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251 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Staphylococcus aureus causes what diseases?
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food poisoning, pneumonia, osteomyelitis, endocarditis, wound infections, scalded skin syndrome, toxic shock syndrome
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Staphylococcus aureus is usually _____ hemolytic on SBA
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beta
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The S. aureus latex agglutination test detects what on the surface of the bacterium?
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clumping factor and protein A
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S. aureus is PYR ______ and ornithine ______.
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PYR negative, ornithine negative
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(T/F) Staphylococci can tolerate the high salt concentration (7.5%) of mannitol salt agar.
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True
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S. aureus produces what color colonies on mannitol salt agar?
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Yellow, it can ferment mannitol
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Staphylococci other than S. aureus are what color on MSA?
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Red, they cannot ferment mannitol
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(T/F) S. aureus is typically resistant to penicillin
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True, it forms beta-lactamase
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MRSA is resistant to methicillin because of __________.
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altered penicillin binding proteins conferred by the mecA gene
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(T/F) Coagulase negative staphylococci are very common skin flora
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True, they are usually nonpathogenic except in immunosuppressed and neutropenic patients
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List the types of infections most commonly caused by coagulase negative staphylococci
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UTI, catheter, shunt
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Staphylococcus epidermidis is novobiocin _________.
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susceptible
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S. saprophyticus is novobiocin ___________.
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resistant
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S. lugdunensis causes what?
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endocarditis
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Unlike other coagulase negative staphylococci, S. lugdenensis ferments ___________.
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mannitol
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Micrococcus appears as _______ on gram stains
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gram positive tetrads
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Group A streptococci typically cause what infections?
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strep throat, impetigo, scarlet fever, pneumonia, otitis media, necrotizing fasciitis
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What are two sequelae caused by S. pyogenes?
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glomerulonephritis, rheumatic fever
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S. pyogenes is sensitive to ________.
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bacitracin
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S. pyogenes is PYR _______.
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positive
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S. pyogenes appear how on SBA?
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pinpoint colonies with large zones of beta hemolysis
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The M protein of S. pyogenes inhibits _______.
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phagocytosis
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Micrococci are bacitracin ____ while staphylococci are bacitracin ______.
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Micrococci are bacitracin sensitive, staphylococci are bacitracin resistant
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________ causes the rash seen in scarlet fever.
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Streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxin (erythrogenic toxin) of S. pyogenes
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Streptokinase does what? formed by what species?
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dissolves clot; S. pyogenes
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S. pyogenes has a capsule (T/F)
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True, it has a hyaluronic acid capsule that inhibits phagocytosis
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Streptolysin O and Streptolysin S do what?
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lyse erythrocytes, platelets and neutrophils
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Hyaluronidase does what?
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It hydrolyzes hyaluronic acid (interstitial barrier) to facilitate spread of infection
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Streptococcus dysagalactiae causes what type of disease? is in what Lancefield group?
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disease similar to S. pyogenes, Lancefield group C
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S. dysagalactiae is bacitracin _____ and SXT _______.
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bacitracin resistant, SXT sensitive
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Group B Streptococcus/S. agalactiae is normal flora in ________.
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the gastrointestinal tract and vagina
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Group B Streptococcus/S. agalactiae usually causes what infection?
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Early onset neonatal sepsis and meningitis. Can also cause postpartum fever, osteomyelitis, and wound infections.
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Group B Streptococcus/S. agalactiae is _______ hemolytic
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beta
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Group B Streptococcus/S. agalactiae is CAMP __________.
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positive
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Group B Streptococcus/S. agalactiae is hippurate _______ and PYR ________.
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hippurate positive, PYR negative
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Group B Streptococcus/S. agalactiae is _______ to bacitracin and ________ to SXT.
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resistant to bacitracin, resistant to SXT
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Group D Streptococci are normal flora in ______ and ______.
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feces and the mouth
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Group D streptococci are associated with what types of infections?
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wound, UTI, abdominal abcesses
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Isolation of group D streptococci in blood cultures is associated with ___________.
