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299 Cards in this Set

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Lecture 53: Biochem 4
Glycogen
What are the arterial branches off the common hepatic artery?
Gastroduodenal artery
•Branches
-Right gastro-omental artery
-Anterior superior pancreaticoduodenal artery

Right gastric artery

Proper hepatic artery
•Branches
-Left hepatic artery
-Right hepatic artery
What cell type secretes the histamine that stimulates the histamine receptor on parietal cells thereby increasing gastric acid production?
Enterochromaffin like cells (ECL cells)
An infant present to the ER with vomiting. What presenting features would lead you to suspect congenital pyloric stenosis?
Age: 2-6 weeks old

Male > female
-Classic presentation – 1st born male

Nonbilious, projectile vomiting

Dehydration

Metabolic alkalosis (hypokalemic, hypochloremic)

Palpable olive-like bulge on abdominal exam (***HIGH YIELD***)
Pompe Disease
Infantile form: Cardiomegaly and Early death

Adult form: Diaphragm weakness and Respiratory failure

Due to: Deficiency of lysosomal a-1,4-glucosidase
What is the rate-limiting enzyme for the following metabolic pathway?

Glycolysis
Phosphofructokinase-1
RLE (Rate-limiting enzyme): Gluconeogenesis
Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase
RLE: Glycogenesis
Glycogen synthase
RLE: Glycogenolysis
Glycogen phosphorylase
Which enzyme converts glucose-6-phosphage to glucose?
Glucose-6-phosphatase
Which glycogen storage disease matches each of the following phases? (***HIGH YIELD***)

Glycogen phosphorylase deficiency
Type V (McArdle disease)
Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency
Type I (von Gierke disease)
Lactic acidosis, hyperlipidemia, hyperuricemia (gout)
Type I (von Gierke disease)
α-1,6-glucosidase deficiency
Type III (Cori disease)
α-1,4-glucosidase deficiency
Type II (Pompe disease)
Cardiomegaly
Type II (Pompe disease, infantile type)
Diaphragm weakness leading to respiratory failure
Type II (Pompe disease, adult type)
Increased glycogen in the liver; severe fasting hypoglycemia
Type I (von Gierke disease)
Hepatomegaly, hypoglycemia, hyperlipidemia (normal kidneys, lactate, and uric acid)
Type III (Cori disease)
Painful muscle cramps, myoglobinuria with strenuous exercise
Type V (McArdle disease)
Severe hepatosplenomegaly, enlarged kidneys
Type I (von Gierke disease)
Lecture 54: Biochem 5
Energy
What are the different RNA polymerases in eukaryotes?
RNA polymerase I: makes rRNA

RNA polymerase II: makes mRNA

RNA polymerase III: makes tRNA
In which order of elimination (zero order first) would you see a linear decrease in the plasma concentration of a substance when plotted against time?
Zero order

*Rate of elimination is INDEPENDENT of the concentration of the substance
What is the equation for Gibbs free energy?
Delta G = Delta H – T Delta S

G = Gibbs’s free energy
H = energy/enthalpy (heat change in constant pressure rxns)
S = entropy/disorder/randomness
Why are alanine and glutamine found in such high concentrations in the blood?
They are the 2 major carriers of nitrogen from tissues
What is generally involved in transamination?
Transfer of the amino group of an amino acid to
a- ketoglutarate to form glutamate

The remaining deaminated amino acid is a keto-acid (such as pyruvate) that is used in energy metabolism
What enzyme catalyzes transamination in the alanine cycle cycle?
Aminotransferase
How are aminotransferases named?
By donor of the amino group (alanine aminotransferase converts alanine to pyruvate and forms glutamate)
In addition to substrates, what is required by all aminotransferases?
Pyridoxal phosphate (a derivative of vitamin B6)
What are the 2 most important aminotransferase enzymes? What reaction do they catalyze?
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT):
-alanine + a- ketoglutarate <--- ---> glutamate + pyruvate

Aspartate aminotransferase (AST):
-glutamate + oxaloacetate <---- ----> a-ketoglutarate + aspartate
Cofactors of Pyruvate Dehydrogenase
*** HIGH YIELD ***
“Tender loving care for no one”

Thiamine (vit. B1) to make TPP

Lipoic acid

CoA (comes from vit. B5)

FAD (comes from vit B2)

NAD (comes from vit. B3, Niacin)
Arsenic exposure
KNOW!
Arsenic inhibits Lipoic acid

Manifests as:
-Garlic breath
-Vomiting
-Rice water stool

Look like gastritis with garlic breath
TCA cycle 3 enzymes to KNOW***
Citrate synthase

Isocitrate dehydrogenase (very heavily regulated)

a-ketoglutarate Dehydrogenase
-Same cofactors as Pyruvate Dehydrogenase
-“Tender loving care for no one”
Substances the inhibit Complex I, NADH reductase
Amytal (barbiturate)

Rotenone (fish poison)

Methy-phenylpyridinium (MPP)
-Comes from MPTP (which is created when druggies try to may make synthetic Meperidine/ Opoids)
-Causes Parkinson’s symptoms
Substances that inhibit Complex III
Inhibited by: Antimycin A
Substances that inhibit Complex IV
Cyanide (CN-)

Sodium azide (N3-)

Carbon monoxide (CO)

Hydrogen sulfide (H2S)
What are the possible products of pyruvate?
Acetyl-CoA

Lactic acid

Alanine

Oxaloacetate
What are the two main nitrogen transporters in the blood? (***KNOW***)
Alanine

Glutamine
What are the major regulatory enzymes of citric acid cycle?
Citrate synthase

Isocitrate dehydrogenase (rate-limiting step)

a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
What substances are known to inhibit the complexes of the electron transport chain?
Complex I, NADH reductase inhibited by:
-Amytal (barbiturate)
-Rotenone (fish poison)
-Methy-phenylpyridinium (MPP) (Comes from MPTP)

