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587 Cards in this Set

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1. Nausea, vomiting (onset < 6 hr) after eating cold cuts, or potato salad, or mayonnaise, or custards is caused by
Staphylococcus aureus
2. Rapid-onset food poisoning mediated by staphylococcal
Enterotoxin
3. Tx of staphylococcal food poisoning
Rehydration
4. Nausea and vomiting, +/- diarrhea (onset < 6 hr) after eating reheated rice is caused by
Bacillus cereus
5. Bacterial spores are resistant to heat due to
dipicolinic acid core
6. Nausea, vomiting, watery diarrhea w/ rapid (onset >6 hr) after eating reheated meat or gravy is caused by
Clostridium perfringens
7. Peptic-ulcer dz (PUD) in a patient w/o NSAIDs use is caused by
Helicobacter pylori
8. Helicobacter pylori attaches to gastric cells inducing
inflammation and cytokines
9. Abx treatment and H. pylori eradication significantly impact
PUD and MALT
10. First-line, triple-drug regimen for PUD due to H. pylori is
PPI + clarith + amox
11. Acute, severe secretory diarrhea, vomiting, severe dehydration, during travel to tropics, is caused by
Vibrio cholerae
12. Cholera (A-B, subunit) toxin induces secretion of Na and bicarbonate-rich non-inflammatory fluid from
Small intestine
13. Vibrio cholerae is isolated from stool by culture on
thiosulfate-citrate-buffered sucrose (TCBS) agar
14. Aerobic, gram negative, comma-shaped bacilli of cholera are microscopically similar to
Campylobacter
15. Tx to avoid mortality of cholera is
Ringer’s lactate with extra K+
16. Besides rehydration, treat cholera as soon as vomiting ceases with
doxycyline
17. Secretory diarrhea, fever and vomiting during travel are caused by
Enterotoxic E. coli
18. Secretory diarrhea w/ fatty, foul-smelling stools in campers, hikers;also day-care outbreaks is caused by
Giardia lamblia
19. Following ingestion of 15-25 cysts, excysted trophozoites adhere at brush border of enterocytes and contribute to malabsorption. TOW?
Giardiasis
20. Dx of giardiasis is confirmed by
Stool antigen (+)
21. Giardiasis is specifically treated with
Metronidazole
22. Protracted, secretory diarrhea w/ large fluid loss in AIDS is caused by acid-fast protozoa
Cryptosporidium >> Cyclospora > Isospora
23. Frank bloody diarrhea, after drinking roadside fruits drinks, is caused by
E. coli O157:H7
24. Pathogenesis of hemorrhagic enterocolitis caused by E. coliinvolves
Shiga toxin (a cytotoxin)
25. Complication of hemorrhagic enterocolitis in children
hemolytic uremic syndrome
26. Profuse diarrhea, fever, vomiting, and dehydration in infants is caused by
Rotavirus
27. Mechanism of rotaviral diarrhea involves
Villus destruction
28. Infantile watery diarrhea and fever are caused by
Adenovirus 40,41
29. Outbreak of nausea, vomiting, fever in adults is caused by
Norovirus
30. Cause of nausea/vomiting, abdominal cramps, diarrhea +/- bloody12-48h after eating eggs or poultry or peanut butter?
Non-typhoidal Salmonella
31. Abx treatment of uncomplicated acute gastroenteritis due toSalmonella forces condition of
carrier (in bile ducts) state
32. Abx used only to treat septic phase of salmonella gastroenteritis is
ciprofloxacin
33. Cause of fevers (>103°), headaches; macular rash on torso (“rose spots”) abdominal pain and little diarrhea later in a pt with hx of travel (to tropics)?
Salmonella typhi
34. Cause of diarrhea w/ occult blood, abdominal cramping and fever,2d after ingestion of poultry-contaminated salad
Campylobacter jejuni
35. Abx to treat campylobacter enteritis with high fevers in pregnancy, and HIV is
Erythromycin
36. Cause of dysentery-like illness with fever + abdominal cramps, tenesmus + blood & mucus in children?
Shigella sonnei
37. Dysentery due to invasive Shigella spp. in elderly is treated with
Ciprofloxacin
38. Cause of dysentery-like illness (+/- pseudoappendicitis) in the northern region after eating cheese
Yersinia enterocolitica
39. Cause of dysentery-like illness in a patient w/ hx of broad-spectrum abx use
Clostridium difficile
40. Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea (CDAD) is mediated by toxins
A (enterotoxin) + B (cytotoxin).
41. Lab confirmation of CDAD is based on
stool toxins A or B positive
42. Besides rehydration and cessation of inciting meds, CDAD is treated with
Metronidazole (mild) or oral vancomycin (severe/relapse)
43. Health-care associated (nosocomial) spread of Clostridium difficilediarrhea and protracted outbreak is due to
Soiling/contact or spores in rooms
44. Hx of abdominal pain, tenesmus, stools with mucus + blood in a patient, who recently traveled to tropics; CBC: eosinophilia. TOW?
Amebic dysentery
45. Stool microscopy to confirm amebic dysentery should reveal characteristic trophozoites of Entamoeba histolytica w/
endocytosed RBCs (distinction from luminal ameba)
46. Rx of amebic dysentery involves
Metronidazole + iodoquinol
47. Abscesses in liver or peritonitis in travelers w/ or w/o hx of amebic dysentery is confirmed by
Serology for E. histolytica
48. A boar hunter develops dysentery after eating meat at campsite; O& P test should reveal a ciliate parasite, known as
Balantidium coli
49. Most likely cause of chronic abdominal pain, diarrhea; intestinal obstruction; cholangitis; liver abscess, in children
Ascaris lumbricides
50. Ova & Parasite test using microscopy for oval eggs (with a thick coarse shell) in stool confirms
ascariasis
51. A child has stomach ache, distended abdomen, poor appetite. “Pearl-colored earthworm”-like organisms in the stool. Major immune response against this infection?
IgE
52. DOC of ascariasis is
Mebendazole
53. Vomiting, cramping, diarrhea, epigastric pain, weight loss in an immigrant from developing country is caused by
Strongyloides stercoralis
54. DOC of strongyloidosis is
Ivermectin
55. Pt w/ AIDS (low CD4+ counts) develops pulmonary infiltrates (+eosinophilia) and/or gram negative sepsis. TOW?
Invasive strongyloidosis
56. Weakness, fatigue, lightheadedness, dyspnea, pruritis; pallor; iron- deficiency anemia; eosinophilia (hx of outdoor activity). TOW?
Hookworm (Necator americanas) infection
57. Fever, periorbital edema, subconjunctival hemorrhages, muscle weakness, and rash, after eating undercooked pork (Lab: eosinophilia., ↑CPK, ↑LDH &). TOW?
Trichinellosis
58. Abdominal pain, bloating, altered appetite after ingestion of sushi.CBC: megaloblastic anemia; leukocytosis/eosinophilia. TOW?
Diphyllobothriasis (fish tapeworm)
59. Dx of tape worm infection is confirmed by
Proglottids in stool
60. Tape worm infections are treated with broad-spectrum agent
Praziquantel
61. Cause of fever, lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly in an immigrant from Africa or Orient; pt recalls wading in stagnant water. RUQ ultrasound (+); CBC: eosinophilia.
Schistosoma mansoni (Africa)S. japonicum (Far East)
62. Microscopy of stool in chronic stage of schistosomiasis reveals
Large eggs with lateral spine.
63. Chronic stage of schistosomiasis is treated with
Praziquantel
64. Patient with acute jaundice is HAV IgM (+); household contact should receive for prophylaxis
Inactivated HAV vaccine
65. Patient with jaundice for < 1 week has HBsAg (+), Anti-HBc IgM (+). TOW?
Acute HBV infection
66. Multiple sex partners, IDU, infants born to infected mothers are risk groups for which hepatitis virus
HBV
67. This is an enveloped, double stranded DNA virus w/ ss-break;transmitted by infective body fluids. TOW?
HBV
68. This asymptomatic man has hep serology profile of HBsAg (-), Anti-HBs (+), Anti-HBc IgG (+), Anti-HBc IgM (-). TOW?
Resolved hepatitis B
69. This man has jaundice and is HBsAg (+) > 6 months, Anti-HBs (-), HBeAg (+), Anti-HBc IgG (+), HBV DNA > 20,000 IU/ml. TOW?
Chronic active hepatitis B
70. This man has jaundice and is HBsAg (+) > 6 months, HBeAg (+)and evidence of necroinflammation. He should receive
Peg-IFN 2a + lamivudine(or cidofovir)
71. This man has no jaundice, but HBsAg (+) >6 months, Anti-HBs (-), Anti-HBc IgG (+), HBeAg (-), persistently normal ALT. TOW?
Inactive HBsAg carrier
72. This man, at the time of annual physical exam, reveals Anti-HBs (+) and other markers are (-). TOW?
HBV immunized
73. Virologic confirmation of chronic jaundice in a HBV-immunized pt w/ IDU or hemodialysis is based on
HCV RNA > HCV IgG
74. More chronicity of HCV (than HBV) is due to immune-evasive quasispecies generated during replication (in blood) of
error-prone HCV RNA virus
75. Fulminant hepatitis in a patient, who has multiple sexual partners and is HBsAg (+); HBcIgM (-), can be fatal due to what?
HDV superinfection.
76. Cause of acute onset of jaundice, nausea, right-upper quadrant pain, hepatomegaly in pregnant women in India
HEV

77. Fever, arthralgia, carditis, polyarthritis, chorea, erythema marginatum; elevated WBCs or ESR/CRP. Clinical Dx is confirmed by

Rising ASO titer

78. Type II hypersensitivity due to molecular mimicry in a immunological sequel of streptococcal pharyngitis causes

Acute rheumatic fever (ARF)

79. ARF is diagnosed and treated with

Anti-streptolysin O (ASO) titer and benzathine penG.

80. A man with IDU has flu-like symptoms; 1-3 minor peripheral signs: conjunctival hemorrhage, Janeway lesions, Osler nodes, Roth spots, plus vegetation in tricuspid valve. Blood Cx (BCx) should yield

S. aureus

81. A pt w/ hx of extraction of impacted tooth 3 weeks ago now has subacute (native, mitral-valve) endocardits. BCx should yield

Viridans streptococci.

