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270 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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1. Define static pressure. |
1. Static pressure is the pressure of the atmosphere at any particular altitude. An aircraft on the ground or in flight (at any altitude) is subject to atmospheric (static) pressure. It acts equally on all parts of the aircraft structure. |
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2. What effect does an increase in altitude or temperature have on static pressure? |
2. It decreases |
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3. Define pitot pressure |
3. Pitot pressure is the sum of static pressure and dynamic pressure. It can be described as the total force exerted by an air mass on the forward extremities of a moving aircraft. |
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4. What type of pressure is also referred to as differential pressure? How is it determined? |
4. Impact pressure; it’s the difference between pitot pressure and static pressure (PT PS). |
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5. What type of altitude is referenced to an imaginary standard atmosphere? |
5. Pressure altitude. |
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6. What’s the barometric pressure setting for standard altitude? |
6. 29.92 Hg. |
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7. At what altitudes is baro-corrected altitude normally used? |
7. Low altitudes. |
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8. What type of altitude is sometimes referred to as true altitude? |
8. Baro-corrected altitude. |
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9. What type of airspeed is shown on an airspeed indicator? |
9. Indicated airspeed |
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10. Define calibrated airspeed. |
10. Indicated airspeed that has been corrected for instrument errors and for errors due to position and location of installation |
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11. What type of airspeed is corrected for compressibility error and air density? |
11. True airspeed. |
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12. How is Mach number computed? |
12. By dividing true airspeed by the local speed of sound. |
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13. How will an increase in altitude affect Mach number? |
13. Mach number will increase. |
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14. Define true AOA. |
14. The angle between the aircraft’s wing cord line and the aircraft’s flight path. |
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15. What term defines air around the aircraft that has been heated to greater than ambient temperature due to the aircraft’s speed? |
15. Total temperature |
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16. What type of temperature represents the ambient temperature of the undisturbed air around an aircraft? |
16. True freestream air temperature |
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17. What’s altitude rate commonly called? |
17. Vertical velocity |
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18. What’s the general purpose of the pitot-static probe pneumatic system? |
18. To provide two sources of pitot pressure (PT1 and PT2) and two sources of static pressure (PS1 and PS2) to various air data components. |
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19. What does the pitot-static probe pneumatic system consist of? |
19. A pitot-static probe, manifold assemblies, pneumatic hoses and tubing, drain valves, and support hardware. |
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20. What’s the function of the pitot-static manifold assembly? |
20. It’s a coupling device that adapts the four pneumatic openings at the base of the pitot-static probe to the radome nylon tubing |
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21. What components receive air data from the pitot-static probe pneumatic system? |
21. PSA, CADC, altimeter, and AMI |
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22. What are positioned at low points throughout the pitot-static probe pneumatic system? What are they used for? |
22. Drain valves; they provide a handy means to drain condensation |
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23. Why is the pitot probe heated? |
23. To prevent it from becoming plugged with ice during flight |
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24. What five pneumatic signals does the air data probe pneumatic system supply to the PSA manifold |
24. PT3, PS3, P1, P2, and P. |
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25. Where’s the air data probe mounted? |
25. It’s externally mounted on access door 1202. |
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26. What portion of the air data probe contains five pneumatic ports? |
26. Its hemispherical head. |
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27. What component(s) does the air data probe pneumatic system supply pneumatic pressure to? |
27. Only the PSA (via the PSA manifold). |
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28. What are the sensing elements associated with the angle of sideslip pneumatic system? |
28. Two static pressure sensing port adapters located inside the curved surface of access doors 1103 and 1204 |
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29. What component receives pneumatic pressure from the angle-of-sideslip pneumatic system? |
29. Differential pressure sensor |
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1. What are the two basic types of CADC inputs? |
1. Pneumatic and electrical. |
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2. Name four inputs received by the CADC and their point of origin. |
2. PT (from the pitot-static probe pneumatic system), PS (from the pitot-static probe pneumatic system), AOA (from the left and right AOA transmitter probes, via the DFLCC, air temperature (from the total temperature probe). |
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3. What are the three methods used to transmit CADC outputs |