•Complex III
Inhibited by: Antimycin A

Complex IV inhibited by:
-Cyanide (CN-)
-Sodium azide (N3-)
-Carbon monoxide (CO)
-Hydrogen sulfide (H2S)
What substances can increase the permeability of the inner mitochondrial membrane, thereby decreasing ATP synthesis but increasing heat generation?
Aspirin

Thermogenin

2,4-DNP

*These are uncoupling agents
5 cofactors that are required to complete the Pyruvate Dehydrogenase Complex
Thiamine (vit. B1) to make TPP

Lipoic acid

CoA (comes from vit. B5)

FAD (comes from vit B2)

NAD (comes from vit. B3, Niacin)
Lecture 55: Biochem 6
HMP Shunt and Other Sugars
What are the features of Plummer-Vinson syndrome?
Dysphagia from esophageal webs

Glossitis

Iron deficiency
Explain why methanol is such a toxic substance.
Methanol metabolized to formaldehyde leading to:

-Metabolic acidosis

-Retinal damage and blindness
A woman commonly develops intense muscle cramps and darkening of her urine after exercise. What is her diagnosis?
McArdle disease (classic presentation)

* Causes myoglobinura with strenuous exercise
What are the components of the HMP shunt (pentose phosphate pathway)
G6p-----> (2) NADPH + Ribulose- 5- Phosphate

Via Glucose -6- P- dehydrogenase

Ribulose-5-P----> PRPP (final product of pathway)
What to the enzymes NADPH oxidase, Superoxide dismutase, and Myeloperoxidase catalyze?
The oxidative burst:

NADPH oxidase: O2 ----->O2-

Superoxide dismutase: O2- -----> H2O2

Myeloperoxidase: H2O2 ----> HOCl

*Chronic Granulomatous Disease
-Caused by: Deficiency in NADPH oxidase
-Catalse + organisms especially dangerous
Describe essential fructosuria
Fructokinase defect/deficiency

Can't use fructose as an energy source

Benign condition resulting in increase fructose in the blood and urine

Cause dieresis because fructose acts as an osmole and brings more water into the urine
Describe Fructose intolerance
Caused by Aldolase B deficiency

Accumulation of fructose-1- phosphate

Inhibits glycosis and glyconeogenesis

Results in :
-Hypoglycemia
-Vomiting
-Jaundice
-Cirrhosis
Describe Galactoskinase Deficiency
Galactose accumulates if galactose is present in the diet

Can cause cataracts in infants
Describe Classic Galactosemia
Absence of Galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase

S/S:
-Severe cataracts
-Hepatomegaly
-Cirrhosis
-Failure to thrive
-Mental retardation

Tx: exclude galactose and lactose from diet
What is the rate-limiting step of the pentose phosphate pathway?
Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD)
Which tissue of the body use the pentose phosphate pathway?
Red blood cells

Liver

Adrenal cortex

Mammary glands
Explain why a deficiency of the enzyme that is the rate-limiter for the HMP shunt can result in hemolytic anemia?
G6PD generates NADPH

NADPH is used to produce reduced glutathione

Without G6PD -- RBC oxidative damage-- hemolysis
What are the symptoms of classic galactosemia?
Failure to thrive

Mental retardation

Hepatomegaly

Jaundice

Infantile cataracts
Galactokinase deficiency
Galactokinase deficiency... Well that's an easy one
Aldolase B Deficiency
Fructose intolerance
Lactase deficiency
Lactose intolerance
Galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase deficiency
Galactosemia
Fructokinase deficiency
Essential fructosuria
G6PD Deficiency
X-linked recessive

Stressors:
-Infection
-Drugs: Antimalarials, Sulfonamides, Fava beans

Causes: Non-immune hemolytic anemia
Lecture 56: Biochem 7
Fuel Use
What substances are well known for causing hemolytic anemia in patients with G6PD deficiency?
Fava beans

Sulfa drugs

Primaquine

Isoniazid

High-dose aspirin

Ibuprofen

Nitrofurantoin

Dapsone

Naphthalene
What are the 4 important pharmacokinetic equations?
Vd = (amount of drug given in IV form/ concentration of drug in plasma)

Clearance (CL) = (0.7 x Vd/ t ½)

Loading dose (LD) = Css x Vd

Maintenance dose (MD) = Css x CL
What is seen histologically in patients with celiac sprue?
Blunting of villi

Hyperplastic crypts

Lymphoctyes in the lamina propria
What fuels are produced and used in the post-absorptive period?
Produced: Glucose from gluconeogenesis & Fatty acids from adipose tissue

Used: Muscle, brain, and other tissues predominantly glucose
How does the pattern of fuel production and usage change in early starvation (24 hours after the last meal)?
•Produced: Glucose from gluconeogenesis & Fatty acids from adipose tissue

•Used: Brain uses predominantly glucose & Muscles and other tissues use some glucose but predominantly fatty acids
In intermediate starvation (48 hours after the last meal), how does the pattern of fuel production and consumption change?
•Produced:
-Glucose from gluconeogenesis
-Fatty acids from adipose tissue
-Ketone bodies from the liver

•Used:
-Brain uses predominantly glucose but also some ketone bodies
-Muscles and other tissue use predominantly fatty acids but also some ketone bodies
What metabolic scenario favors the synthesis of ketone bodies?
When production of acetyl-CoA from  oxidations of fatty acid exceeds the oxidative capacity of the TCA cycle
What is the pattern of fuel utilization and production in prolonged starvation (5 days after last meal)?
•Produced
-Glucose from gluconeogenesis
-Faty acids form adipose tissue
-Ketone bodies from the liver

•Used
-Brain uses predominantly ketone bodies
-Muscles and other tissue use predominantly fatty acids but also some ketone bodies
Kwashiorkor
Protein malnutrition

Causes skin lesion, edema, liver malfunction, fatty change of liver (because APOB 100 is not made and put on chylomicrons to leave the liver), skin and hair depigmentation

