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284 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Chemicals used to diagnose, treat or prevent disease.
Drug
Study of drugs adn their reactions with the body.
Pharmacology
4 names of a drug:
1. Chemical
2. Generic (manufacturer)
3. Official (FDA puts it in United States Pharmacopiea)
4. Brand (manufacturer)
4 sources of drugs:
1. Plants
2. Animals
3. Minerals
4. Laboratory (synthetic)
6 soureces of drug info:
1. United States Pharmacopeia (USP)
2. Physicians' Desk Reference
3. Drug Information
4. Monthly Prescribing Ref.
5. AMA Drug Evaluation
6. Internet
The official standard for info about pharmaceuticals in the US is:
United States Pharmacopeia
The complilation of drug inserts that includes 3 indicies and photos of drgs is:
Physicians Desk Reference
The American Hosptial Formulary Service publishes ___ , which contains a listing of mongraphs on many drugs used in the US.
Drug Information
Designed to help physicians prescribe and determine which meds are available is known as:
Monthly Prescribing Reference
11 parts of a drug profile include:
1. Name
2. Classification
3. Mechanism of Action
4. Indications
5. Pharmaokinetics
6. Side Effects/Adverse Reactions
7. Routes
8. Contraindications
9. Dosage
10. How Supplied
11. Special Considerations
__ is the way a drug causes its effects.
Mechanism of Action or Pharmadynamics
Conditions that make administration of drug ok.
Indications
How the drug is absorbed, distributed and eliminated.
Pharmacokinetics
Conditions in which the drug should not be administered.
Contraindications
The federal initiative that named USP as country's official drug source:
The Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906
___ limited the indiscrimiate use of addicting drugs by regulatin the importation, manufacture, sale and use of opium and cocaine.
The Harrison Narcotic Act of 1914
___ empowered the FDA to enforce and set premarket saftey standards on drugs.
The Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act of 1938
___ created 5 schedules of controlled substances , each with its own level of control and record keeping.
Controlled Substances Act of 1970
Schedule I

Description

Examples
High abuse, no accepted med indications, research only

Heroin, LSD, mescaline
Schedule II

Description

Examples
High abuse, accepted med indication,

Opium, cocaine, morphine, codeine, oxycodone, methadone, secobarbitual
Schedule III

