mother.

Back 76

natural passive, IgG

Front 77

When an immune response mistakenly targets normal body cells and tissues, the result is:

Back 77

an autoimmune disorder

Front 78

Cells of the immune system influence CNS and endocrine activity by:

Back 78

all of the above

Front 79

Depression of the immune system due to chronic stress may cause:

Back 79

all of the above

Front 80

Which of the following is not an effect of aging on the immune system?

Back 80

increased production of pyrogens, leading to a higher general body temperature

Front 81

Which type of lymphocyte does not release perforins?

Back 81

both b and d

Front 82

The primary effect(s) of complement activation include:

Back 82

all of the above

Front 83

Which of the following nonspecific responses is characterized by the use of C3, properdin, factor B, and factor D?

Back 83

complement, alternative pathway

Front 84

Tissue fluid enters the lymphatic system via the:

Back 84

lymph capillaries

Front 85

When an antigen appears, the immune system response begins with:

Back 85

the activation of specific T cells and B cells

Front 86

In what way do mast cells participate in tissue defense?

Back 86

stimulation and coordination of inflammation by release of histamine and heparin

Front 87

Chemical mediators of inflammation include:

Back 87

histamine, kinins, prostaglandins, and leukotrienes

Front 88

T cells that are activated by costimulation involving a class I MHC and CD8 markers are called:

Back 88

cytotoxic T cells

Front 89

B lymphocytes differentiate into:

Back 89

memory and plasma cells

Front 90

__________ cells may activate B cells, while _________ cells inhibit the activity of B cells.

Back 90

helper T; suppressor T

Front 91

The primary response of T-cell differentiation in cell-mediated immunity is the production of __________ cells.

Back 91

cytotoxic T

Front 92

The vaccination of antigenic materials into the body is called:

Back 92

artificially acquired active immunity

Front 93

In passive immunity __________ are induced into the body by injection.

Back 93

antibodies

Front 94

The lymphatic function of the white pulp of the spleen is:

Back 94

initiation of immune responses by B cells and T cells

Front 95

A person with type AB blood has:

Back 95

neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies

Front 96

The antibodies produced and secreted by B lymphocytes are soluble proteins called:

Back 96

immunoglobulins

Front 97

the genes found in a region called the major histocompatibility complex are called:

Back 97

human leukocyte antigens (HLAs)

Front 98

Memory B cells do not differentiate into plasma cells unless they:

Back 98

are exposed to the same antigen a second time

Front 99

The three-dimensional "fit" between the variable segments of the antibody molecule and the corresponding antigenic determinant site is referred to as the:

Back 99

antibody-antigen complex

Front 100

One of the primary nonspecific effects that glucocorticoids have on the immune response is:

Back 100

depression of the inflammatory response

Front 101

Which of the following vascular layers contains the thick wrapping of smooth muscle that gives arteries their rounded appearance?

Back 101

tunica media

Front 102

an endothelium that appears pleated or rippled is characteristic of:

Back 102

arteries

Front 103

The unidirectional flow of blood in venules and medium-sized veins is maintained by:

Back 103

the presence of valves

Front 104

Of the following blood vessels, the greatest resistance to blood flow occurs in the:

Back 104

arterioles

Front 105

If the systolic pressure is 120 mm Hg and the diastolic pressure is 90 mm Hg, the mean arterial pressure (MAP) is:

Back 105

100 mm Hg

Front 106

The most important determinant of vascular resistance is:

Back 106

friction between the blood and the vessel walls

Front 107

The two major factors affecting blood flow rates are:

Back 107

pressure and resistance

Front 108

The formula F = P/R means: (note: F = flow; P = pressure; R = resistance)

Back 108

increasing P and decreasing R will increase F

Front 109

Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) reduces blood volume and pressure by:

Back 109

all of the above

Front 110

The central regulation of cardiac output primarily involves the activities of the:

Back 110

autonomic nervous system

Front 111

An increase in cardiac output normally occurs during:

Back 111

widespread sympathetic stimulation

Front 112

The three primary interrelated changes that occur as exercise begins are:

Back 112

increasing vasodilation, increasing venous return, and increasing cardiac output

Front 113

The only area of the body where the blood supply is unaffected while exercising at maximum levels is the:

Back 113

brain

Front 114

A resistance caused by the irregular, swirling movement of blood at high flow rates or over uneven surfaces is called:

Back 114

turbulence

Front 115

Because hormones such as LH, FSH, and TSH are produced in the pituitary gland and must be picked up by capillaries serving the pituitary, _________________ capillaries are present in the pituitary gland.