82. A pt w/ hx of St. Jude bypass 2 months ago has now subacute bacterial endocarditis. BCx should yield

Staphylococcus epidermidis

83. A pt with AIDS and recent hx of UTI has now subacute, native mitral-valve endocarditis. BCx should yield

Enterococcus faecalis (or faecium)

84. DOC of acute endocarditis in patient with IDU due to sensitive S.aureus (MSSA)

Nafcillin +gentamicin

85. DOC of acute endocarditis in patient with IDU due to resistant S. aureus (MRSA).

Vancomycin + rifampin

86. DOC of subacute, native mitral-valve endocarditits due to viridansstreptococci.

PenG +/- gentamicin

87. DOC of subacute, prosthetic-valve endocarditis due toStaphylococcus epidermidis

Vancomycin + gentamicin

88. DOC of subacute, native mitral-valve endocardits due toEnterococcus faecalis (or faecium)

High-dose ampicillin +gentamicin

89. Patient with enterococcal bacteremia fails to respond tovancomycin. MOR of the organism

D-Ala-D-Ala is changed to DAla-D-lac

90. Hx of catheter-related endocarditis, involving prosthetic or nativevalves. BCx (+) for budding yeast. Pt does not respond to AmphoBor fluconazole; should receive

Caspofungin

91. Patient with colon cancer has bacteremia due to

Streptococcus bovis

92. Cause of febrile, malaise, arthralgia, dyspnea, edema, palpitations.ST/T wave change, heart block, dysrhythmias; CXR: cardiomegaly

Coxsackievirus > echovirus >Trypanosoma cruzi (Chagas)

93. Cause of runny nose, red throat, and nasal pus

Rhinoviruses

94. Rhinoviruses and enteroviruses belong to picornavirus family, butthe rhinoviruses differ from enteroviruses on

Growth at 22oC/noninvasive

95. Rhinovirus receptor in the nasal passages and uppertracheobronchial tree is

ICAM-1

96. Rhinovirus, influenza, parainfluenza, coronavirus, RSV,metapneumovirus, and adenovirus all cause

Upper-respiratory infections(URIs)

97. Sinusitis, otitis, laryngitis, exacerbations of bronchitis and asthmaare mostly secondary to

Viral URIs

98. In HEENT, Streptococcus pneumoniae, non-typable Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis all cause

Acute otitis media (AOM) &sinusitis

99. AOM and sinusitis are empirically treated with amoxicillin +clavulanate. Why use clavulanate?

Haemophilus and Moraxellaare beta-lactamase producers

100. Cause of pharyngeal pain, dysphagia, fever; red throat +purulent exudate that responds to penicillin

Streptococcus pyogenes (aka: Group-A Beta-hemolytic Streptococcus = GABHS)

101. GABHS is differentiated from GBBHS by what?

Bacitracin sensitivity

102. Common mode of acquisition of URI due to Streptococcus pyogenes?

Infective droplets

103. Major virulence factor with anti-phagocytic function ofStreptococcus pyogenes

M-protein fibrils

104. Damage in posterior pharynx and tonsils due toStreptococcus pyogenes is associated with what host response?

Pyogenic inflammation

105. DOC of acute bacterial pharyngitis in a pt w/ Pen allergy

Erythromycin > clindamycin

106. Pyogenic complication of streptococcal pharyngitis

Tonsillar abscess

107. Toxigenic complication of streptococcal pharyngitis

Scarlet fever >> TSS (rare)

108. Immunologic complication of streptococcal pharyngitis

Acute rheumatic fever (ARF)

109. Cause of fever, red throat + purulent exudate - pseudomembrane with lymphadenopathy, in a pt w/ questionable immunization.

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

110. Gram/special stain of Corynebacterium diphtheriae should reveal

Gram(+) rods in palisade arrangements/metachromatic granules.

111. Virulence genotype of Corynebacterium diphtheriae is acquired by

Transduction (phage mediated transfer of exotoxin gene)

112. Isolate on tellurite agar culture of throat swab for a cause of diphtheria is confirmed by

Immunodiffusion (ELEK)assay for toxin

113. Mechanism of action of exotoxin of Corynebacterium diphtheriae

ADP ribosylation of EF-2 (inhibits protein synthesis)

114. Damage to pharynx and cardiac myosites due toCorynebacterium diphtheriae is mediated by

Cytotoxicity of A-B toxin

115. Virologic Dx of URI symptoms, fever; red throat + purulent exudate; hepato-splenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, in a teenager, is confirmed by

heterophile antibody (+)

116. Host cells preferentially infected by EBV are

B cells

117. EBV is biologically similar to what class of viruses?

herpes viruses

118. Host immune system controls the EBV infection, mediated by

CD8+ T lymphocytes

119. Rash occurs following which antibiotic(s) to treat infectious mononucleosis?

amoxicillin

120. Burkitt's lymphoma in some African population is a B-cell tumor due to oncogenesis by

EBV

121. B-cell tumor in the Oriental population that consumes preserved fish, is due to oncogenesis by

EBV

122. Heterophile-negative infectious mononucleosis syndrome is due to ?

CMV

123. Gram-positive bacteria that cause acute otitis media (AOM)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

124. Gram-negative diplococci bacteria that cause AOM

Moraxellar catarrhalis

125. Gram-negative coccobacilli bacteria that cause AOM

Haemophilus influenzae

126. > 7 days of nasal obstruction, rhinorrhea; purulent nasal drainage + frontal pain/tenderness is treated with

Amoxicillin & Clavulanate

127. DOC for acute mastoiditis in a young child is amoxicillin &clavulanate; why?

Same etiology as AOM

128. Cause of "seal-like barking" cough + episodic aphonia w/symptoms of URI in a child

parainfluenza virus

129. Gram-stain-nonreactive organism that causes redness; purulent discharge at lid margin/eye corners, in a newborn

Chlamydia trachomitis

130. Most common cause of redness; tenderness; hyperpurulent d/c; eye stuck shut in AM, lid edema. Gram stain (+)

Staphylococcus aureus

131. Cause of pharyngitis, conjunctivitis, fever with rhinitis, and cervical adenitis in a child.

Adenovirus

132. Cause of burning, gritty feeling in eyes; diffuse conjunctival injection & profuse tearing + preauricular LN.

Adenovirus

133. Cause of foreign body sensation, lacrimation, photophobia, conjunctival hyperemia, and ulceration

HSV-2>>1

134. Cause of severe pain and skin lesions in dermatomal pattern involving the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve.

VZV

135. Cause of painful, swollen, red eyes, with conjunctival hemorrhaging and excessive tearing in an outbreak

Enterovirus

136. Cause of chorioretinitis in AIDS, but CMV antigen (-)

Toxoplasma gondii

137. Cause of painful keratitis, chronic corneal ulcers in contact

Acanthamoeba spp.

138. In an infant w/ ?immunization, 2 wks of paroxysmal coughs, inspiratory "whoop" + post-tussive emesis. TOW?

Bordetella pertussis

139. Pertussis toxin inhibits chemotaxis via downregulation of C3a/C5a receptor, resulting in?

Lymphocytic leukocytosis in CBC

140. Three major virulence factors of "whooping cough" pathogen?

ADP-ribosylating toxin; tracheal cytotoxin; hemolysin

141. Cause of fever + drooling, stridor, dyspnea in a child w/?immunization (pt appears septic)

Haemophilus influenzae b

142. Major virulence factor of Haemophilus influenzaeassociated with pneumonia and meningitis

Capsular polysaccharide(antiphagocytic and anti-C3b)

143. Since, absent spleen places host at increased risk for invasive H. influenzae infection, pre-exposure prophylaxis prior to elective splenectomy is ?

Hib immunization

144. Cause of acute exacerbation (cough, purulent sputum) in pt with chronic bronchitis (COPD); CXR: R/O pneumonia; Lab: sputum reveals Gram-negative coccobacilli.

Haemophilus influenzae (non capsular types)

145. Tx of AECB, caused by an organism that needs NAD +hematin for growth; -lactamase (+), is

Ceftriaxone (severe) >. Amoxicillin-clavulanate (mild)

146. Most common cause of lower-respiratory infections in neonates (babies < 4 wk)?

Streptococcus agalactiae(aka: group B streptococcus)

147. Complicated illness in a newborn of a GBS-colonized mother is

Sepsis or meningitis

148. A mother colonized (recto-vaginally) w/ GBS is at risk for preterm baby or premature membrane rupture. She should receive

Ampicillin

149. An elderly comes up with an abrupt-onset fever, myalgia, headache, malaise, dry cough, sore throat and rhinitis, in winter. Illness could have been prevented w/ ?

annual influenza vaccine

150. Annual influenza vaccine protects at-risk subpopulation w/60% immune protection, and is composed of what 3 viruses?

A:H1N1 + A:H3N2 + B

151. Secondary spread of influenza occurs in a crowded setting(within 6 feet of infected person) via

respiratory droplets

152. Annual vaccine to prevent influenza is needed due to antigenic drift. This occurs due to what genetic mechanism?

Mutation

153. Occasionally serious pandemic of influenza occurs due to antigenic shift. This occurs due to what genetic mechanism?

Reassortment of 8 genomic segments

154. DOC of pts with influenza <48 hours is

Oseltamivir

155. Bacterial superinfection, causing pneumonia, after influenza occurs in elderly (in LTCF) due to what?

S. pneumoniae > S. aureus(common) (severe)

156. A seriously ill young adult w/ necrotizing pneumonia, poorly responding to vancomycin, should get

Linezolid

157. Cause of febrile illness + bronchiolitis in an infant; BALviral culture (+).

Respiratory syncytial virus(RSV)

158. RSV causes seasonal, nosocomial pneumonia outbreaks in the pediatric units via

Contact spread

159. Pathophysiology of asthmatic Sx + Sn in bronchioles in high-risk infants due to RSV involves

type III hypersensitivity

160. Inhaled anti-viral drug used in the sickest infants with bronchiolitis is

Ribavirin

161. Insidious onset of fever, dry cough, malaise and sore throat in young adults. CBC: anemia; CXR: diffuse infiltrates. TOW?

