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65 Cards in this Set

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3-1


where is DME required under IFR?

At or above 24,000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required.

3-2


What is the Purpose of FDC NOTAMs?

To advise of changes in flight data which affect instrument approach procedure (IAP), aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior to normal publication.

3-8. When are ATIS broadcasts updated?

Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported Values.

3-9. Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast Specifically implies that...

the ceiling is more than 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more.

3-10. From what Source can you obtain the latest FDC NOTAMs?

FAA AFSS/FSS.

3-11The operation of an airport rotating beacon during daylight hours may indicate that...

the ground visibility is less than 3 miles and/or the ceiling is Less than 1,000ft in class B,C, or D airspace.

3-12 MOA's are established to ...

separate certain military activities from IFR traffic.

3-13 What action should you take if your DME fails at FL240?

Notify ATC of the failure and continue to the next airport of intended Landing Where repairs can be made.

3-14what is the procedure when the DME malfunctions at or above 24,000 feet MSL?

After immediately notifying ATC, you may continue to the next airport of intended Landing where repairs can be made.

3-15When are you required to establish communications with the tower,(class D airspace) if you cancel your IFR flight plan 10 miles from the destination?

Before entering class D airspace.

3-16which airspace is defined as a transition area when designated in conjunction with an airport which has a prescribed IAP?

The class E airspace e×tending upward from 700 feet or more above the surface and terminating at the base of the overlying controlled airspace.

3-17the vertical extent of the Class A airspace throughout the cconterminous U.S. extends from ...

18,000 ft to and including FL 600

3-18Class G airspace is that airspace where...

ATC does not control air traffic.

3-19what are the Vertical limits of a transition area that is designated in conjunction with an airport having a prescribed IAP?

700 ft AGL or more to the base of the overlying controlled airspace.

3-20what is the minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds for flight at 10,500 feet with a VFR on Top clearance during daylight hours ( Class E Airspace)?

5 SM, l,000ft above, 1,000ft below, and 1 mile horizontal

3-21What is the required flight visibility and distance from clouds if you are operating in class E airspace at 9,500 ft MSLwith a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours?

3 SM, 1,000ft above, 500ft below, and 2000ft horizontal.

3-35when should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff?

when departing from a runway intersection.

3-36What minimum aircraft equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?

Two-way communications and Mode C transponder,

3-38Which of the following indications would a pilot see while approaching to land on a runway Served by a 2-bar VASI?


If departing to the high side of the glide path, the far bars will change from red to white

3-39The middle and for bars of a 3-bar VASI will..

constitute a 2-bar VASI for using the upper glidepath.

3-40Tricolor Visual Approach Indicators normally consist of...

a single unit, projecting a three-color visual Approach path.

3-41when on the proper glidepath of a 2-bar VASI, the Pilot will see the near bar as...

white and the far bar as red

3-42 lf an approach is being made to a runway that has an operating 3-bar VASI and all the VASI lights appear red as the aircraft reaches the MDA, the pilot should...

level of momentarily to intercept the proper approach path.

3- 43 Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?

One light projector with three colors: red, green, and amber.

3-44 Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?

Safe obstruction Clearance in the approach area.

3-57 Which runway marking indicates a displaced theshold on an instrument runway?

Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

3-58 Which type of runway lighting consists of a pair of synchronized flashing lights, one on each side of the runway threshold?

RElL (Runway End Identifier Lights)

3-59 The primary purpose of runway end identifier lights, installed at many airfields, is to provide...

rapid identification of the approach end of the runway during reduced visibility.

3-61 The 'runway hold position' sign denotes...

intersecting runways.

3-62 'Runway hold position' markings on the taxiway...

identifies where aircraft hold short of the runway.

3-63 The 'No Entry' sigh identifies...

paved area where aircraft entry is prohibited.

3-64 when turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, the 'taxiway directional sign' indicates...

designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.

3-65 What is the rule for a pilot relieving "land and Hold Short Operation (LAHSO) clearance?"

The pilot has the option to accept or reject all LAHSO clearances regardless of the meteorological conditions.

3-3 (Refer to figure 30 on page 2-61) Which restriction to the use of the OED VORTAC would be applicable to the (GNATS1.MOURN) departure?

R 333 beyond 3ONM below 6,500 feet

3-4 (Refer to figure 29 on page 3-6) What are the hours of operation (Local Standard time) of the control tower at Eugene/Mahlon Sweet Field?

0600- 0000

3-5 (Refer to figure 46 on page 2-68) What are the hours of operation (local time) of the ATIS for the Yakima Air Terminal when daylight savings time is in effect?

0600 to 2200 Local

3-6 (Refer to figure 58 on page 2-74)On which frequencies could you communicate with the Montgomery County FSS while on the ground at College station?