Porker’s—skinny child with protubrent belly because of edema and hepatomegly
Marasmus
Energy malnutrition
What is the primary energy source in a patient that has not eaten in two days?
Fatty acids
What hormone stimulates the storage of lipids in the fed state?
Insulin
What is the rate-limiting enzyme in ketone body synthesis?
HMG CoA Synthase
A stressed physician comes home from work, consumes 7 or 8 shots of tequila in rapid succession before dinner, and becomes hypoglycemic. Why did she become hypoglycemic?
•Ethanol metabolism generates NADH
-Pyruvate --- lactate
-Oxaloacetate -- malate

•No longer have pyruvate or oxaloacetate to undergo gluconeogenesis ---- hypoglycemia
What are some of the hallmark features of kwashiorkor?
Protein malnutrition
Edema and ascites
Anemia
Malfunction of the liver (fatty change)
Skin lesions
Skin and hair depigmentation
It’s the process of generating glucose for energy during periods of fasting or starvation.
Gluconeogenesis
It’s the ketone body that causes the breath of DKA patients to smell sweet or fruity.
Acetone
It’s the ketone body used for energy in the CNS for energy during periods of prolonged starvation.
Beta-hydroxybutyrate
It’s the only source of energy that RBCs can metabolize.
Glucose
Its metabolism yields 9 kilocalories of energy per gram, more than either protein or carbohydrates.
Fat
Lecture 57: Endocrine 10
Obesity
What co-factors are required for the function of pyruvate dehydrogenase? What other enzyme requires the same co-factors?
•Co-factors required for the function of Pyruvate dehydrogenase
-Thiamine pyrophosphate
-Lipoic acid
-CoA
-FAD
-NAD

•Other enzyme that requires the same co-factors
a–ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
What medications are used to shrink prolactinomas?
•Dopamine agonists:
Bromocriptine
Cabergoline
What are the functions of interleukins 1-5?
•“Hot T-bone stEAk”

Hot : IL-1 causes fever

T-bone:
- IL-2 is a T-cell stimulator
-IL-3 is a bone marrow stimulator

stEAk
-IL-4 enhances production of IgE and IgG
-IL-5 is associated with IgA and eosinophils
BMI Ranges (***HIGH YIELD***)
≥ 30 – obese

25.0-29.9 – overweight

18.5-24.9 – normal, healthy weight

< 18.5 – underweight
Hypothalamus Nuclei involved in Regulating Hunger and Food Intake
Paraventricular nuclei

Dorsal medial nuclei

Arcuate nucleus

Lateral hypothalamus

Ventromedial nuclei
What stimulates and inhibits the lateral hypothalamus?
KNOW***
Stimulated by hunger

Inhibited by anorexia

Inhibited by Leptin (KNOW)
What stimulates and inhibits the Ventromedial nuclei
Stimulated by satiety

Destroyed by hyperphagia

Stimulated by Leptin (KNOW)
Hormonal Regulation of Fat Utilization (***HIGH YIELD***)
Both cause – INCREASED sympathetic stimulation
-Heavy exercise
-Stress: Increase NE & glucocorticoids
Causes of Lipodystrophy
High Yield***
Leptin deficiency

HIV

HIV medications (protease inhibitors

Sites of insulin injection
Metabolic Syndrome
3 Stars ***
Diagnosis based on any 3 of the following:

-Abdominal Obesity: waist circumference > or = 40in (102cm), or > or = 35in (88cm) in women (recognize that not all metabolic syndromes patients are overweight)

-Triglycerides > or = 150 mg/dL

-HDL <40 mg/dl in men, <50 mg/dl

-BP > or = 130/85

-Fasting serum glucose > or = 100 mg/dl (or 2hr post oral glucose > or = 140 mg/dl)
What are the five categories of criteria for the diagnosis of metabolic syndrome? (HIGH YIELD)
Abdominal obesity

Triglycerides

Low HDL

BP

Glucose
What liver disease is associated with obesity? (HIGH YIELD)
Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH)

*Suspect with chronically elevated LFTs
At what BMI is a patient considered obese? (HIGH YIELD)
BMI ≥ 30
Lecture 58: GI 9
Hepatocytes and Cirrhosis
What immunodeficiency matches each of the following statements?

Neutrophils fail to respond to chemotactic stimuli
Job syndrome (hyper IgE syndrome)

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency syndrome
Adenosine deaminase deficiency
SCID
Failure of endodermal development
DiGeorge syndrome
Defective tyrosine kinase gene
Bruton agammaglobulinemia
Associated with high levels of IgE
Job syndrome (hyper IgE syndrome)
How does hexokinase differ from glucokinase?
•Hexokinase
-Found – everywhere
-Insulin: doesn’t induce
-Low Km
-Low Vmax

•Glucokinase
-Found – Liver, pancreas ( cells)
-Insulin: induces
-High Km
-High Vmax
MOA: Protease inhibitors
Inhibit viral assembly

Block the protease enzyme
MOA: Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
Nucleic acid analogs

Inhibit reverse transcriptase

Prevent incorporation of the viral genome into the host DNA
MOA: Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
Inhibit reverse transcriptase by binding directly and non-competitively to the enzyme

Irreversible inhibitors

Prevent the incorporation of the viral genome into the host DNA
MOA: Fusion inhibitors
Bind viral glycoprotein 41

Inhibit fusion with CD4 cells
Gilbert syndrome
Slight problem with bilirubin uptake

Mild deficiency in UDP-GT

Higher levels of indirect bilirubin

Clinically insignificant
Crigler-Najjar syndrome Type I
Complete absence of UDP-GT

S/S—jaundice in first few days of life -- kernicturis

Treatment:
•Phototherapy (bili light)
•Plasmapheresis
•Liver transplant
Crigler-Najjar syndrome Type II
Mutated UDP-GT (less severe than Type 1)
Alcoholic Liver Disease
“A Scotch and Tonic”
AST > ALT