Description

Examples
Less abuse, mod-low dependence, accepted med indications

Vicodin, Tylenol w/codeine
Schedule IV

Description

Examples
Low abuse, limited dependence, accepted med indications

Diazepam, lorazepam, phenobarbital
Schedule V

Description

Examples
Low abuse, may lead to dependence, accepted med indications

Opioids for caugh or diarrhea
True or False: EMS do not have to have permission (standing orders) to give over the counter meds, such as aspirin?
False
Test that determines the amount and purity of a given chemical in a preparation in the lab.
Assay
Relative therapeutic effectiveness of chemically equivalent drugs.
Bioequivalence
Test to ascertain a drug's availability in a biological model.
Bioassay
6 Rights of Medication
1. Right Person
2. Right Drug
3. Right Dose
4. Right Time
5. Right Route
6. Right Documentation
True or False: Is there ever a time that a drug's benefit to a pregnant mother must outweigh the risk of harm to the fetus?
True (cardiac arrest of mother)
2 problems with pharmacology of a pregnant PT:
1. Anatomy change in mother
2. Possible harm to fetus
Medication that may deform or kill the fetus.
Teratogenic Drug
FDA Pregnancy Categories
A - Studies in preg women w/no harm
B - Animal studies, but no women
C - Animal studies w/adverse affect
D - Fetal risk, but circumstance may out way risk
X - Fetal risk and risk outweighs benefit for mother
Proportion of a drug available in the body to cause either desired or undesired effects.
Free Drug Availabilty
True or False: Newborns absorb oral medications less then adults?
True
True or False: Because children have thinner skin they absorb topical meds faster than adults?
True
True or False: Children have less plasma then adults so the meds that bond to proteins and are metabolized are not as plentiful leaving a higher Free Drug Availability?
True
___ is a useful tool for calculating drug dosages for a pediatric PT.
Broselow Tape
Dosing for peds patients is based on their ___ and ___.
Size and age
When dealing with the size of a ped patient __ and __ are the two most common factors in calculating dosages?
Body surface area and weight
True or False: With geriatric patients, a decrease in plasma protein, decrease gastrointestinal motility and aging process of the renal system lead to a slow elimination of meds?
True
How a drug interacts with the body to case its effect.
Pharmacodynamics
The 4 processes of Pharmacokinetics:
1. Absorption
2. Distribution
3. Biotransformation
4. Elimination
This type of transport requires the use of energy, such as ATP or ADP, to move a substance.
Active Transport
Process in which carrier proteins transport large molecules across the cell membrane.
Carrier-mediation diffusion or
Facilitated diffusion
Diffusion involves the movement of a __ in the solution from a higher to lower concentration.
Solute
Osmosis involves the movement of a __ (usually water) from a area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration.
Solvent
Movement of molecules across a membrane from an area of higher pressure to an area of lower pressure.
Filtration
4 ways to transport a cell:
1. Carrier-mediated
2. Diffusion
3. Osmosis
4. Filtration
3 types of Aborption:
1. Orally
2. IM
3. Subcutaneous
True or False: The rate of absorption is not directly related to the surface area absorbing the drug.
False
T or F: The greater the blood flow to an area the faster the absorption rate.
True
The amount of the drug still available after the drug reaches the tissue.
Bioavailability
___ is one of the chief proteins in the blood that is available for binding with drugs.
Albumin
Name given to the metabolism of drugs.
Biotransformation
Biotransformation has 2 effects on drugs:
1. Turn more or less metabolite

2. Make more water soluble for elimination (less lipid soluble.)
Medication not active when administered, but biotransformation converts it into active metabolites.
Prodrug
The liver's partial or complete inactivation of a drug before it reaches the systemic circulation.
First-pass effect

(one reason some drugs must be given IV instead of orally)
The loss of Hydrogen atoms or the addition of Oxygen atoms to increase the positive charge on a molecule. Used to metabolize drugs in the Liver.
Oxidation
The breakage of a chemical bond by adding water. Used to metabolize drugs in the Liver.
Hydrolysis
4 Ways to eliminate waste (Buffer.)
1. Urine
2. Feces
3. Respiration
4. Bicarbonate
Delivery of a medication through the gastrointestinal tract.
Enteral Routes

Oral
Sublingual
Delivery of medication outside of the gastrointestinal tract.
Parenteral Routes

IV
IM
Sub Cu
4 Pharmacodaymic ways a drug acts.
1. Bind to a receptor (most common)
2. Change physical property of cell
3. Chemically combine with other chemicals
4. Alter normal metabolic pathway
Specialized protein that combines with a drug.
Receptor
Force of attraction of a drug and receptor.
Affinity
Drug's ability to cause the expected response.
Efficacy
T or F: The affinity of a drug is directly related to the efficacy of a drug?
False
Chemical that is formed from the reaction of a drug and receptor that then is used to complete the efficacy of a drug.
Second Messenger
Binding of drug to receptor that causes a drop in number of receptors, resulting in a decrease in responsiveness of target receptors.
Down-regulation
Drug cause the formation of receptors.
Up-regulation
Drug that binds to receptor and causes the initiated response expected.
Agonist
Drug binds to receptor, but does not cause expected response.
Antagonist
Drug that binds and stimulates some effects, but blocks others.
Agonist-antagonist (partial agonist)
Drug causes a expected effect while also blocking another drug from triggering same receptor.
Competitive Antagonism
Drug causes deformity of the binding site that prevents an agonist from fitting and binding.
Noncompetitive Antagonism
Competitive antagonist permanently binds with a receptor site and forces body to create new receptors.
Irreversible Antagonism
Unintended response to a drug.
Side Effect
Correlation of amount of drug to clinical response.
Drug-response relationship
Most of the info needed to describe drug response comes from ____, which describes onset length, duration, termination of action, effective concentration and toxic levels.
Plasma-level profile
What is the Autonomic Nervous System?
The part of the nervous system that controls involuntary (automatic) actions.
Time from administration until med reaches minimum effective concentration.
Onset of action
What is autonomic ganglia?
Groups of autonomic nerve cells located outside the central nervous system.
Amount of time the drug remains above the min. concentration level
Duration of action
Time drug drops below min. effective level until eliminated from body.
Termination of action
Ratio of drug's lethal dose for 50% of pop. to its effective dose for 50% fo the pop.
Therapeutic Incdex
Time the body takes to clear 1/2 of the drug.
Biologic half-life