3. Serial digital data words, discretes, and analog signals. |
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4. What medium is used to route CADC serial digital data to using systems? |
4. The MUX bus architecture, with the A-MUX bus |
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5. Name three systems that utilize CADC serial digital data words |
5. HUD, INS, and DFLCS. |
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6. What medium is used to transfer CADC discretes? |
6. Aircraft wiring |
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7. Name three systems/components that use CADC discrete words |
7. AOA indexer, AOA indicator, and IFF (mode C). |
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8. What medium is used to transfer CADC analog signals? |
8. Aircraft wiring |
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9. Name three systems/components that use CADC analog signals |
9. Altimeter, environmental control system, and VVI. |
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10. What information is displayed on the AMI? |
10. Indicated airspeed, Mach number, and maximum equivalent airspeed |
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11. What pneumatic system supplies PT and PS pressure to the AMI? |
11. Pitot-static probe pneumatic system. |
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12. An AMI indication of 8.5 represents how many knots of airspeed |
12. 850. |
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13. On the AMI, what moves in response to a SET INDEX knob adjustment? |
13. The reference index pointer |
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14. How is the altimeter driven? |
14. Either pneumatically or electrically. |
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15. From where does the altimeter receive servo inputs to drive the counter/pointer in the ELEC mode? |
15. The CADC. |
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16. How many feet of altitude are represented by one complete revolution of the altitude pointer (around the altitude dial)? |
16. 1,000 feet |
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17. How are the altimeter ELEC and PNEU modes manually selected? |
17. Via the altimeter’s mode selector switch |
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18. What are the major and minor increments of the altimeter’s altitude dial? |
18. 100-foot increments; 20-foot increments. |
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19. If the altimeter’s altitude drum counter indicates 29,500 and the altitude pointer indicates 3 minor increments beyond 5 on the altitude dial, what’s the aircraft’s actual altitude? |
19. 29,560 feet |
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20. What is the display range of the altitude drum counter? |
20. -1,000 to 80,000 feet. |
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21. What two types of altitude can be displayed on an altimeter? |
21. Pressure altitude and true altitude. |
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22. When will the altimeter display the aircraft’s pressure altitude? |
22. When the barometric pressure set knob is set to 29.92 Hg |
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23. At or above what altitude is a pilot required to use the pressure altitude indication |
23. 18,000 feet. |
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24. During what flight phases would a pilot typically use true altitude? |
24. Low-level flight (takeoff and landing). |
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25. What type of altitude readout is used by maintenance personnel to calibrate an altimeter to local field elevation |
25. True altitude. |
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26. During flight, what does the VVI indicate? |
26. The rate at which the aircraft is changing altitude. |
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27. What is the display range of the VVI? |
27. 0 to 6,000 fpm for both climb and dive attitudes. |
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28. Under what two conditions will an OFF indication be displayed on the VVI? |
28. If there is a loss of electrical power or an invalid VVI signal from the CADC. |
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29. Where is the vertical velocity signal developed? |
29. In the CADC. |
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30. What is the main purpose of the two AOA transmitter probes? |
30. They register angular difference between an aircraft’s wing cord line and its flight path. |
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31. What LRU receives the AOA transmitter probe signals before being transmitted to the CADC? |
31. The DFLCC |
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32. After CADC processing, what are the left and right AOA voltages used for? |
32. (1) To provide T to the AOA indexer, and (2) to provide T and validity signals to the AOA indicator |
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33. What is the display range of the AOA indicator? |
–5 to +40, in one-degree increments. |
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34. Under what two conditions would you expect to see the AOA indicator display an OFF indication? |
34. When there’s a loss of electrical power or an invalid AOA signal from the CADC |
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35. What AOA indexer sector light(s) light when true AOA is between 12 and 12.75? |
35. The green circular and amber inverted V (Λ) sector lights. |
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36. What AOA indexer sector light(s) light when true AOA is above 14? |
36. Only the red V sector light. |
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1. List the dedicated LRUs and sensors that comprise the CSFDR system |
1. LRUs: SAU and CSMU. Sensors: axial accelerometer transmitter, engine power lever angle potentiometer, |
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2. What is the prime component of the CSFDR system? |
2. The SAU. |
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3. What memory sites are located inside of the SAU? |
3. NVM, and auxiliary memory. |