2:1

Depletion of ALT possibly due to B6 deficiency
What enzyme is responsible for the conjugation of bilirubin?
UDP-glucoronyl transferase
Mildly decreased UDPGT
Gilbert syndrome

Crigler-Najjar syndrome, type 2
Completely absent UDPGT
Crigler-Najjar syndrome, type 1
Grossly black liver
Dubin-Johnson syndrome
Responds to Phenobarbital
Crigler-Najjar syndrome, type 2

Gilbert syndrome
Treatment includes plasmapheresis and phototherapy
Crigler-Najjar syndrome, type 1
Asymptomatic unless under physical stress (alcohol, infection)
Gilbert syndrome
What are the signs of portal hypertension?
Esophageal varices
Hematemesis
Melena
Hemorrhoids
Caput medusa
Splenomegaly
Ascites
Triglyceride accumulation in hepatocytes
Fatty liver disease
Eosinophilic inclusions in the cytoplasm of hepatocytes
Mallory bodies
Cancer closely linked to cirrhosis
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Severe hyperbilirubinemia in a neonate
Crigler-Najjar syndrome, type 1
Mild, benign hyperbilirubinemia
Gilbert syndrome
What common disorder is associated with benign asymptomatic elevation of indirect bilirubin?
Gilbert syndrome
Lecture 59: GI 10
Liver Pathology
After the loss of his job, a 35 year old man has diarrhea and hematochezia. Intestinal biopsy shows transmural inflammation. What is the diagnosis?
Crohn’s disease
What effect will a competitive antagonist have on efficacy and potency?
Increase Km

Decrease potency

No change in efficacy
What effect does stress have on adipocytes?
Stress increases sympathetic tone

Activates hormone-sensitive TG lipase in fat cells:
-Rapid breakdown of TGs
-Mobilization of fatty acids

Anterior pituitary releases ACTH
-Adrenal cortex secretes more Glucocorticoids
Budd-Chiari Syndrome
Hepatomegaly, ascities, abdominal pain, liver failure

Portal hypertension

Absence of JVD (KEY)

Congestion of liver
Reye’s Syndrome
Seen in Children given Aspirin
Child also has a Viral Infection
Hepatoencephalopathy (Liver & )Brain
Damage to mitochondria
Wilson Disease
Cooper not incooperated into the bile

Copper accumulation in: Liver, Brain, Cornea, Kidneys, Joints

Clinical presentation:
-Cirrhosis
-Corneal deposits (Kayser-Fleischer ring)
-Hepatocellular carcinoma
-Hemolytic anemia
-Basal ganglia degeneration
-Parkinsonian symptoms
-Hepaticencephalopathy
-Dementia
-Fanconi’s syndrome (Proximal tubule dysfunction)

Treatment: Penicillamine
Hemochromatosis (bronze diabetes) Triad
KNOW***
Cirrhosis
Diabetes mellitus
Skin pigmentation
Hemochromatosis primary, secondary, and treatment
•Primary hemochromatosis: Autosomal recessive disorder

•Secondary hemochromatosis: Transfusions (chronic)

•Treatment: Phlebotomy, Deferoxamine
Hepatocellular Carcinoma risk factors
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C
Wilson disease
Hemochromatosis
a 1-antitrypsin deficiency
Alcoholic cirrhosis
Carcinogen exposure
Hepatocellular Carcinoma Serum Marker
KNOW***
a–fetoprotein (AFP)
Alcoholic cirrhosis
AST:ALT will be >2:1
Biliary tract
Increased GGT
Increased Alk Phos
Bone formation
Increased Alk Phos
Budd-Chiari
NO JVD
Ascites
Reye’s syndrome
ASA
Ped’s
Virus
Wilson’s Disease
Copper
Decreased cerulopasmin
Kayser-Fleischer ring
Penicillamine
Hemochromatosis
Iron
Bronze diabetes
Increased ferritin
Decreased TIBC
Increased transferrin saturation
Phlebotomy
Deferoxamine
a1-antitrypsin deficiency
Liver
Lung: Emphysema (panaciner)
What is seen in Budd-Chiari syndrome? What conditions are associated with Budd-Chiari syndrome?
Occulusion of the IVC of hepatic veins

Associated with:
-Polycythemia vera
-Pregnancy
-Hepatocellular carcinoma
What is the mechanism by which aspirin can cause Reye syndrome?
Metabolites of aspirin inhibit mitochondrial enzymes
Decreased B-oxidation
A young man presents with ataxia and tremors. He has brown pigmentation in a ring around the periphery of his cornea. What treatment should he receive?
Wilson Disease

Treatment – penicillamine
What is the underlying problem in Wilson disease? What are the characteristics of Wilson disease? What is the treatment for Wilson disease?
Underlying problem:
-Impaired copper excretion
-Body does not put copper into bile appropriately

Characteristics:
-Asterixis
-Basal ganglia degeneration
-Decreased ceruloplasmin
-Cirrhosis
-Kayser-Fleischer rings
-Copper accumulation
-Dementia
-Dyskinesia
-Dysarthria

Treatment – penicillamine
What is the classic triad of symptoms in hemochromatosis? What lab tests are used to diagnose hemochromatosis? What is the treatment?
Classic triad:
-Diabetes
-Bronzing of the skin
-Cirrhosis

Lab tests:
-Elevated ferritin
-Elevated transferring saturation
-Elevated serum iron
-Decreased TIBC

Treatment
-Phlebotomy
-Deferoxamine
What are the risk factors for the development of hepatocellular carcinoma?
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C
Wilson disease
Hemochromatosis
a1-antitrypsin deficiency
Alcoholic cirrhosis
Carcinogen exposure
Hepatomegaly, abdominal pain, ascites
Budd-Chiari syndrome
Green/yellow/ brown corneal deposits
Keyser-Fleisher rings
Low serum ceruloplasmin
Wilson disease
Cirrhosis, diabetes and hyperpigmentation
Hemochromatosis
Lecture 60: GI 11
Hepatitis
What is the result of a glycolytic enzyme deficiency? What is the result of a deficiency in pyruvate dehydrogenase?
•Glycolytic enzyme deficiency
-RBC hemolysis

•Deficiency in pyruvate dehydrogenase
-Neurologic defects
Which substance serves as chemotactic agents for leukocytes?
IL-8
Leukotriene B4
C5a
Kallikrein
What enzyme is inhibited by PPIs? Name 2 different PPIs
Hydrogen potassium ATPase

Common PPIs:
-Omeprazole
-Lansoprazole
-Pantoprazole
-Exomeprazole
Identify the hepatitis B status of each of the following patients based on their hepatitis B serologic markers.