500 cc after 10 min is 250
10 more min 125
8 factors affecting drug-response relationship:
1. Age
2. Body Mass
3. Sex
4. Environment (behavioral drugs)
5. Time of admin (after eating etc)
6. Pathological state (disease affect)
7. Genetics
8. Psychology (placebo effect)
Drug that best demonstrates the class's common properties and illustrates its particular characteristics.
Prototype
Nerve Cell
Neuron
The nervous system is divided into 2 parts:
Central and Peripheral
The Peripheral NS is divided into 2 parts:
Somatic and Autonomic
Somatic NS controls ___ or motor functions.
Voluntary
Autonomic controls ___ or automatic functions.
Involuntary
The Autonomic NS is divided into 2:
Sympathetic and Parasympathetic
The two major groupings of meds affect the ___ and ___.
CNS and Autonomic NS
Meds that relieve pain sensation.
Analgesic
Absence of all sensation.
Anesthesia
Agent that enhances effects of other drugs.
Adjunct Medication
Opioid agonists simulate the production of ___ to decrease pain sensory.

Prototype
Endorphins

Morphine
2 examples of Nonopioid analgesics:
1. Aspirin
2. Ibuprofen
Prototype for Opioid antagonists to treat respiratory depression due to overdose.
Naloxone (Narcan)
4 common Adjunct Meds that are used in the field:
1. Diazepam (Valium)
2. Lorazepam (Ativan)
3. Midazolam (Vesed)
4. Promethazine (Phenergan)
Med that induces a loss of sensation to touch or pain.
Anesthetic
Anesthesia combined with amnesia while PT remains conscious.
Neuroleptanesthesia
3 systems depressed by anesthetics:
1. Respiratory
2. CNS
3. Cardiac
First anesthetic ever used:
Ether
What is an antiplatelet?
Drug that decreases the formation of platelet plugs
3 examples of anesthetics used in the field:
1. Diazepam (Valium)
2. Midazolam (Versed)
3. Fentanyl (Sublimaze)
State of decreased anxiety and inhibitions.
Sedation
Instigation of sleep.
Hypnosis
___ are a state of hyperactivity of a section of the brain (partial) or all of the brain (generalized.)
Seizures
___ partial seizures are also called temporal lobe seizures are associated with altered mental status.
Complex
Generalized seizures involve both sides of the brain and are also known as ___.
Tonic-clonic
Tonic stage presents as:
Muscle rigidity
Clonic stage presents as:
Spasmodic twitching
___ is life threatening characterized by uninterrupted tonic-clonic seizures lasting more than __ mins or 2 or more T-C w/o lucid period.
Status Epilepticus
Imbalance in the neurotranmitter ___ seems to be responsible for most mental diseases.
Dopamine
3 mjor diseases treated with psychotherapeutic meds.
1. Schizophrenia
2. Depression
3. Bipolar Disorder
3 Antiseizure meds in the field:
1. Diazepam (Valium)
2. Lorazepam (Ativan)
3. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
TCA is short for ___ an antidepressant.
Tricyclic
Bipolar disorder is also know as:
Manic Depression
What are preganglonic nerves?
Nerve fibers that extend from the central nervous system to the autonomic ganglia.
What are postganglionic nerves?
Nerve fibers that extend from the autonomic ganglia to the target tissues.
Explain what a neurotransmitter is?
A chemical messenger that conducts a nervous impulse across a synapse.
Synapse that use acetylcholine as the neurotransmitter are ------ synapses.
Cholinergic
What does adrenergic mean?
Pertains to the neurotransmitter norepinephrine.
Parasympathomimetic
Drug or other substance that causes effects like those of the parasympathetic nervous system (also called cholinergic)
Parasympatholytic
Drug or other substance that blocks or inhibits the actions of the parasympathetic nervous system (also called anticholinergic)
What does SLUDGE stand for?
Salivation
Lacrimation
Urination
Defecation
Gastric Motility
Emesis
What is the difference between reversible inhibitors and irreversible inhibitors?
