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328 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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privacy
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freedom from unauthorized intrusion
(p. 173) |
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Where does it state privacy in the US constitution?
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nowhere, however, it is derived from 1st, 3rd, 4th, 5th. 9th, 14th amendments
(p. 173) |
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1st Amendment
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"Congress should make no law respectin and establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press, or the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the Gov't for a redress of grievances." (p. 174)
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3rd Amendment
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"No soldier shall, in time of peace be quartered in any house, without of consent of the owner, nor in time of war, but in a manner to be prescribed by law." (p. 174)
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4th Amendment
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"The right of people to be secure in their persons, houses, papers, and effects, against unreasonable searches and seizures, shall not be violated and no warrants shall issue, but upon probable cause, supported by Oath or affirmation, and particually described the pace to be searched, and the persons or things to be seized," Protection from unreasonable searches (p. 174)
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5th Amendment
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Amendment that produces, Miranda warning, and applies solely to criminal arrests and prosecutions. Because medical malpractice cases are heard in civil courts (p. 1750
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9th Amendment
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"the enumeration in the constitution of certain rights, shall not be construed to deny or disparage others retained by the people. Some believe this is a right to health care or housing are implicit. (p. 175)
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14th Amendment
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"all persons born or naturalized in the US, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the US and of the state wherein they reside. Nor shall any state deprive any persons life, liberty, or property without due process of law. (p. 175)
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What are the 4 points of the Federal Privacy Law?
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1. Information gathered about a person by government should be only for necessary for business.
2. access to info should be for only people who need for their job function 3. Information should not be released outside organization (without authorization) 4. Person should know info is being collected and check accuracy. (p. 176) |
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What are the circumstances that led to the 1996 passage of HIPAA?
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1. Healthcare is complex business, billing, coding, software programs
2. Nurses took on health care service and administration duties, less time for patients 3. High cost of malpractice insurance 4. people upset with the rising costs of medical care (p. 178-9) |
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covered entities
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Health Care providers and clearinghouses that transmit HIPAA transactions electronically, and must comply with HIPAA standards and rules. (p. 179)
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What do covered entities include?
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Hospitals, Nursing Homes, Hospice, Pharmacies, Physician and dental practices, Chiropractors, podiatrists, osteopaths, PT, Labs, Health plans, Health care clearinghouses, Alternative medicine practitioners. -> covered entities are people, businesses, or agencies that must comply with HIPAA(pg179)
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covered transactions
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Electronic exchanges of information between two covered entitybusiness partners using HIPAA- mandated transaction standards (p. 180)
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Designated record set
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records maintained by or for HIPAA covered entity. (p. 180)
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Notice of Privacy Practices (NPP)
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A written document detailing a health care provider's privacy practices. (p. 180)
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protected health information (PHI)
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Information that contains one or more patient identifiers. (p. 180)
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de-identify
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to remove all information that identified patients from health care transactions (p. 180)
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Items that make patient's medical record identifiable?
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name, zip, DOB, Dates of treatment, TN, Fax #, E-mail, SS #, Medical record number, health plan beneficiary #, Birth certificate #, Driver's License, VIN, plate #, web site, fingerprint, voiceprint, photos. (p. 181)
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state preemption
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If a state's privacy law are stricter than HIPAA privacy standards, the state laws take precedence. (p. 182)
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treatment. payment, and health care operations (TPO)
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a HIPAA term for qualified providers, disclosure of PHI to obtain reimbursement, and activities and transactions among entities. (p. 182)
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treatment
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means health care provider can provide care (p. 182)
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payment
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means that a provider can disclose PHI to be reimbursesd. (p. 182)
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health care operations
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operations refers to HIPAA approved activities and transactions. (p. 182)
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Distinguish between covered entities and covered transactions.
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entities= facilities or providers that tranmit HIPAA information
transactions= electronic exchanges of information (p. 179 - 180) |
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covered transactions
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Electronic exchanges of information between two covered-entity business partners using HIPAA-mandated transactions standards. (p. 180)
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Are business associates covered entities?
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No, but covered entities with associates to do work on their behalf. It must have contracts that must specify the steps to safeguard protected health information. (p. 182)
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standard
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a general requirement under HIPAA (p. 183)
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rule
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a document that includes the HIPAA standards or requirements. (p. 183)
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What services can business associates of covered entities include?
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accounting, accreditation, benefit management, billing, claims, consulting, data aggregation and analysis, dictation and transcription, legal consultation, practice management, processing or administration, QA, repricing, utilization review. (p. 183)
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What are the 4 HIPAA Standards?
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1. Transactions and Code Sets
2. Privacy Rule 3. Security Rule 4. National Identifier Standards (p. 183) |
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What is the purpose of the HIPAA standard Transactions and code sets?
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Primary goal is Administrative Simplification. Provides for uniformity and simplification of billing and coding for health care services, and requires the use of standard formats and data content for transmitting files electronically. (p. 183)
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What is the purpose of the HIPAA standard around Privacy Rule?
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Protecting the privacy of patient identifying information in any form or medium. Gives certain rights to patients. (p. 183)
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What is the purpose of the HIPAA standard around Security Rule?
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Provides for the security of electronic Protected Health Information (ePHI) by requiring general and specific protections for data stored and transmitted electronically. ie firewalls, antivirus software, encryption, password protection (p. 183)
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transaction
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transmission of information between two parties for financial or administrative activities. (p. 184)
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Code Set
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Under HIPAA, terms that provide for uniformity and simplification of health care billing and record keeping. (p. 184)
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What are the 4 code set categories
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1. Coding for disease, health problems, or impairments
2. causes of injuries, disease, impairments, or other health problems 3. Actions to prevent, diagnose, treat, manage the above 4. Substances, equipment, supplies, or other items to perform these actions. (p. 184) |
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electronic transmission
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the sending of information from one network-connected computer to another. (p. 184)
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electronic data interchange (EDI)
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the use of uniform electronic network protocols to transfer business information between organizations via computer networks. (p. 184)
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Who is responsible to make sure the health care providers can send and receive information using standard data formats and data content?
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Health care providers, not software vendors, are responsible for compliance. (p. 184)
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According to HIPAA, a health care provider will have how many full time employees to be required to file electronically for medicare?
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10, unless "no method (was) available) to file electronically. In which case they should be filed by paper. (p. 184)
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Under HIPAA, if a health care provider conducts one of the following general types of covered transactions electronically, that provider must use the HIPAA standards
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1. Claims or encounter information
2. Eligibility requests 3. Referrals and authorizations 4. Claim status inquires (p. 185) |
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What types of transactions must Health Plans and clearinghouses be able to do?
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1. Claims or encounter information
2. Eligibility requests 3. Referrals and authorizations 4. Claim status inquires 5. Premium payment 6. Claim payment and remittance advice 7. Enrollment and disenrollment 8. Coordination of benefits (p. 185) |
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What are the advantages to using EDI protocols to transmit PHI electronically?