HepBsAg- Negative

HepBsAB- Positive

HepBcAb- Positive
Recovery
HepBsAg- Negative

HepBsAB- Negative

HepBcAb- Positive
Window
HepBsAg- Positive

HepBsAB- Negative

HepBcAb- Positive IgM
Acute infection
HepBsAg- positive

HepBsAB- negative

HepBcAb- positive IgG
Chronic infection
HepBsAg- negative

HepBsAB- positive

HepBcAb- negative
Immunized
Early acute infection
HBsAg: positive

HBsAb: negative

HBcAb: +IgM

HBeAg: positive

HBeAb: negative
Window period
HBsAg: negative

HBsAb: negative

HBcAb: +IgM
Chronic infection with Increased transmissibility
HBsAg: positive

HBsAb: negative

HBcAb: +IgG

HBeAg: POSITIVE

HBeAb: NEGATIVE
Chronic infection with Decreased transmissibility
HBsAg: positive

HBsAb: negative

HBcAb: +IgG

HBeAg: NEGATIVE

HBeAb: POSITIVE
Past infection
HBsAg: negative

HBsAb: positive

HBcAb:+IgG

HBeAg: negative

HBeAb: positive
Vaccinated
HBsAg: negative

HBsAb: positive

HBcAb: +IgG

HBeAg: negative

HBeAb: negative
What medications are used in the treatment of chronic hepatitis B and C?
•Interferon alpha: Chronic hepatitis B and C

•Rabavirin: Chronic hepatitis C
What antibodies can be used to help make the diagnosis of autoimmune hepatitis?
•ANA (+), Anti-smooth muscle Ab (+)

•Anti-liver-kidney microsomal Ab (+)

•Anti-mitochondrial Ab (-)
Rapid Fire Fact: Treatment for chronic hepatitis
Interferon alpha
What serologic marker for hepatitis B indicates contagiousness?
“BE Ware”
Hepatitis “B” “E”nvelope Antigen (HBeAg)
Lecture 61: GI 12
Biliary Tract
What cocktail of medications is commonly taken by patient suffering from severe cirrhosis and what do they do?
Lactulose--- treats hepatic encephalopathy by decreasing ammonia

Vitamin K--- Maximizes clotting potential

Diuretics--- prevent ascities and edema

B-blocker--- to prevent bleeding from esophageal varices
What is the cause of chronic granulomatous disease? What are the consequences of chronic granulomatous disease?
Causes: Lack of NADPH oxidase activity; Phagocytes can engulf bacteria, but cannot generate free radicals (Impotent phagocytes)

Consequences: Susceptible to opportunistic infections
-S. aureus
-Salmonella
-Klebsiella
• Aspergillus
Which immunoglobulin isotype is associated with eosinophilia? Which cytokine is associated with differentiation of eosinophils?
Immunoglobulin -- IgE

Cytokine -- IL-5
DDx of Unconjugated Hyperbilirubinemias
Increased bilirubin production:
-Hemolytic anemia
-Sickle cell disease
-Hematoma breakdown

Impaired bilirubin uptake and storage
-Post viral hepatitis
-Rifampin

Decreased UDP-GT activity
-Gilbert syndrome
-Crigler-Najjar syndrome, type I and II
-Neonatal physiologic jaundice
DDx of Conjugated Hyperbilirubinemias
Impaired transport
-Dubin-Johnson syndrome
-Rotor syndrome

Biliary epithelial damage
-Hepatitis
-Cirrhosis
-Liver failure

Intrahepatic biliary obstruction
-Primary biliary cirrhosis
-Sclerosing cholangitis
-Chlorpromazine and arsenic

Extrahepatic biliary obstruction
-Pancreatic neoplasm
-Pancreatitis
-Cholangiocarcinoma
-Choledocholithiasis
Describe Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis (HIGH YIELD FACTS TO KNOW)
“Beads on a string” on ERCP (endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography)

Men around age 40

60% have a positive pANCA

Associated with
-Ulcerative colitis
-Cholangiocarcinoma
Primary Biliary Cirrhosis
90% of patients are middle-aged women
Positive anti-mitochondrial antibody (AMA)
Associated with other autoimmune disorders
Treat with ursodil
Cholelithiasis classic risk factors
Fat (overweight/obesity)
Fertile
Female
Forty

Dx: RUQ ultrasound
Charcot’s Triad of Cholangitis (KNOW)
Jaundice
Fever
Right upper quadrant pain
Reynold’s Pentad of Cholangitis
Jaundice
Fever
Right upper quadrant pain
Hypotension
Altered mental status
What is the fate of bilirubin after it is conjugated and secreted into the GI tract?
•Bacteria convert it to urobilinogen
•Most is excreted in the stool as stercobilin
•Some is reabsorbed/recycled in bile
•Tiny amount excreted in the urine as urobilin
What enzyme is functioning suboptimally in newborns with physiologic jaundice?
UDP-Glucuronyl Transferase
What are some of the intrahepatic and extrahepatic causes of biliary obstruction?
•Intrahepatic
-Primary biliary cirrhosis
-Primary sclerosing cholangitis
-Drugs