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4. What data storage unit of the CSFDR system is almost indestructible? |
4. The CSMU. |
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5. What type data does the CMSU protect? |
5. Type 1 data. |
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6. What CSFDR component senses acceleration? |
6. Axial accelerometer transmitter |
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7. What CSFDR component detects throttle position? |
7. Engine power lever angle potentiometer |
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8. What CSFDR components are classified as LVDTs? |
8. The control surface position transducers |
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9. What CSFDR component receives LVDT signals? |
9. The SAU |
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10. The flaperon position transducers are mounted on what flight control component? |
10. The left and right ISAs |
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11. What position transducer doesn’t mount to an ISA? |
11. The rudder position transducer. |
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1. Where is the SDR located? |
1. It’s mounted to the left side of the ejection seat. |
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2. What’s the function of the SDR cannon plug lanyard? |
2. To disconnect the SDR cannon plug upon ejection. |
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3. Describe the basic SDR design used with the analog FLCS. |
3. Used with the analog FLCS is retained for use with the DFLCS. In the analog FLCS, this unit is divided |
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4. How does the DFLCC treat the SDR memory |
4. As one contiguous 2K block |
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5. What provides the communication link between the DFLCC and SDR? |
5. The UART |
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6. When does SDR recording start and when does recording stop? |
6. Flight data recording starts whenever the aircraft transitions to a weight-off-wheels condition. It stops when |
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7. What’s the SDR’s maximum record time? |
7. 99 minutes |
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8. When does the SDR record event driven data? |
8. When a DFLCS failure occurs |
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1. What does the Monochrome Cockpit Television Sensor (CTVS) Video Sensor Head (VSH) |
1. A view of the outside world to the CTVS E/U, which incorporates synchronization and control signals to |
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2. What is the purpose of the cockpit television sensor electronics unit (CTVS E/U)? |
2. The E/U supplies the CTVS video to the HUD E/U, where it is combined with HUD symbology to create |
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3. Describe the purpose of the airborne video tape recorder (AVTR) panel (1) switches. |
3. It contains a power switch, with only ON and OFF positions, which controls the electrical power to the |
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4. What is the aft station coaxial switch and what is its purpose? |
4. It is a relay unit located in the aft cockpit under the center pedestal. The relay switches the display of the |
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5. What is the purpose of the head-up display/helmet-mounted display video switch (HUD/HMD)? |
5. It allows the video to switch between HUD CTVS video and helmet mounted cueing system (HMCS) |
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6. What does the digital video system record? |
6. It provides video recordings of HUD/CTVS video and MFD/color (C) MFD displays as well as audio |
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7. Video signals from the HUD, left (L) MFD/CMFD, and right (R) MFD/CMFD travel to which |
7. AVTR control panel |
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8. The digital video recorder system records a morse code three-letter ground station identification |
8. TACAN and ILS. |
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9. What does the digital video recorder system record when an AIM-9 missile locks onto a target? |
9. A 400 to 1500 Hz variable pitch tone |
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1. What was Bernoulli’s theory about the relationship of pressure and fluids? |
1. As a moving fluid’s speed increases, its pressure decreases. |
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2. What simple device is used to demonstrate Bernoulli’s principle? |
2. A venturi. |
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3. What items on an aircraft can be considered airfoils? |
3. Propeller blades, wings, stationary and movable control surfaces, and even the fuselage can be termed |
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4. What are the two edges of a wing referred to as? |
4. Leading edge and trailing edge. |
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5. How does Bernoulli’s theory relate to an aircraft’s wings? |
5. An airfoil (wing) is designed to permit air to flow more rapidly past its upper surface than its lower surface, |
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6. How does the previous question apply to lift? |
6. The airflow above and beneath the airfoil creates a pressure difference; there is less pressure above the |
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7. What is the difference between the F–16 and A–10 airfoils? |
7. The F–16 airfoil is much more streamlined |
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8. How does the function of a more streamlined airfoil compare to the function of a less streamlined |
8. More streamlined airfoils reduce drag, but provide a much lower degree of lift than do less streamline |
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9. What is AOA |
9. The angle between the wing and the flight path. |
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10. What is the relationship between lift and AOA? |
10. Lift increases with AOA |