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1. EDI protocols ensure that protected information travels between the right computers in a common language.
2. EDI protocols are compatible with firewall and encryption features that help ensure confidentiality of PHI. (p. 185) |
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Advantages of uniform transaction formats and code sets
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1. consistent language to identify disease
2. helps HHS track disease trends 3. speeds payment process 4. communications without delay 5. evaluate care and track drugs 6. once coding learned, makes easier on employees (p. 185) |
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permission
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a reason under HIPAA for disclosing patient information. (p. 186)
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What does it mean to USE PHI?
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to USE PHI means that you use patients' protected health information within the facility where you work in the normal course of conducting business. (p. 186)
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What does it mean to DISCLOSE PHI?
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to DISCLOSE PHI means the patients' protected health information is sent outside of the office for legitimate business or health care reasons.
(p. 186) |
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Are privacy and anonymity the same?
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No, as per the case with the US attorney General who was denied medical records even when the identifying information was removed. (p. 186)
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What are the 11 HIPAA- defined permissions?
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1. Required Disclosure
2. Disclosures to Patients 3. Use or Disclosure for treatment, payment, or health care operations 4. Others' treatment, payment, operations 5. Personal representatives (friends and family 6. Disaster relief organizations 7. Incident Disclosures 8. Public Purpose 9. Authorizations 10. De-identification 11. Limited data set (pgs. 186 -190) |
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Which of the 4 HIPAA standards is most concerned with confidentiality and medical records?
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The Privacy Rule (p. 185)
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What are two required disclosures of health care information that HIPAA mandates?
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1. disclose PHI o representatives from HHS what want to see your books, records, accounts, and other documents
2. PHI must be disclosed to patient if they request it, unless it would do harm to them. Written requests are best (p186 - 187) |
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limited data set
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Protected health information from which certain patient identifiers have been removed. (p. 190)
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What part of medical record do patients NOT have the right to access?
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1. Psychotherapy Notes
2. Records compiled for civil/criminal cases, or administrated action 3. records exempt from Clinical Lab Act (p. 187) |
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Under HIPAA, a patient cannot challenge a decision to deny access to his or her PHI if.....
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1. It is restricted by exceptions
2. Patient is prison inmate 3. PHI is government record 4. PHI obtained under promise of confidentiality. 5. PHI was obtained through clinical research that includes treatment. (p. 187) |
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what are the 8 circumstances that apply concerning PHI disclosure to law enforcement officials?
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1. gunshot wounds, abuse
2. warrant or process 3. Government agency request 4. Identifying a suspect or material witness 5. Victims of a crime 6. Suspicious death 7. Crime on the premises 8. medical emergency (p. 189- 190) |
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Under HIPAA, a patient cannot challenge a decision to deny access to his or her PHI if.....
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1. It is restricted by exceptions
2. Patient is prison inmate 3. PHI is government record 4. PHI obtained under promise of confidentiality. 5. PHI was obtained through clinical research that includes treatment. (p. 187) |
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what are the 8 circumstances that apply concerning PHI disclosure to law enforcement officials?
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1. gunshot wounds, abuse
2. warrant or process 3. Government agency request 4. Identifying a suspect or material witness 5. Victims of a crime 6. Suspicious death 7. Crime on the premises 8. medical emergency (p. 189- 190) |
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minimum necessary
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Term referring tot he limited amount of patient information that may be disclosed, depending on circumstances. (p. 191)
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If the state and federal laws conflict on patient privacy..which law do you follow?
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You must follow either the law that offers the greater privacy protection or that which offers more patient rights. (p. 193)
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What are the 6 patient rights under the HIPAA Privacy Rule?
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1. Access to medical records and the right to copy them
2. Requests for amendment to designed set of records 3. Request for an accounting of disclosures of PHI 4. Requests to be contacted at an alternate location 5. Requests for further restrictions on who has access to PHI 6. Right to file a complaint (p. 194) |
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What should you do if a patient calls with a complaint?
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Refer the complaint to the Privacy Officer. Document the complaint in a privacy complaint log. Evaluate the complaint and determine how best to solve it. (p. 194)
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firewalls
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Hardware, software, or both designed to prevent unauthorized persons from accessing electronic information.
(p. 195) |
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encryption
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The scrambling or encoding of information before sending it electronically. (p. 195)
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What does HIPAA stand for?
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Health and Insurance Portability & Accountability Act 1996 (p. 178)
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Which department of the federal government is responsible for supervising HIPAA compliance and implementation?
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US Dept of Health and Human Services (HHS) (p. 179)
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Which government agency are patient complaints about privacy directed?
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Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services. (CMS) (p. 179)
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Which of the four HIPAA standards addresses Administrative Simplification?
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the first, transactions and code sets.
(p. 183) |
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vital statistics
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numbers collected for the population of live births, deaths, fetal deaths, marriages, divorces, induced terminations of pregnancy, and any change in civil status that occurs during an individual's lifetime. (p. 209)
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autopsy
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A postmortem examination to determine the cause of death or to obtain physiological evidence, as in the case of suspicious death. (p. 210)
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coroner
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A public official who investigates and holds inquests over those who die from unknown or violent causes; he or she may be or may not be a physician, depending on state law. (p. 213)
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medical examiner
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A physician who investigates suspicious or unexplained deaths.
(p. 213) |
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forensics
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A division of medicine that incorporates law and medicine and involves medical issues or medical proof at trials having to do with malpractice, crimes, and accidents. (p. 213)
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Where are birth certificates and death certificates filed?
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1. live birth is reported to state registrar
2. Deaths are with the state as well (p. 210) |
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What are 4 circumstances in which a physician would not sign a death certificate?
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1. if death possibly due to criminal cause
2. Not attended by a physician within specified time before death 3. Due to causes undetermined by the physician 4. Violent or otherwise suspicious In these cases the coroner or medical examiner signs the death certificate (p. 210) |
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administer
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To instill a drug into the body of a patient. (p. 217)
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National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act
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A federal law passed in 1986 that created a no-fault compensation program for citizens injured or killed by vaccines, as an alternative to suing vaccine manufacturers and providers.
(p. 219) |
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National Vaccine Injury Compensation Program (VICP)
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A no-fault federal system of compensation for individuals or families of individuals injured by childhood vaccinations. (p. 219)
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Child Abuse Prevention and Treatment Act
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A federal law passed in 1974 requiring physicians to report cases of child abuse and to try to prevent future cases. (p. 221)
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Amendments to the Older Americans Act
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A 1987 federal act that defines elder abuse, neglect, and exploitation, but does not deal with enforcement.
(p. 222) |
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Unborn Victims of Violence Act
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Also called Laci and Conner's Act, a 2004 federal law that provides for the prosecution of anyone who causes injury to or the death of a fetus in utero.
(p. 222) |
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Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
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a federal agency within the Department of health and human services that oversees drug quality and standardization and must approve drugs before they are released for public use.