•Extrahepatic
-Pancreatic neoplasm
-Choledocholithiasis
-Pancreatitis
-Cholangiocarcinoma
What is the difference between primary biliary cirrhosis and primary sclerosing cholangitis?
Primary Biliary Cirrohosis
-Positive AMA
-Middle-aged females
-Autoimmune disease (CREST scleroderma)

Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis
-Positive pANCA
-Males over 40
-Ulcerative colitis and cholangiocarcinoma
-“Beads on a string” on ERCP
What are some of the risk factors for the development of cholesterol gallstones?
Fat
Fertile
Female
Forty
Lecture 62: Biochem 8
Lipids
What are the 3 most common types of thyroid cancer?
Papillary carcinoma (most common)

Follicular carcinoma

Medullary carcinoma (3rd most common)
What are the side effects of orlistat?
Steatorrhea

GI discomfort

Reduced absorption of fat-soluble vitamins
What are the arterial branches off of the celiac trunk and what branches come off of those?
Common hepatic artery
-Gastroduodenal artery
-Right gastric artery
-Proper hepatic artery

Splenic artery

Left gastric artery

* Common hepatic -----> Gastroduodenal---->
- Right gastro-omental artery
-Anterior superior pancreaticoduodenal artery
Familial Hypercholesterolemia
Type 2 A hypercholesterolemia--- accelerated atherosclerosis

Autosomal dominant

Double dominant mutation—MI at age 20
What is the substrate and RLE for cholesterol synthesis? What what inhibits the RLE?
Substrate -- Acetyl CoA

Rate-limiting enzyme -- HMG-CoA reductase

Statins inhibit HMG-CoA reductase
What is the substrate and RLE for fatty acid metabolism? Where does degradation of FA occur and what is the RLE for this?
Substrate: Acetyl CoA

Rate-limiting enzyme: Acetly-CoA carboxylase

Degradation:
-Occurs in Mitochondrial maxtrix
-Rate-limiting enzyme: Carnitine acyltransferase
RLE: Fatty acid synthesis
KNOW***
Acetyl-CoA carboxylase
RLE: B-oxidation of fatty acids
KNOW***
Carnitine acyltransferase
RLE: Ketone synthesis
KNOW***
HMG-CoA synthase
RLE: Cholesterol synthesis
KNOW***
HMG-CoA reductase
What deficiency causes familial hypercholesterolemia?
Deficiency of LDL receptors
Activates LCAT
Apo A-1

"Put A1 steak sauce on a Cat"
Mediates chylomicron secretion
Apo B-48
Mediates VLDL secretion
Apo B-100
Binds to LDL receptors
Apo B-100
Cofactor for lipoprotein lipase
C-II
Mediates uptake of remnant particles
Apo E
What is the rate-limiting enzyme for each of the following metabolic pathways? (HIGH YIELD)

• Hexose monophosphate pathway

• Fatty acid synthesis

• B-oxidation of fatty acids

• Ketone body synthesis

• Cholesterol synthesis
Hexose monophosphate pathway: Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

Fatty acid synthesis: Acetyl-CoA carboxylase

B-oxidation of fatty acids: Carnitine acyltransferase

Ketone body synthesis: HMG-CoA synthase

Cholesterol synthesis: HMG-CoA reductase
Which group of medications inhibits the rate limiting enzyme of cholesterol synthesis?
HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors (statins)
Where in the cell would you find each of the following enzymatic processes taking place?

• Fatty acid degradation

• Fatty acid synthesis

•Glycolysis
• TCA cycle
• Electron transport chain (oxidative phosphorylation)
• Gluconeogenesis
Fatty acid degradation: Mitochondria

Fatty acid synthesis: Cytoplasm

Glycolysis: Cytoplasm

TCA cycle: Mitochondria

Electron transport chain (oxidative phosphorylation): mitochondria

Gluconeogenesis: Mitochondria and cytoplasm
Lecture 63: Biochem 9
Amino Acids and nitrogen
A 2 year old girl has an increase in abdominal girth, failure to thrive, and skin/hair depigmentation. What is her diagnosis?
Kwashiorkor

*Skin/ hair depigmentation is a "big hint"
What enzyme is deficient in each of the following diseases?

• Fructose intolerance
• Essential fructosuria
• Classic galactosemia
Fructose intolerance: Aldolase B

Essential fructosuria: Fructokinase

Classic galactosemia: Galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase
What structures run through the cavernous sinus?
Oculomotor nerve (CN III)

Trochlear nerve (CN IV)

Abducent nerve (CN VI)

Ophthalmic division of trigeminal nerve (CN V1)

Maxillary division of trigeminal nerve (CN V2)
Name the Essential Amino Acids (***HIGH YIELD – 3 stars***)
“PVT TIM HALL”

Phenylalanine

Valine

Threonine

Tryptophan

Isoleucine

Methionine

Histidine

Arginine

Leucine

Lysine
Name the basic AA
Lysine

Arginine
-Produces:Creatine, Urea, Nitric oxide

Histidine
Acidic AA
Aspartate – aspartic acid

Glutamate – glutamic acid
What organ does the urea cycle take place in? What are the 2 enzymes involved and where are they found?
Liver

Rate-limiting enzyme: CPS-1 (carbamoyl phosphate)
- Found in mitochondriaCPS-1
- Gets it's N from ammonia

Ornithine transcarbamoylase
- Found in the mitochondria
What does Ornithine Transcarbamoylase Deficiency cause?
Hepatoencephalopathy
-Slurring of speech
-Somnolence
-Vomiting
-Cerebral edema
-Blurring of the vision

Treatment:
-Phenylbutyrate (urea cycle problem)
-Benzoate
-Lactulose (hyperammonemia, liver disease)
Compare carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I to carbamoyl phosphate synthestase II.
•CPS-I
-Urea cycle
-Mitochondria
-Gets nitrogen from ammonium