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

162. Dx of “walking pneumonia” in older children and youngadults, while waiting for serology, is supported by

cold agglutinin (IgM Ab against RBCs) titer 1:32

163. Mycoplasma spp. is an atypical bacterial pathogen and is hard to grow because of fragility due to lack of

Cell wall

164. Beta-lactam abx is ineffective for Tx of mycoplasma pneumonia because

Wall-less bacteria

165. A male child with mycoplasma pneumonia now has systemic rash, covering 10% of his body. TOW?

erythema multiforme (SJS)

166. Cause of upper respiratory Sx, slow onset of cough(laryngitis) >2wks + CXR: patchy infiltrate, viral serology (+)

Chlamydophila pneumoniae

167. The most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) is

Streptococcus pneumoniae

168. Cause of rapid onset of high fever, cough, & sputum, dyspnea; tachypnea in an elderly; CXR: lobar infiltrate; CBC: pronounced neutrophilic leukocytosis with left shift, is

Streptococcus pneumoniae

169. Gram-positive diplococci from sputum from a patient with lobar pneumonia yield α-hemolytic colonies and are confirmed by

Capsular swelling (Quelling rxn)

170. α-hemolytic colonies of Streptococcus pneumoniae is differentiated from viridans streptococci definitively confirmed by

Optochin sensitivity

171. Population w/ increased incidence of pneumococcal pneumonia is

AIDS

172. increased incidence of colonization of what organism is seen in very young and elderly, crowding, following viral URI (increased PAFreceptors), fall/winter season?

Streptococcus pneumoniae

173. Streptococcus pneumoniae is transmitted P2P by

Respiratory droplets

174. Nasopharyngeal mucosal colonization is facilitated by

IgA protease

175. Streptococcus pneumoniae reaches lungs after nasopharyngeal colonization via

aspiration

176. Major virulence factor, facilitating invasion and dissemination of Streptococcus pneumoniae is

Polysaccharide capsule

177. Pneumococcal cell wall peptidoglycans, teichoic acid elicit

Inflammation

178. Increased Lung cell injury in pneumococcal pneumonia is caused by virulence factor?

Pneumolysin (alpha-hemolysin)

179. Multiple myeloma, C3 deficiency, asplenia - Hg SS, COPD, diabetes, alcoholism, smokers are risk factors for mortality due to

pneumococcal pneumonia

180. Hematologic marker for poor prognosis of pneumococcal pneumonia is

Leukopenia

181. Emipiric DOC of CAP in pts at risk or w/ comorbidity is

Azithromycin (or levofloxacin) + ceftriaxone

182. Pneumonia due to highly penicillin-resistant Streptococcus pneumoniae (Pen MIC >8) should receive

moxifloxacin or vancomycin

183. Mechanism of penicillin resistance in Streptococcus pneumoniae is

PBP alteration by mutation

184. Pt w/ agammaglobulinemia or asplenia or sick-cell anemia or ↓C3 should be vaccinated with

Pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV: 23-valent)

185. Hx: a patient w/ serious CAD now on a ventilator, acquires bronchopneumonia >72 hrs after hospitalization. TOW?

Pseudomonas aeruginosa(VAP)

186. Cause of necrotizing pneumonia >72 hrs after hospitalization of complicated viral illness

Staphylococcus aureus(assume MRSA)

187. Patients that are aspiration prone have hx of

dysphagia, decreased consciousness

188. Hx of a patient w/ seizure illness has fever, cough evolving over 2-4 wks; CXR infiltrate (+).TOW?

Aspiration pneumonia

189. Community-acquired respiratory pathogens that cause aspiration pneumonia

Streptococcus pneumoniae > Anaerobes

190. Hospital-acquired respiratory pathogens that cause aspiration pneumonia

Gram-negative bacilli > S. aureus +/- anaerobes

191. Clinical Dx of sudden dyspnea +/- cyanosis, fever, wheezing, often ARDS-like picture is

acid-related pneumonia

192. Bacterial etiology and Tx of aspiration pneumonia are determined by

Gram stain (polymicrobic)and culture of sputum

193. Empiric DOC of necrotizing pneumonia in a patient with seizure illness

clindamycin + levofloxacin

194. Targeted Abx for anaerobic aspiration pneumonia is

clindamycin

195. Pneumonia in homeless/alcoholics; Gram-positive diplococci in sputum Gram smear. TOW?

Streptococcus pneumoniae

196. Pneumonia in homeless/alcoholics; Gram-negative rods in sputum smear. TOW?

Klebsiella pneumoniae

197. Cause of pulmonary embolism in a pt with IVDU

Staphylococcus aureus

198. Common cause of pneumonia in pts with CF

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

199. Sputum of a patient with hospital-acquired pneumonia yields a Gram-negative rod that is oxidase (+). TOW?

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

200. Common cause of external otitis due to hot tub use is

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

201. A patient with diabetes has osteomyelitis after penetrating foot injury. TOW?

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

202. The most widely used anti-pseudomonal penicillin

Piperacillin > imipenem

203. The most widely used anti-pseudomonal aminoglycoside

Tobramicin > gentamicin

204. This pt >50 years, smoking hx, CMI↓ has pneumonia; diarrhea, renal failure. Urine antigen (+) for pathogen. Pt responds to azithromycin. TOW?

Legionella penumophila

205. Penicillin is ineffective against Legionnaire’s dz because

Intracellular organism

206. Individuals with defective CMI response has poor prognosisof Legionnaire’s dz because

Intracellular organism

207. Asymptomatic patient with PPD (+)

Latent tuberculosis infection(LTBI)

208. Cough > 2 wks, fever, night sweats, weight loss, hemoptysis, SOB; CXR: upper lobe infiltrate. TOW?

Active Mycobacterium Tuberculosisinfection

209. Oral drug regimen of choice for treatment of active TB (aka: 1st line drugs) is

INH+RIF+PZA+EMB (oral)+ Vit B6

210. Pyridoxine is added to 4-drug therapy for TB to prevent

neuropathy (due to INH)

211. Pt w/ TB fails to respond to 4-drug regimen w/ INH+RIFresistance because

Multiply drug-resistant(MDR) TB

212. Pt w/ MDR-TB fails to respond to INH +RIF+FQ+an injectable drug (amikacin, capreomycin, or kanamycin) because

Extremely-drug resistant(XDR) TB

213. Cause of TB-like Dz that does not respond to 1o TB Tx regimen, in a pt. w/ AIDS

Mycobacterium avium –intracellulare (aka: MAC)

214. Cause of chronic pneumonia in a patient with cancer, receiving cytotoxic chemotherapy; lung-CT: halo/crescent sign (+)?

Aspergillus fumigatus

215. Microscopic observation of Aspergillus fumigatus in tissue biopsy sections depends on staining by

Silver stain

216. Hx of chronic pneumonia w/ lung bpsy histopathology (+)for hyphae 2-4µm wide, septate, acute- angle branching. TOW?

Aspergillus fumigatus

217. Cause of TB-like LRI in a pt with outdoor activity (Giemsa stain of bronchoscopy specimen: (+) for 2-5 μm yeasts) is

Histoplasma capsulatum

218. Pt with AIDS has blood culture (+) for histoplasmosis.DOC has effects on

Ergosterol in fungal cell membrane

219. TB-like Dz w/ ulcerative skin lesions. lung bpsy histopathology (+) for large yeast w/ broad-based bud. DOC?

Intraconazole

220. Hx of acute onset of cough, fever, infiltrate in a black male with CMI↓; histopathology of lung (+) for a large sac of endospores. DOC?

Fluconazole (indefinite)

221. Pt w/ aspiration pneumonia with cervico-facial lesion should respond to

Penicillin G

222. Granular specimen from draining fistulae from a pt withLRI on anaerobic culture should yield

Actinomyces israelii

223. Pt with AIDS or organ transplant has indolent pneumonia, w/ or w/o CNS abscess or granuloma. TOW?

Nocardiosis

224. Organism w/ characterization of Gram-positive branching, beaded, filamentous rod, weakly acid fast is

Nocardia asteroids

225. Hx of non-productive cough, fever and dyspnea evolving over 2-4 wks. CXR (+): bilateral interstitial infiltrates, hypoxemia;↑LDH, CD4 count <200/mm3 in a MSM. TOW?

Pneumocystis pneumonia

226. DOC of pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP)

TMP-SMX

227. Pt has urinary urgency, frequency, dysuria; lab: pyuria (+)or nitrite (+). TOW?

Cystitis due to E. coli

228. Significant UTI is confirmed by semiquantitative MSUculture based on the threshold of

> 105 cfu/mL

229. Mode of acquisition of uropathogen is

Endogenous

230. Microbial (structure) factor favoring bacterial persistence/colonization and UTI is

bacterial binding via fimbriae

231. Factor favoring bacterial persistence/colonization and UTIdespite high osmolarity and urea concentrations and low pH is

high bacterial growth rates

232. Host factor favoring bacterial persistence/colonization andUTI is

Urinary stasis

233. Bacterial persistence/colonization and UTI despite frequent voiding and high urinary flow is favored by

lack of Tamm-Horsfall proteins

234. Pyogenic inflammation in complicated UTI due to Gram- negative bacteria is due to

Lipopolysaccharide (LPS)

235. Empiric DOC to treat community-acquired UTI in adults is

ciprofloxacin

236. The abx class that inhibits DNA gyrase or topoisomerase IVand blocks with bacterial DNA replication is

Fluoroquinolones

237. DOC to treat UTI in pregnant women is

Nitrofurantoin

238. Gram-positive bacteria that cause uncomplicated UTI in sexually active, young women are

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

239. Differentiation of Staphylococcus saprophyticus from S. epidermidis (both coagulase negative) is based on

novobiocin resistance

240. In elderly or pt with risks of urinary stasis, fever, chills, flank pain, and CVA tenderness; Lab: pyuria, casts, nitrite+. TOW?

Pyelonephritis due to E. coli

241. Pt hospitalized > 72 h for comorbidity has urinaryfrequency, dysuria and foul-smelling urine; w/ flank pain, fever and chills, in the presence of a urinary catheter:Clue: GNR; fermenter; encapsulated; intrinsic ampicillin resistance) Clue: GNR; slow fermenter; red pigment; intrinsic drug resistance) Clue: GNR; swarming growth [very motile]; slow fermenter; intrinsic drug resistance)Clue: GNR; non fermenter; oxidase+, blue pigment; intrinsic drug resistance)Clue: GPC in chains; catalase-neg; grows in high salt; penicillin resistance)

Klebsiella pneumoniae Serretia marcescens Proteus mirabilisPseudomonas aeruginosaEnterococcus faecalis

242. If a patient with complicated UTI is severely ill or notimproving with therapy, do what rapid test next?

renal ultrasound (to rule outurinary tract obstruction)

243. For a patient with complicated UTI, once culture andsensitivity available, switch to what?

Narrow-spectrum abx

244. 2 or more of the following: fever (T>38°C) or hypothermia(T< 36°C), tachycardia (HR>90), tachypnea (RR>20), leukocytosis(WBC>12,000 or differential w/ >10% bands). TOW?