(p. 223) |
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Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA)
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A branch of the US Department of Justice that regulates the sale and use of drugs.
(p. 223) |
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Controlled Substances Act
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The federal law giving authority to the Drug Enforcement Agency to regulate the sale and use of drugs (p 224)
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prescribe
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to issue a medical prescription for a patient.
(p. 224) |
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dispense
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to deliver controlled substances in some type of bottle, box, or other container to a patient.
(p. 224) |
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employment-at-will
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a concept of employment whereby either the employer or the employee can end the employment at any time for any reason.
(p. 234) |
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wrongful discharge
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A concept established by precedent that says an employer risks litigation if he or she does not have a just cause for firing an employee (p. 234)
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just cause
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An employers legal reason for firing an employee (p. 234)
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public policy
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the common law concept of wrongful discharge when an employee has acted for the "common good" (p. 235)
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discrimination
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Prejudiced or prejudicial outlook, action, or treatment.
(p. 235) |
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affirmative action
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Programs that use goals and quotas to provide preferential treatment for minority persons determined to have been under utilized in the past
(p. 237) |
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Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
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Established by the occupational safety and health act of 1970, the organization that is charged with writing and enforcing compulsory standards for health and safety in the workplace. (p. 239)
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right to know laws
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State laws that allow employees access to information about toxic or hazardous substances, employer duties, employee rights, and other workplace health and safety issues.
(p. 241) |
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Hazard Communications Standard (HCS)
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An OSHA standard intended to increase health care practitioners' awareness of risks, improve work practices and appropriate use of personal protection equipment, and reduce injuries and illnesses in the workplace.
(p. 241) |
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General Duty Clause
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A section of the Hazard Communication Standard stating that any equipment that may pose a health risk must be specified as a hazard.
(p. 242) |
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Chemical Hygiene Plan
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The Standard for Occupational Exposures to Hazardous Chemicals in Laboratories, which clarifies the handling of hazardous chemicals in medical laboratories.
(p. 242) |
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Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogen Standard
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An OSHA regulation designed to protect health care workers from the risk of exposure to bloodborne pathogens
(p. 242) |
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Medical Waste Tracking Act
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The federal law that authorizes OSHA to inspect hazardous medical wastes and to cite offices for unsafe or unhealthy practices regarding these wastes.
(p. 243) |
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Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA)
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Also called Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments. Federal statue passed in 1988 that establishes minimum quality standards for all laboratory testing.
(p. 244) |
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workers' compensation
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A form of insurance established by federal and state statutes that provides reimbursement for workers who are injured on the job.
(p. 244) |
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surety bond
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a type of insurance that allows employers, if covered, to collect up to the specified amount of the bond if an employee embezzles or otherwise absconds with business funds
(p. 247) |
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genetics
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the science that accounts for natural differences and resemblances among organisms related by descent.
(p. 255) |
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heredity
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the process by which organisms pass genetic traits on to their offspring.
(p. 255) |
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DNA (Deoxyribonucleic acid)
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The combination of proteins, called nucleotides, that is arrnaged to make up an organism's chromosomes.
(p. 255) |
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chromosomes
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a microscopic structure found within the nucleus of a plant or animal cell that carries genes responsible for the organism's characteristics.
(p. 256) |
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gene
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A tiny segment of DNA found on a chromosome in a cell, Each gene holds the formula for making a specific molecule. (p. 257)
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genome
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All the DNA in an organism, including its genes.
(p. 257) |
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Human Genome Project
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A scientific project funded by the US Government, begun in 1990 and successfully completed in 2000, for the purpose of mapping all of the human's genes.
(p. 257) |
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amniocentesis
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A test whereby the physician withdraws a sample of amniotic fluid (the fluid surrounding the developing fetus inside the mother's womb) from the uterous of a pregnant woman. The fluid is then tested for genetic or other conditions that may lead to abnormal development of the fetus.
(p. 257) |
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genetic counselor
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An expert in human genetics who is qualified to counsel individuals who may have inherited genes for certain diseases or conditions.
(p. 257) |
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genetic discrimination
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Differential treatment of individuals based on their actual or presumed genetic differences.
(p. 258) |
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genetic engineering
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Manipulation of DNA within the cells of plants and animals, through synthesis, alteration, or repair, to ensure that certain harmful traits will be eliminated in offspring and tht desirable traits will appear and be passed on.
(p. 259) |
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clone
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an organism produces asexually, usually from a since cell of the parent.
(p. 260) |
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cloning
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The process by which organisms are created asexually, usually from a single cell of the parent organism.
(p. 260) |
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xenotransplantation
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Transplantation of animal tissue and organs into humans.
(p. 260) |
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stem cells
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Cells that have the potential to become any type of body cell.
(p. 260) |
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gene therapy
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treating harmful genetic diseases or traits by eliminating or modifying the harmful gene.
(p. 262) |
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infertility
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the failure to conceive for a period of 12 months or longer due to a deviation from or interruption of the normal structure or function of any reproductive part, organ, or system.
(p. 263) |
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in vitro fertilization (IVF)
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Fertilization that takes place outside a woman's body, literally "in glass" as in a test tube.
(p. 263) |
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artificial insemination
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the mechanical injection of viable semen into the vagina.
(p. 263) |
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homologous artificial insemination
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the process in which a husband's sperm is mechanically injected into his wife's vagina to fertilize her eggs.
(p. 263) |
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heterologous artificial insemination
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the process which donor sperm is mechanically injected into a woman's vagina to fertilize her eggs.
(p. 263) |
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surrogate mother
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a woman who becomes pregnant, usually by artificial insemination or surgical implantation of a fertilized egg, and bears a child for another woman.
(p. 263) |
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parents patriae
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a legal doctrine that gives the state the authority to act in a child's best interest.
(p. 266) |
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safe haven laws
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state laws that allow mothers to abandon newborns to designated safe facilities without penalty.
(p. 266) |
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List 3 procedures that might be available for infertile couples
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1. In Vito - egg and sperm brought together outside the body
2. Surrogacy - another woman carries 3. Artificial Insemination- sperm inserted to vagina (p. 263) |
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What are the 4 types of adoption
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1. International- from other countries
2. Agency adoptions- 3. Independent or private- done with out an adoption agency 4. Identified Adoptions- adoptive parents seek out a birth mother. |
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mature minors
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individuals in their mid to late teens who, for health care purposes, are considered mature enough o comprehend a physician's recommendation and give informed consent.
(p. 268) |
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emancipated minors
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individuals in their mid to late teens who legally live outside of parents' or guardians' control.
(p. 268) |
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what are 3 criteria for emancipation of a minor?
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1. they are self supporting
2. they are legally married, 3. serving in the armed forces (p. 268) |
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In what treatments areas are minors most likely to make their own health care decisions?
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mental health, drug and alcohol addiction, treatment for STDs, pregnancy, and contraceptives.