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11. What happens to an airfoil when AOA approaches 20? |
11. Most airfoils enter a stall condition due to the lift over the airfoil being disrupted by turbulence |
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2. Why is a high AOA important during takeoff and landing, and when aircraft are flying at slow |
2. Without the extra lift provided by the AOA, the decreased thrust would allow gravity and drag to pull the |
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4. What is significant about the point where the X, Y, and Z axes intersect on the F–16? |
4. That point is the aircraft’s center of gravity |
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5. How are aircraft roll movements referenced? |
5. Downward motion of the left or right wing tip. |
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6. How are aircraft pitch movements referenced? |
6. Pitch is referenced to the nose of the aircraft in terms of aircraft nose up and nose down. |
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7. How are aircraft yaw movements referenced? |
7. Yaw is referenced in terms of nose left or nose right. |
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8. What effect did connecting hydraulic actuators directly to the stick and rudder pedals have on |
8. Eliminated the need to use physical force to control surface movement. |
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9. What is using hydraulic actuators to control aircraft surface movement known as? |
9. Control augmentation |
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10. Why was artificial feel incorporated into flight controls |
10. To keep the controls from being over controlled or accidentally jarred by the pilots. |
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11. What corrected control augmentation’s early problem with rapid jerky movements of the flight |
11. Electronic circuitry smoothes out surface movements and controls the degree of movement according to |
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12. What purpose do accelerometers and gyros serve in controlling flight control surfaces |
12. They smooth out flight control inputs and automatically adjust the surfaces for turbulence. |
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13. What was the first aircraft to incorporate the fly by wire concept? |
13. The F–16. |
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14. What feature eliminated flight control push rods and cables? |
14. The fly by wire concept. |
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1. What’s the principle component of the FLCS? |
1. The FLCC |
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2. Where’s the FLCC located? |
2. Behind access door 1204 |
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3. Most FLCC signals are quad-redundant. What are the two exceptions |
3. Autopilot and gun-firing compensation. |
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4. How would you typically access FLCC nonvolatile memory? |
4. By using a viper MLV or word reader through a connector port located on the FLCP. |
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5. What’s the purpose of the STORES CONFIG switch? |
5. Enables the FLCC to enhance maneuvering capability when stores are loaded on the aircraft by changing |
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6. What signals does the ECA receive via the PSA? |
6. Three sources of impact pressure, three sources of static pressure, and one source of AOA. |
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7. What’s the purpose of the angle of sideslip DPS signal? |
7. It compensates the AOA source from the PSA. |
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8. In the event of an air data failure, how does the FLCC make its gains calculation? |
8. The ECA provides the FLCC with standby gains |
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9. If standby gains are selected, how will the LEFs respond? |
9. The LEFs will drive to 0, unless the landing gear is in the down position or the ALT FLAP switch is in the |
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10. When would the servo switch be placed to ARM? |
10. After a nonresettable ISA failure |
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11. With the servo switch in the ARM position, what happens when there is a second ISA failure? |
11. The ISA is automatically shut down and the surface is returned to the streamlined position |
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12. What resets electronic circuits (P, R, and Y caution lamps) after a single resettable malfunction |
12. The ELEC position of the servo electronics reset switch. |
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13. What indication is there if a second failure occurs in a given flight control axis? |
13. The DUAL FC FAIL light illuminates |
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14. On the FLCS self-test step indicator, what does an illuminated data dot in the upper right corner |
14. A rate gyro speed malfunction |
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15. If the alternate flap switch is positioned to EXTEND, what determines flaperon position? |
15. Airspeed only |
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16. Where’s the side-stick controller located? |
16. It’s mounted on, and extends above, the cockpit’s right console |
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17. How many LVDTs are contained within the side-stick controller assembly? |
17. Four |
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18. What provides artificial feel to the side-stick controller assembly? |
18. Beams and coil springs within the transducer assembly |
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19. What’s the rudder pedal breakout force, and how much force is required to achieve maximum |
19. 15 pounds and 110 pounds respectively |
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20. How many RVDTs are located in an AOA transmitter probe? |
20. Four. |
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21. How is quadruple redundancy achieved in a rate gyro assembly? |