SIRS

245. SIRS + infection (e.g., positive blood culture) is

Sepsis

246. Sepsis + organ failure, decreased perfusion (lactic acidosis,oliguria, altered mental status) or low BP. TOW?

Severe Sepsis

247. Severe sepsis + hypotension despite fluids + lactic acidosis,oliguria, altered mental status.

Septic Shock

248. Septic shock due to Gram-negative bacteria (e.g., E. coli,Klebsiella spp., or Pseudomonas aeruginosa) is

Endotoxic Shock

249. Endotoxin that mounts pro-inflammatory cytokines,responsible for endotoxic shock, is

Lipid A of LPS

250. Genital chancre begins as a papule, ulcerates to form asingle, painless, clean-based ulcer. TOW?

1o syphilis

251. Cause of genital chancre, begining as a papule, ulcerating toform a single, painless, clean-based ulcer.

Treponema pallidum

252. A pen-allergy, non-pregnant, female pt w/ fever, "copperpenny" macular lesions on the palms or soles; RPR(+) should betreated with

Doxycycline

253. Management choice of tabes dorsalis (10-20yrs), iritis,uveitis, or Argyll-Robertson pupils of pen-allergy in a pregnantwoman w/ pen allergy; RPR(+) is

Desensitization

254. Hx of painful clustered vesicles with an erythematous base;urinary retention in a promiscuous woman. TOW?

HSV-2 >> 1

255. Giemsa stain of fluid from a herpetic lesion should reveal

Multinucleated giant cells

256. Patient with genital herpes does not respond to acyclovir because pt is infected with

thymidine kinase deficientHSV

257. A pregnant woman with 1o symptomatic HSV-2 infection is at risk of her baby developing

neonatal (congenital) herpes

258. Cause of painful genital ulcers; purulent, grey base; painful inguinal adenitis, in a man with multiple sexual partners is

Haemophilus ducreyi

259. Fastidious organism in the infiltrate of the penile ulcer, co- localized with neutrophils and fibrin, in a pt w/ chancroid is

Haemophilus ducreyi

260. All sex partners of pt with chancroid, regardless of symptoms, should be examined and treated with

Azythromycin > ceftriaxone

261. New episode of purulent or mucopurulent endocervical exudate visible in the endocervical canal or on endocervical swab. Friability and bleeding may be noted after gentle passage of swab though cervical os. Test for:

Chlamydia trachomatis andNeisseria gonorrhoeae

262. New episode of purulent or mucopurulent endocervical exudate visible in the endocervical canal or on endocervical swab. Friability and bleeding may be noted after gentle passage of swab though cervical os. Test is

Nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT)

263. Most common cause of mucopurulent endocervical exudate(Gram stain non revealing) in a sexually promiscuous woman

Chlamydia trachomatis D-K

264. Chlamydia trachomatis is an intracellular parasite which lacks

Muramic acid (cell wall)

265. Dx of mucopurulent urethral discharge, dysuria, penile pruritis is based on

NAAT of urethral specimen or urine (+)

266. DOC of most frequent cause of nongonococcal urethritis

Azythromycin > doxycycline

267. Cause of rare genital ulcers, inguinal lymphadenopathy[cytology(-) for multi-nucleated giant cells; RPR (-)] in men is

Chlamydia trachomatis L1-L3

268. Hx of systemic Sx/Sn w/ cervical motion tenderness in a woman with turbo-ovarian abscess. TOW?

PID

269. Cause of mucopurulent urethritis, dysuria, penile pruritis[Smear (+):Gram-negative diplococci co-populated w/ PMNs] is

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

270. Deficiency in serum factors in a female pt w/ frequent gonorrhea and DGIs is

C6-C9

271. Immune evasion of Neisseria gonorrhoeae in frequent mucosal infection is due to

Antigenic variation of pili.

272. Auxotrophic strains of N. gonorrhoeae with serum(complements) resistance are likely to cause

Septic arthritis (aka: DGI)

273. Most frequent complication of gonococcal (GC) infection in men

Epididymitis

274. Cause of "bull headed clap", urethral stricture, prostatitis is

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

275. Urethritis is treated with ceftriaxone + azythromycin because

Concurrent GC + Chlamydia

276. Intra-amniotic infection syndrome, following rupture of membranes, without histological (neutrophilic inflammation of chorion, necrosis, micro-abscess formation, amnion basement membrane thickening) or microbiological confirmation, etiology is usually

polymicrobial (2 or more)

277. Intra-amniotic infection syndrome, following rupture of membranes, without histological (neutrophilic inflammation of chorion, necrosis, micro-abscess formation, amnion basement membrane thickening) or microbiological confirmation, Frequently recovered isolates from pre-term infant placentas(chorioamnionitis):

Ureaplasma urealyticum, Gardnerella vaginalis.

278. Along with gentamicin, a standard component of treatment for chorioamnionitis is

Ampicillin

279. Acute onset of intermenstrual bleeding in a non-pregnant woman, recent onset dyspareunia, lower abdominal pain or distension: crampy, fever, pain with bowel movements or constipation. Confirm by tests of

Gram stain and culture of fluid from surgery (acute endometritis)

280. Diagnosis of chronic endometritis is made by endometrial biopsy with histologic diagnosis based upon

plasma cells, lymphocytes in endometrial infiltrate

281. An older woman with PID and tubo-ovarian abscess receives ceftriaxone, azythromycin, and metronidazole because

Polymicrobic (endogenous)infection

282. Cause of anogenital warts w/ histology (+): koilocytes is

HPV 6 and 11

283. Cause of atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASCUS) on pap smear w/ no clinical signs of infection is

HPV 16 and 18

284. Cause of koilocytotic cells and possible progression to squamous cell carcinoma

HPV 16 and 18

285. Next step to identify viral cause of ASCUS on pap smear w/and further management in a woman of age > 29 years is

Colposcopy > HPV DNA in bpsy

286. Wet prep of vaginal discharge from a pt w/ vaginal pruritis;ectocervical erythema ("strawberry cervix") should reveal

motile tissue flagellate

287. Clinical syndrome form replacement of normal peroxide- producing Lactobacillus spp. in the vagina with high concentrations of anaerobic bacterial (e.g., Mobiluncus sp and Prevotellasp), G. vaginalis, and Mycoplasma hominis is

Bacterial vaginosis (BV)

288. Gardnerella and/or Mobiluncus morphotypes in BV are seen with few or absent of

Lactobacilli

289. Gram stain of vaginal discharge w/ fishy odor from a pt w/ vaginal pruritis but no erythema and normal cervix (in BV) should reveal

SECs stippled with Gram- variable organisms.

290. DOC of bacterial vaginosis is

metronidazole

291. Wet prep of curdy discharge (no odor), adhering to vaginal walls, from a pregnant woman w/ recent UTI, who now has severe vaginal pruritis; vulvovaginal area - erythematous should reveal

budding yeasts with pseudohyphae

292. Normal commensal of skin, GI & GU tracts; endogenous overgrowth of budding yeast, capable of >10 diseases. TOW?

Candida albicans

293. Mechanism of action of a po DOC of vulvovaginal candidiasis is

blocks C14 alpha-lanosterol demethylase

294. Hx of flu-like illness, lymphadenopathy, maculopapular rash in a bisexual man. Lab: lymphopenia and transaminase elevations; monospot/all serology (-). TOW?

Acute retroviral syndrome

295. Time from infection (acquisition) to acute seroconversion detected by HIV serology (ELISA/ WBlot) is

6-12 weeks.

296. Hx of mononucleosis-like illness and lymphadenopathy in a man who has sex man. Serology (-). What is HIV viral load?

>10,000 copies/ml

297. Host-cell receptor for HIV-1 infection

CD4

298. Homozygous for deletions in what gene renders resistance to infection and some protection against progression.

CCR5

299. Host cells that trap HIV and mediate the efficient transinfection of CD4+ T cells are

Dendritic cells

300. A man, who practices “sex with another man”, hasantibodies to HIV (ELISA and WB) but asymptomatic. TOW?

Clinical latency

301. What happens to HIV-1 virus when acute retroviral syndrome progresses to clinical latency?

Virus continues to replicate low level.

302. A man who practices “sex with another man”, is now HIV-1 serology (+) and has dual symptomatic infections/cancer (any two from below). Expected CD4+ count isi. Candidiasis, esophageal, bronchi, trachea, or lungs ii. Cervical cancer, invasiveiii. Coccidioidomycosis, extrapulmonary iv. Cryptococcosis, extrapulmonaryv. Cryptosporidiosis, chronic intestinalvi. Cytomegalovirus retinitis (with vision loss)vii. Encephalopathy, HIV-related viii. Herpes simplex - Chronic ulcersix. Histoplasmosis, disseminated or extrapulmonary x. Isosporiasis, chronic intestinal (duration >1 mo) xi. Kaposi sarcomaxii. Lymphoma, Burkittxiii. Lymphoma, primary, of the brainxiv. Mycobacterium avium complex or Mycobacterium kansasii infection, extrapulmonaryxv. Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection, any site(pulmonary or extrapulmonary)xvi. Pneumocystis pneumoniaxvii. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy xviii. Wasting syndrome due to HIV infection

CD4+ < 200/microL

303. A man with HIV infection has chronic diarrhea, oral thrush+ toxoplasma encephalitis. Most likely CD4+ count is

< 50 cells/microL.

304. Most common cause of HIV- associated peripheral skin or mucosal ulcers

HSV-1 (>> Histo > CMV > VZV > Syphilis)

305. Most common cause of HIV- associated nodules(neoplasia)?

HHV-8 (aka KSHV)

306. Hx of fatigue, nausea, abdominal pain, diarrhea, fever,chills, night sweats, dry persistent cough w/ SOB and weight loss in a man with AIDS. Lab: PPD (-); blood culture (+) for AFB. TOW?