(p. 268) |
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Uniform Determination of Death Act
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A proposal that established uniform guidelines for determining when death has occurred.
(p. 279) |
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brain death
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final cessation of bodily activity used to determine when death actually occurs, circulatory and respiratory functions have irreversibly ceased, and the entire brain (including the brain stem) has irreversibly ceased to function.
(p. 280) |
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coma
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a condition of deep stupor from which the patient cannot be roused by external stimuli
(p. 280) |
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persistent vegetative state (PVS)
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Severe mental impairment characterized by irreversible cessation of the higher functions of the brain, most often caused by damage to the cerebral cortex. (p. 280)
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terminally ill
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referring to patients who are expected to die within 6 months.
(p. 281) |
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What are 6 signs a physician must test that may indicate death has occured?
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1. Cannot breathe without assistance
2. Has no coughing or gagging reflex 3. Has no pupil response to light 4. Has no blinking reflex when the cornea is touched 5. Has no grimace reflex when the head is rotated or ears flushed with ice water 6. Has no response to pain (p. 280) |
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What is the difference between coma and persistent vegetative state?
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Coma a patient can come out of because its like their brains are sleeping, PVS has damage to the higher functions of the brain and there is no likelihood of recovery.
(p. 280) |
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thanatology
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The study of death and of the psychological methods of coping with it.
(p. 282) |
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Uniform Rights of the terminally Ill Act
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A federal statute passed in 1989 to guide state legislatures in constructing laws to address advance directives.
(p. 284) |
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active euthanasia
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A conscious medical act that results in the death of a dying person.
(p. 286) |
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passive euthanasia
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the act of allowing a dying patient to die naturally, without medical interference. (p. 286)
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voluntary euthanasia
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the act of ending a dying patient's life by medical means with his or her permission.
(p. 286) |
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involuntary euthanasia
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The act of ending a terminal patient's life by medical means without his or her permission.
(p. 286) |
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palliative care
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treatment of a terminally ill patient;s symptoms in order to make dying more comfortable; also called comfort care.
(p. 287) |
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curative care
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treatment directed toward curing a patient's disease.
(p. 288) |
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hospice
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A facility or program (often carried out in a patients home) in which teams of health care practitioners and volunteers provide a continuing environment that focuses on the physical, emotional, and psychological needs of the dying patient.
(p. 288) |
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what is the difference between palliative and curative care?
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palliative treats the symptoms to keep the patient comfortable
curative treats the disease (p. 287-8) |
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living will
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An advance directive that specifies an individual's end of life wishes
(p. 290) |
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durable power of attorney
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An advanced directive that confers upon a designee the authority to make a variety of legal decisions on behalf of the grantor, usually including health care decisions.
(p. 291) |
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health care proxy
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A durable power of attorney issued for purposes of health care decisions only.
(p. 291) |
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Patient Self Determination Act
|
a federal law passed in 1990 that requires hospitals and other health care providers to provide written information to patients regarding their rights under state law to make medical decisions and execute advance directives.
(p. 289) |
|
|
National Organ transplant Act
|
Passed in 1984, a statute that provides grants to qualified organ procurement organizations and established an Organ Procurement and Transplantation Network
(p. 293) |
|
|
Uniform Anatomical Gift Act
|
A national statute allowing individuals to donate their bodies or body parts, after death, for use in transplant surgery, tissue banks, or medical research or education.
(p. 294 |
|
|
why do we track vital statistics?
|
1. track population composition and growth,
2. measuring educational standards 3. monitor communicable diseases and other community health problems. (p. 209) |
|
|
at what point in a pregnancy much you get to in order for a still birth record to be created?
|
20th
(p. 210) |
|
|
who files the birth certificate?
|
1. If in a hospital, then the physician
2. If elsewhere, a witness to the birth files this. (p. 210) |
|
|
what does the medical portion of the death certificate contain, and who fills it out?
|
the doctor fills it out.
It contains: 1. disease injury and complications that caused the death and how long treated 2.date and time 3, place 4. if autopsy is performed (p. 210) |
|
|
Is family consent needed for autopsy under suspicious circumstances?
|
NO. However, if death did not occur under suspicious circumstances, then consent is required (p. 210)
|
|
|
If person not under medical care when death occurs, who fills out the death certificate?
|
the coroner or the medical examiner. (p. 213)
|
|
|
what are some topics of study for forensic medicine?
|
forensic pharmacology, doping control, postmortem toxicology, blood spatter interpretation, DNA analysis, and expert testimony procedures.
(p. 213) |
|
|
what are some communicable diseases that need to be reported to the county and state health departments?
|
diphtheria, cholera, meningococcal menigitis, plage, smallpox, TB, anthrax, HIV, AIDS, brucellosis, hepatitis, leprosy, malaria, rubeola, polio, psittacosis, rheumatic fever, rubells, typhoid fever, trichinosis & tetanus. STDs (p. 216)
|
|
|
Does a person with HIV have to tell sexual partners they have HIV before having sex with them?
|
yes, it is paramount to driving drunk and killing someone (p. 216)
|
|
|
National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act of 1986
|
a no fault system designed to compensate those individuals, or families of individuals, who have been injured by childhood vaccines. (p. 219)
|
|
|
What vaccinations were covered in the National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act?
|
diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, measles, mumps, rubella, and polio
1999->hep B, influenza B, varicella, rotavirus, and pneumococcal conjugate vaccines. (p. 219) |
|
|
How is Hep B vaccination given?
|
4 doses, 1 soon after birth, 1 mo of age, 4 mo, 6-18 mo. (p. 219)
|
|
|
How is Haemophilis influenza type b vaccination given?
|
Given at age 4 mo and 2 years (p. 219)
|
|
|
When is Diphtheria, Tetanus, and Pertussis (DTP) vaccination given?
|
2, 4, 6 mo, then
15-18 mo and 4-6 yr booster at 11 (diphtheria/tetanus) (p. 219) |
|
|
What is vaccination schedule for Polio?
|
4 doses
2mo, 4 mo, 6-18 mo, 4-6 yr (p. 219) |
|
|
What is the vaccination schedule for Measles, Mumps, and Rubella (MMR)?
|
2 doses
12-15 mo 4-6 yrs (p. 219) |
|
|
What is the vaccination schedule for Varicella?
|
anytime after 12-18 mo.
(p. 219) |
|
|
What is the vaccination schedule for Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV7)?
|
4 doses
2, 4, 6 mo, and 12-15 mo. (p. 219) |
|
|
What is vaccination schedule for Hep A?
|
Only given to children and adults in select states and to certain high risk groups.