•CPS-II
-Pyrimidine synthesis
-Cytosol
-Gets nitrogen from glutamine
What is the mechanism of action of lactulose?
Digested by bacteria in the colon

Creates an acidic environment

NH3 is converted to NH4+ which is now trapped in the lumen of the colon

NH4+ excreted in the stool
Lecture 64: Biochem 10
Amino Acid disorders
Which three enzymes are required to convert phenylalanine to DOPA?
Phenylalanine hydroxylase

Tyrosine hydroxylase

Dihydropterin reductase
What are the byproducts of MAO and COMT enzymatic activity on dopamine, Norepinephrine, and epinephrine?
Dopamine: HVA

Norepinephrine: VMA

Epinephrine: metanephrine
What substrate and cofactor is required of the generation of GABA?
Substrate: Glutamate

Cofactor: B6
PKU (***HIGH YIELD TOPIC – 4 stars***)
Deficiency of either Phenylalanine hydroxylase or a deficiency of the cofactor (Tetrahydrobiopterin) for phenylalanine hydroxylase

Patients cannot make tyrosine

Phenyl Ketones
-Phenylacetate
-Phenyl-lactate
-Phenylpyruvate

Treatment:
Avoid phenylalanine- Aspartame
Augment: tyrosine & tetrahydrobiopterin
Alkaptonuria
Deficient in the enzyme homogentisic acid oxidase

Autosomal recessive

Ochronosis

Sclera – dark brown

Urine turns black when exposed to air

Debilitating arthralgias (due to accumulation of homogentisic acid in the joint)
Cystinuria
Defect of the renal proximal tubular transporter for: "COLA"

Cysteines

Ornithine

Lycine

Arginine
Hartnup Disease
•Tryptophan is excreted in the urine and not absorbed in the gut

Due to – an autosomal recessive defect in a transport found in the intestine and kidneys
Vitamin B3 Deficiency (Pellagra)
The “3 Ds” of Vitamin B3 deficiency

Dermatitis

Diarrhea

Dementia
A full term neonate becomes mentally retarded and hyperactive and has a musty odor. What is the diagnosis?
PKU

*Musty oder – big clue
A patient with PKU should have diet low in phenylalanine. What other dietary modifications should a patient with PKU make?
Increasing tyrosine in the diet

Replacing tetrahydrobiopterin cofactor
A middle aged man has dark spots on his sclera and has noted that his urine turns black when left sitting for a period of time. What’s the diagnosis?
Alkaptonuria
What is the underlying cause of maple syrup urine disease?
Deficiency of a-ketoacid dehydrogenase
Maple Syrup Urine Disease
Caused by deficiency of the enzyme a-ketoacid dehydrogenase

Lead to a buildup of the 3 branched amino acids
-Isoleucine
-Leucine
-Valine

Can cause:
-Mental retardation
-Death
Lecture 65: Pharm Basics 7
Drug Metabolism
What effect does changing Km and Vmax have on potency and efficacy?
Km
- Lower Km → higher potency
- Km is inversely related to potency
- Changing Km does not affect efficacy

Vmax
- Higher Vmax → higher efficacy
- Vmax is directly related to efficacy
- Changing Vmax does not alter potency
What are the 4 main pharmacokinetic equations? (KNOW)
Vd = (amount of drug given in IV form)/([drug] plasma)

Clearance (CL) = (0.7 x Vd)/(t1/2)

Loading Dose (LD) = Css x Vd

Maintenance Dose (MD) = Css x CL
What enzyme is deficient in PKU? What are the symptoms?
Deficient enzyme: Phenylalanine hydroxylase

Symptoms:
-Musty body odor
-Growth retardation
-Mental retardation
-Seizures
-Eczema
-Fair skin
What are the reactions that occur in Phase I metabolism? What are the properties of the metabolites?
Reactions: Reduction, Oxidation, Hydrolysis

Metabolites: Slightly polar, Water-soluble, Active

Cytochrome P450 enzymes perform – Phase I reactions

Elderly patients lose Phase I first
What are the reactions that occur in Phase II metabolism? What are the properties of the metabolites?
Reactions: Acetylation, Methylation, Sulfation, Glucuronidation

Metabolites: Very polar, Inactive
P450 Inhibitors (***HIGH YIELD***)
“CRACK AMIGOS”

Cimetidine

Ritonavir (protease inhibitor)

Amiodarone

Ciprofloxacin

Ketoconazole

Acute alcohol use

Macrolides

Isoniazid

Grapefruit juice

Omeprazole

Sulfonamides
P450 Inducers (***HIGH YIELD***)
“Ken Rides Shotgun in Barbie’s Girl Car”

Kenytoin – Phenytoin

Rides – Rifampin

Shotgun – St. John’s Wort

Barbie’s – Barbiturates

Girl – Griseofulvin

Car – Carbamazepine
What enzyme does Disulfiram inhibit?
Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase
What enzyme does Fomepizole inhibit?
Alcohol dehydrogenase
What 3 drugs are know to act through Zero-order kinetics? (KNOW)
Phenytoin

Ethanol

Aspirin

Cp (plasma concentration) decreases linearly with time
First-order kinetics
Cp decreases proportionally with time
Which hepatic phase of metabolism is lost first by geriatric patients? Which phase is mediated by cytochrome p450?
Lost first by geriatric patients: Phase I

Mediated by cytochrome p450: Phase I
Which medication overdose can be treated with sodium bicarbonate?
Weak acids
Which medication overdose can be treated with ammonium chloride?
Weak bases
What medication inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase?
Fomepizole
Which medications inhibit acetaldehyde dehydrogenase?
Disulfiram
Is conjugation a Phase I or Phase II reaction?
Phase II
Which takes place first: Phase I metabolism, or Phase II?
Any order
In what enzyme deficiency will Heinz bodies and Bite cells be seen in?
Glucose 6 phosphate deficiency