Mycobacterium avium- intracellulare (MAI) complex (aka: MAC)

307. Common cause of retinitis, viral pneumonitis or esophagitis in AIDS

CMV

308. Cases of CMV disease occur with immunosuppression level

CD4< 50

309. cytopathology of CMV infected tissue is characterized by large cells with

nuclear (Cowdry owl’s eye)and cytoplasmic inclusions

310. Hx of progressive CNS dz in a pt w/ AIDS: hemiparesis, visual, ataxia, aphasia, cranial nerves, sensory. Head MRI: ring- enhancing lesions. Toxo antibody (-). TOW?

JC virus

311. Definitive indication for initial HAART is CD4+ count?

350/mm3.

312. Objective of ARV Tx is to reduce viremia to what level of genomic RNA/mL

< 50 copies RNA/mL.

313. Initial regimen of anti-retroviral therapy is

Emtricitabine + Tenofovir + Efavirenz

314. Abacavir, emtricitabine, lamivudine, zidovudine, tenofovirbelong to what class of antiretrovirals?

NRTIs

315. Efavirenz, nevirapine belong to what class of antiretrovirals?

NNRTIs

316. Atazanavir, Lopinavir, Saquinavir belong to what class of antiretrovirals?

Protease inhibitors

317. This drug binds to gp41 and prevents conformational change required for viral fusion and entry into cells.

enfuvirtide

318. This drug inhibits integrase, responsible for insertion ofHIV proviral DNA into the host genome.

raltegravir

319. A man has AIDS and CD4 <200cells/μL or thrush.Antibacterial prophylaxis needed besides HAART is

TMP-SMX (for PCP)

320. A man has AIDS and CD4 <100 + pos toxo IgG.Chemoprophylaxis needed besides HAART is

TMP-SMX (for Toxoplasma encephalitis)

321. A man has AIDS and CD4 <100 + PPD >5mm induration.Antibacterial prophylaxis needed besides HAART is

INH + pyridoxine

322. A man has AIDS and CD4 <50. Antibacterial prophylaxis needed besides HAART is

azithromycin (for MAC)

323. Hx of fever, a pustule at a cat scratch site, adenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly in a pt w/ AIDS. Warthin-Starry stain tissue (+). TOW (clue: bacillary angiomatosis)?

Bartonella henselae

324. Leading causes of congenital infections are

ToRCH3eS-ListTo = Toxoplasma gondiiR = RubellaC = CMVH = HSV-2H = HIV H = HBVS = SyphilisList = Listeria monocytogenes

325. Cause of severe CNS sequelae, chorioretinitis, systemic disease in a neonate (mom at pregnancy had mono-like illness after eating undercooked beef or pork or exposure to oöcysts in catfeces) is

Toxoplasma gondii

326. Drug for pregnant woman in first trimester to prevent transmission if mother seroconverts is

Spiramycin

327. Hx of deafness, cataracts, heart defects, or microcephaly ina child (of a seronegative, caregiver mom, exposed to “Blueberrymuffin baby” in 1st trimester). TOW?

congenital rubella syndrome(CRS)

328. Dx of CRS usually with positive anti-rubella antibody type?

IgM

329. Microcephaly, seizures, sensorineural hearing loss, feedingdifficulties, petechial rash, hepatosplenomegaly, or jaundice in aneonate. PCR of any body fluid should yield

CMV

330. After primary infection, CMV, characterized as envelopeddsDNA betaherpesvirus; establishes

lifelong latency

331. Hepatosplenomegaly, neurologic abnormalities, frequentinfections in a neonate w/ low CD4+ counts. Woman beforebirthing should have received

Nevirapine

332. Cause of vesicular skin lesions + conjunctivitis in a child(asymptomatic at birth)

HSV-2

333. Hx of cutaneous lesions, hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice,saddle nose, and saber shins. Hutchinson teeth, + CN VIII deafnessin a neonate (mom is a prostitute). TOW?

3o syphilis

334. Neonatal septicemia or meningitis (mom had flu-like Sx andate imported cheese during pregnancy). TOW?

Listeria monocytogenes

335. What are the SIX red rashes of childhood (acute, febrileexanthema illnesses)?(Clue1: maculopapular rash; off-white lesions on buccal mucosa,MMRV vaccine prevents)(Clue2: maculopapular rash starting on face moving to foot; MMRVprevents)(Clue3: scarlatina rash post pharyngitis)(Clue4: vesicular rash, moderate pain)(Clue5: maculopapular “slapped face” appearance in a young child)(Clue6: maculopapular rash and systemic Dz in immunocompromisedpt)

MeaslesRubellaScarlet fever (GAS)Chicken pox (VZV)Parvovirus B19HHV-6

336. Worldwide rubella infection, with only human reservoirsknown this infectious agent is a

RNA togavirus

337. >95% seropositive after MMRV if >12mos age and lifelongprotection against rubella is conferred with?

Single dose

338. Cause of single or multiple scaly and/or crusted patchesand/or plaques, affecting the scalp or beard area +/- inflammation.

Dermatophytes

339. KOH prep of scales from the scalp and plucked hairs fromcutaneous mycoses may reveal?

hyphae and spores

340. Most common cause of cutaneous mycoses

Trichophyton spp.

341. Common cause of cutaneous mycosis with animal contact

Microsporum spp.

342. Oral DOC of cutaneous mycoses

itraconazole

343. Topical DOC of cutaneous mycoses

terbinafine

344. Dz w/ subcutaenous lesions w/ slow spread by lymphatic system producing nodules in a gardener, or from rose-thorn injury.

Sporotrichosis

345. Cause of subcutaenous lesions w/ slow spread by lymphatic system producing nodules in a gardener, or from rose-thorn injury.

Sporothrix schenckii

346. Dimorphic fungus that grows at 37°C as cigar-shaped yeast, and produces septate hyphae and conidia (in daisy arrangement) at25°C is

Sporothrix schenckii

347. DOC of sporotrchosis

itraconazole.

348. Cause of deeper and wider lesions with interconnecting subcutaneous abscesses arising from infection of several neighboring hair follicles, in young children.

Staphylococcus aureus(Curbuncle)

349. Cause of superficial pustules progressing to erosionscovered by honey-colored crusts, surrounded by erythematous halo, in young children.

Staphylococcus aureus >> Streptococcus pyogenes (non- bullous impetigo)

350. Dz characterized by bullae and denuded areas after the blisters rupture, covered by thin, varnish-like light brown crusts; regional lymphadenopathy, in children.DOC if lab: gram stain and culture of pus or base of the lesions yieldsGPC in chains.DOC if lab: gram stain and culture of pus or base of the lesions yieldsGPC in clusters.

Bullous impetigoPenicillin G Nafcillin

351. mecA (SCC) genes which encode PBP2a, w/ low affinity for β-lactams; confers resistance in Staphylococcus aureus against what?

Nafcillin

352. Cause of spreading (butterfly-wing) erythema on the face that responds to empirical penicillin.

Streptococcus pyogenes(Erysipelas)

353. Cause of severe pain on his knee w/ site of injury is tender and erythematous. Blood culture may yield?

Streptococcus pyogenes. (Cellulitis)

354. What is the microbial factor that promotes degradation ofC3b by binding to factor H, the serum β globulin factor

M protein

355. Other epidemiologically linked or risk-associated causes of cellulitis are:Clue1: cat/dog bite. What?Clue2: Salt water exposure. What? Clue3: Fresh water exposure. What? Clue4: Neutropenia. What?Clue5: Human bite. What?

Pasteurella multocida / Capnocytophaga canimorous Vibrio vulnificusAeromonas hydrophila Pseudomonas aeruginosa Eikenella corrodens

356. Most likely cause of fever/chills/ night sweats, localizing pain/tenderness or swelling/erythema (lab: ↑ESR, ↑CRP; ↑WBC w/ left shift. Radiology: periosteal elevation.) is

Staphylococcus aureus(Osteomyelitis)

357. Major antiphagocytic virulence factor of drug-resistant organism that causes osteomyelitis is

protein A

358. Major neutrophil-damaging virulence factor of drug- resistant organism that causes osteomyelitis is

Penton-Valentine leukocydin

359. Cause of vertebral, sternoclavicular or pelvic bone infections (in pt w/ IVDU) or osteochondritis of foot (following penetrating injuries through tennis shoes)?

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

360. Cause of osteomyelitis in pt w/ underlying sickle cell Dz;blood culture +)?

Salmonella typhimurium

361. Cause of chronic, vertebral osteomyelitis (blood culture negative)?

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

362. Cause of osteomyelitis in pt. w/ hx of cat bites; GNSR;fastidious growth of wound culture?

Pasteurella multocida

363. Cause of fever, chills, malaise, joint pain, swelling. PE: tenderness, erythema, heat, swelling, decreased ROM. CBC: leukocytosis w/ neutrophils predominating; joint aspirate: no crystals.Clue1: sexually active; BLCx (-); responds to ceftriaxoneThink of other pathogens (BLCx negative): Clue2: Rheumatoid arthritis?Clue3: IVDU?Clue4: Unpasteurized dairy productsClue5: Diabetes

Septic arthritisNeisseria gonorrhoeaeS. aureusS. aureus, P. aeruginosaBrucella spp.S. agalactiae (GBS)

364. Dz is characterized by arthritis in up to 6 joints (especially knees, feet), low back pain/stiffness, irritable eyes w/ or w/o redness, conjunctivitis, iritis, malaise.Caused by:Clue1: sexually acquiredClue2: non-sexually acquired

Reactive arthritisC. trachomatis, N. gonorrhoeae Campylobacter, Salmonella

365. Cause of bacteremia in neutopenic pts with central line or pts with prosthetic devices and catheters; blood culture (+)

Staphylococcus epidermidis

366. Cause of intraabdominal abscess w/ putrid pus; anaerobicbacteremia in pt with trauma or solid GI tumor?

Bacteroides fragilis.

367. A woman with obstetric infection has fever > 102oF, SBP <90; diffuse sunburn-like rash or desquamation of palms and soles;multisystem Sx/Sns; vomiting, and diarrhea; BLCx (-). TOW?