Back 115

fenestrated

Front 116

As the external iliac artery leaves the body trunk and enters the lower limb, it becomes the:

Back 116

femoral artery

Front 117

The link between adjacent arteries or veins that reduces the impact of a temporary or permanent occlusion of a single blood vessel is:

Back 117

an anastomoses

Front 118

consider the following pathway: Blood full of nutrients from the digestive system moves through the hepatic portal system to the liver. The hepatic veins then carry blood from the liver to which large vein that carries the blood to the heart?

Back 118

inferior vena cava

Front 119

Blood from the lower limbs, the pelvis, and the lower abdomen is delivered to the:

Back 119

external iliac veins

Front 120

Which of the following statements about the liver is false?

Back 120

The presence of continuous capillaries in the liver allows new plasma proteins made in the hepatocytes to enter the capillaries.

Front 121

Which type of congenital heart defect most commonly affects children born with Down syndrome (trisomy 21)?

Back 121

atrioventricular septal defect

Front 122

In early fetal life, the foramen ovale allows blood to flow freely from the:

Back 122

right atrium to the left atrium

Front 123

In the adult, the ductus arteriosus persist as a fibrous cord called the:

Back 123

ligamentum arteriosum

Front 124

A few seconds after birth, rising O2 levels stimulate the constriction of the ductus arteriosus, isolating the:

Back 124

pulmonary and aortic trunks

Front 125

The primary effect of a decrease in the hematocrit of elderly individuals is:

Back 125

a lowering of the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood

Front 126

Which of the following events could cause circulatory shock?

Back 126

all of the above

Front 127

At any given moment, the systematic circulation contains about __________ of the total blood volume.

Back 127

91%

Front 128

the goal of cardiovascular regulation is:

Back 128

maintenance of adequate blood flow through peripheral tissues and organs

Front 129

Along the length of a typical capillary, blood pressure gradually falls from about:

Back 129

30 to 18 mm Hg

Front 130

Blood supply to the pancreas is essential because the organ is the production site for important hormones used in glucose metabolism. Which of the following arteries does not supply the pancreas?

Back 130

left gastric

Front 131

the average pressure in arteries is approximately:

Back 131

100 mm Hg

Front 132

The average pressure in veins is approximately:

Back 132

15 mm Hg

Front 133

When blood flows through capillary beds, its flow is regulated. What structures allow blood to flow into the capillary beds?

Back 133

:
precapillary sphincters

Front 134

The formula for resistance, R = Ln/r4, where L is the length of the vessel, n is the viscosity of the blood, and r is the radius of the vessel, would confirm which of the following relationships?

Back 134

increasing radius and decreasing friction will increase flow

Front 135

increasing radius and decreasing friction will increase flow

Back 135

considering cardiac output (CO), mean arterial pressure (AP), and total peripheral resistance (PR), the relationship among flow, pressure, and resistance could be expressed as:

Front 136

To increase blood flow to an adjacent capillary, the local controls that operate are:

Back 136

decreasing O2, increasing CO2, and decreasing pH

Front 137

The adrenergic fibers innervating arterioles are __________ fibers that release __________ and cause __________.

Back 137

sympathetic; norepinephrine; vasoconstriction

Front 138

A patient visits a doctor for a routine checkup. A nurse uses a sphygmomanometer To measure the patient's pulse at the brachial artery. The nurse raises the pressure to a point where a rhythmic pulsing sound is no longer audible. When the nurse releases pressure, the pulsing sound returns. What pressure is producing this sound?

Back 138

systolic pressure

Front 139

The artery that serves the posterior thigh is the:

Back 139

deep femoral

Front 140

Which of the following is not a tributary of the hepatic portal vein?

Back 140

inferior vena cava

Front 141

when the net hydrostatic pressure (NHP) is less than that of the net colloid osmotic pressure (NCOP), which of the following events occurs?