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colon cancer
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Group D streptococci are _____ hemolytic
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beta or gamma
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Group D streptococci are bile esculin ______, PYR _______ and ______ for growth in 6.5% NaCl.
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bile esculin positive, PYR negative, negative for growth in 6.5% NaCl
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Viridans streptococci are normal flora in ________.
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the mouth, respiratory tract and GI tract
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Viridans streptococci cause what type of infections?
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endocarditis, wound infections and brain abcesses
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Viridans streptococci are _____ hemolytic
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alpha
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Viridans streptococci are bile _______ and optochin _______.
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bile insoluble, optochin resistant
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S. pneumoniae is normal flora in ______.
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the upper respiratory tract
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S. pneumoniae causes what types of infection?
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Lobar pneumonia in elderly and alcoholics (community acquired), otitis media in infants and children, meningitis in children
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S. pneumoniae appears how in gram stain?
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gram positive lancet or bullet shaped diplococci
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S. pneumonia is ____ hemolytic
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alpha
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Colony morphology of S. pneumoniae
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Mucoid, umbilicated/depressed centers
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S. pneumoniae is optochin _______ and bile _______.
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optochin sensitive, bile soluble
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Enterococcus is bile-esculin _______, PYR _______ and _______ for growth in 6.5% NaCl.
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bile-escullin positive, PYR positive, positive for growth in 6.5% NaCl
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Enterococcus exhibits what lancefield group antigen?
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D
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What type of hemolysis does a group D streptococcus exhibit?
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Can be gamma or beta. Usually gamma.
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What is VRE?
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Vancomycin resistant enterococci (due to altered peptidoglycan crosslink target)
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Gemella is leucine aminopeptidase (LAP) _______.
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positive
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Abiotrophia and Granulicatella differ from other streptococci in that they are nutritionally _______ and require _______ for growth.
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variant, B6
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Listeria monocytogenes typically causes infection in what population?
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Pregnant women, neonates, immunosuppressed patients
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What is the most common infection associated with L. monocytogenes?
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Meningitis
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L. monocytogenes is typically transmitted in what product?
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unpasteurized dairy
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L. monocytogenes exhibits a ____ zone of ____ hemolysis on SBA.
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narrow, beta
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L. monocytogenes exhibits what type of motility in semisolid media?
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umbrella
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L. monocytogenes exhibits what type of motility in wet mount?
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tumbling
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L. monocytogenes is hippurate _____, CAMP ______, esculin ______ and catalase ______.
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positive for all
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Corynebacterium diptheriae causes what disease? What symptom is characteristic of this disease?
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Diptheria, pseudomembrane at the back of the throat (dead cells/exudate)
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(T/F) All C. diphtheriae strains cause diphtheria
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False, only C. diphtheriae strains that have been infected with a bacteriophage are pathogenic and form the diphtheria toxin
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Describe the appearance of C. diphtheriae on gram stain
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pleomorphic with picket fence or Chinese letter formations
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Staining C. diphtheriae with methylene blue will reveal what feature?
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Metachromatic granules which are red to purple intracellular granules
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C. diphtheriae is urease ______, nitrate _____, motility _____ and catalase ______.
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urease negative, nitrate positive, motility negative, catalase positive
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What test is used to determine toxin production by C. diphtheriae?
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The Elek test uses antitoxin to detect toxin production
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What media are used for C. diphtheriae?
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Cystine-tellurite, Tinsdale's agar, Loeffler agar
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Appearance of C. diphtheriae on cystine-tellurite
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black colonies due to hydrolysis of tellurite
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Appearance of C. diphtheriae on Tinsdale's agar
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brown to black colonies with halos from hydrolysis of tellurite
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Appearance of C. diphtheriae on Loeffler agar
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small white to gray colonies, enhances pleomorphism and formation of metachromatic granules for methylene blue stain
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Corynebacterium jeikeium causes what type of infection?
