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56 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What are the signs of a LMN lesion?
inspection: wasting and fasciculations
tone: reduced
power: reduced
reflexes: reduced/absent
sensation: reduced
co-ordination: reduced
What are the signs of an UMN lesion?
inspection: cerebral posturing, pronator drift
tone: increased
power: reduced
reflexes: brisk/increased
sensation: reduced
co-ordination: reduced
what muscles are supplied by the occulomotor, trochlear and abducens nerves?
occulomotor:
trochlear: superior oblique
abducens: lateral rectus
What visual field defects correlate to a lesion in front of the chiasm, at the chiasm and behind the chiasm?
in front of chiasm: central scotoma (optic nerve)
at chiasm: bitemporal hemianopia
behind chiasm: homonymous hemianopia
what blood vessel is likely to be affected if there is a homonymous hemianopia?
without hemiparesis: posterial cerebral artery, as it supplies the occipital lobe may also have macular sparing.
with hemiparesis on same side: middle cerebral artery, as it supplies the optic radiation in the temporal and parietal lobes.
What is Internuclear opthalmoplegia and what type of disease usually causes it?
f
what are some common causes of IIIrd nerve palsy?
Causes include diabetes (pupil often spared), posterior communicating artery aneurysm (surgical 3rd – often painful), raised ICP (false localising sign
why is the pupil spared in a IIIrd nerve palsy caused by diabetes?
the PNS fibres have a separate blood supply from the nerve sheath vessels.
What is horner's syndrome?
slight ptosis
constricted pupil
reduced sweating over forehead
eye may be slightly bloodshot early on (loss of alpha vasocontrictor tone)
Common causes of facial nerve palsy?
UMN: lacunar infarct, infarct of pontine arteries supplying facial nucleus
LMN: Bell's palsy, Ramsay Hunt Syndrome, Trauma (temporal bone fractures), otitis media, tumours (acoustic neuroma, parotid gland tumours)
What is Ramsay hunt syndrome?
Herpes Zoster infection of facial and vestibulocholear nerves. Causes facial parylsis, sensorineural hearing loss, ear pain, vesicles in ear and vertigo.
How can you differentiate between and UMN and LMN defect of the facial nerve?
UMN lesions have relative sparing of the upper face, because of bilateral cortical representation of the upper part of the face.
this means that the part of the facial nerve nucleus responsible for the upper part of the face has an upper motor neurone input from both cerebral hemispheres.
Describe the course of the facial nerve.
Begins in the motor cortex, travels down in the corticobulbar tracts through the internal capsule to the facial nucleus in the lower pons. travels in the cerebello pontine angle in the internal auditory meatus to enter the facial canal which exits the skull via the stylo-mastoid foramen then travels through the parotid gland to supply the facial muscles. it then spreads as 5 branches of the pes anserinus.
describe the nerve supply to the pupil?
sphincter pupillae - constricts the pupil and is under PNS control (pilocarpine enhances this by promoting PNS activity)

dilator pupillae - dilates the pupil and is under SNS control (atropine enhances this by blocking PNS)
what fibres run in the occulomotor nerve?
motor fibres for controlling eye movements (superior, medial and inferior rectus)

levator palpebrae for elevating eyelid

PNS supply to pupil (pupillary contrictor via cillary ganglion)
the SNS supply to the eye
from superior cervical ganglion.
blood vessels, sweat glands and 4 eye muscles:
1. dilator pupillae
2.superior tarsal muscle (elevates eyelid -involuntary control)
3.inferior tarsal muscle (vestigal in humans)
4. orbitalis (vestigal in humas)
what are the symptoms of horner's syndrome?
ptosis
miosis
anhidrosis
redness of conjunctiva
features of a third nerve palsy?
ptosis - loss of levator palpebrae
mydriasis (dilated pupil) - PSN loss of sphincter pupillae
diplopia and down and out position - motor loss of IR,MR and SR.
ischaemic events affect somatic before PNS.
DM does not usually affect the pupil.
diagnostic criteria of a migrane without aura?
>5 headaches lasting 4-72 hours with either nausea or vomiting or photophobia/phonophobia AND more than one of:
unilateral
pulsating
interfers with normal life
worsed by normal activity
what are some contraindications to triptans?
IHD
coronary spasm
uncontrolled BP
lithium
SSRIs
colour changes which help distinguish syncope from seizure?
cyanosis suggests seizure
white/red suggests arrythmia
brugada syndrome!
genetic SCN5A channelopathy predisposing to VT. treat with a pacemaker.
what are the test and treatments for BPPV?
Hallpike's - what the hell is it?
Epley to better it
triad of meniere's disease?
1. vertigo
2. hearing loss
3. tinnitus
(+aural fullness)
what are some ototoxic drugs?
aminoglycosides, loop diuretics and cisplatin
presentation of acoustic neuroma?
unilateral hearing loss progressing to vertigo
ipsilateral 5,6,9,10
ipsilateral cerebellar signs

facial nerve is rarely involved!