Back 141

reabsorption

Front 142

the veins that drain the head, neck, and upper extremities are the:

Back 142

brachiocephalics

Front 143

The veins that drain venous blood from the legs and the pelvis are the:

Back 143

common iliacs

Front 144

the vein that drains the knee region of the body is the:

Back 144

popliteal

Front 145

The large artery that serves the brain is the:

Back 145

internal carotid

Front 146

The "link" between the subclavian and brachial artery is the:

Back 146

axillary

Front 147

The three arterial branches of the celiac trunk are the:

Back 147

left gastric, splenic, and hepatic

Front 148

The artery that supplies most of the small intestine and the first half of the large intestine is the:

Back 148

superior mesenteric

Front 149

the artery that supplies the pelvic organs is the:

Back 149

internal iliac artery

Front 150

The subdivision(s) of the popliteal artery is (are):

Back 150

anterior and posterior tibial arteries

Front 151

The blood vessels in the cardiovascular system are subdivided into three circuits know as the:

Back 151

coronary, pulmonary, and systemic circuits

Front 152

Which statement is true?

Back 152

if the pacemaker of the heart stops, the AV node will take over.

Front 153

The left atrium receives blood from the pulmonary circuit and empties it into the:

Back 153

left ventricle

Front 154

The "double pump" function of the heart includes the right side, which serves as the __________ circuit pump, while the left side serves as the __________ pump.

Back 154

pulmonary; systemic

Front 155

The coronary vessels emerge at the base of the:

Back 155

aorta

Front 156

Which blood vessels are known as exchange vessels?

Back 156

capillaries

Front 157

Blood from the coronary circuit is collected on the posterior aspect of the heart in a blood vessel known as the:

Back 157

coronary sinus

Front 158

During the action potential in a contractile cardiac muscle cell when slow calcium channels open this results in the______ phase.

Back 158

plateau

Front 159

When deoxygenated blood leaves the right ventricle through a semilunar valve, it is forced into the:

Back 159

pulmonary arteries

Front 160

The passageways between cardiac muscle cells that allow ions to pass freely are called:

Back 160

gap junctions

Front 161

Which of the following are characteristics of cardiac muscle cells?

Back 161

striated, single central nucleus, and involuntary

Front 162

Cardiac muscle tissue:

Back 162

has its own intrinsic conduction system that can set the pace of the beating heart

Front 163

The right coronary artery generally gives rise to:

Back 163

both a and c are correct

Front 164

the left coronary artery supplies blood to:

Back 164

both b and c are correct

Front 165

The correct sequential path of a normal action potential in the heart is:

Back 165

SA node, AV node, bundle of His, bundle branches, Purkinje fibers

Front 166

An above-normal increase in K+ concentrations in the blood would cause:

Back 166

the heart to dilate and become flaccid and weak

Front 167

The P wave on the ECG indicates:

Back 167

the electrical events spreading out over both atria

Front 168

after the AV node is depolarized and the impulse spreads through the atria, there is a slight delay before the impulse spreads to the ventricles. The reason for this delay is to allow:

Back 168

the atria to contract

Front 169

If each heart muscle cell contracted at its own individual rate, the condition would resemble:

Back 169

fibrillation

Front 170

The QRS complex of the ECG appears as the:

Back 170

ventricles depolarize

Front 171

When a chamber of the heart fills with blood and prepares for the start of the next cardiac cycle the heart is in:

Back 171

diastole

Front 172

During the isovolumetric contraction phase, the pressure in the _____ has to rise above aortic pressure for ventricular ejection to occur.

Back 172

left ventricle

Front 173

how would you define cardiac output?

Back 173

the amount of blood pumped out of both ventricles in one minute

Front 174

The amount of blood pumped out of each ventricle during a single beat is the:

Back 174

stroke volume

Front 175

Under normal circumstances, the factor responsible for making delicate adjustments to the heart rate as circulatory demands change are:

Back 175

autonomic activity and circulatory hormones

Front 176

The cardiac centers in the medulla oblongata monitor baroreceptors and chemoreceptors innervated by the:

Back 176

glossopharyngeal N IX and vagus N X

Front 177

the difference between the end-diastolic volume (EDV) and the end-systolic volume (ESV) is the:

Back 177

stroke volume

Front 178

Parasympathetic stimulation from the vagus nerve results in:

Back 178

a decrease in heart rate

Front 179

Which of the following statements is part of Starling's law of the heart?

Back 179

All of the above are correct.