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Nosocomial infections especially after prosthetic device implantation and in immunocompromised patients
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(T/F) Corynebacterium jeikeium is susceptible to many antibiotics
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False, it is highly resistant to most antimicrobials
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Corynebacterium urealyticum causes what type of infection?
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UTI
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C. urealyticum is urease _____.
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positive
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Arcanobacterium haemolyticum can be identified by what test?
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The CAMP inhibition test (phospholipase D produced by this bacterium inhibits activity of S. aureus beta-lysin).
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Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae typically causes infection after contact with what?
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animals (usually occupational exposure)
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E. rhusiopathiae typically causes what infections?
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cellulitis with erysipeloid lesions, bacteremia, endocarditis
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E. rhusopathiae is ____ for motility, catalase ____ and H2S _____.
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negative for motility, catalase positive, H2S positive
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Nocardia asteroides is generally found in what type of patient?
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Immunocompromised patients with chronic pulmonary disorders
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Nocardia asteroides is catalase ____ and ____ for motility
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catalase positive, negative for motility
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Nocardia asteroides appears how on staining?
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partially acid fast, pleomorphic, branching, gram positive bacillus, beading arrangement
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The exudate of a Nocardia asteroides infection contains what?
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masses of filamentous organisms with pus that resemble sulfur granules
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Bacillus species are common contaminants in the laboratory (T/F)
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True, bacterial spores can survive adverse conditions for prolonged periods and are frequent contaminants of laboratory cultures
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(T/F) Most Bacillus species are nonpathogenic
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True
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Bacillus anthracis causes what? What are the three clinical forms?
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Anthrax; cutaneous, pulmonary, gastrointestinal
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Describe the appearance of cutaneous anthrax
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necrotic skin lesions called black echars
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How does an individual contract pulmonary anthrax?
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Inhalation of spores from sheep's wool, known as "wool sorter's disease"
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Describe the appearance of B. anthracis colonies
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Medusa-head colonies, nonhemolytic with filamentous projections
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(T/F) B. anthracis grows on PEA at 24 hours
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false, it does not typically grow on PEA at 24 hours
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B. cereus typically causes what in healthy individuals?
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Food poisoning and occasionally wound infection
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B. cereus typically causes what in immunosuppressed individuals?
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eye, bone and brain infections
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Describe the colony morphology of B. cereus
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Large, flat, beta-hemolytic colonies with irregular edges
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(T/F) B. cereus is motile
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True
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B. cereus is ____ to penicillin
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resistant
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(T/F) Members of the family Neisseriaceae are cold tolerant
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False, they cannot tolerate cold. This is why media must be at room temperature before plating and CSF must not be refrigerated (N. meningitidis is sensitive to cold)
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N. gonorrhoeae can be isolated from what sites?
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urethra, cervix, anal canal, oropharynx, skin lesions, joints, blood
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N. gonorrhoeae typically causes what disease in males?
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acute urethritis characterized by pus-containing urethral discharge and dysuria (can also cause prostatitis and epididymitis)
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N. gonorrhoeae typically causes what disease in females?
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Urethral infections and cervicitis. Can be asymptomatic or produce cervical discharge, fever, acute pain and dysuria.
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Complications of N. gonorrhoeae infection for adults
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PID, gonococcal arthritis, salpingitis, endometritis, and peritonitis.
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Complications of maternal N. gonorrhoeae infection for neonates.
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gonococcal ophthalmia neonatorum, a severe eye infection which can result in blindness. Erythomycin eyedrops are typically administered to all infants at birth to prevent this.
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(T/F) N. gonorrhoeae may be observed inside neutrophils on gram stain
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True, it often appears intracellular in neutrophils.
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(T/F). N. gonorrhoeae will grow on SBA
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False, it is fastidious and requires enriched media such as chocolate agar.
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Selective media for N. gonorrhoeae
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Thayer-Martin, Martin-Lewis, NYC and GC-Lect agars
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What type of atmosphere does N. gonorrhoeae require
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increased CO2 with humidified atmosphere
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(T/F) gonococci can be incubated for prolonged times
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False, they will autolyse
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N. gonorrhoeae colonies appear ________ on chocolate agar
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Flat, smooth, glistening, gray or tan
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N. gonorrhoeae is catalase ____, oxidase _____, superoxol _____ and DNase _______.