accounts for 80% of cerebello-pontine angle tumours
ddx: meningioma and NF1
causes of pulsatile tinnitus?
carotid artery stenosis or dissection
AV fistula
glomus jugulare tumours
HAS BLED SCORE?
HTN >160
renal disease
liver diease
stroke history
prior major bleeding/predisposition to bleeding
labile INR
age >65
medication predisposing to bleeding
alcohol useage

5=9.1% 12.5/100 will bleed
by how much does warfarin reduce your risk of stroke?
68%
grading mortality in SAH
1: none : 0
2: neck stiffness & CN palsies: 11
3: drowsiness : 37
4: drowsiness with hemiplegia : 71
5: prolonged coma :100
where does the bleeding happen in subdural haematoma?
bridging veins between the cortex and venous sinuses (frequently occurs in a deceleration injury and in the elderly atrophic brain)
where does a extradural (epidural) haemorrhage occur?
usually after head injury to the temporal bone just lateral to the eye.
middle meningeal artery and vein
lucid interval pattern occurs, brain stem compression is possible.
LP IS CONTRAINDICATED
what are Madopar/sinemet and what are they used for?
are dopa-decarboxylase inhibitors used with levodopa
what are ropinirole & pramipexole and what are they used for?
dopamine agonists used to delay L dopa treatment. also allow lower doses of L-dopa to be used as disease progressed.
what are benzhexol and phenadrine?
anticholinergics used to help the tremor in parkinson's disease
what are rasagiline and selegiline?
MOA-B inhibitors used an as alternative to dopamine agonists in early PD.
S/E postural hypotension and AF
what are entacapone and tolcapone?
COMT inhibitors used to lessen the "off" time in Parkinsons disease
Progressive supranuclear palsy features?
early POSTURAL INSTABILITY & FALLS
verticle gaze palsy
rigidity of trunk
speech and swallowing problems
tremor is unusual
Multisystems atrophy features?
early AUTONOMIC features
cerebellar and pyrimidal signs
rigidity is worse than tremor
Cortico-basal degeneration features?
akinetic rigidity involving ONE LIMB
cortical SENSORY LOSS
APRAXIA (alien limb)
causes of mononeuritis multiplex?
WARDSPLC
wegner's
aids/amyloid
rheumatoid
diabetes
sarcoiditis
PAN
leprosy
carcinomatosis
most common false localising sign?
6th nerve palsy - had the longest intracranial route
treatment for bell's palsy?
give prednisolone if present within 72 hours (60mg for 5 days)
treatment for ramsay hunt syndrome?
give prednisolone and aciclovir
1/3 1/3 1/3 prognosis
what does MND never do?
affect eye movements
affect sensation
affect sphincters
lhetmitte's symptom?
neck flexion causing tingling down the spine
signs of radiculopathies?
reduced reflexes, dermatomal sensory loss, LMN weakness and wasting, UMN signs below the lesion with cord compression
dystrophia myotonica
AD Cl channelopathy
onset around 25 years old with distal onset weakness (hand/foot drop)
weak sternomastoids
myotonica
pattern of affected muscles in MG?
eyes - bulbar - face - neck - limb girdle - trunk
antibodies in MG?
anti AChR in 90%, only positive in 70% with occular confined disease
if negative try anti McSK antibodies
treatments in MG?
pyridostigmine (anticholinesterase)
prednisolone for relapses
IvIg/ plasmaphoresis for myasthenic crises

consider thyectomy
diagnosis of NF1?
cafe au lait spots >6 >5mm prepubertal >15mm post pubertal
auxillary/groin freckling
>2 neurofibromas or 1 plexiform
optic glioma
>2 lisch nodules
distinctive osseous lesions
first degree relative with NF1
diagnosis of NF2?
50% new mutations

1. bilateral vestibular schwannoma
2. 1st degree relative with NF2 +
a) unilateral vestibular schwannoma
b) one of
- neurofibroma
-meningoioma
-glioma
-schwannoma
-juvenile cataract
complications of NF1?
nerve root compression
GI bleeds/obstruction
cystic lesions, scoliosis, pseudoarthorisis
high BP
plexiform neurofibroma
malignancy (change to sarcoma)
high risk of epilepsy
syringomyelia
tubular cavity in close relation to central canal of cervical cord. due to blocked CSF circulation.
occurs in around 30 year olds.
static symptoms then rapidly worsen (couging, sneezing) increased pressure can cause extension into brainstem (syringobulbia)
signs of syringomyelia?
dissociative sensory loss (loss of spinothalamic, preserved dorsal columns) as presses on anterolateral pathways
horners syndrome
UMN leg signs
body assymetry
limb hemihypertrophy