How long they remain bound to cholinesterase.
Irreversible cholinesterase inhibitors have only one clinical function, what does it treat?
Glaucoma
What is the prototype anticholinergic drug?
Atropine
Atropine is classified as what kind of drug?
Belladonna alkaloids
What do neuromuscular blocking agents.
Neuromuscular blockade produces a state of paralysis without affecting consciousness.
The sympathetic nervous system releases norepinephrine and epinephrine from where?
Norepinephrine- postganglionic end terminals
Epinephrine- adrenal medulla
Beta-adrenergic antagonists are more commonly referred to as?
Beta Blockers
Drugs used to affect sympathetic nervous system.
Drugs that stimulate sympathetic nervous system are sympathomimetics and ones that inhibit system are sympatholytics.
In the list of cardiovascular drugs, What drugs fall under category of antidysrhythmics?
Sodium Channel Blockers (Class I)
Beta Blockers (Class II)
Potassium Channel Blockers (Class III)
Calcium Channel Blockers (Class IV)
Cardiovascular Drugs, What drugs are Hemostatic Agents?
Antiplatelets
Anticoagulants
Fibrinolytics
What drug was first used clinically in 1879?
Nitroglycerin
What is hemostasis?
The stoppage of bleeding.
What is a fibrinolytic?
Drug that acts directly on thrombi to break them down; also called thrombolytic.
Main Indications for Gastrointestinal therapy
*Peptic ulcers
*Constipation
*Diarrhea and emesis
*Digestion
Disease characterized by an imbalance in the gastrointestinal (GI) systems that increase acidity and protect against acidity
Peptic ulcer disease (PUD)
Most common cause of peptic ulcers, decreasing body's ability to produce protective GI mucous lining
Heliobacter Pylori (bacteria)
Treatments for the elimination of Heliobacter Pylori (cause of Peptic ulcer disease)
*Bismuth (Pepto-Bismol)

Antibiotics:
*Metronidazole (Flagyl)
*Amoxicillin (Amoxil)
*Tetracycline (Achromycin)
Four types of drugs that block/decrease gastric acid secretion
*H2 receptor antagonist (H2RAs)
*Proton Pump inhibitors
*Antacids
*Anticholinergics
When stimulated with histamine,they increase gastric acid secretion
H2 Receptors
Action and indications of H2 Receptor Antagonist (H2RAs) medications
Block gastric acid secretions. Treatment for ulcers, reflux, heartburn, preventing aspiration pneumonia during anesthesia
Four types (medications) of H2 Receptor Antagonist
*Cimetidine (Tagament)
*Ranitidine (Zantac)
*Famotidine (Pepcid)
*Nizatidine (Axid Pulvules)
Side Effects of H2 Receptors Antagonist medications specifically Cimetadine
Cimetadine may lead to decreased libido, impotence, and CNS effects
Class of medication that acts directly on K+H+ATPase (enzyme that secretes gastric acids) by blocking it
Proton Pump Inhibitors
Give 2 examples of Proton Pump inhibitors
*Omeprazole (Prilosec)
*Lansoprazole (Prevacid)
Side Effects of Proton Pump inhibitors
*Diarrhea
*Headache
Alkalotic compounds used to increase the gastric environment's PH
Antacid
Used to decrease gastric acid by blocking muscarinic agents ex. Pirenzepine (Gastrozepine)
Anticholinergics
Medication used to decrease stool's firmness and increase it's water content
Laxative
Name the four categories of Laxatives
*Bulk-forming
*Stimulant
*Osmotic
*Surfactant
Name two examples of bulk-forming laxative medications
*Psyllium (Metamucil)
*Methylcellulose (Citrusel)
How do bulk-forming laxatives work?
*Increases fiber
*Increases stool water absorption
*Provides food for colon bacteria
*Forms softer stool
Laxative that decreases surface tension and increases water absorption into feces
Surfactant
Example: docusate sodium (Colace)
Laxative that increase motility
Stimulant
Example: Phenolphthalein (Ex-Lax, Correctol), Bisacodyl (Bisacolax)
Laxatives that are poorly formed salts which increase fecal water content by drawing in water
Osmotic Laxative