21. Each rate gyro assembly contains four rate gyros. |
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22. How many accelerometers are contained in the NLA assembly |
22. Eight; four to sense normal acceleration and four to sense lateral acceleration |
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23. How’s roll trim commanded? |
23. It can be commanded two ways: (1) via the trim button located on the side-stick controller, (2) via the |
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24. How’s yaw trim commanded? |
24. Only via the yaw trim knob located on the MTP |
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25. What’s the result of positioning the MTP’s TRIM/AP DISC to DISC? |
25. Electrical power is removed from both trim motors and autopilot can’t be engaged. Since power is removed |
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26. What does the YAW TRIM knob guard provide? |
26. Prevents inadvertent rotation of the knob |
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27. What two autopilot switches are located on the miscellaneous panel? |
27. The pitch and roll autopilot switches |
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28. Where does the sideslip DPS get its input signals? |
28. From the flushed-mounted static pressure ports. |
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29. What function do the eight pressure sensors serve that are located in the PSA? |
29. Convert pneumatic pressures (air data inputs) into electrical signals |
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1. What are the two resident software programs located in the DFLCC? |
1. Normal system operation program, and digital backup program |
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2. The DFLCC performs the job of what two analog FLCS components? |
2. The FLCC and the ECA |
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3. Besides being a digital component, what’s the other major advantage that the DFLCC has over its |
3. It can communicate over the A and D multiplex buses |
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4. What major advantage is provided by the DFLCC communicating on the D-MUX bus? |
4. Access can be gained to the DFLCC memory locations |
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5. When is the DFLCP’s RUN/FAIL lamp used? |
5. Only during BIT operations |
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6. What three conditions must be met before the DFLCP’s BIT switch remains in the BIT position? |
6. DFLCS power is applied, weight is on the main landing gear, and left and right wheel speed sensors |
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7. What’s indicated if, during BIT, the BIT switch returns to the OFF position and the red FAIL |
7. A BIT failure has occurred |
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8. If successful, what happens at the very end of BIT? |
8. The BIT switch automatically returns to the OFF position |
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9. How many RVDT’s are contained in the DFLCS AOA transmitter probe? |
9. One. |
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10. In relation to the miscellaneous switch panel, what must occur before roll autopilot can be |
10. The PITCH switch has to be in attitude hold or altitude hold. |
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2. Why is flight control wiring routed down each side of the aircraft in branched pairs? |
2. The separation prevents loss of system authority should damage occur in one area. |
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3. What component physically positions a control surface? |
3. The ISA. |
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4. Describe gain scheduling |
4. It’s the amount of control surface movement in relation to the amount of pressure applied to the side stick, |
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5. Name the primary flight control surfaces. |
5. Horizontal stabilizers, flaperons, and rudder |
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6. What are the horizontal stabilizer’s movable limits |
6. 21º up or down from streamline |
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7. The flaperons perform what two aerodynamic functions? |
7. Their primary purpose is to provide uniform roll performance during roll maneuvers, and they extend as |
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8. What are the flaperon’s movable limits? |
8. 20º down to 23º up from streamline. |
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9. What are the rudder’s movable limits? |
9. 30º left or right of streamline |
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10. What direction will the rudder deflect during gunfire? |
10. To the right |
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11. What control surfaces are associated with the secondary FLCS? |
11. LEFs and speed brakes |
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12. What are the maximum movable limits of the speed brakes? |
12. Full open is 60º per speed brake panel; 120º combined. |
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13. When will the speed brake indicator display a nine-dot symbol? |
13. When the speed brakes open more than 2º. |
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14. When landing, what limits speed brake operation to 43? |
14. The 43 limit switch |
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15. What hydraulic system(s) pressurize(s) the ISAs and LEF PDU? |
15. A and B systems, which provides continued operation should either the A or B system fail. |
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16. What hydraulic system(s) pressurize(s) the speed brakes? |
16. Only system A. |
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17. What’s the primary function of the autopilot system? |
17. To assist the pilot while his or her attention is diverted from manual flight so that other in flight operations |
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18. How are the autopilot switches held in any usable autopilot mode? |
18. Electromagnetically (solenoid held). |