122.65, 122.2

3-7 (Refer to figure 59 on page 3-8 and Figure 60 On page 3-9) What are the operating hours (local standard time) of the Houston EFAS?

0600 to 2200

3-22 (Refer to figure 92 on page 3-14)What is the minimum in flight Visibility and distance from clouds required for a VFR-on-Top flight at 9,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL)during daylight hours for area 3?

3 miles; (E) 1,000 feet; (F) 2,000 feet; (H) 500 feet

3-23( Refer to figure 92 on page 3-14) A flight is to be conducted in VFR-on-Top conditions at 12,500 feet MSL (above 1200 feet AGL). What is the in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for operations in class E airspace during daylight hours for area 1?

5 miles; (A) 1,000 feet;(B) 1 mile; (D) 1,000 feet

3-24(Refer to figure 92 on page 3-14)What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required in VFR conditions above clouds at 13,500 feet MSL( above 1,200 feet AGL) in class G air space during daylight hours for area 2?

5 miles; (A) 1,000 feet;(C)1 mile; (D) 1,000 feet.

3-25 (Refer to figure 92 on page 3-14) What in flight visibility and distance from clouds is required for a flight at 8,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) in Class G airspace in VFR conditions during daylight hours in area 4?

1-mile; (E) 1,000 feet; (G) 2,000 feet; (H) 500 feet.

3-26 (Refer to figure 92 on page 3-14) What is the minimum in flight visibility and distance from clouds required for an airplane operating less than 1,200 feet Agl during the daylight hours in area 6?


1 mile ; (I) Clear of clouds; (k) clear of clouds;4) Clear of Clouds

3-27 (Refer to figure 92 on page 3-14) What is the minimum in flight visibility and distance from clouds required for an airplane operating less than 1,200 feet AGL under special VFR during daylight hours in area 5?

1 mile; (I) clear of clouds; (J) Clear of clouds; (L) clear of clouds.

3-28 (Refer to figure 93 on page 3-16.)What is the floor of Class E airspace when designated in Conjunction with an airway?

1,200 feet AGL

3-29 (Refer to figure 93 on page 3-16.)Which altitude is the normal upper limit for Class D airspace?

2,500 feet AGL

3-30 (Refer to figure 93 on page 3-16) What is the floor of Class E airspace when designated in conjunction with an airport which has an approved IAP?

700 feet AGL

3-31 (Refer to figure 93 on page 3-16) Which altitude is the upper limit for Class A airspace?

60,000 feet MSL

3-32 (Refer to figure 93 on page 3-16) What is the maximum altitude that Class G airspace will exist (Does not include airspace less than 1,500 feet AGL.)

14,500 feet MSL

3-33 (Refer to figure 93 on page 3-16) What is generally the maximum altitude for Class B airspace?

10,000 feet MSL

3-34 (Refer to figure 93 on page 3-16) What is the floor of Class A airspace?

18,000 feet MSL

3-37 (Refer to figure 134 on page 3-18) Unless a higher angle is necessary for obstacle clearance, what is the normal glide path anglefor a 2-bar VASI?

3.0

3-45 (Refer to figure 135 on page 3-20) Unless a higher angle is required for obstacle clearance, what is the normal glidepath for a 3-bar VASI?

3.0°

3-46 (Refer to figure 135 on page 3-20.) Which illustration would a pilot observe when on the lower glide path?

5

3-47 (Refer to figure 135 On page 3-20) Which illustration Would a pilot observe if the aircraft is above both glide paths?

7

3-48 (Refer to figure 135 on page 3-20.) Which illustration Would a pilot observe if the aircraft is below both glide paths?

4

3-49 (Refer to figure 136 on page 3-21) Which illustration depicts an "on glide path" indication?

10

3-50 (Refer to figure 136 on page 3-21) Which illustration depicts a "slightly low" (2. 8°) indication?

11

3-51 (Refer to figure 136 on page 3-21) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is on glidepath higher than 3.5°?

8

3-52 (Refer to figure 136 on page 3-21)which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is "slightly high" (3.2°) on the glidepath?


9

3-53 (Refer to figure 136 on page 3-21) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is less than 2.5°?


12

3-54 (Refer to figure 137 on page 3-23.) What is the distance (A) from the beginning of the runway to the fixed distance marker?

1,000 feet

3-55 (Refer to figure 137 on page 3-23.) What is the distance (B) from the beginning of the runway to the touchdown zone worker?

500 feet

3-56 (Refer to figure 137 on page 3-23.)What is the distance (c) from the beginning of the touchdown Zone marker to the beginning of the fixed distance marker?


500 feet

3-60 (Refer to figure 138 on page 3-25) What night operations, if any, are authorized between the approach end of the runway and the threshold lights?

Taxi and takeoff operations are toward the visible green threshold lights