(p. 219) |
|
|
What is the vaccination schedule for Influenza?
|
annually ages 6-23 mo
|
|
|
What is the vaccination schedule for Human Papilloma Virus (HPV)?
|
Generally give to girls before they become sexually active. 9-26 yrs
(p. 219) |
|
|
What are some reasons a child might be excluded form the vaccination programs?
|
1. HIV
2. organ transplant 3. allergies to eggs used to prepare 4. in some states its easy to opt out if parents do not want to vaccinate on non-medical grounds. (p. 220) |
|
|
What is documented in permanent medical record when vaccinations are given?
|
1.Date given
2. vaccine manufacturer 3. Vaccine lot number 4. name, address, and title of the health care provider who administered the vaccine. (p. 220) |
|
|
When should a health care provider report vaccinations to the CDC? how?
|
they use the Vaccine Averse Events Reporting System (VAERS).
1. any event listed on the injury table 2. any contraindicating events listed in package insert. (p. 220) |
|
|
In most states, what is the reprecussion for not reporting suspected child abuse?
|
It may be a misdemeanor
(p. 221) |
|
|
Is a physician required to report spousal abuse?
|
No, unless the spouse states that his or her injuries were a result of spousal abuse. (p. 221)
|
|
|
What are some Physical Signs of abuse?
|
unexplained fractures, repeat injuries in unusual places and shaped like buckles, hairbrushes, electric cords, burns, friction burns caused by rope or cord, bite marks, torn or bloody underwear, pain or bruising in genital area, unexplained venereal disease, malnutrion, dehydration, dry skin, red-rimmed, sunken eyes.
(p. 223) |
|
|
What are some behavior signs of abuse?
|
1. Illogical or unreasonable excuses for injuries
2. frequent changing physicians or missing appointments 3. attempts to hide injuries with heavy make up or sunglasses 4. Frequent anxiety, depression, or loss of emotional control 5. Changes in appetite, problems at school or on the job. (p. 223) |
|
|
the Controlled Substances Act requires physicians who purchase, prescribe, dispense, and administer controlled drugs to follow what procedures?
|
1. Register with the DEA and get a registrations #
2. Keep records for 2 years 3. Note in chart when controlled substances were prescribed 4. Make a written inventory of supplies every 2 years and keep it for 2 years. 5. Keep drugs locked in cabinet or safe and report thefts immediately to DEA office and police. (p. 224) |
|
|
Schedule I Drugs
|
Used strictly for research; often no medical use, and have a high potential for abuse.
Ex: heroin, lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), marijuana, and methaqualone. (p. 225) |
|
|
Potential abuse of a Schedule I drug is determined by what criteria?
|
1. drugs are taken in an amount to be hazardous to health or to affect safety of others.
2. significant diversion of drug from legitimate drug channels 3. person is taking drug on own initiative rather than medical advice 4 New drug similar to one that is already has same potential for abuse. (p. 225) |
|
|
Schedule II Drugs
|
Potential for abuse is high, but there are accepted medical uses for drug. Potential for psychological and physical dependence.
Ex: morphine, phencyclidine (PCP), cocaine, methadone, and methamphetamine. IIn= Dexedrine, Desoxyn, Preludin, Ritalin, and pentobarbitol. (p. 225) |
|
|
Schedule III Drugs
|
Less potential for abuse that I and II, and has currently accepted medical uses in the US. moderate physical dependence, high psychological dependence
Ex: anabolic steroids, codeine and hydrocodone with aspirin or Tylenol and some barbituates; IIIn glutethhimide, methyprylong, and barbutuates not on the III (p. 225) |
|
|
Schedule IV Drugs
|
Low potential for abuse and has accepted medical uses.
Ex: Darvon, Talwin, Equanil, Valium & Xanax (p. 225) |
|
|
Schedule V Drugs
|
low potential for abuse, has medical use.
Ex. antitussive, antidiarrheal, and analgesic drugs (p. 225) |
|
|
Which schedule of drugs are not allowed to have refills?
|
Schedule II
Schedule I are not prescribed. (p. 225) |
|
|
When a physician retires, what should he do with his controlled substance registration certificate, order forms, and any remaining controlled substances?
|
Return it to the DEA and they should be marked VOID.
For the substances, contact the local DEA office for disposal (p. 226) |
|
|
When state and federal laws differ on controlled substances, which should the physician follow?
|
the more stringent regulation must be followed. (p. 226)
|
|
|
What is the punishment for violating the law dealing with state or federally controlled substances?
|
It is a criminal offense and can result in fines, jail sentence, loss of license to practice. All employees should know the state and federal laws dealing with narcotics.
(p. 226) |
|
|
What is the role of medical assistant concerning compliance with DEA regulations?
|
1. remind physician of license renewal dates
2. keep accurate records for scheduled drugs. 3. maintain accurate inventory and inventory records 4. Ensure the security if scheduled drugs kept in the office (p. 226) |
|
|
autonomy
|
individual's right to make his or her own decisions (p. 226)
|
|
|
beneficence
|
moral obligation to act in ways that promote the health and welfare of others.
(p. 226) |
|
|
Examples of public data collected by law from physicians include..
|
births, deaths, rapes, and assults
(online quiz) |
|
|
If a patient dies of natural causes while under his or her physician's care who completes the medical portion of the death certificate?
|
the attending physician
(online quiz) |
|
|
under what legal basis does the federal government regulate the sale and use of drugs?
|
The controlled Substances Act
(online quiz) |
|
|
What federal agency is responsible for testing and approving drugs before releasing them for public use?
|
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
(online quiz) |
|
|
Who is the Notice of Privacy Practices (NNP) for?
|
Its for the patient to read and it is requested they sign it and a copy is put in their medical record.
(0p. 180 and online quiz) |
|
|
When is the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) entitles to PHI
|
When safety, quality, or effectiveness such as reporting adverse events, product defects, product recalls, or monitoring patient response to drugs.
(p. 189 and online quiz) |
|
|
If a computer hacker is found to have accessed and downloaded information about patients, who would be contacted?
|
The security offices is responsible for ensuring electronic medical records are not accessible to unauthorized people.
(online quiz) |
|
|
What does HIPPA stand for?
|
Health and Insurance Portability and Accountability Act 1996 (p. 178)
|
|
|
What are 8 federal recommendations for filing a birth or death certificate?
|
1. Type legibly, black ink
2. leave no blanks 3. avoid corrections and erasures 4.signatures, not rubber stamps 5.file only originals w. state registrar 6. verify name spelling 7. avoid abbreviations 8. refer problems to appropriate state officials. (p. 210) |
|
|
What is the difference between coroner and medical examiner.
|
medical examiner- physician
coroner- may or may not be Both investigate suspicious deaths (p. 213) |
|
|
What is the purpose of the coroner's inquest?
|
to find out what happened to those who dies from unknown or violent causes.
