• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/35

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

35 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

1. Regarding the difference between normal and abnormal behavior, which of the following statements is TRUE? A) Abnormal behavior is unusual, whereas normal behavior is not. B) The difference between normal and abnormal is often a matter of degree. C) Normal behavior is not “crazy,” but abnormal behavior is. D) Abnormal behavior is usually frightening and disturbing, but normal behavior is not. pa7Ѿ~,

B) The difference between normal and abnormal is often a matter of degree.

2. Which of the following statements is TRUE? A) “Abnormal” behavior is almost always easy to distinguish from “normal” behavior. B) When someone's behavior strikes you as strange or unusual, the behavior can safely be labeled as “abnormal.” C) The dividing line between normal and abnormal behavior is often determined by the social or cultural context in which a particular behavior occurs. D) Hearing voices is always a symptom of severe abnormality, regardless of the person's cultural background. ,ser$ѭa,

C) The dividing line between normal and abnormal behavior is often determined by the social or cultural context in which a particular behavior occurs.

3. The term _____ refers to the scientific study of the origins, symptoms, and development of psychological disorders. A) DSM-IV-TR B) psychopathology C) schizophrenia D) comorbidity prevalence aftу,

B) psychopathology

4. The acronym “DSM-IV-TR” stands for: A) Developmental and Secondary Mental Disorders Manual, 4th Translation B) Disorders: Simple and Multifaceted, 4th Edition, Technical Revision C) Deviations from Standard Mentality, 4th Edition (Technical Release) D) Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 4th Edition, Text Revision ,

D) Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 4th Edition, Text Revision variaцe

5. One finding of the National Comorbidity Survey (NCS) is that: A) more mental hospitals need to be built. B) there do not appear to be any gender differences in the prevalence of mental disorders. C) most of the people who had experienced the symptoms of a mental disorder in the previous year seemed to survive their symptoms without becoming completely debilitated. D) men were almost twice as likely as women to suffer the symptoms of major depression at some point in their lifetimes. #Ѫb,

C) most of the people who had experienced the symptoms of a mental disorder in the previous year seemed to survive their symptoms without becoming completely debilitated

4. In contrast to normal anxiety, pathological anxiety: A) is unreasonably intense, irrational, uncontrollable, and disruptive. B) is focused on relationship problems rather than work or academic concerns. C) alerts people to realistic problems that need to be addressed or solved. D) is unpleasant. st؞Qm,

A) is unreasonably intense, irrational, uncontrollable, and disruptive.

7. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of panic disorder? A) Panic attacks are sudden and unpredictable. B) A panic attack may occur during or after a stressful period of life. C) A panic attack occurs at least twice every week for a period of three months or longer. D) Panic attacks occur when there is no reasonable or realistic threat. w RomޞWW,

C) A panic attack occurs at least twice every week for a period of three months or longer

8. According to the cognitive-behavioral theory of panic disorder, people with panic disorder: A) are likely to believe that heart attack symptoms are simply indigestion or heartburn. B) are likely to misinterpret normal physical sensations of arousal as catastrophic and life threatening. C) probably suffer from an underlying medical condition, such as irregular or rapid heartbeat. D) are faking their condition, because they are reinforced by the attention they receive during an “attack.” ew Rom%Ѭ`,

B) are likely to misinterpret normal physical sensations of arousal as catastrophic and life threatening

9. A(n) _____ is an intense, irrational fear that is triggered by a particular object or situation. A) panic attack B) ataque de nervios C) phobia D) delusion of reference

C) phobia ѐ

10. Which of the following statements about phobias is FALSE? A) About 10 percent of the general population will experience a specific phobia at some point in their lives. B) There are no gender differences in the prevalence of specific phobias. C) In the general population, mild phobias of certain animals, such as dogs or snakes, or certain situations, such as flying or being in enclosed places, are very common. D) Even though the person consciously knows that their fear is irrational, encountering the feared object can produce incapacitating terror and anxiety.

B) There are no gender differences in the prevalence of specific phobias.

11. Most cases of specific phobia involve particular categories of objects or situations. Which of the following is NOT a common phobia? A) spiders, snakes, or other animals and insects B) thunderstorms, heights, water, or other features of the natural environment C) particular situations, like flying, driving, or enclosed places D) chemicals and pollutants, like cleaning supplies, cigarette smoke, or oil spills

D) chemicals and pollutants, like cleaning supplies, cigarette smoke, or oil spills AFљp

12. The development of phobias can be partly explained by: A) classical conditioning, operant conditioning, and observational learning. B) high brain levels of dopamine. C) low brain levels of dopamine. D) the misinterpretation of the signs of normal physical arousal. s,э,

) classical conditioning, operant conditioning, and observational learning.

13. Which of the following is an example of the development of a phobia through observational learning? A) After eating a big spaghetti dinner, John gets sick and can no longer stand the smell of spaghetti. B) Matilda develops a fear of spiders after years of seeing her mother and older sister react with extreme fear whenever they see a spider. C) After being attacked by a man in an elevator, Evelyn developed a phobia of elevators and other small, confined spaces. D) After reading about the dangers of tick-borne diseases, Joe puts on long pants whenever he goes outside in the summertime. sp;

B) Matilda develops a fear of spiders after years of seeing her mother and older sister react with extreme fear whenever they see a spider.