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catalase positive, oxidase positive, superoxol positive, DNase negative
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N. gonorrhoeae is nitrate ______.
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negative
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N. gonorrhoeae utilizes what sugars?
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Glucose only. (not maltose, lactose or sucrose)
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N. meningitidis causes what?
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Meningitis, septicemia, DIC, Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome
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(T/F) N. meningitidis can be normal flora
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True, it can be normal flora of the nasopharynx
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N. meningitidis is catalase ____, oxidase ____, DNase ____ and nitrate _____.
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catalase positive, oxidase positive, DNase negative, nitrate negative
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N. meningitis utilizes what sugars?
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Glucose and maltose only (not lactose or sucrose)
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N. meningitidis will produce what type of colonies on SBA in increased CO2?
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bluish-gray colonies
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Kingella kingae typically causes what type of infection in children?
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bone and joint infections
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Kingella kingae will grow on what agars?
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Sheep blood, chocolate, MTM (not MacConkey)
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What is the key test for differentiating Kingella denitrificans from N. gonorrhoeae?
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K. denitrificans can reduce nitrates
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Moraxella catarrhalis causes what types of infection?
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otitis media, sinusitis, respiratory tract infections
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Moraxella is catalase ______, oxidase ______, DNase ______ and nitrate _____.
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positive for all
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Moraxella uses what sugars?
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None, it is asaccharolytic
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Serological characteristics of Enterobacteriaceae (antigens)
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O antigen (somatic, heat stable)
K antigen (envelope, heat labile) H antigen (flagellar, heat labile) Vi antigen (capsular antigen of S. typhi, heat labile) |
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Main characteristics of Enterobacteriaceae
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Facultative anaerobes, ferment glucose, nitrate reducers, catalase positive, oxidase negative, usually motile (except Shigella, Klebsiella)
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Describe MacConkey agar
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Selective for gram negatives (bile salts), lactose fermenters are pink, lactose non-fermenters are colorless
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Describe EMB (eosin-methylene blue) agar
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Lactose fermenters have dark center, lactose non-fermenters are colorless. E. coli has a green metallic sheen on this agar.
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Describe Hektoen (HEK) agar
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lactose and/or sucrose fermenters form yellow/orange colonies. Shigella colonies are green. Salmonella colonies are green with black centers (H2S)
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Describe the colony morphology of lactose/sucrose fermenters on XLD agar. Describe the colony morphology of Salmonella and Shigella on this agar.
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Colonies of lactose and/or sucrose fermenters are yellow. Salmonella produces red colonies with black centers and Shigella produces clear colonies
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Describe the appearance of Salmonella and Shigella on Salmonella-Shigella agar
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Lactose fermenters produce red colonies; Salmonella colonies are colorless with black centers, Shigella colonies are colorless
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Describe morphology of Salmonella ss typhi on bismuth sulfite agar
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Salmonella typhi produces black colonies; lactose-fermenting colonies are orange-yellow
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Describe Proteus, Salmonella and Shigella morphology on brilliant green agar
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Proteus and Salmonella species produce red/pink colonies, whereas Shigella and most lactose fermenters will not grow
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Describe selenite broth
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Enhancement medium for stool cultures. Salmonella growth enhanced, whereas gram positive coliform bacteria are inhibited
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Escherichia coli causes what types of infection?
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UTI, appendicitis, peritonitis, cholecystitis, endocarditis, meningitis in newborns, gastroenteritis and food poisoning
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E. coli appearance in TSI
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A/A, H2S negative
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Describe the appearance of E. coli on MAC
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pink/red colonies
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E. coli is usually _____ hemolytic on SBA
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beta
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Appearance of E. coli on EMB
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green metallic sheen with dark centers
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IMViC results for E. coli
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++--
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ONPG result for E. coli
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positive
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(T/F) E. coli is motile
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True
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Urease result for E. coli
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negative
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EHEC causes what?