(p. 213) |
|
|
List 5 non-cummunicable diseases that must be reported in some states.
|
1. cancer
2. epilepsy congential metabolic disorders such as 3. phenylketonuria 4. congential hypothyroidism 5. galactosemia (p. 217) |
|
|
Which schedule of drugs is the most addictive?
|
Schedule I
|
|
|
Who tests and approves drugs for public use?
|
The Food and Drug Administration
(p. 223) |
|
|
What Act is also know as the Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970?
|
Controlled Substances Act
(p. 224) |
|
|
As a branch of the Department of Justice, who regulates the sale and use of drugs?
|
the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)
(p.223) |
|
|
What requires the reporting of communicable disease and certain injuries as mandated by state laws?
|
public health statutes
(p. 215) |
|
|
What law mandates the reporting of child abuse?
|
Child Abuse Prevention and Treatment Act of 1974
(p. 221) |
|
|
What created a no-fault compensation program for citizens injured or killed by vaccines, as an alternative to suing vaccine manufacturers and providers?
|
National Childhood Vaccination Injury Act of 1986
(p. 219) |
|
|
What is the federal law that makes killing or injuring a fetus a crime separated from killing or injuring the pregnant mother?
|
Unborn Victims of Violence Act
(p. 222) |
|
|
What types of things would be considered "common good" when talking about lawsuits brought by fired employee?
|
whistleblowing
refusal to commit an illegal act exercising a private right performing a legal duty (p. 235) |
|
|
Federal law prohibits employers from discriminating against employees for what reasons?
|
1. race, religion, gender, age, or disability
2. union or political activity 3. prevention of retirement 4. reporting safety violations 5. exercising right to free speech 6. refusing to take drug/lie detector test (w/ some exception) (p. 235) |
|
|
Can an employer be responsible if an employee commits sexual harassment?
|
yes, if supervisor they are automatically held responsible. If non-supervisory, if they knew about it and did nothing to stop it.
(p. 235) |
|
|
Which federal law prohibits sexual harassment int he workplace?
|
Title VII of Civil Rights Act
(p. 235) |
|
|
What does sexual harassment include?
|
unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, or other verbal or physical conduct of a sexual nature constitute harassment when 1. is a term of employment 2. response used as basis for employment 3. such conduct interferes with performance of work and creates hostile or offensive working environment.
(p. 235) |
|
|
Wagner Act of 1935
|
Act that makes it illegal to discriminate in hiring or firing because of union membership or organizational activities?
|
|
|
Title VII of Civil Rights act of 1964
|
Businesses with more than 15 people working at least 20 weeks of the year.
prevents discrimination in hiring or firing on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, and national origin. some also have for marital status, parenthood ,mental health, mental retardation, sexual orientation, personal appearance or political affiliation. (p. 237) |
|
|
What law specifically prevents federal judges from using affirmative action plans?
|
Title VII of Civil Rights Act of 1964
|
|
|
What law created the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC)?
|
Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964
|
|
|
Age Discrimination in Employment Act
|
applies to business with 20+ working at least 20 weeks/yr. Prohibits discrimination in hiring or firing based on age for persons 40 or older.
(p. 237) |
|
|
Rehabilitation Act of 1973
|
federal contracts over $2500
Prohibits discrimination based on physical disabilities or mental health. Requires affirmative action (p. 238) |
|
|
1976 Pregnancy Discrimination Act
|
Amendment to Title VII that makes it illegal to fire an employee working at least 20 weeks/yr based on pregnancy, childbirth or related medical condition.
(p. 238) |
|
|
Titles I and V of the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990
|
15 or more employees working 20wk/yr
no discrimination in the workplace, equal access for disabled (p. 238) |
|
|
Civil Rights Act of 1991
|
among other things provides monetary damages in cases of intentional employment discrimination.
(p. 238) |
|
|
1935 Social Security Act
|
Funded by Federal Insurance Contribution Act (FICA), old age and survivors insurance (OASI), disability, unemployment, medicare.
(p. 238) |
|
|
1938 Fair Labor Standards Act
|
Prohibits child labor and firing of employees for exercising their rights. Provides for overtime and minimum wage. Nurses may get OT depending on if they are paid hourly or salaried.
(p. 238) |
|
|
Equal Pay Act of 1963
|
amendment to the Fair Labor Standards Act, that requires equal pay for men and women doing equal work.
(p. 238) |
|
|
Employee Retirement Income Security Ace of 1974. (ERISA)
|
regulates private pension funds and employer benefit programs. Employers can not prevent employees from collecting retirement benefits from plans covered by the act.
(p. 238) |
|
|
Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970
|
ensures safety of workers and prohibits firing an employee for reporting workplace safety hazards or violations.
(p. 238) |
|
|
Family Leave Act of 1991
|
employers of 50 or more people. It mandates allowing employees to take unpaid leave time for maternity, adoption, or for caring for ill family members.
(p. 238) |
|
|
under whose authority is OSHA?
|
US Secretary of Labor, Occupational Safety and Health Administration.
(p. 240) |
|
|
How is priority determined for workplace inspection from OSHA?
|
1. Imminent danger situations
2. investigation of fatalities and accidents involving hospitalization of 3 or more employees. 3. formal employee complaints 4. programmed inspection aimed at high hazard industries 5. Follow up inspections (p. 240) |
|
|
What is the employers responsibility when it comes to OSHA?
|
1. maintain a safe environment
2. Inform employees of safety and health requirements 3. Keep records 4. compile and post annual summary of work related injuries and illness 5. make sure employees wear safety equipment 6.provide safety training 7. discipline for violation of safety rules. (p. 241) |
|
|
Under Hazard Communication Standard (HSC), what must an employer do?
|
1. post a list of all office hazards (wastes, equipment, & chemicals) such as disinfectant spray, lab reagents, electrical and mechanical equipment, and blood and body fluids.
2. Must obtain Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) |
|
|
CDC guidelines for Universal precautions for Hospitals can apply to any laboratory. What are the guidelines?
|
1. Do not contaminate outside of container
2. wear gloves when processing specimens 3. Use biological safety cabinets for blending and mixing or droplets 4. Do not pipette fluid by mouth 5. Use extreme caution w/ needles 6. Decontaminate work surfaces after spills and end of day 7. clearly & permanently label specimen 8. never eat, drink, or smoke in lab 9. remove PPE, wash hands before leaving. (p. 242) |
|
|
Per the Medical Waste Tracking Act, how should chemicals be discarded?
|
in a glass or metal
(p. 243) |
|
|
Per the Medical Waste Tracking Act, how should needles be discarded?
|
In a Sharps container
(p. 243) |
|
|
How long does OSHA require logs of occupational injuries and illeness be kept?
|
5 years following the end of the calendar year to which they relate and must be available for inspection by a member of the US Dept of Labor.
|
|
|
According to the CDC, what is included in category I tasks?
|
Those tasks that involve potential contact with mucous membranes or skin with blood, body fluids, or tissue. It also includes those with potential for spills or splashes. All PPE are required for these tasks
Ex. capillary puncture, [hlebotomy, pelvic exam, minor suturing & throat culture. (p. 243) |
|
|
According to the CDC, what is included in category II tasks?
|
These do not involve direct contact with blood, body fluids or tissue, but accidents happen so PPE should be used.