Staphylococcal Toxic shockSyndrome

368. What is the toxin associated with staphylococcal toxicshock syndrome?

TSST-1 (a superantigen)

369. Cause of severe, watery diarrhea in a woman with toxicshock syndrome?

Enterotoxin (coregulated withTSST-1)

370. Cause of toxic shock syndrome, which responds tovancomycin and clindamycin?

MRSA

371. Hx of fever > 38.9oC, SBP < 90 ; diffuse sunburn-like rashor desquamation of palms and soles, in a man w/ necrotizingfasciitis or myositis; multisystem involvement; BLCx (+). TOW?

Streptococcal toxic shocksyndrome

372. What is the toxin associated with streptococcal toxic shocksyndrome?

SpeA (superantigen)

373. DOC for streptococcal toxic shock syndrome

PenG + clindamycin

374. Hx of fever, chills, and hypotension. Blood culture yields a GNR, oxidase (-), lactose fermenting organism on MacConkeyagar. Immunological mediators of sepsis.

IL-1 and TNF

375. DOC for a neutropenic pt w/ line-associated infection w/immune suppression (hematologic malignancy, organ orhematopoietic stem cell transplantation, chemotherapy); w/ positiveblood cultures and Beta-D-glucan antigenemia?

Caspofungin

376. DOC for a line-associated infection in a pt w/ GI tumor; lab:positive blood cultures and Beta-D-glucan antigenemia?

Fluconazole

377. Without prophylaxis with valganciclovir, D+/R- solid organtxp pts will develop

CMV disease

378. Cause of mononucleosis-like dz with fever, myalgia/arthralgia w/ lab: leukopenia, LFT abnls, in a pt w/ solid organtransplant?

CMV

379. Lung biopsy reveals large cells with nuclear inclusions(Cowdry owl's eyes inclusion bodies) in a pt with AIDS andinterstitial pneumonia. TOW?

CMV

380. DOC for CMV antigenemia in a febrile pt with solid organtansplant?

valganciclovir

381. Cause of hematuria, hemorrhagic cystitis, or uretericstenosis, or interstitial nephritis in a severly immunocompromisedpt?

BK Virus

382. What is the most common cause of bacteremia associatedw/ foreign device (prostheses, intravenous cathether, or centrallines) in co-morbid, hospitalized pts?

Staphylococcus epidermidis

383. What is the cause of infections associated w/ ventilatorsupport of respiration in co-morbid pts in the ICU?

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

384. DOC for a pt w/ travel hx (back from the tropics), who hasflu-like symptoms; splenomegaly; lab: CBC: anemia,thrombocytopenia, hypoglycemia. Blood smear: enlarged RBCsand Schuffner dots.

mefloquine + primaquine

385. Which drug is contraindicated in specific Tx of liver formof malaria in pts w/ G6PD deficiency?

Primaquine

386. DOC for a pt w/ travel hx (back from the tropics), who hasflu-like symptoms (fever > 103o F), seizure, hyperparasitemia(>2.5% of RBC), pulmonary edema, or renal failure, or severeanemia?

Quinidine and doxycycline.

387. Cause of malaria-like illness in an immunosuppressed ptw/o travel hx; lab: blood smear has cross-over rings in the RBCs?

Babesia spp.

388. A pt from S. America has a week-long fever, anorexia,lymphadenopathy, mild hepatosplenomegaly, and myocarditis; anodular lesion on the arm; blood smear should reveal

Trypanosoma cruzi

389. Cause of a chronic-stage systemic dz w/ cardiomyopathy,megaesophagus, megacolon, and weight loss in a pt from S.America, who does not respond to nifurtimox.

Trypanosoma cruzi

390. Cause of protracted fever and Crohn’s, celiac dz, ocularproblems, and lymphadenopathy; duodenal biopsy demonstratingfoamy macrophages in lamina propria?

Tropheryma whipplei

391. Painless papule (on arms, face, or chest), thenvesicles/bullae, then black eschar + edema evolving over 3-5d is

Cutaneous anthrax

392. Unique features of cutaneous anthrax include edema, lackof pain and bullous fluid that lacks

PMNs

393. Cutaneous anthrax can be treated in 7-10 days with

Ciprofloxacin

394. Fever, chills, sweats, GI sx, cough, malaise, chest pain (3-4d); CXR: wide mediastinum and bloody pleural effusion is

Inhalation anthrax

395. CT scan in inhalation anthrax may show hyperdense mediastinal nodes and

pulmonary edema

396. Cultures of blood and respiratory specimens from in inhalation anthrax should yield

Bacillus anthracis

397. DOC of Inhalation anthrax is

Ciprofloxacin or levofloxacin> doxycycline

398. Need to treat inhalation anthrax 60 days because

Spores persist in lungs

399. 60 d total course recommended for any presentation to avoid

relapse or breakthrough of incubation of spores

400. Post-exposure prophylaxis to prevent inhalation anthrax also requires

Cipro for 60 days

401. Exposure (time & place to environment) + papule progressing to black eschar on exposed area in 3-4d +/- local edema, often intensely pruritic is

Cutaneous anthrax

402. Ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin and doxycycline are equivalent to treat cutaneous anthrax. All other abx are

less effective

403. In the event of an index case of anthrax (although infectionis not P2P communicable), notify public health authorities and local

infection control

404. Infection control of all types of anthrax (based on non- communicability of the pathogen) warrants only

Standard precautions

405. Species of Clostridium that causes afebrile, systemic toxic diseases in infants (honey), and in adults foodborne (meat, canned vegetables), wound (injected), iatrogenic (cosmetic) is

C. botulinum

406. Differential diagnosis of botulism-like symptom/signs should include Myasthenia gravis, Stroke, Chemical Intoxications, Lambert-Eaton Dz, and

Guillian-Barré

407. Clostridia produces human pathogenic

neurotoxins types A, B, E, Fand G

408. Many pts w/ flaccid paralysis in the same geography without common food source may be

Bioterrorism-associated botulism

409. CSF examination in botulism is

Normal profile (no pleocytosis)

410. Post lab confirmation of food botulism, while waiting for antitoxin may give

activated charcoal

411. Infection control of all types of botulism (based on non- communicability of the pathogen or toxins) warrants only

Standard precautions

412. Aerobic slender gram-negative rod, which causes glanders in horses, associated with bioterrorism is

Burkholderia mallei

413. Acute glanders caused by Burkholderia mallei may produce a localized infection with ulceration following inoculation in the skin; lymphadenopathy; lung infections may present as pneumonia. Acute bloodstream infections can be

rapidly fatal.

414. If Burkholderia mallei isolated suspect bioterrorism; Quarantine pt & give antibiotics:

TMP-SMX or Imipenem

415. Multiple cases of glanders: must consider

bioterrorism.

416. Patients with glanders should be isolated, respiratory precautions. B. mallei spread by

aerosol.

417. In the DDx of bioterrorism-related pneumonia +pleuritis + hilar adenopathy, include anthrax, plague and

tularemia

418. Small, pleomorphic, aerobic Gram-neg rod that causes1) bite/abrasion (acquired from tick exposure or contact with rabbits) → nodule/ulcer → node → sepsis, or 2) inhalation (bioterrorism) → acute fever, dry cough. CXR: infiltrates + hilar adenopathy, is

Francisella turlarensis

419. DOC of tularemia is

streptomycin

420. For tularemia, if bioterrorism suspected, notify

local public health

421. Pathogen Francisella turlarensis does not have a person-to- person mode of transmission. Infection control does not require:

Isolation

422. Acute fever, myalgias, remorrhagic rash, conjunctivitis, pharyngitis, headache, diarrhea, and thrombocytopenia in bioterrorism indicates

Viral hemorrhagic fever (e.g., Ebola, Marburg)

423. For Lassa, Marburg, and Ebola, person-to-person transmission based infection control (respiratory) precautions and other measures must include:

Patient isolation

424. Endemic plague in the South West USA is acquired by bite of rodent flea carrying

Yersinia pestis

425. Aerobic, Gram-neg bipolar rod, which causes painfullymphadenitis (bubonic), fever, chills, headache (afterexposure to rodents, rabbits or fleas) is

Yersinia pestis

426. Three forms of plague: bubonic (lymph nodes),pneumonic and the third:

septicemic

427. DOC of plague is

Doxycycline

428. Pneumonic plague can be transmitted

from person-person

429. Sudden fever ≥ 102°F , homogeneous vesiculo-pustularrash (unlike common viral exanthems) in multiple pts (in timeand place) is

Small pox, caused by variollamajor virus

430. Sudden fever ≥ 102°F , homogeneous vesiculo-pustularrash in multiple pts (in time and place) is, main diagnosticdifferential is

Varicella or zoster

431. For small pox associated bioterrorism, person-to-persontransmission based infection control warrants isolation measuresand

respiratory precautions

432. No person-to-person transmission are observed (other thanstandard precautions) for the bioterrorism agents:

Anthrax, botulism (noncommunicable)

433. Fever, headache, neck stiffness, and altered mental status;Kernig's/Brudzinski's sign, rash; CSF: WBC > 2000 or PMNs >1200; glucose < 34, protein > 220CSF gram stain of the most likely pathogen of ABM in a 6 mos-6yr old(or adults > 50 years) should revealCSF gram stain of the most likely pathogen of ABM in an older childor young adult should reveal

Acute bacterial meningitis(ABM)Gram-positive diplococciGram-negative diplococci

434. Most common cause of sepsis/meningitis innewborns/neonates?

Streptococcus agalactiae

435. Cause of fever, headache, photophobia, nausea/vomiting, rash, diarrhea, meningeal signs, in older children in the summer months; CSF with 10-<1,000 WBC typical, mostly monos, moderately elevated protein?

Aseptic meningitis(enteroviruses)

436. Cause of aseptic meningitis in men with exposure to rodents?

Leptospira interrogans

437. Cause of aseptic meningitis with hx of tick bite and erythema migrans?

Borrelia burgdorferi

438. Cause of aseptic meningitis with hx of sex with multiple partners; CSF PCR(+):

HSV-2 > 1

439. Cause of fever, headache, photophobia, meningismus, in pts w/ solid organ transplant, malignancy, corticosteroid use. CSF glucose < 2/3 serum glucose, elevated protein, WBC > 5 withPMNs

Listeria monocyotgenes

440. How does Listeria monocytogenes differ from other - hemolytic bacteria

Gram-positive rods; tumbling motility

441. Cause of chronic meningoencephalitis in a pt, who uses infliximab or native from endemic region; PE: papilledema. CXR (+). Lab: elevated monocytes on differential, low CSF glucose?