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Enterohemorrhage E. coli causes hemorrhagic colitis and HUS, leading to kidney failure in young children
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Appearance of E. coli O157:H7 on sorbitol-MacConkey
|
Colonies appear colorless because this strain does not ferment sorbitol; other strains of E. coli will appear pink due to sorbitol fermentation
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ETEC causes what?
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Enterotoxigenic E. coli produces severe epidemic diarrhea, mainly from drinking contaminated water
Traveler's diarrhea |
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EIEC causes what?
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Enteroinvasive E. coli causes bloody diarrhea by invading the intestinal epithelium
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EPEC causes what?
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Enteropathogenic E. coli causes watery diarrhea.
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What is shigellosis?
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Form of bacterial dysentery caused by Shigella infection. Characterized by abdominal pain, fever and diarrhea. Mainly severe in children and elderly.
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What species is serogroup A Shigella? Describe this species.
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Shigella dysenteriae, produces an enterotoxin that affects the large intestine and a neurotoxin that may result in paralysis. Mannitol and ONPG negative.
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What species is Serogroup B Shigella? Describe this species.
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S. flexneri, produces a mild diarrhea. Mannitol positive, ONPG negative. Difficult to distinguish from boydii.
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What species is Serogroup C Shigella? Describe this species.
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S. boydii, causes a mild diarrhea. Mannitol positive and ONPG negative. Difficult to distinguish from flexneri.
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What species is Serogroup D Shigella? Describe this species.
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S. sonnei, produces a mild diarrhea. Mannitol and ONPG positive. Delayed lactose fermenter. Most common cause of shigellosis in the U.S.
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TSI result for Shigella
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K/A, no H2S, no gas
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Methyl Red result for Shigella
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positive
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Urease result for Shigella
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negative
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Citrate result for Shigella
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negative
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Motility result for Shigella
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negative
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Klebsiella species typically cause what infections?
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UTIs and pneumonia
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TSI result for Klebsiella pneumoniae
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A/A with gas, no H2S
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Appearance of Klebsiella pneumoniae on MAC
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mucoid and very pink
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Motility result for Klebsiella
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negative
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MR result for Klebsiella spp.
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negative
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Indole result for K. oxytoca
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positive
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Indole result for K. pneumoniae
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negative
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Klebsiella is VP _______ and citrate _______.
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positive for both
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(T/F) Klebsiella is a lactose fermenter
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True
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Infections caused by Enterobacter
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respiratory tract infections, wounds, blood
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How do you differentiate E. aerogenes from E. cloacae?
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E. aerogenes is arginine negative and lysine positive.
E. cloacae is arginine positive and lysine negative. |
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IMViC results for Enterobacter
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--++
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What is a key characteristic for Enterobacter sakazakki?
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yellow pigment
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Serratia typically causes what type of infection?
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Opportunistic in patients who are immunosuppressed
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DNase, gelatinase and lipase are characteristically positive in which enteric species?
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Serratia marcescens
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Serratia marcescens produces a characteristic ____ pigment
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red
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Serratia is VP _______ and citrate ________.
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positive for both
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How is Salmonella transmitted?
|
Animal reservoirs permit transmission through undercooked food (especially chicken) and contaminated water
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Describe typhoid fever. What species causes this infection?
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Septicemia followed by GI tract infection. Salmonella enterica typhi. Only transmitted from human to human.
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Salmonella is H2S ______, citrate ______ and indole ______.
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H2S positive
Citrate positive Indole negative |
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Urease result for Salmonella
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negative
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Is Salmonella a lactose fermenter?
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No
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Appearance of Salmonella on HE agar
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Green with black centers
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H2S result for Proteus
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positive
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Typical colony morphology of Proteus
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swarming
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Urease result for Proteus
|
positive
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Proteus is tryptophan deaminase _____ and phenylalanine deaminase _______.
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positive for both
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ONPG result for Proteus
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negative
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How do you differentiate P. vulgaris from P. mirabilis?
