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90 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
1. Prior to the 1970s, health maintenance organizations (HMOs) were known as:
Prepaid group practices
2. The original impetus of HMOs development came from
Providers seeking patient revenues
Consumers seeking access to health care
Employers
3. The integral components of managed care are:
Wellness and prevention
Primary care orientation
Utilization management
4. Managed care is best described as:
A broad and constantly changing array of health plans employers, unions, and other purchasers of care that attempt to manage cost, quality, and access to that care.
5. The Managed care backlash resulted in which of the following?
A reduction in HMO membership
New federal and state laws and regulations
True or false? PPOs differ from HMOs because they do not accept capitation risk and enrollees who are willing to pay higher cost sharing may access providers that are not in the contracted network.
True
2. True or false? Blue Cross began as a physician service bureau in the 1930s.
False
True or false? The Balance Budget Act (BBA) of 1997 resulted in a major increase in HMO enrollment
False
4. True or false? Health care cost inflation has remained consistent since 1995.
False
Briefly explain how the HMO Act of 1973 may have retarded HMO development in the few years after its enactment.
The Act imposed requirements on HMOs but not on indemnity carriers or self-insured groups, thereby reducing the ability of HMOs to compete. In addition, because the government was slow to issue the Act's regulations, employers were reluctant to contract with HMOs until they knew the rules under which they would be operating.
2. Briefly explain how the HMO Act of 1973 contributed to the growth of managed care.
The HMO Act of 1973 authorized start-up funding and ensured access to employer-based insurance. The dual choice provision required any employer with more than 25 employees to offer at least one closed panel and one open panel HMO. In addition, federal qualification was perceived as an endorsement (a “seal of good housekeeping”) by the government in that the HMO met certain standards.
True or false? HMOs are licensed as health insurance companies.
False
2. True or false? An IPA is an HMO that contracts directly with physicians and hospitals.
False
True or false? The defining feature of a direct contract model is the HMO contracting directly with a hospital to provide acute services to its members.
False
An IDS can be described as a legal entity consisting of more than one type of provider to manage a population’s health care and/or contract with a payer organization.
True
True or false? The GPWW requires the participation of a hospital and the formation of a group practice.
False
A PHO is usually a separate business entity requiring the participation of a hospital and at least some of the hospital’s admitting physicians.
True
True or false? Hospitals purchased physician practices and employed physicians in the 1990s, but will no longer do so.
False
8. True or false? PSOs, created by the BBA of 1997, proved to be very popular and successful.
False
1. Key common characteristics of PPOs include:
Selected provider panels
Negotiated payment rates
Consumer choice
Utilization management
2. EPOs share similarities with:
PPOs
HMOs
3. Commonly recognized HMOs include:
IPAs
Network
Staff and group
4. Capitation is usually defined as
Prepayment for services on a fixed, per member per month basis
5. In what model does an HMO contract with more than one group practice provide medical services to its members?
Network Model
6. Advantages of an IPA include:
Broader physician choice for members
More convenient geographic access
Requires less start-up capital
1. Who has final responsibility for all aspects of an independent HMO?
Board of Directors
2. Medical Directors typically have responsibility for:
Utilization management
Benefits determinations for appeals
Quality management
3. Which organization(s) need a Corporate Compliance Officer (CCO)?
Health plans with a Medicare Advantage risk contract
Hospitals
True or false? The Finance Director, not the Marketing Director, has responsibility for enrollment forecasting.
False
Briefly explain the role of committees in the area of medical management
In the medical management area, committees serve to diffuse some elements of responsibility and allow important input from the field into procedure and policy or even into case-specific interpretation of existing policy. Examples of committees are: credentialing committee, medical advisory committee, utilization review committee, pharmacy committee, and peer review committee.
2. Briefly explain the functions of the HMO’s Board of Directors.
The function of the board is governance: overseeing and maintaining final
responsibility for the plan. Final approval authority of corporate bylaws rests with the board as does setting and approving policy. General oversight of the profitability or reserve status rests with the board, as does oversight and approval of significant fiscal events and quality management.
1. When selecting a hospital during the network development phase, an HMO considers:
Occupancy rate
Cost of services
Scope of services
2. Ancillary services are broadly divided into the following categories:
Diagnostic and therapeutic
3. Basic elements of credentialing include:
Hospital privileges
Malpractice history
Medical license
Board certification
4. State and federal regulations consistently apply network access standards to:
HMOs
POS plans
Which of the following organizations may conduct primary verification of a physician’s credentials?
An HMO
A PPO
A CVO
True or false? The HIPDB is a national health care fraud and abuse data collection program for the reporting and disclosure of certain final adverse actions taken against health care providers, suppliers, or practitioners.
True
True or false? Considerations for successful network development include geographic accessibility and hospital-related needs.
True
True or false? Physicians avoid working for hospitals as much as possible.
False
True or false? Hospital consolidation has been blocked more often than not by the Department of Justice (DOJ) and/or the Federal Trade Commission (FTC).
False
True or false? Managed care plans perform onsite reviews of hospitals and ambulatory surgical centers.
False
True or false? In markets with high levels of managed care penetration, hospitals are usually paid using a sliding scale discount on charges method.
False
True or false? The same methodology used to pay a hospital for inpatient care is usually also use to pay for outpatient care.
False
True or false? Fee-for-service payment is the most common method used by HMOs to pay specialists.
True
True or false? Consolidation in the payer industry has resulted in most hospitals being unable to obtain adequate rate increases.