Example:Magnesium Hydroxide (Milk of Magnesia)
Usually a symptom of a bacterial infection presenting with liquid stool
Diarrhea
The drug of choice when stimulating emesis is indicated
Ipecac
Medications used to prevent vomiting
Antiemetics
Transmitters involved in the vomiting reflex
*Serotonin
*Dopamine
*Acetylcholine
*Histamine
Blocks Serotonin receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ), stomach, and small intestine
Serotonin Antagonist
Example of a Serotonin Antagonist medication
*Ondansetron (Zofran)

Treatment for vomitting in chemotherapy
Side effect:headache, diarrhea
What are the two categories of Dopamine Antagonist?
*Phenothiazines includes (Compazine) & (Phenergan)
*Butyrophenones includes (Haldol) & (Inapsine)
What are the extrapyramidal effects (side effects) of Dopamine Antagonists?
*Sedation
*Dystonia (muscle contractions)
*Ataxia
What medication blocks both serotonin and dopamine?
Metoclopramide (Reglan)
Two medications used to aid digestion of carbs and fats and act similar to digestive enzymes
*Pancreatin (Entozyme)
*Pancrelipase (Viokase)

Side Effects: Vomiting, nausea, cramping
Degenerative disease that affects the optic nerve
Galucoma
Glaucoma is aimed at reducing what?
Intraocular pressure (IOP)
Timolol and Betopic are example of what kind of medication used in the reduction of IOP in Glaucoma patients?
Beta Blockers
Isoto Carpine is an example of a cholinergic drug that treats Galucoma by doing what?
*Causing miosis (pupil constriction)
*Ciliary muscle contraction
Both lower IOP
Used in eye trauma or during surgical procedures to decrease pain and sensation?
*Tetracaine (Pontocaine)
Local anesthetic of the ether class
Drugs used to treat conditions involving the ear are aimed to do what three actions?
*Eliminate bacteria
*Eliminate fungal infections
*Break up impacted ear wax
Carbamide peroxyde and glycerin are used to treat what type of ear condition?
Ear wax
Chloromycetin Otic and Garamycin are common ______ used to treat infections of the ear.
Antibiotics
Define Ototoxic
Harmful to organs or nerves that produce hearing and balance. Common Ototoxic symptom is tinnitus (ringing in ears)
Name the glands that make up the Endocrine system
*Pituitary (anterior and posterior)
*Pineal
*Thyroid
*Parathyroid
*Thymus
*Adrenal
*Pancreas
*Ovaries and Testes
Anterior Pituitary like drugs are used to treat what kinds of conditions?
*Abnormal growth:
Dwarfism
Acromegaly
Gigantism
Hormone secreted by the posterior pituitary that promotes water retention
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
Give examples of Antidiuretic analog medications used to treat diabetes insipidus and nocturnal enuresis (bed wetting)
*Vasopressin (Pitressin)
*Desmopressin (Stimate)
*Lypressin (Diapid)
At high doses, antidiuretic hormone cause what two main symptoms?
*Vasoconstriction
*Increased BP
Endocrine gland responsible for regulating calcium levels
Parathyroid
Disease characterized by low levels of calcium and vitamin D
Hypoparathyroidism