Front 180

Physicians are interested in cardiac output because it provides a useful indication of:

Back 180

ventricular efficiency over time

Front 181

One of the major results of congestive heart failure is:

Back 181

an abnormal increase in blood volume and interstitial fluid

Front 182

Which of the following medications serves as a positive ionotropic agent for treatment of congested heart failure?

Back 182

digitalis

Front 183

The function of the chordae tendinae is to:

Back 183

anchor the AV valve flaps and prevent backflow of blood into the atria

Front 184

Which one of the following would not show up on an electrocardiogram?

Back 184

murmurs

Front 185

During ventricular diastole, when the pressure in the left ventricle rises above that in the left atrium:

Back 185

the left AV valve closes

Front 186

During ventricular systole, the blood volume in the atria is __________, and the volume in the ventricle is __________.

Back 186

increasing; decreasing

Front 187

cardiac muscle cells are nourished via blood supply provided from the:

Back 187

coronary circuit

Front 188

Pulmonary arteries carry blood to the:

Back 188

lungs

Front 189

Which of the following statements is (are) true?

Back 189

Statements c and d are both true.

Front 190

the heart sound associated with S2 occurs after the ventricles ____ and the semilunar valves ______.

Back 190

contract; close

Front 191

During isovolumetric systole, pressure is highest in the:

Back 191

left ventricle

Front 192

Blood pressure in the large systemic arteries is greatest during:

Back 192

systolic ejection

Front 193

Decreased parasympathetic (vagus) stimulation to the heart results in a situation known as:

Back 193

tachycardia

Front 194

Serious arrhythmias that reduce the pumping efficiency of the heart may indicate:

Back 194

all of the above

Front 195

During exercise the most important control mechanism to increase cardiac output is:

Back 195

increased sympathetic activity to the ventricles

Front 196

The diastole phase of the blood pressure relative to the left ventricle indicates that:

Back 196

the ventricles are "resting"

Front 197

Which of the following does not control the movement of blood through the heart?

Back 197

size of the atria and ventricles

Front 198

Valvular malfunction in the heart:

Back 198

interferes with movement of blood through the heart

Front 199

If the bicuspid valve is defective and valvular regurgitation occurs, the end result is:

Back 199

an insufficient amount of blood is available to be moved into the aorta and systemic circulation

Front 200

Valvular stenosis refers to:

Back 200

excessive narrowing of a valve

Front 201

The major components of the cardiovascular system are the:

Back 201

blood, heart, blood vessels

Front 202

the embryonic cardiovascular system:

Back 202

all of the above

Front 203

The formed elements of the blood consist of:

Back 203

red and white blood cells, and platelets

Front 204

Which of the following is not a component of plasma?

Back 204

elastic fibers

Front 205

the "patrol agents" in the blood that defend the body against toxins and pathogens are:

Back 205

white blood cells and antibodies

Front 206

When checking the efficiency of gas exchange at the lungs, blood may be required via:

Back 206

arterial puncture

Front 207

Blood temperature is roughly _____ °C, and the blood pH averages _____.

Back 207

38 °C; 7.4

Front 208

which type of plasma protein serves as a carrier for the hormones T3 and T4?

Back 208

albumins

Front 209

In addition to water and proteins, the plasma consists of:

Back 209

electrolytes, nutrients, and organic wastes

Front 210

Circulating mature RBCs lack:

Back 210

all of the above

Front 211

The primary function of a mature red blood cell is:

Back 211

transport of respiratory gases

Front 212

the part of the hemoglobin molecule that directly interacts with oxygen is:

Back 212

the iron ion

Front 213

Coloration of urinary and digestive wastes is the result of the presence of which products from the breakdown of red blood cells?

Back 213

urobilins and stercobilins

Front 214

The iron extracted from heme molecules during hemoglobin recycling is stored in the protein-iron complexes:

Back 214

ferritin and hemosiderin

Front 215

During RBC recycling, each heme unit is stripped of its iron and converted to:

Back 215

biliverdin

Front 216

The primary site of erythropoiesis in the adult is the:

Back 216

bone marrow

Front 217

Erythropoietin appears in the plasma when peripheral tissues, especially the kidneys, are exposed to:

Back 217

low oxygen concentrations

Front 218

Agglutinogens are contained (on, in) the __________, while the agglutinins are found (on, in) the __________.

Back 218

cell membrane of the RBC; plasma

Front 219

If you have type A blood, your plasma holds circulating __________ that will attack __________ erythrocytes.