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Indole is positive for vulgaris and negative for mirabilis
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Yersinia pestis causes what? How is it transmitted?
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Plague, transmitted by fleas of small rodents, endemic to the U.S. southwest
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Yersinia enterocolitica causes what? How is it transmitted?
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Enterocolitis, acquired by drinking contaminated water or eating contaminated food.
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Yersinia enterocolitica is ONPG _______. It typically appears ______ on MacConkey at 18 hours. TSI result for this organism is _______.
|
positive, colorless, A/A. This is because this organism is a delayed lactose fermenter.
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Yersinia pseudotuberculosis causes what in children?
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lymphadenitis
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Microscopic appearance of Yersinia
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small gram-negative coccobacilli
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What is CIN agar?
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Cefsulodin-irgasan-novobiocin medium, it is selective and differential for Yersinia enterocolitica (bullseye apperance). Aeromonas will also grow on this medium.
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Yersinia pestis is typically motile. (T/F)
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False, Yersinia pestis is nonmotile at both 25 and 37 degrees Celsius
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Describe the motility of Y. enterocolitica and Y. pseudotuberculosis.
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Nonmotile at 37, but motile at 25 degrees Celsius.
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Y. pestis is catalase ______, oxidase _____ and urease ______.
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catalase positive, oxidase negative, urease negative.
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Edwardsiella is H2S ______ and ONPG _______.
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H2S positive, ONPG negative
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E. tarda is indole ____ and citrate ______.
|
indole positive
citrate negative |
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Citrobacter freundii resembles E. coli on MAC but can be differentiated because it is H2S ____ and indole ____.
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H2S positive, indole negative
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Morganella is indole _____, VP _____ and citrate _____.
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indole positive, VP negative, citrate negative
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PDA and TDA results for Providencia
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positive for both
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Providencia is indole ______, citrate ______ and VP _____.
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indole positive
citrate positive VP negative |
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HACEK species
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Haemophilus (especially aphrophilus), Actinobacillus actinomecetemcomitans, Cardiobacterium hominis, Eikenella corrodens, Kingella
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What is the main infection that the HACEK organisms cause?
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endocarditis
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(T/F) HACEK organisms are fastidious
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True
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Another name for X factor
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hemin
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Another name for V factor
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NAD
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Why can't Haemophilus grow on SBA? What blood agars can it grow on?
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NADase in the agar (breaks down V factor). Horse or rabbit blood agar (also chocolate)
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Best conditions for growing HACEK organisms
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35-37 degrees Celsius, 5-10% CO2
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Haemophilus will exhibit satellitism with this organism on sheep blood agar. Why?
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S. aureus; it can release NAD.
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HACEK organisms are motile (T/F)
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False, they are nonmotile
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HACEK organisms are catalase _______ and oxidase _______.
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positive for both
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H. influenzae causes what infections?
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Meningitis in children, respiratory tract infections, acute sinusitis, chronic bronchitis, pneumonia
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(T/F) H. influenzae should be tested for beta-lactamase
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True, it may be penicillin resistant
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What infection does Hamophilus aegyptius cause?
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Pink eye
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What infection does H. influenzae biogroup aegyptius cause?
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Conjunctivitis followed by an invasive disease known as Brazilian purpuric fever
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Haemophilus ducreyi causes what infections?
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Genital ulcers, chancroids and buboes
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H. influenzae requires what growth factors? What hemolytic pattern does it display?
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X and V, non-hemolytic
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H. ducreyi requires what growth factors? What hemolytic pattern does it display?
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X factor only, non-hemolytic
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H. aegyptius requires what growth factors? What hemolytic pattern does it display?
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X and V factor, non-hemolytic
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H. aphrophilus requires what growth factors? What hemolytic pattern does it display?
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None, non-hemolytic
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H. haemolyticus requires what growth factors? What hemolytic pattern does it display?
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X and V factor, beta hemolytic
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H. parainfluenzae requires what growth factors? What hemolytic pattern does it display?
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V factor only; non-hemolytic
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H. paraphrophilus requires what growth factors? What hemolytic pattern does it display?