14. A long-lasting anxiety disorder that develops in response to being exposed to a severe and often life-threatening trauma is called: A) generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). B) obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD). C) posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). D) dysthymic disorder (DD). &ѯo,

C) posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

15 Which of the following is NOT a symptom of posttraumatic stress disorder? A) multiple personalities B) intrusive, frequent memories of the traumatic event C) extreme anxiety and increased physical arousal D) avoiding stimuli that trigger memories of the traumatic event marginю,

A) multiple personalities

16. In obsessive-compulsive disorder, obsessions and compulsions frequently: A) oppose one another. B) change, often from one day to the next. C) are triggered by the use of drugs or alcohol. D) are linked in some way. e ,

D) are linked in some way. e ,

17. The DSM-IV-TR category of _____ is characterized by serious and persistent disturbances or fluctuations in a person's emotional state that causes psychological discomfort, impairs the ability to function, or both. A) mood disorders B) anxiety disorders C) dissociative disorders D) schizophrenia 8ѱ,

A) mood disorders 9dtkё

18. The physical symptoms of _____ often accompany major depression. A) anxiety B) schizophrenia C) body dysmorphic disorder D) dissociative fugue ='ѝ,

A) anxiety

19. Which of the following statements about major depression is FALSE? A) Symptoms of anxiety often accompany major depression. B) People experiencing major depression become pessimistic and negative about themselves, the world, and the future. C) Episodes of major depression are almost always triggered by a traumatic event or a highly stressful situation. D) Disrupted and abnormal patterns of sleep are a very common characteristic of major depression. aы,

C) Episodes of major depression are almost always triggered by a traumatic event or a highly stressful situation. kѝ|

20. Which of the following is often called “the common cold” of psychological disorders? A) obsessive-compulsive disorder B) schizophrenia C) cyclothymic disorder D) major depression

D) major depression

21. After working in Austin, Texas, for five years, Rebecca's company transferred her to an upper management position in Minneapolis, Minnesota. Since moving to Minnesota, Rebecca is bothered by strong feelings of despondency during the long, dark winter months. When spring arrives in late April or May, her mood improves and she is back to normal. Rebecca's symptoms suggest that she is experiencing: A) seasonal affective disorder. B) bipolar disorder. C) dysthymic disorder. D) double depression. t--%Ѭ`,

A) seasonal affective disorder.

C Bipolar disorder used to be officially called _____ and is still often referred to by that term. A) double depression B) dysthymic disorder C) seasonal affective disorder C

D) manic depression tkё

23. The onset of bipolar disorder is most likely to occur: A) during the winter months. B) when the person is in his or her early twenties. C) very gradually over the course of several years. D) in females who are forty-five to fifty years old. o-ъ,

B) when the person is in his or her early twenties.

24 Research has shown that mood disorders occur more frequently among _____ than among the general population. A) people who have recently emigrated to this country B) left-handed people C) creative writers and artists D) top corporate executives ,

creative writers and artists

25. One of the best predictors of whether a person will experience a recurrence of major depression is having: A) delusions of persecution. B) been exposed to recent stressful events. C) episodes of dissociative fugue. D) schizophrenia.

B) been exposed to recent stressful events. 76єw

26. Which of the personality disorders is also referred to as a psychopath? A) schizoid B) paranoid C) antisocial D) histrionic c6ѿ,

C) antisocial

27. Pathological jealousy commonly characterizes the intimate relationships of the person with _____ personality disorder. A) dependent B) paranoid C) schizoid D) avoidant marg р,

B) paranoid

28. In most cases, the disorder called dissociative amnesia occurs as a response to: A) stress, trauma, or an extremely distressing situation. B) excess dopamine activity in the brain. C) an overdose of drugs or alcohol. D) a concussion or other injury to the brain. anю,

A) stress, trauma, or an extremely distressing situation. k0OMіu

29. A falsely held belief that persists in spite of evidence contrary to the belief is formally called a: A) hallucination. B) negative symptom of schizophrenia. C) delusion. D) hypnagogic hallucination. argin-b,ѥy,

) delusion.

30. The most common type of hallucination that occurs in schizophrenia is: A) visual. B) smell or taste. C) touch or tactile. D) auditory. <ќ,

D) auditory.

31. A relatively common symptom in schizophrenia is greatly reduced production of speech--the person's verbal responses are limited to very brief, empty comments. This particular symptom is termed: A) catatonia. B) echolalia. C) hebephrenia. D) alogia. ъ,

D) alogia

32. The most common type of schizophrenia is the _____ type. A) undifferentiated B) paranoid C) catatonic D) disorganized fљ,

B) paranoid

33. The onset of schizophrenia: A) follows fundamentally different patterns in individualistic and collectivistic cultures. B) is as likely to occur at any age throughout early and middle adulthood. C) typically occurs during early adulthood. D) is most likely to occur during the fall and winter months. e:n;Ѳ,

C) typically occurs during early adulthood. єw

34. Which of the following statements about the role of psychological factors in the onset of schizophrenia is accurate? A) There is a strong correlation between guilt-producing parental styles and offspring who eventually develop schizophrenia. B) There is a strong correlation between being raised in a single-parent home and eventually developing schizophrenia. C) Disturbed family communication styles have consistently emerged as the psychological factor most strongly correlated with the eventual development of schizophrenia. D) No single psychological factor has consistently emerged as causing schizophrenia. t

) No single psychological factor has consistently emerged as causing schizophrenia.

35. The notion that there is a significant increase in the number of suicides in the United States during the winter holidays: A) has been repeatedly demonstrated by psychological studies. B) is true for older adults but not for younger adults and adolescents. C) applies only to years in which unemployment rates are higher than normal. D) is a myth. t-->x,

D) is a myth. ѐ