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

442. Test to confirm subacute mengoencephalitis in a, immunocompromised pt (CD4 <100); vesicular skin lesions [CSF profile: protein 30-150mg/dl, monos 10-100]?

CSF India ink

443. Cause of meningoencephalitis after a hx of respiratory illness after travel to SW USA?

Coccidioides immitis

444. Test to confirm CNS pathology with fever, cognitive deficits, focal neurologic signs, seizures; temporal lobe involvement on MRI. Lab: no papilledema, CT (no brain lesion)?

CSF PCR (+)

445. Cause of fever, cognitive deficits, focal neurologic signs, seizures, abnormal mental status with ataxia, hemi-paresis, in a pt w/ AIDS?

JC virus > HHV-6

446. Cause of fever, cognitive deficits, focal neurologic signs, seizures or abnormal mental status with ataxia in an adult during outdoor activity?

West-Nile virus > SLE

447. Hx of fever, cognitive deficits, focal neurologic signs,seizures, in a pt w/ AIDS (CD4 < 50). MRI: multifocal (ringenhancing)lesions in basal ganglia. Rule out?

Toxoplasma encephalitis (TE)

448. HIV-infected Pt with TE should receive (for life)

pyrimethamine + leucovorin +sulfadiazine

449. Folinic acid (leucovorin) prevents bone marrow suppressiveeffect of

Pyrimethamine

450. Cause of confusion, stiff neck, irritability over wks tomonths, in immunocompromised pts; CT/MRI = multifocal lesionsin midbrain, brain stem, & cerebellum; wet mount CSF = motilemacrophage-like organisms

Acanthamoeba spp. (GAE)

451. Cause of severe headache and other meningeal signs, fever,vomiting, and focal neurologic deficits, frequently progressing tocoma, in a healthy boy (summer diving activity)?

Naegleria fowleri (PAM)

452. Cause of seizures, chronic headache, symptomatichydrocephalus, in immigrants; pt. successfully responds topraziquantel + anti-convulsant drug?

Taenia solium(neurocysticercosis)

453. Pt from Africa had fever, lymphadenopathy, chancre, andpruritus weeks ago; now has headaches, somnolence, neuro Sns;slowly responds to pentamidine isothionate or suramin. TOW?

Sleeping sickness caused byTrypanosoma brucei

454. Hx of rigidity, muscle spasm, and autonomic dysfunction.Trismus due to masseter spasm in an infant w/ umbilical stumpinfection. Neurotoxin interferes w/

GABA and glycine

455. Hx of afebrile illness w/ diplopia, dysarthria, dysphoria,dysphagia, in a pt w/ IDU skin poppers with black tar heroin.Neurotoxin blocks the release of

Acetylcholine

456. Immediate treatment of a male infant w/ constipation, aweak cry, and drooling, hypotonea and cranial neuropathy, afteringestion of home-processed honey.

Equine immune globulin(infant botulism)

457. Ingestion of a raw potato delivers a new vaccine protein toelicit an immune response. The immune structure to interact withthe vaccine protein?

Lamina propria mucosae

458. Inflammation and the resulting increase in vascularpermeability permit leakage into damaged or infected sites areeffected by

Phagocytic cells and acutephase proteins

459. The serum of a pt, who has IgG and IgM deficiency,appears to fix complement in an assay for tetanus antibodies. Whatis the explanation?

Activation of the alternatepathway

460. A 3-year-old boy with genetic C3 deficiency has recurrent ear and lung infections due to pyogenic bacteria. Deficiency of what?

B lymphocytes

461. A very young child, w/ recurrent infections due to Staphylococcus aureus, now has numerous granulomas. TOW?

Chronic granulomatous dz

462. Treatment with which protease enzyme causes decrease in avidity of IgG w/o changing the specificity of the antibody?

Papain

463. Cells activated by both γ-IFN and CD40 are

Macrophages

464. High-dose chemo has caused severe bone marrow suppression in a pt with hematologic malignancy. Reversal is plausible with what?

GCSF

465. Function of the T-lymphocyte receptor (CD3) complex of transmembrane proteins?

Signal transduction

466. The MHC class I pathway presents an antigen directly to what?

CD8+ T lymphocytes

467. HSV infection can block the transfer of antigenic peptides from the cytoplasm to the ER of the infected cells. As a result of this, action of what cell type is compromised?

CD8+ T cells

468. Infection of the thyroid gland can induce the expression of MHC II molecules. Which cell types would initiate an autoimmune response, leading to Hashimoto’s thyroiditis?

CD4+ T cells.

469. PPD skin test (+) in a pt , who was vaccinated against turberculosis in his native country, reflects response of what cell type?

CD4+ T lymphocytes (Th1 response  γ-IFN)

470. A man with hx of MI is given a morphine injection for a new episode of chest pain; 10 mins later, he has itching and urticaria. Mechanism of this reaction?

mediators from sensitized mast cells

471. Loss of skin pigments, sense of touch, inability to feel objects and pain in a pt from Africa, whose skin scraping contains AFBs, is caused by

Th1-mediated DTH reactions

472. A man with polycystic kidney dz, who receives a renal transplant and cyclosporine, develops a high temp and swelling and tenderness in the grafted kidney. TOW?

Immunity to the donor MHCantigens.

473. A man who now has progressive stupor and laryngeal spasms for 3 days after pt was being attacked by a wild bat in a cave a month ago should have received

Inactivated rabies virus vaccine

474. Alternative and lectin pathways of complements activated

bacterial surfaces

475. Classic complement pathway is activated by antibody- antigen complexes involving antibody class type

IgM >> IgG

476. Chemotactic and anaphylotoxic complements are

C3a, C5a

477. successful opsonization of all non-encapsulated bacteria are by complement

C3b

478. Defect or deficiency of which complements predisposes individuals to infections caused by Neisseria spp., the causative agents of gonorrhea and meningitis

C6-C9

479. Antimicrobial (immune) response important for intracellular bacterial infections involves cell type

Th1 CD4 T cells

480. Immune response important for viral infections involves cell type

CD8 cytolytic T cells

481. Major antibody in secretions and plays a significant role in first-line defense at the mucosal level is

IgA

482. Main antibody in the initial “primary” immune response andallows good complement activation is

IgM

483. Fc region of this immunoglobulin binds to eosinophils, basophils and mast cells and is significant mediator of allergic (hypersensitivity) reactions

IgE

484. What on macrophages enables them to sense that the material is microbial in origin, and must therefore be eliminated quickly?

Toll-like receptor

485. These oxygen-dependent enzymes: NADPH oxidase, superoxide dismutase, and myeloperoxidase are involved in killing of what?

Gram-positive bacteria

486. These oxygen-independent enzymes/proteins: lysosome, lactoferrin, defensins and other cationic proteins are involved in killing of what?

Gram-negative bacteria

487. Infections persist, because m activation is defective, leading to chronic stimulation of CD4+ T cells in what dz?

Chronic granulomatous Dz

488. Defective respiratory burst, predisposing chronic bacterial infection is associated with deficiency of what?

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD)

489. All nucleated cells express MHC I antigens

HLA-A, B, C

490. Antigen-presenting cells express MHC II antigens

HLA-DP, DQ, DR

491. Lymphocyte proliferation (T, B) and NK → cytotoxicity are undertaken by what cytokine?

IL-2

492. B-cell activation, IgE and IgG4 switch, ↓ TH1 cells/ M (phi), ↓IFN-gamma, TH0 → TH2 are all undertaken by what cytokine?

IL-4

493. M activation; elevated expression of MHC and FcRs molecules on B cells, IgG2 class switching, increased IL-4 and TH2 are all undertaken by what cytokine?

IFN gamma

494. The Th1 response, driven primarily by IFN-gamma leads to the activation of

macrophages

495. The Th2 response, driven primarily by IL-4 and IL-5, leads to the production of IgE and IgG4 and to the activation of

Mast cells and eosinophils

496. Variable T and B cells in DiGeroge’s syndrome is associated with

Thymic aplasia

497. No B cells and immunoglobulins in X-linked agammaglobulinemia (Bruton’s) is associated with

Loss of Btk tyrosine kinase

498. Lack of anti-polysaccharide antibody and impaired T-cell activation causing Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome is associated with

X-linked-defective WASP gene

499. Inability to control B cell growth in X-linked lympho- proliferative syndrome is associated with

SH2D1A mutant

500. Glomerulonephritis, pulmonary hemorrhage inGoodpasture’s syndrome is caused by what autoantigen?

basement membrane collagen type IV

501. Hyperthyroidism in Grave’s Dz is caused by whatautoantigen?

Thyroid-stimulating hormone

502. Progressive muscle weakness in Myasthenia gravis iscaused by what autoantigen?

Acetyl choline receptor

503. Brain degeneration, paralysis in Multiple sclerosis (MS) iscaused by what autoantigen?

Myelin basic protein,proteolipid protein

504. Localized allergies (e.g., drug allergy, asthma, hay fever)and anaphylaxis (food, drug) w/ systemic inflammation throughoutcirculation are associated with reaction?

Type I hypersensitivity

505. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia: Ab’s produced vs RBCmembrane Ag’s, mismatched blood (transfusion rxn), and allergiesto antibiotics (e.g., penicillins, sulfa drugs) are associated withreaction?

Type II hypersensitivity

506. Grave’s Disease, Myasthenia Gravis, Goodpasture’ssyndrome are all associated with reaction?

Type II hypersensitivity

507. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, serum sickness tohorse diphtheria anti-toxin, systemic lupus erythematosis (SLE),and rheumatoid arthritis are all associated with reaction?

Type III hypersensitivity

508. Poison ivy, erythematous induration in tuberculin skin test,and transplantation/graft rejection are all associated with reaction?