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V only, non-hemolytic
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General characteristics of nonfermentative gram-negative bacilli (carbohydrate utilization, spore formation, oxidase result, TSI result, growth on which agars)
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obligate aerobes, do not form spores, do not metabolize carbohydrates under anaerobic conditions, oxidase positive, TSI: K/no change, growth on SBA, varied growth on MAC
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Pseudomonas aeruginosa produces what two pigments?
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Fluorescein (pyoverdin) and pyocyanin
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What agar enhances pigment production in fluorescent Pseudomonas species?
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Cetrimide agar
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What infections does P. aeruginosa cause?
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Burn wound infections, eye infections, ear infections, lower respiratory tract infections in CF patients, nosocomial infections in immunosuppressed patients
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(T/F) Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a lactose fermenter
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False, Pseudomonas is a nonfermentative organism
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Colony morphology of P. aeruginosa
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Large, irregular colonies with a grapelike odor and metallic sheen on SBA. Beta-hemolytic. Blue-green color due to pyoverdin and pyocyanin.
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P. fluoresceins, P. putida, and P. aeruginosa produce what pigment?
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pyoverdin (fluorescein)
P. aeruginosa also produces pyocyanin |
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Result of P. aeruginosa in the oxidative-fermentative glucose test
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Yellow (acid) in the open (oxidative) tube.
Green (no change) in the closed (fermentative) tube. |
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(T/F) P. aeruginosa is susceptible to most antimicrobials
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False, it is very resistant to antimicrobial agents.
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Infections caused by Burkholderia cepacia
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Nosocomial infection, respiratory tract infection in patients with CF
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Burkholderia cepacia is lysine decarboxylase _____ and lactose ______.
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positive, positive
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Burkholderia mallei causes what in livestock? Can this organism be transmitted to humans?
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glanders, yes
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Burkholderia mallei is motility ______ while Burkholder pseudomallei is motility ______.
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mallei: negative
pseudomallei: positive |
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Burkholderia pseudomallei causes what disease? How is it acquired?
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Melioidosis in Southeast Asia and northern Australia
(chest pain, joint pain, pneumonia). Found in the soil, acquired through skin or inhalation |
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Acinetobacter causes what infections?
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Nosocomial infections and UTIs
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(T/F) Acinetobacter isolates tend to be multidrug resistant
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True
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Acinetobacter is motility _____, oxidase ______, nitrate ______, and catalase ______. (identifying characteristics)
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motility negative
oxidase negative nitrate negative catalase positive |
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Acinetobacter is normal flora in the _____ and ________.
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GI and respiratory tracts
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Francisella tularensis causes what?
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tularemia, skin ulcers at the site of inoculation, infection of lymph nodes, eyes, lungs, GI system
(potential agent of bioterrorism, BSL 3 required for handling) |
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Medium of choice for Francisella
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glucose-cystine blood agar
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Francisella is an intracellular bacteria that is acquired by _________.
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Contact with wild animals, including deer, rabbits, beavers and squirrels
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Brucella causes what disease?
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Brucellosis, also known as undulant fever. The organism is usually isolated from blood and bone marrow in infected patients.
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Brucella may be grown on what agars? What are other growth requirements for this organism?
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Brucella agar, BCYE and MTM. Requires 10% CO2 in humidified air and 3-4 weeks for growth.
This is a BSL 3 organism considered a potential bioterrorism agent. |
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Bordetella pertussis causes what disease? What are the three stages of this disease?
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Pertussis, also known as whooping cough.
Catarrhal: general flu-like symptoms Paroxysmal: repetitive coughing episodes Convalescent: recovery phase |
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Preferred agars for Bordetella pertussis
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Bordet-Gengou (potato infusion), Regan-Lowe (charcoal-hose blood agar)
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Bordetella pertussis colonies appear like ______ and are ______ hemolytic.
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mercury droplets, beta
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Bordetella pertussis can be differentiated from other Bordetella species by its negative ____ result. All other species are positive.
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urease
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