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19. What flight control axis uses the ATT HOLD autopilot mode? |
19. Both pitch and roll. |
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20. What autopilot mode permits the use of control stick steering? |
20. ATT HOLD (pitch or roll). |
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21. What’s the maximum altitude that PITCH ALT HOLD will maintain |
21. 40,000 feet. |
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22. ROLL autopilot HDG SEL operates is conjunction with what cockpit component? |
22. The HSI. |
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23. Explain what is meant by trim as it applies to an F–16 FLCS? |
23. As an aircraft flies, its weight becomes unbalanced. This results from fuel consumption and stores release |
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24. What’s the purpose of the TRIM/AP DISC switch? |
24. Placing the switch to the DISC position will remove inputs from the side-stick controller trim button in the |
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25. If the TRIM/AP DISC switch is in the DISC position, how can the aircraft be trimmed? |
25. By manually repositioning the pitch and roll thumbwheels on the MTP |
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1. What does the LEF system provide? |
1. It provides high lift for takeoff and landing and optimizes performance in each flight phase |
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2. What information does the DFLCC process to provide leading edge flap inputs? |
2. Angle-of-attack (AOA), mach, and altitude data |
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3. What are the LEFs movable limits |
3. 2º up to 25º down measured from the streamline position |
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4. What component physically drives the LEFs? |
4. The PDU. |
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5. Which hydraulic systems supply pressure for operation of the PDU? |
5. A and B systems |
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6. How many mechanical rotary actuators are located on each wing leading edge? |
6. Four. |
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7. Where is the LEF switch located? |
7. On the FLT CONTROL panel in the cockpit |
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8. What is the purpose of the LEF switch LOCK position? |
8. The LOCK position is used to lock the leading edge flaps in their existing positions |
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9. When the LE FLAPS switch is placed in the LOCK position, with weight on both landing gears |
9. Two degrees up. |
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10. If both leading edge flap command outputs fail, what indication will the pilot see? |
10. LEF LOCK PFL will be displayed on the PFLD along with a flight control system warning light |
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1. What does the SAI display and what is the display referenced to? |
1. Aircraft pitch and roll are displayed with reference to the miniature aircraft and roll reference scale |
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2. How is pitch trim control accomplished on the SAI? |
2. By rotating the PULL TO CAGE control to move the miniature aircraft symbol up or down |
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3. What does the cage function provide? |
3. It locks the attitude drum and internal gyro to zero degrees pitch and roll |
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4. What is the range of display for the SAI? |
4. A display of 360 in roll and ±90 in pitch from level flight |
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5. What is indicated when the OFF flag is in view on the SAI? |
5. A loss of 28 vdc electrical power to the indicator |
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6. How long will the SAI continue to provide aircraft pitch and roll information if the internal gyro |
6. The gyro will continue to provide aircraft pitch and roll information with an accuracy of ±6 for a minimum |
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1. What does the magnetic compass display and what is this display respect to? |
1. Aircraft heading with respect to magnetic north. |
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2. What is the primary use of the magnetic compass? |
2. By rotating the PULL TO CAGE control to move the miniature aircraft symbol up or down. |
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3. What does the liquid in the magnetic compass provide? |
3. Balance, damping, and smooth rotation of the compass card. |
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4. How is the magnetic compass graduated? |
4. In 5-degree increments with general directions of north (N), east (E), south (S), and west (W) marked at the |
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5. What is the purpose of the magnetic compass adjustable magnets? |
5. To balance north-south and east-west errors caused by magnetic influences generated by and within the |
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1. What is in the EGI unit that performs the INS and GPS portion of EGI? |
1. A Ring Laser Gyro Inertial Navigation Unit and an Embedded GPS Receiver (EGR). |
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2. What do the gyros in the EGI unit provide? |
2. Inertial stabilization for azimuth, pitch, and roll signals. |
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3. What switch provides power to both the RLG INU and the EGR and where is the switch located? |
3. The INS switch on the avionics power panel (APP). |
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4. Which component is responsible for the initial processing of received navigation messages? |
4. Antenna electronics unit. |
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5. Which antenna receives signals from satellites for GPS operation on F–16 D-model aircraft only? |
5. The fixed reception pattern antenna (FRPA). |
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6. What EGI mode of alignment is the primary alignment mode used for latitudes at or below 80 |