(Hyperparathyroidism is high levels of calcium and VitaminD)
Endocrine Gland that plays a vital role in regulating growth, maturation, and metabolism
Thyroid gland
Hypothyroidism in children or cretinism manifests itself by which two symptoms?
*Dwarfism
*Mental retardation
What are the symptoms for Hypothyroidism in adults?
*Decreased metabolic rate
*Weight gain
*Fatigue
*Bradycardia
Treatment for hypothyroidism
Hormone replacement with levothyroxine (Synthroid)
Typically a result of tumors, this condition causes a larger than normal release of thyroid hormone
Hyperthyroidism
Enlargements of the thyroid gland
Goiters
What are the three classes of hormones synthesized and secreted by the adrenal cortex?
*Glucocorticoids
*Mineralocorticoids
*Androgens
Cortisol is a _____that increases the production of glucose by enhancing carbohydrate metabolism,gluconeognesis, and reducing peripheral glucose use
Glucocorticoid
Aldosterone is a _____that regulates salt and water balance
Mineralocorticoid
Disease that is characterized by hypersecretion of adrenocoticotropic hormone leading to excessive glucocorticoid
Cushing's disease
Symptoms of Cushing's disease
*Hyperglycemia
*Obesity
*Hypertension
*Electrolyte imbalance
Disease characterized by hyposecretion of corticoid as a result of damage to the adrenal gland
Addison's disease
Symptoms of Addison's disease
*Hypoglycemia
*Emaciation
*Hypotension
*Hyperkalemia
*Hyponatremia
Treatments for Cushing's disease
*Surgical
*Antihypertensive (Aldactone & Capoten)
*Antiadrenal (block synthesis of corticosteroids)
Treatments for Addison's disease
*Cortisone replacement (Cortistan)
*Hydrocortisone (SoluCortef)
*Mineralocorticoids (Florinef Acetate)
Disease characterized by inappropriate carbohydrate metabolism
Diabetes Mellitus
Diabetes that is insulin dependent resulting from inadequate insulin release from the beta cells in the pancreas
Type I
Diabetes that results from decreased responsiveness to insulin and a lack of synchronization between insulin and blood glucose levels
Type II
Diabetes occurring in pregnancy
Gestational Diabetes
Substance that decreases blood glucose levels and increases cellular transport of glucose, potassium, and amino acids.
Insulin
Substance that increases blood glucose levels by glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis
Glucagon
Patients with Type I or Type II diabetes can experience both ____ and _____
Hypoglycemia
Hyperglycemia
Diabetic Ketoacidosis is treated by a continuous ____ infusion and by frequent blood glucose checks
Insulin
Name the three Insulin sources
*Beef
*Pork
*Recombinant DNA/Human Insulin
All insulin preparation are given through what route, except for regular insulin which is given intravenously
Subcutaneously
What is the difference between natural and modified insulin?
*natural occurs in nature
*modified are created to increase their action and duration
True or False
Beta Blockers increase the release of Glucagon
False

They decrease Glucagon release
True or False
Insulin increases potassium uptake by cells and is an effective treatment for hyperkalemia
True
Used to stimulate insulin secretion from the pancreas in patients with non-insulin dependent diabetes
Oral Hypoglycemic Agents
The four classes of oral hypoglycemic agents
*Sulfonylureas
*Biguanides
*Alpha-glucosidase Inhibitors
*Thiazolidinedione
______work by increasing insulin secretion and tissue response to insulin.
Sulfonylureas

Example:Orinase, Glucotrol, Micronase
_____work by decreasing glucose synthesis and increases glucose uptake
Biguanide