False
1. The following term refers to an all-inclusive rate paid by the HMO for both institutional and professional services
Bundled payment
2. Which of the following forms of hospital payment contain no elements of risk sharing by the hospital?
Sliding scale FFS
3. What are the basic ways to compensate open-panel PCPs?
Capitation
Fee-for-service
4. Capitation is a physician payment method preferred by many HMOs because it:
Eliminates the FFS incentive to overutilize
Costs are predictable
Is less costly to administer than FFS
5. How are outlier cases determined by a hospital?
Through the chargemaster
6. Payment to a facility for outpatient procedures may be increased on a case-by-case basis through which of the following?
Carve-outs
True or false? The use of utilization guidelines targets only managed care patients and does not have an impact on the care of non–managed care patients.
False
True or false? Nurse-on-call or medical advice programs are considered demand management strategies.
True
3. True or false? UM focuses on telling doctors and hospitals what to do.
False
4. True or false? Hospital utilization varies by geographical area.
True
5. True or false? It is possible for a specialist to also act as a primary care provider.
True
1. Utilization management seeks to reduce practice variation while promoting good outcomes and ___.
Reducing access
Maintaining costs
Increasing patients
A. None of the Above
2. The most common measurement of inpatient utilization is:
Bed days per thousand enrollees
3. Claims review is an example of
Retrospective review
True or false? Nonphysician practitioners deliver most of the care in disease management systems.
True
True or false? Most of the care in disease management systems is delivered in the inpatient setting since the acuity is much greater.
False
True or false? Fee-for-service physicians are financially rewarded for good disease management in most environments.
False
4. True or false? Electronic clinical support systems are important in disease management.
True
True or false? Costs of noncatastrophic, recurring outpatient care have risen significantly in the past few decades.
True
6. True or false? Outbound calls to physicians are an important aspect to most DM programs.
False
True or false? The typical practicing physician has a good understanding of what is happening with his or her patient between office visits.
False
1. The least appropriate site for disease management is:
Inpatient setting
2. Establishing a high level of evidence regarding disease management guidelines ensures:
Validity
3. Common sources of information that trigger DM include:
Claims
Pharmacy data
1. Describe the goal of disease management.
To reduce the frequency and severity of episodes of chronic disease so that retreatment and readmission costs are minimized.
True or false? More than 90% of members of employer-sponsored health plans have access to prescription drug coverage, and over 90% of all prescriptions in the U.S. are reimbursed by insured prescription drug benefit programs.
True
True or false? Managed prescription drug programs must be flexible and customize pharmacy benefit designs to accommodate diverse financial and benefit richness desires of their customers.
True
What statement is true regarding the trends of traditional, non-specialty drugs (mostly oral and topical drugs dispensed in community pharmacy) and specialty drugs (biotech, injectables, high-cost orals)?
A. Many expensive and popular traditional drugs are losing patent protection, and generics are driving a declining cost trend. A growing number of the drugs in the pipeline for FDA approval are injectable products and the specialty drug trend, already at 20%, is expected to increase.
2. Electronic prescribing offers which of the following potential outcomes?
Reduction in prescribing and dispensing errors
Improvement in physician drug formulary prescribing conformance
Reduction in drug interactions and resulting serious adverse effects
In January 2006, what large federal prescription drug program was implemented that offered pharmacy benefits to more than 40 million people at that time and is expected to increase by 30% throughout the next decade?
Medicare Part D
4. Two desirable outcomes of tiered prescription member copayments are:
The use of less expensive generic drugs increases and members save money by paying lower Tier 1 generic copayments
5. One potential negative consequence of drug formularies with high copayments is:
High copayments may be a barrier to adherence
What is the common benefit design trend in commercial (employer group sponsored) prescription drug benefits?
Increasing copayment amounts, especially for Tier 2 preferred brand drugs and Tier 3 non-preferred brand drugs.
Increasing use of percent coinsurance, especially for Tier 3 and Tier 4 specialty tiers when available.
Increasing number of consumer-directed health plan designs with higher front-end deductibles.
Select the one technique for controlling drug benefits costs that MOST health plans and PBMs DO NOT routinely use.
Value-based insurance designs that assign “high-value” drugs to Tier 1 for ALL therapeutic categories.
8. What technique is used by many pharmaceutical companies with health plans and PBMs to increase formulary access and utilization of specific products?
Rebates for preferred formulary position
Health economic data, including a growing number of head-to-head clinical trials
Member copayment coupons to offset copayment
1. What is a PBM and in what do they specialize?
A Pharmacy Benefits Management company or a Pharmacy Benefit Manager specializes in providing comprehensive and cost-efficient pharmacy prescription drug benefit programs and component services that are customized to meet the clinical and financial needs employer groups, health plans, Medicaid programs, Medicare D plans, and other government programs.
True or false? The majority of prescriptions for behavioral health medications are written by nonpsychiatrists.
True
True or false? Physicians treating gynecological patients diagnose substance abuse approximately 30% of the time.
False
3. True or false? Recent legislation encourages separate lifetime limits for behavioral care.
False
True or false? Extended inpatient treatment for substance abuse is clearly more effective, but too costly.
False
True or false? Behavioral health care providers are paid under methodologies similar to those applied to medical/surgical care providers.
True
True or false? Pay for performance (P4P) cannot be applied to behavioral health care providers.
False
1. Approximately 50% of behavioral care spending is associated with what percentage of patients?
5%
2. Which organization does not accredit managed behavioral health care companies?
American College of Mental Health Administration
True or false? HEDIS is the most widely used set of measures for reporting on managed behavioral health care.
True