6. Normal (NORM) alignment and it requires 4 minutes to align |
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7. If you needed a quick reaction takeoff and a full performance ready condition (alignment) in 30 |
7. Stored heading alignment |
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8. When would the pilot use the attitude (ATT) alignment? |
8. Anytime the RLG platform has dumped and no GPS data is available |
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9. What is the primary flight mode of operation for the EGI? |
9. Navigation (NAV) mode. |
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10. What is required for INS and GPS data to be stored in non-volatile memory during power down |
10. Primary power to the EGI is required for at least 20 seconds after the power down command is initiated. |
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11. What does the INS within the EGI unit provide to the attitude director indicator (ADI)? |
11. Inputs of aircraft pitch and roll signals and an attitude good validity signal to the attitude director indicator |
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12. What portion of the EGI unit supplies GPS position, velocity, and time information to the EGI |
12. Embedded global receiver (EGR). |
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13. How many satellites will the embedded global receiver (EGR) simultaneously acquire and track? |
13. Four. |
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15. What does the almanac data provide to the receiver to allow GPS to quickly locate, acquire, and |
15. It provides the satellites positions at a given time. |
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14. What data does the EGI unit’s EGR require to achieve optimum operation? |
14. GPS almanac data, GPS initialization data, and date), and GPS crypto-variable (keys). |
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16. How many navigation solutions does the EGI provide in NAV mode and what are they? |
16. There are three and they are: INS-only, GPS-only and GPS/INS (blended). |
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17. What does the GPS/INS (blended) navigation solution provide? |
17. It combines line-of-sight data from the EGR with inertial navigation data to form a navigation solution |
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18. If there is a loss of aircraft power, how long will the EGI continue to operate with the EGI |
18. 10 seconds |
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19. What types of BIT does the EGI unit have? |
19. Start up BIT, Periodic BIT, and Initiated BIT. |
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20. Which type of BIT does the maintenance personnel use to determine if the EGI unit has failed? |
20. Initiated BIT |
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1. What is the operating range of the nozzle position indicator? |
1. From 0 to 100 percent |
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2. What is the indicator range of the FTIT indicator? |
2. From 200° to 1200°C |
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3. Where is the exhaust gas temperature T5.6 thermocouple located? |
3. Mounted to the augmenter case at approximately the 6 o’clock position |
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4. What is the indicator range of the RPM percent indicator? |
4. From 0 to 110 rpm percent |
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5. What is the indicator range of the oil pressure indicator? |
5. 1 to 100 psi range. |
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6. What is the indicator range of the fuel flow indicator? |
6. From 0 to 80,000 pph fuel flow rate. |
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7. Which hydraulic pressure indicators display the indication for hydraulic system A and B? |
7. The left indicator displays hydraulic system A and the right indicator displays system B. |
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8. What will the pilot see if hydraulic pressure to either switch decreases to less than 1000 (±100) |
8. The HYD/OIL PRESS warning light comes on. |
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1. What does the fuel quantity measurement system provide? |
1. An indication of remaining fuel and the location of the fuel on the aircraft. |
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2. How many internal fuel storage departments are there on the F–16 and what are they used for? |
2. Seven internal compartments are located in its fuselage and wings for the purpose of storing/feeding fuel. |
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3. What internal fuel compartments are used to directly feed the F–16 engine? |
3. The forward and aft reservoirs. |
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4. What are the tank systems found on the F–16 aircraft |
4. The forward and aft tank systems. |
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5. What F–16 tanks make up the forward tank system? |
5. The right wing, F–1, F–2, and forward reservoir tanks. If a right external wing tank is installed it is also part |
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6. What F–16 internal tank is different dependent on whether it is a C-model or D-model aircraft? |
6. The F1 fuel tank |
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7. What tank stores fuel for transfer to the forward reservoir? |
7. The F2 fuel tank |
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8. What tanks make up the aft tank system? |
8. The left wing, A–1, and aft reservoir tanks. When the left external wing tank is installed, it becomes part of |
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9. What tank system does an external centerline belong to? |
9. When installed, the centerline external tank becomes part of both the forward and aft tank systems. |
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10. What unit of measurement is used for fuel displayed on fuel quantity indicator? |
10. In pounds. |
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11. What are the three indicators found on the fuel quantity indicator? |