Ex: urinalysis, fecal occult blood, Xrays, ultrasound, ECG, injections, examination sweat, tears, saliva, and nasal secretions. (p. 244) |
|
|
What government agency is responsible for the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act of 1988?
|
the centers for Medicare and Medicaide Services (CMS) are financially responsible.
The FDA has responsibility for some CLIA functions. (p. 244) |
|
|
Who pays the cost of the workers compensation premium?
|
the employer (p. 244)
|
|
|
What employees are covered by federal law when it comes to workers compensation? Who covers the rest?
|
Employees in Washington D.C., coal miners, maritime workers, and federal employees. State law covers those not covered by federal laws
(p. 244) |
|
|
What are the 5 types of state compensation benefits for workers compensation?
|
1. medical treatment
2. temporary disability indemnity 3. Permanent disability indemnity 4. Death benefits 5. Rehabilitation benefits (p. 244) |
|
|
Who manages unemployment compensation?
|
combination of state and federal government. Under Federal Unemployment tax Act (FUTA), employers pay into a fund .
(p. 245) |
|
|
What are 3 main reasons former employees are denied unemployment?
|
1. they quit without cause
2. were fired for misconduct 3. they are unemployed because of a labor dispute. Contractors and self employed do not qualify for unemployment. (p. 245) |
|
|
What is needed to file for unemployment?
|
1. Social Security card
2. W-2 for last 2 years 3. other wage record for last 18 mo 4. Employers name and address for pas 18 mo. 5. reason left job 6. employers unemployment insurance number. |
|
|
What are 3 OSHA standards that deal directly with health care workers?
|
1. Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogen Standard
2. Hazard Communication Standard 3. Chemical Hygiene Plan (p. 241- 2) |
|
|
When hiring someone, what kinds of questions can not be asked?
|
Race or color, religion or creed, gender, family, marital status, method of birth control, age, birthdate, or birthplace, disability, arrest record, residency duration
national origin, general military experience or discharge, or membership in organizations. (p. 246) |
|
|
Once hired, what information is needed to comply with federal and state regulations?
|
1. SS #
2. number of exemptions 3. Gross salary 4.Deductions for social security, medicare, federal, state and city taxes 5. withholdings for state disability insurance, unemployment and health care plans. (247-8) |
|
|
What does the W-2 show
|
1. employers tax identification number
2. Employees SS# 3. total earnings 4. Amount deducted for income tax 5. amount of advanced earned income credit. (p. 248) |
|
|
Under the concept of employment at will, who has the right to terminate employment?
|
Both the employee and the employers have the right to terminate.
(p. 234) |
|
|
What federal office can be contacted to report any charges or complaints of employment discrimination?
|
the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC)
(p. 237) |
|
|
What government publication is the primary source for locating OSHA standards?
|
The US Register
(p. 240) |
|
|
Who has the primary responsibility for providing safety training or appropriate safety equipment for employees?
|
The employer
(p. 243) |
|
|
CDC divides health care workers into which 2 groups?
|
Category I -working with blood ect where there could be a splash.
Category II - not working with blood etc. (p.243-4) |
|
|
According to OSHA, accidents in the work place should be reported. What 5 things should be included?
|
1. Employers name and address
2. Employees name, address, and TN 3. Specific information about the accident, when where, what, & How 4. Nature of injury 5. Follow up info such as medical treatment. (p. 243) |
|
|
This federal agency issues universal precautions for safety practices in the hospital or medical office
|
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
(p. 243) |
|
|
What Act established the EEOC?
|
Title VII of the Civil Rights Act
(p. 237) |
|
|
which Act protects people over 40?
|
Age in Discrimination in Employment Act
(p.237) |
|
|
Which Act makes it illegal to discriminate because of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical condition?
|
Pregnancy Discrimination Act
(p. 238) |
|
|
Which Act protects employees who engage in union or other organizational activities?
|
Wagner Act
(p. 237) |
|
|
which Act regulates private pension funds and employer benefit programs?
|
Employee Retirement Income Security Act.
(p. 238) |
|
|
Which Act requires equal pay for equal work?
|
Equal Pay Act
(p. 238) |
|
|
Which Act ensures a safe work environment?
|
Occupational Safety and Health Act
(p. 238) |
|
|
Which act regulates child labor, and provides for minimum wages and overtime pay?
|
Fair Labor Standards Act
(p. 238) |
|
|
Which Act provides for Medicare, unemployment insurance, disability, and OASI, through FICA funding?
|
The Social Security Act
(p. 238) |
|
|
Which Act protects the disabled and mentally ill?
|
The civil rights act
(p. 237) |
|
|
What Act provides minimum federal standards for quality laboratory testing?
|
Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act/Amendments
(p.244) |
|
|
What does Quid pro quo mean?
|
something for something
(p. 235) |
|
|
What is the science that studies inherited traits(heredity)
|
Genetics
(p. 255) |
|
|
Thread like structures inside cell nuclei that are composed of DNA and carry an organism's genes are?
|
chromosomes
(p. 256) |
|
|
A tiny segment of DNA that holds instructions for making a specific molecule is called...
|
gene
(p. 256) |
|
|
What are all the genes necessary to replicate a human being called
|
genome
(p. 256) |
|
|
A worldwide project to locate and map the location of all human genes is called ?
|
The Human Genome Project
(p. 256) |
|
|
What are some of the inherited diseases that can be tested for on a genetic test?
|
Cystic fibrosis, Down syndrome, Fragile X syndrome, Gaucher's Disease, Hemochromatosis, Huntington's disease, Mucopolysaccharidosis (MPS), Pheynlketonuria (PKU), Sickle cell anemia, some breast, ovarian, and colon cancers, Spinocerebellar ataxia, Tay Sachs
(p. 257) |
|
|
Tay Sachs
|
a lipid metabolism disorder that affects some people of Jewish descent. Children with the disease seldom survive childhood.
(p. 258) |
|
|
Spinocerebellar ataxia
|
a rare disorder that eventually destroys the brain's cerebellum
(p. 258) |
|
|
Phenylketonuria (PKU)
|
a metabolic disorder in which all newborns are tested, It results in mental retardation if left untreated
(p. 257) |
|
|
Mucopolysaccharidosis (MPS)
|
a metabolic disorder that causes skeletal deformities and usually mental retardations (p. 2570
|
|
|
Hemochromatosis
|
an iron storage disorder and the most commonly inherited disease.
(p. 257) |
|
|
The Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act (GINA)
|
prohibits employers and insurers from discriminating against individuals based on DNA that may affect their health.
(p. 259) |
|
|
What is the purpose of cloning farm animals
|
1. breed genetically identical animals that can produce substances useful to medicine.