*Heinz bodies-- oxidixes Hemoglobin precipitated within RBCs

*Bite cells-- results from phagocytic removal of Heinz bodies by splenic macrophages

"Bite into some Heinz ketchup"
What is the equation for Serum- Ascites: Albumin Gradient (SAAG)
SAAG= [albumin] serum - [albumin] ascites

SAAG > or = 1.1 in portal hypertension

SAAG < 1.1 in cancer, nephrotic syndrome, TB, pancreatitis, biliary disease, connective tissue
How is Hep A transmitted, what is used to Dx it, and what are the S/S associated with it?
ssRNA

Transmission: fecal- oral route

Dx: IgM HepA antibodies

S/S: mild
- Fatigue
- Abdominal pain
- Jaundice
What is Hep A's carrier state? Does it cause chronic infection? Is there a vaccine available for it? How long is it's incubation period?
No carrier state

Does not cause chronic infection

Vaccine is available

2 week incubation period
Whats a good mnemonic to remember Hep A?
3 A's:

Asymptomatic (usually)

Acute

Alone (no carrier)
How is Hep E transmitted? Does it have a carrier? Is a vaccine available for it?
Transmission: Fecal- oral route

No carrier

No vaccine
Hep E is usually very mild and treatment is only supportive. In what population can Hep E be potentially fatal?
Pregnant women
What are the key characteristics of Hep D?
Detective virus: incomplete genome of ssRNA

Can not infect unless a person already has hepatitis B

Transmission: sexual, parenteral, trans-placental

Severe infection
What is the genome of Hep C and how is it transmitted?
ssRNA

Transmission: mostly parenterally, can be passed sexual and trans-placental

*Hep C is the most common cause of transfusion mediated hepatitis
Does Hep C cause chronic disease? Does it increase the risk for hepatocellular cancer?
Chronic disease will occur in 80-90%

Carrier state increases the risk for hepatocellular cancer
What drugs are used to treat Hep C? Is there a vaccine available?
Treatment: Interferon and Ribavirin

No vaccine
What is the genome of Hep B? How is it transmitted?
dsRNA

Transmission: mostly sexually, can be through trans-placental and parenterally
Can Hep B causes a chronic infection?
It can, but less so than Hep C

If infected as an adult--- 10%

If infected trans- placentally or also have immune deficiency--- 80%
Does Hep B have a carrier state?
Yes

Increases risk of HCC
Is there a vaccine for Hep B? How long is Hep B's incubation period?
Yes, one of first vaccines given to a newborn

Incubation period= 60-90 days
When will HB surface antigen (HBsAg) be positive?
During active infection
When will you have positive HBsAb (surface antibody)
When you do not have active disease:

You had HepB and recovered

You were immunized against HepB
What does positive Hep B core antibody indicate?
A history of Hep B infection

Acute infection (early on) ---> +IgM

Chronic infection ----> +IgG

Full recover from infection ---> +IgG
What does positive HB e antigen indicate?
Virus is actively replicating and there is a high transmissibility
What does positive HB e antibody indicate?
Low transmissibility
Describe Autoimmune Hepatitis Type 1 and 2
Type 1: ANA (+) and/ or anti- smooth muscle antibody (+)

Type 2: Liver/ kidney microsomal antibody (+) and/ or liver cytosol antigen (+)
What is the pathology of Primary sclerosing cholangitis? How does it present?
Unknown cause of concentric "onion skin" bile duct fibrosis---> alternating strictures and dilation

Presentation:
- Pruritus
- Jaundice
- Dark urine
- Light stools
- Hepatosplenomegaly
What is the pathology of Primary biliary cirrhosis?
Autoimmune reaction---> Lymphocytic infiltrate + granulomas

*Lymphocytic infiltrate= T lymphocytes attacking the bile ductules in the liver parenchyma with granuloma formation
What is the MOA of ursodiol?
It is a naturally occuring bile actid

Decreases synthesis of cholesterol in the liver

Changes the composition of bile

In PBC is delays disease progressive and enhances survival

*Only approved treatment of PBC
What is the pathology of secondary biliary cirrhosis?
Extrahepatic biliary obstruction (gallstone, biliary stricture, chronic pancreasitis, carcinoma of the pancreatic head) ---> Increases pressure in intrahepatic ducts ---> injury/ fibrosis and bile stasis
Cholelithiasis
Gallstones
Cholecystitis
Inflammation/ infection of the gallbladder
Cholangitis
Inflammation/ infection of the biliary tree
Choledocholithiasis
Gallstones in the bile ducts
What is clonorchis sinensis and what can it cause?
Liver fluke that infects the biliary

Can cause cholangiocarcinoma and pigemented gallstones
Phenylalanine is the precursor for _______. What enzyme enzymes this reaction?
Phenylalanine -----> Tyrosine

via Phenylalanine hydroxylase
What is cofactor is needed for phenylalanine hydroxylase?
Tetrahydrobiopterin
Tyrosine is converted to ______ via what enzyme?
Dopa

Tyrosine hydroxylase
Dopa is converted to dopamine via what enzyme? What cofactor is required?
Dopa Decarboxylase

Vitamin B6

*Dopa decarboxylase is inhibited by Carbadopa
Dopamine is converted to NE via what vitamin?
Vitamin C
What converts NE to Epinephrine?
Cortisol
Histidine is the precursor of ________
Histamine
Glycine is the precursor of _____ and _______
Porphyrin

Heme
Glutamate is the precursor of __________ and_________
GABA

Glutathione
Methionine is the precursor of _______
S- adenosyl- methionine (SAM)
Arginine is the precursor of________, _______, & ________
Creatine

Urea

NO
Tryptophan is the precursor of ______ and _______
Niacin

Serotonmin
What amino acid derivatives require Vit B6?
Histidine ---> Histamine

Tryptophan ---> Niacin

Glycine ----> Porphyrin

Glutamate ----> GABA