Back 219

anti-B agglutinins; type B

Front 220

Which of the following is an agranular leukocyte that becomes a tissue macrophage after approximately 24 hours in circulation?

Back 220

monocytes

Front 221

Which type of granular leukocyte can engulf up to two dozen bacteria and also produces a respiratory burst that creates harsh chemical agents like hydrogen peroxide?

Back 221

neutrophils

Front 222

Megakaryocytes are specialized cells of the bone marrow responsible for:

Back 222

formation of platelets

Front 223

The rate of megakaryocyte activity and platelet formation is regulated by:

Back 223

all of the above

Front 224

Which of the following statements is false concerning T cells and B cells?

Back 224

B cells differentiate into T cells and produce antibodies against foreign antigens.

Front 225

The process of hemostasis includes five phases. The correct order of the phases as they occur after injury is as follows:

Back 225

vascular, platelet, coagulation, clot retraction, clot destruction

Front 226

Because the concentration of dissolved gases is different between the plasma and the tissue fluid:

Back 226

O2 will tend to diffuse from the plasma to the interstitial fluid, and CO2 will tend to diffuse in the opposite direction

Front 227

If blood comprises 7 percent of the body weight in kilograms, how many liters of blood would there be in an individual who weighs 85 kg?

Back 227

5.95

Front 228

The reason liver disorders can alter the composition and functional properties of the blood is:

Back 228

the liver is the primary source of plasma proteins

Front 229

When plasma O2 concentrations are falling, the rising plasma CO2 binds to the __________ portion of the hemoglobin molecule.

Back 229

globin

Front 230

Hemoglobin molecules that float in the bloodstream because of the breakdown of RBCs by hemolysis will be excreted in the:

Back 230

kidney

Front 231

Signs of iron deficiency anemia include:

Back 231

hematocrit declines, and hemoglobin content and O2-carrying capacity reduced

Front 232

On average, one microliter of blood contains __________ erythrocytes.

Back 232

5.2 million

Front 233

The process of reintroducing packed RBCs before an athletic event that were earlier removed is called:

Back 233

blood doping

Front 234

Protein synthesis in a mature RBC occurs primarily in:

Back 234

none of the above

Front 235

If agglutinogen B meets with agglutinin anti-A, the result is:

Back 235

no agglutination occurs

Front 236

The precursor of all blood cells in the human body is the:

Back 236

hemocytoblast

Front 237

Reticulocytes are nucleated immature cells that develop into mature:

Back 237

erythrocytes

Front 238

In which pregnancy is an Rh-positive mom and an Rh-positive child at risk of developing erythroblastosis fetalis?

Back 238

no pregnancy

Front 239

In the first pregnancy of an Rh-negative mother with an Rh-positive child, why are there usually no symptoms of erythroblastosis fetalis?

Back 239

Blood between mother and child does not mix until birth.

Front 240

In hemolytic disease of the newborn:

Back 240

the mother's agglutinins cross the placental barrier and destroy fetal red blood cells

Front 241

The number of eosinophils increases dramatically during:

Back 241

an allergic reaction or a parasitic infection

Front 242

A typical microliter of blood contains __________ leukocytes.

Back 242

6,000–9,000

Front 243

Under "normal" conditions, neutrophils comprise __________ of the circulatory white blood cells.

Back 243

50–70 percent

Front 244

A noticeable feature of a leukemia is:

Back 244

all of the above

Front 245

Myeloid stem cells will differentiate into progenitor cells, which give rise to all white blood cells, except:

Back 245

lymphocytes

Front 246

Clot destruction involves a process that begins with:

Back 246

activation of the proenzyme plasminogen, which initiates the production of plasmin

Front 247

The major effect of a vitamin K deficiency in the body is that it leads to:

Back 247

a breakdown of the common pathway, inactivating the clotting system

Front 248

A vitamin B12 deficiency results in the type of anemia known as:

Back 248

pernicious

Front 249

A change in the amino acid sequence of DNA coding for one of the globin chains of the hemoglobin molecule results in a condition known as:

Back 249

sickle-cell anemia

Front 250

Jessica has just moved to Denver, Colorado, from Orlando, Florida. What condition is she experiencing now that is stimulating the production of erythropoietin and, consequently, more red blood cells?

Back 250

hypoxia caused by an increase in her elevation above sea level