2. production of prim low-fat meat 3. cloning animal tissues and organs for human medical use. (p. 260) |
|
|
What differences make cloning animals for human use problematic?
|
1. animal cells produce sugar that human cells can not, causing immune rejection
2. human cells can be infected with some viruses that exist in animals. (p. 260) |
|
|
List 5 types of genetic therapy
|
1. special diets to eliminate compound
2. Germ-line involves the correction of an abnormality in the genes of sperm or egg 3. replacing a deficient or blocking an overactive pathway. 4. Insertion of normal copies of the gene into the cells of persons with specific genetic disease 5. turning off genes before their harmful properties are expressed. (p. 262-3) |
|
|
gestational surrogacy
|
if the surrogate is not genetically related to the embryo
(p. 263) |
|
|
traditional surrogacy
|
if surrogate contributes eggs to produce the embryo or is related to either the husband or wife.
(p. 263) |
|
|
What governs the adoption of an Native American child?
|
Indian Child Welfare Act
(p. 265) |
|
|
Federal Child Abuse Amendment (US Code Title 42, Section 5106g)
|
if the parents agree, physicians can legally withhold treatment, including food and water, from infants who are
1. chronically & irreversibly comatose 2. for whom treatment is futile 3. would suffer unhumanly if treatment given. (p. 266) |
|
|
What are some negative results of safe haven laws?
|
1. encourages irresponsible and destructive behavior rather than use of adoption and child welfare policies
2. seen by some that its okay to abandon a baby 3. abandoned children have little hope of learning medical history 4. Allows 1 parent to abandon thus stripping the other of all rights. (p. 268) |
|
|
What were 2 goals of the Human Genome Project?
|
1. locate and map the location of each gene on all 46 chromosomes
2. create a data bank of the information that would be available to all scientists or physicians who could use it. (p. 256) |
|
|
What is an experimental treatment for hereditary diseases?
|
gene therapy
(p. 262) |
|
|
What is a procedure used to reveal the presence of a disease causing gene or genes?
|
genetic testing
(p. 257) |
|
|
What is the manipulation of DNA to produce desired results in an organism?
|
genetic engineering
(p. 259) |
|
|
What is a person's being treated differently than others because of his or her genetic makeup?
|
genetic discrimination
(p. 258) |
|
|
Cloning is a type of what?
|
genetic engineering
(p.260) |
|
|
Why are stem cells so valued for certain types of scientific research?
|
They can become any type of cell in the body.
(p. 260) |
|
|
What Acts have provisions that pertain to adoption of a child?
|
1. Adoption Assistance and Child Welfare Act
2. Child Abuse Prevention and treatment and Adoption Act 3. Indian Child Welfare Act (p. 265) |
|
|
Which Federal laws have protection from genetic discrimination?
|
1. HIPAA
2. Americans with Diabilities Act (p. 259) |
|
|
Do minors have the same right to privacy as adults?
|
Yes
(p.269) |
|
|
Who regulates adoption?
|
State and federal laws
(p. 264) |
|
|
What is brain death?
|
1. Circulatory and respiratory functions have irreversibly ceased.
2. The entire brain, including the brain stem, has irreversibly ceased to function. (p. 280) |
|
|
How does passive euthanasia differ from active euthanasia?
|
passive is allowing it to happen, active is a conscious act to make it happen.
(p. 286) |
|
|
Do hospice programs support assisted suicide or active euthanasia?
|
no
(p. 288) |
|
|
What was the initiative for the Patient Self Determination Act?
|
The case with Nancy Cruzan where her parents wanted to allow her to die, and finally after testimony that she would not want to live that way, the ventilator was removed.
(p. 290) |
|
|
What is the difference between a living will and a durable power of attorney?
|
living will gives instructions to health care personnel on what kinds of end of life care a patient wishes to receive. A durable power of attorney is not a specific medical document, but gives the authority to a designee to make decisions for the patient regarding health care.
(p. 290-1) |
|
|
what is the difference between a health care proxy and durable power of attorney?
|
Power of attorney is not specifically a health care document, but does include health care decisions. Health Care Proxy is one that can only make health care decisions.
(p. 291) |
|
|
Is the Uniform Anatomical Gift Act law?
|
No it was never officially made law.
(p. 294) |
|
|
Major Provisions for Uniform Anatomical Gift Act
|
1. must be 18 and sound mind
2. made through legal will not held up in probate 3. Donors rights override others, except w/autopsies 4. Survivors speak for the deceased if arrangements are not made 5. Physicians rely on donation documents 6. Health care may receive gifts for research, advancement of medical or dental science, therapy, or transplant 7. Time of death must be established by physician who is not involved in transplant 8. Donors may revoke the gift or the gift may be rejected. (p. 294) |
|
|
What law made organ donation possible in the United States?
|
National Organ Transplant Act
(p.293) |
|
|
What is UNOS, and its function
|
United Network for Organ Sharing, administers the Organ Procurement and Transplant Network (OPTN) under contract with the Health Resources and Services Administration of the US Department of Health and Human Services.
(p. 293) |
|
|
What is grief?
|
A human reaction to loss.
(p. 297) |
|
|
What are the stages of death
|
1. denial/isolation
2. anger/rage/resentment 3. bargaining/guild 4. depression/sadness 5. acceptance (p. 298) |
|
|
Stage I of the grieving process
Denial/Isolation |
It cant be true stage, diagnosis is a mistake, x rays mixed up, don't want to accept a loved one has died. Soon replaced by partial acceptance
(p. 298) |
|
|
Stage II of grieving process- Anger/rage/ resentment
|
Anger "why me", Betrayal of a once healthy body and loss of control of life. Anger towards God for taking loved one.
(p. 298) |
|
|
Stage III of grieving process-
Bargaining/Guilt |
"If I could have more time, I would be okay". The bereaved person may feel responsible especially if not a good relationship. Focus on how things could have been different.
(p. 298) |
|
|
Stage IV of grieving process-
Depression/Sadness |
loss of financial security, freedom causes feelings of hopelessness. Person may cry frequently or unable to cry at all, down cast eyes, shuffling steps, stooped shoulders. If depression lasts a prolonged period perhaps seek professional counseling.
(p. 298) |
|
|
Stage V of the grieving process-
Acceptance |
Person finally accepts loss. Terminally ill come to terms with dying. May plan own funeral, write advanced directives, and write wills. Grieving spouse may remove partners clothes etc
(p. 298) |
|
|
If a someone is experiencing loss, should you try and make them laugh?
|
respond to humor, but dont try to cheer someone up with your own jokes, if they want to tell funny jokes, let them.
(p. 300) |
|
|
Is it okay to give advice early on when someone is grieving?
|
time may come when the patient asks your advice, but its usually not prudent to offer unsolicited advice because it stops dialogue.
(p. 300) |
|
|
If you are uncomfortable with someone who is grieving, its okay to change the subject?
|
No. admit you are uncomfortable. Dont try to distract the patient by changing the subject to something less threatening.
(p. 300) |
|
|
If someone is grieving, its best to encourage reminiscence?
|
Yes, sharing memories can be a wrenching experience , but it can also encourage patients to look positively at the past.
(p. 300) |