Type IV hypersensitivity

509. Periodic acid Schiff (PAS) stain targeted at glycogen andmucopolysaccharides is used to diagnose

Whipple’s disease

510. For microscopic visualization, mycobacteria with highlipid-contentcell wall requires

Acid-fast stain

511. Acid-fast bacteria (aka: mycobacteria) are visualized bymicroscopy using

Ziehl-Neelsen stain

512. Non-stainable bacteria that are considered atypical and intracellular may be detected by microscopy using

Giemsa stain

513. Rickettsia and chlamydia do not stain with Gram stain because they are

Strictly intracellular

514. Special culture medium required to grow Haemophilus influenzae is

Chocolate agar w/ X (hematin) and V (NAD) factors

515. Special culture medium required to grow Bordetella pertussis is

Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar

516. Special culture medium required to grow Corynebacterium diphtheriae is

Tellurite or Loeffler’s agar

517. Special culture medium required to grow Neisseria gonorrhoeae is

Thayer-Martin (agar) media

518. Special culture medium required to grow Mycoplasma pneumoniae is

Eaton’s agar

519. Special culture medium required to grow Mycobacterium tuberculosis is

Lowenstein-Jensen agar

520. Special culture medium required to grow Legionella pneumophila is

Buffered charcoal-yeast- extract (BCYE) agar with iron and cysteine

521. Growth/differential medium required to grow and differentiate Escherichia coli from non-sterile body fluid/tissue is

MacConkey agar

522. Growth/differential medium required to grow and differentiate Staphylococcus aureus from non-sterile body fluid/tissue (e.g., skin, abscesses) is

Mannitol-salt agar

523. Nutrient rich medium required to support growth of fastidious organisms (e.g., Streptococus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis) from the sterile body fluid/tissue is

Chocolate agar

524. Special culture medium required to grow moulds or yeasts from a presumed fungal infection is

Sabouraud’s dextrose agar

525. Thee anaerobes, such as ABC (Actinomyces, Bacteroides, and Clostridium) organisms do not grow in presence of oxygen because they lack

Catalase and superoxide dismutase

526. The encapsulated bacteria (Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria meningitidis, Klebsiella pneumoniae, Streptococcus agalactae) are all virulent by virtue of the property of resistance to

Phagocytosis

527. Edema factor and lethal factor carried by protective antigen are associated with

Bacillus anthracis

528. A-B subunit toxin (plasmid encoded): ADP ribosylating activity is associated with

Bordetella pertussis

529. Neurotoxin toxin (prophage carrier) that caused flaccidparalysis is associated with

Clostridium botulinum

530. Enterotoxin A and cytotoxin B are syngerstically active in

Clostridium difficile

531. Phospholipase C and enterotoxin are non-synergistically (in different diseases) associated with various subspecies of

Clostridium perfringens

532. Peripheral neuro toxin causing spastic paralysis (carried in plasmid) is associated with

Clostridium tetani

533. A-B subunit toxin (carried in bacteriophage) causinginhibition of protein synthesis in target cells is associated with

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

534. Heat-labile toxin (LT, carried/coded in plasmid), heat-stabletoxin (ST, also carried/coded in plasmid), and Shiga-like toxin(carried/coded in bacteriophage) are non-synergistically associatedwith various toxic strains of

Escherichia coli

535. Exotoxin A is associated with a pyocyanin-producingGram-negative bacterial species:

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

536. Shiga toxin, an enterotoxin is associated with

Shigella dysenteriae

537. TSST-1, exfoliating toxin (carried in plasmid), alpha toxin

Staphylococcus aureus

538. Pyrogenic exotoxin SpeA, SpeC (carried in bacteriophage) and hemolysins O & S (general cytotoxins) are associated with

Streptococcus pyogenes (know also: M proteins surface virulence factor)

539. Gram-positive Cocci in pairs and chains are:

o Streptococcus (“Lancetshaped”:Streptococcuspneumoniae)o Enterococcuso Peptostreptococcus(anaerobe)

540. Gram-positive Cocci in Clusters are:

o Bacillus (large; aerobe)o Clostridium (“Box carshaped”:Clostridiumperfringens)o Corynebacterium(palisading; aerobe)o Propionibacterium(pleomorphic; anaerobe)o Listeria (small) o Nocardia (branching,filamentous, aerobe)o Actinomyces (branching,filamentous, anaerobe)

541. Gram-negative Cocci are

o Neisseria (diplococci:“kidney bean-shaped”)o Moraxella catarrhalis(diplococci)o Veillonella (anaerobe)

542. Gram-negative Rods are

o Enterobacteriaceae(E.coli, Klebsiella,Salmonella; “Safety pinshaped”:Yersinia pestis)o Pseudomonaso Bacteroides (anaerobe)o Fusobacterium (anaerobe)o Haemophilus(pleomorphic)o Brucella (coccobacillus)o Vibrio (curved)o Campylobacter (“Seagull”appearance)o Helicobacter (curved)

543. Facultative intracellular bacteria are non-susceptible toβ-lactam antibiotics and are commonly known species of :

Brucella, Francisella,Legionella, Mycobacterium,Yersinia

544. Non-envelope, icosahedral, smallest virus with linearsingle-stranded (ss-) DNA is

parvovirus B19

545. Non-envelope, icosahedral virus with circular doublestranded (ds-) DNA (super-coiled) is

papilloma viruses; JC, BKviruses

546. Enveloped, icosahedral virus with incomplete, circular dsDNAis

hepatitis B virus

547. Enveloped, icosahedral virus with linear, ds-DNA is

herpes viruses (e.g., HSV 1,2;VZV; CMV; EBV; HHV-6;HHV-8 (KSHV))

548. Enveloped (“Donut”-shaped), largest virus with helical,linear, ds-DNA is

smallpox

549. Non-enveloped, icosahedral virus with linear, positivepolarity,ss-RNA is

polioviruses; rhinoviruses;echoviruses;coxsackieviruses;enteroviruses; HAV

550. Non-enveloped, icosahedral ('Star of David') virus withlinear, positive-polarity, ss-RNA is

noroviruses

551. Enveloped, icosahedral virus with linear, positive-polarity,ss-RNA is

HCV; dengue virus; yellowfever virus; West Nile virus;Japanese encephalitis virus

552. Enveloped, icosahedral virus with linear, positive-polarity,ss-RNA is

rubella virus; Eastern equineencephalitis (EEE) and WEEviruses

553. Non-enveloped (“Rota” or wheel-shaped) icosahedral viruswith linear ds-RNA (10 segments) is

rotaviruses

554. Enveloped, helical virus with linear, negative polarity, ssRNA(8 segments) is

influenza viruses types A, B,and C

555. Enveloped, icosahedral virus with linear, positive-polarity,ss-RNA (diploid) is

HIV-1 and 2; HTLV-1 and 2

556. Enveloped, helical virus with linear, negative-polarity ssRNA(3 segments) is

Hantaan (Sin Nombre) virus

557. Enveloped (“crown”-shaped virus), helical virus with linear,positive-polarity, ss-RNA is

SARS Corona virus type 4

558. Enveloped (“bullet”-shaped virus), helical virus with linear,negative-polarity, ss-RNA is

rabies virus

559. Enveloped, complex virus with linear, negative-polarity, ssRNAis

Marburg and Ebola viruses

560. Enveloped (largest RNA viruses), helical virus with linear,negative-polarity, ss-RNA is

Paraifluenza viruses, Mumps,Measles, RSV

561. Outbreaks of Acinetobacter infections typically occur inintensive care units and healthcare settings housing:

Very ill patients

562. People with certain health conditions, like weakenedimmune systems or chronic lung diseases (particularly cysticfibrosis), may be more susceptible to infections with

Burkholderia cepacia.

563. Burkholderia cepacia bacteria are often resistant to

common antibiotics

564. Diarrhea and fever are the most common symptoms of

Clostridium difficile infection

565. The most important risk for getting Clostridiumdifficile infection in health-care settings is overuse of

antibiotics

566. A family of Gram-negative bacteria that are difficult to treathealth care-associated infections because they have high levels ofresistance to antibiotics.

Carbapenem-resistantEnterobacteriaceae (CRE)

567. Carbapenem-resistant Enterobacteriaceae are

Klebsiella speciesand Escherichia coli

568. Gram-negative bacteria cause pneumonia, bloodstreaminfections, wound or surgical site infections, and meningitis in

healthcare settings

569. In medical facilities, MRSA causes life-threateningbloodstream infections, pneumonia and

surgical site infections

570. Community-acquired CA-MRSA isolates contain thevirulence factor Panton-Valentine leukocidin (PVL) and carry

staphylococcal cassettechromosome(SCC) mec genes

571. Patients colonized (nare) with MRSA, in health-caresettings are advised to use chlorohexidine, gluconate scrub,povidone iodine, and

mupirocin ointment for 5 days

572. Products that are used to remove soil, dirt, dust, organicmatter, and germs (like bacteria, viruses, and fungi) are

Cleaners or detergents

573. Cleaners or detergents work by washing the surface to liftdirt and organisms off

surfaces (so they can berinsed away with water)

574. Products used to reduce organisms from surfaces but nottotally get rid of them (considered safe) are

Sanitizers

577. Chemical products that destroy or inactivate germs and preventthem from growing (also used after cleaning for surfaces thathave visible blood or drainage from infected skin) are

Disinfectants

578. Disinfectants are regulated by the

Environmental ProtectionAgency (EPA).

579.Pruritus is the most common symptom of head lice infestation andis caused by an allergic reaction to bites by

Pediculus humanus capitis

580.Lice infestations (pediculosis and pthiriasis) are spread mostcommonly by

close person-to-person contact

581.The life cycle of the head louse has three stages:

egg,nymph, and adult

582. Nits, heads lice eggs, are laid by the adult female and are cementedat the base of the

hair shaft nearest the scalp

583.The egg hatches to release a nymph. The nit shell then becomes amore visible dull yellow and remains attached to the

hair shaft

584. Nymphs mature after three molts and become adults about

7 days after hatching

585. The adult louse is tan to grayish-white, about the size of a sesame seed, and has legs numbering:

6 (each with claws)

586.Treatment for head lice is recommended for persons diagnosed with

an active infestation

587.Apply lice medicine, also called pediculicide, using prescription medication(s):

Benzyl alcohol, 5% or ivermectin, 0.5% or malation,0.5% or spinosad 0.9%

588.Body lice infestations (pediculosis) are spread most commonly by close person-to-person contact but are generally limited to persons who live under conditions of

crowding and poor hygiene

589.The only treatment needed for body lice infestations is

Improved hygiene and regularchanges of clean clothes