Example:Glucophage
Side effects: Nausea, vomiting, decreased appetite
_____work by decreasing carbohydrate metabolism, which moderates the increase of blood glucose after meals
Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

Example:Precise and Glyset
Side Effects: Flatulence, cramps, diarrhea, & distention
____ works by promoting tissue response to insulin making the available insulin more effective
Thiazolinediones

Examples: Rezulin
Side Effects: None major
Two hyperglycemic agents that act to increase blood glucose levels
Glucagon and Diazoxide (Proglycen)
Solution given intravenously for acute hypoglycemia
D50W

Side Effect: Local tissue necrosis if infiltration occurs
The five main groups of drugs affecting the female reproductive system
*Estrogens
*Progestins
*Oral Contraceptives
*Drugs affecting uterine contractions
*Infertility Drugs
Estrogen replacement therapy is aimed at the treatment of what condition?
Menopause
Drugs that increase uterine contractions are considered to be what?
Oxytocics

Examples: Pitocin & syntocinon
Used to treat Amenorrhea, endometriosis, dysfunctional uterine bleeding
Progestin
Oral contraceptive's main mechanism of action is to prevent what?
Ovulation
Drugs that relax the uterus by stimulating beta 2 receptors are considered to be what?
Tocolytics

Examples:Brethine & Yutopar
Oral contraceptive side effects include
*Unintended pregnancy
*Thromboembolism
*Hypertension
*Abnormal uterine bleeding
Infertility drugs are aimed at promoting what?
Maturation of an egg

Example:Clomid & Metrodin
Side Effects:Ovarian cyst, pain, menstrual irregularities
Testosterone deficiency is caused by what three reasons?
*Failure of testes to descend (Cryptorchidism)
*Testicular inflammation (Orchitis)
*Testicular removal (Orchidectomy)
Benign prostatic hyperplasia
is what?
Enlarged prostate

Symptoms:Urinary hesitancy and retention
Treatment for enlarged prostate
*Surgery
*Finasteride (Proscar), which interferes with prostate growth
Examples of Drugs that reduce libido (sex drive) and erection/ ejaculation
*hypertensive (beta-blockers,alpha antagonists, diuretics)
*Antianxiety/antipsychotic meds (benzodiazepines,MAOIs, tricyclic antidepressants)
Medications that increase libido and erectile ability in men
*Levodopa (L-dopa)
*Sildenafil (Viagra)
*Vardenafil (Levitra)
*Tadalafil (Cialis)
Define Antineoplastic
Drug used to treat cancer
Define Antibiotic
Agent that kills or decreases the growth of bacteria
True or False
Cancer modifies a cell's DNA leading to cellular death
False

Cancer modifies a cell's DNA leading to abnormal tissue growth
True or False
During chemotherapy only cancer cells are destroyed
False

Healthy cells are also destroyed but that action is minimized
Agents aimed to kill cancer cells do so by what three actions?
*Prevent cells from reproducing (Adrucil)
*Interfering with cell DNA splitting (Mustargen)
*Interfering with cell division (Velban &Oncovin)
Drugs in the penicillin and cephalosporin classes, as well as vancomycin do what?
They are bactericidal and act by inhibiting cell wall synthesis, rupturing the cell, and killing the bacteria
The macrolide, aminogycoside, and tetracycline antibiotics do what?
Stop protein synthesis, preventing the bacteria from replicating
The azole antifungals like Nizoral inhibit what?
Fungal growth
Name three antiviral agents
*Acyclovir (Zorivax)
*Zidovudine (Retrovir)
*Indinavir (Crixivan) treatment of HIV
Malaria treatments are aimed at what two actions?
*Preventing infestation
*Treating infection
True or False
Schizonticides are drugs used to treat malaria
True

Examples:Aralan, Mefloquine (Lariam), and Quinine
True or False
Once you are exposed to Tuberculosis you automatically have an active disease
False

It stays dormant until immune system is compromised
Disease caused by parasitic worms
Helminthiasis