11. The AL pointer, the FR pointer, and a digital readout |
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12. What fuel quantity indication is represented by the digital readout? |
12. Total fuel in both tank systems |
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13. What indication would you expect to see on the fuel quantity indicator if the forward tank system |
13. The red portion of the AL pointer would be visible, indicating a fuel imbalance |
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14. What switch is used to manually distribute fuel to rebalance the fuel load? |
14. The engine feed selector switch |
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15. What component is used to select display of fuel quantity for each of the separate fuel tanks? |
15. The fuel quantity select panel. |
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16. What are the positions of the fuel quantity select switch? |
16. TEST, NORM, RSVR, INT WING, EXT WING, and EXT CTR |
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17. When selecting test on the fuel quantity select switch, what indications would you expect to see? |
17. The AL and FR pointers drive to 2,000 (100) pounds. Total fuel readout will display 6,000 (100) pounds |
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18. When selecting EXT CTR on the fuel quantity select switch, what indication would you expect to |
18. The AL pointer drops to zero and the FR pointer indicates the fuel in the external centerline tank. |
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19. What component is the heart of the fuel quantity measurement system? |
19. The fuel quantity control unit. |
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20. What is the total number of fuel probes that are used by an F–16 C-model? D-model? |
20. Equipped with three external tanks, the C-model has 24 and the D-model has 23 |
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21. What part of a fuel probe is used to form the plates of a capacitor? |
21. Two metal tubes electrically isolated from one another by Teflon spacers |
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22. When an external tank is empty, what circuit is used to cancel out the capacitance signal to the |
22. A negator circuit |
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23. What voltage is supplied to the fuel quantity measuring system for operation? |
23. 115 VAC. |
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24. What characteristic of a fuel probe varies according to the amount of fuel in the tank? |
24. Capacitance |
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25. What voltage is applied to the fuel probes for excitation? |
25. A high frequency 6 kHz excitation voltage |
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26. What is used to condition the applied excitation voltage prior to it being fed into the two fuel |
26. The variable tank unit capacitance |
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27. Where are the two diode positive and negative half-wave signal outputs fed? |
27. Both are fed to the control unit. |
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28. After filtering the incoming half-wave signals, what do the control unit positive and negative DC |
28. Positive DC voltages correlate to fuel levels in either the FR or AL tank systems depending on the tank unit |
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29. What does the fuel level sensing system provide? |
29. Fuel level sensing and controls the air ejector valves and the fuel-low caution lights. |
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30. What type of sensors does the fuel level sensing system use and where are they found? |
30. Two low-level sensors and two air ejector control sensors that are located on the tank units in the forward |
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31. Under what circumstance should an air ejector solenoid valve open |
31. When the ejector control sensor becomes uncovered |
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32. What does the opening of the ejector control valve do for the fuel system? |
32. It expels air from the reservoir, creating suction that aids in fuel feeding |
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33. What is the purpose of the fuel level sensors? |
33. To detect when fuel drops below specific levels in the reservoir tanks |
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34. At approximately how many pounds of fuel will the reservoir ejector control sensors become |
34. 440 pounds |
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35. For an F–16C and D-model aircraft, at approximately how many pounds will the forward and aft |
35. The low-level sensor in the forward reservoir will be uncovered with fuel at approximately 400 pounds for |
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36. What fuel level-sensing component provides for air ejector valve control and operation, fuel low |
36. The fuel level control unit. |
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37. Where would you find the air ejector valves? |
37. In the aerial refuel well |
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38. What power is used to operate the fuel level sensing system components and where does it come |
38. 28 VDC from the FUEL LEVEL SENSING circuit breaker, mounted on the right strake DC power panel |
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39. How do you test the fuel level sensing system? |
39. By placing the fuel quantity select switch to TEST |
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40. What does the fuel level sensing test confirm? |
40. The integrity of the control unit and the warning light circuitry. |
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41. What is the fuel level control unit fault detection circuitry used for? |
41. To detect an open sensor circuitry |
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42. What indication would you expect with a detected open in the forward ejector sensor circuit? |
42. An illuminated FWD FUEL LOW light |