Treatment:Mebendazole (Vermoz) &niclosamide (Nicloside)
Disease also known as Hansen's disease, characterized by lesions
Leprosy

Treatment:Dapsone (DDS) & clofazimine (Lamprene)
This group of meds interferes with the inflammatory response, reducing pain,fever, and inflammation
Nonsteroidal Anti-inflammatory Drugs or NSAIDs
Name some examples of NSAIDS
*Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
*Ibuprofen (Motrin)
*Naproxen (Naprosyn)
*Ketorolac (Toradol)
*Piroxicam (Feldene)
Disease characterized by high uric acid, pain/swelling in joints
Gout

Severe cases cause kidney stones, nephritis, and atherosclerosis
Define Pathogen
Disease causing organism
Define immunity
Body's ability to respond to a pathogen
A solution containing whole antibodies for a specific pathogen
Serum
A solution containing a modified pathogen that does not actually cause disease but still stimulates the development of antibodies to it
Vaccine
The immune system consists of. . .
*Spleen
*Lymph nodes
*Thymus
*Leukocytes
* Antibodies in Plasma
True or False
Immunity may be acquired actively or passively
True
Passively: Introduced by injection,placenta,breast milk
Actively:Response to the pathogen itself
Immune response that directly attacks the pathogen cell
Cell-mediated immunity by T lymphocytes
The immune process where B cells create antibodies is referred to as?
Humoral Immunity
True or False
Azathoprine (Imuran) acts by decreasing cell mediated immune reaction and suppressing antibodies in transplant patients
True
Zidovudine (Retrovir), Ritonavir (Norvir), and Sauinavir (Invirase) are examples of immunomodulating agents used to treat what?
HIV
Name the four fat soluble vitamins
A,D,E, and K
Name the two water soluble Vitamins
*Vitamin B Group (B1,B2,B3,etc)
*Vitamin C
Vitamin produced with exposure to sunlight
Vitamin D
Drug overdose and poisoning treatments aim to do what four things?
*Eliminate substance by emptying gastric contents
*Increasing gastric motility
*Alkalinizing the urine with sodium bicarbonate
*Filtering substance with dialysis
What is chelation?
Chelation is the binding of a substance with a compound like iron to make that substance inactive
The Acronym SLUDGE stands for what?
Salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation, gastric motility, and emesis
What are the two basic types of indirect-acting cholinergic drugs?
Reversible inhibitors and irreversible inhibitors
What is Neostigmine (prostigmin)?
It is the prototype reversible cholinesterase inhibitor.
Muscarinic Cholinergic Antagonists are?
Cholinergic antagonists that block the effect of acetylcholine exclusively at the muscarinic receptors.
Absence of pain.
Analgesia
Neuromuscular blockers affect?
Nicotinic m receptors
List four types of parasympathetic acetylcholine receptors.
Muscarinic
Nicotinic
Nicotinic n (neuron)
Nicotinic m (muscle)
Nicotinic Cholinergic Antagonists block what and where?
They block acetylcholine only at nicotinic sites.
Drugs used to affect parasympathetic nervous system.
Cholinergics (parasympathomimetics)
Anticholinergics (parasympatholytics)
Ganglionic Blocking Agents
Neuromuscular Blocking Agent
Ganglionic Stimulating Agents
List classes of cardiovascular drugs
Antidysrhythmics
Antihypertensives
Hemostatic Agents
Antihyperlipidemic Agents
Cardiovascular Drugs, What drugs fall under antihypertensives?
Diuretics
Angiotensin II Receptor Antagonists
Calcium Channel Blocking Agents
Direct Vasodilators
What is a hyperlipidemic?
Drug used to treat high blood cholesterol.
What are the 3 calcium channel blockers most frequently used?
Verapamil (Calan, Isoptin),
Diltiazen (Cardizem),
Nifedipine (Procardia)
What is an anticoagulant?
Drug that interrupts the clotting cascade.