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167 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What is sexuality? |
- is a part of a person's personality & important for overall health |
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How does a nurse help a patient with their sexuality? |
- nurse should be knowledgeable & be comfortable with their own sexuality - nurse should be knowledgeable about sexual function, issues and assessment - approach the topic in a matter of fact manner - put away biases or experiences related to sexuality - use therapeutic communication |
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What are the female reproductive organs? |
- pair of ovaries and fallopian tubes - vagina - uterus - external genital tissue |
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What are the phases of menstruation? |
- menstruation phase - follicular phase - ovulation phase - luteal phase |
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Describe the menstruation phase. |
Shedding the endometrial lining of uterus & the development of several ovarian follicles |
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Describe the follicular phase. |
Growth of ovarian follicles & regrowth of endometrium of the uterus |
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Describe the ovulation phase. |
Rise in LH & FSH Follicle ruptures & an egg is released for fertilization. |
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Describe the luteal phase. |
Ruptured follicle secretes progesterone. If fertilized endometrium supports embryo. If not progesterone drops and menses begins |
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What are the male reproductive organs? |
- Testes (produce sperm) - Ducts (and glands that transport sperm) - Sperm (produced in the testes and transported through the epididymis, ducts deferens, ejaculatory duct and urethra - Penis (functions in the urinary system to transport urine from the bladder & it is important in reproduction) |
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What an important nursing assessment question for female sexual health? |
When was your last menstrual period? |
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What is gender? |
Biological sex status; being male or female |
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What are the factors that affect sexuality? |
- cultural influences on gender roles - religious teachings - lifestyle (social & environmental climates affect value systems) - knowledge about sex (help to educate) - health status (illness & medications) |
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What is androgyny? |
Combination of male and female |
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What is transgender? |
Person feeling as though they are the opposite gender. |
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What is transsexual? |
Person IDs with the opposite gender than their biology. |
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What is a preoperative transsexual? |
The patient alters their physical appearance by dress or make up. |
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What is a post op transsexual? |
Surgery of sex reassignment. |
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What is intersexed? |
A hermaphrodite: ambiguous sexual organs |
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What is an undifferentiated sexual state? |
Neither male or female (at the 7th week of gestation). |
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What is a transvestite? |
A cross dresser - dress in opposite gender clothes |
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What is heterosexuality? |
Sexually attracted to the opposite gender. |
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What is homosexuality? |
Sexually attracted to the same gender. |
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What is bisexuality? |
Sexually attracted to males and females. |
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When do children become aware that there are differences between the sexes? |
By age 3, they begin to perceive they are male or female. |
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How can parents, nurses, teachers, etc. reduce sexual anxiety in school age children? |
By teaching them about changes in their bodies and expectations of puberty. Teaching them about menstruation and nocturnal emissions. |
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What happens with sexuality in the middle adulthood? |
Hormonal changes cause problems. With women, low estrogen causes changes in vaginal lubrication and elasticity and a decreased sex drive. For men, there is a post ejaculatory refractory period and delayed ejaculation. |
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What happens with sexuality in older adulthood? |
- still interested in having sex - issues with illness and medicine side effects - embarrassed to discuss sexual problems |
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About 19 million people are diagnosed each year with an STI. What ages are almost half of them? |
15 to 24 years |
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When an STI is diagnosed, what must be done? |
It must, by law, be reported to the CDC. |
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What are some common symptoms of STIs? |
- discharge from penis, vagina, or anus - pain during sex or urination - blisters or sores in the genital area - fever |
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Describe HIV. |
Human immunodeficiency virus - primary routes of transmission include contaminated IV needles, anal intercourse, vaginal intercourse, oral-genital sex and transfusion of blood |
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Describe HPV. |
Human Papillomavirus infection is the most common STI in the US. Includes genital warts that are spread through direct contact with warts, semen, or other fluids. |
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Describe chlamydia. |
It is a bacterial infection that causes infertility, pelvic inflammatory disease and neonatal complications. |
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How do people express sexuality? |
- intimate relationships - fantasies/ erotic dreams - self-stimulation - shared touching - oral sex - intercourse - celibacy |
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What is the definition of infertility? |
An inability to conceive after 1 year of unprotected sex. |
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What is dysmenorrhea? |
Painful menstruation. |
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What is sexual dysfunction? |
Absence of complete sexual functioning. Can be caused by illnesses and medications. |
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What are some sexual response cycle disorders? |
- low libido - arousal disorders - orgasmic disorders |
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What is sexual harassment? |
Person of power makes sexual advances |
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What is necessary when sexual abuse is suspected? |
Nurses must report suspected abuse to the proper authorities. Rape is a crime. |
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What is contraception? |
It is a method to protect against unwanted pregnancy and prevent some STIs. |
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What is hormonal contraception? |
Prevents ovulation |
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Name some examples of hormonal contraception. |
- pill - ring - injections - sub dermal implant - transdermal patch - IUD - diaphragm - cervical cap |
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What are the names for sterilization? |
- women: tubal ligation (cut/ tie fallopian tubes) - men: vasectomy (cut/ tie vas deferens) |
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When caring for a sexually assaulted patient, what is the best approach for collecting information surrounding the event? |
- use calm & reassuring voice - help client feel comfortable & confident to yield honest and complete info (it may be difficult to patient to discuss it - patient may fear abuser will be angry if they report it and fear being hurt again - it is not to be discussed with family members - when asking personal questions, provide privacy and security and be sensitive to patient's cues (curtain is not enough privacy - need a room) - clear, unambiguous documentation is extremely important because of the criminal nature of sexual crimes. - using the patients own words is a way to avoid misinterpreting the facts and introducing bias or drawing conclusions about the event. - patient may fear the legal system cannot prosecute the abuser for the crime - patients typically want to have the incident behind them and pretend it never happened. |
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What should a nurse be aware of when obtaining a sexual history? |
- of the nurse's own beliefs and values - nurse should convey nonjudgmental attitude and unbiased approach - be aware of the nurse's own nonverbal communication (use a relaxed approach and maintain eye contact) - provide privacy - watch for cues for patient discomfort |
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What are some common teaching topics related to sexual health? |
- breast and testicular self exams - prevents STIs - contraception - counseling for sexual problems |
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What are the factors that affect sexuality? |
- developmental stage - physical and functional barriers - lifestyle - relationship and psychological factors - self-esteem factors that influence sexual functioning |
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What is the PLISSIT assessment of sexuality? |
- Permission to discuss sexuality issues openly by communicating an open accepting attitude - Limited information related to sexual health problems being experienced - Specific Suggestions - only when the nurse is clear about the problem - Intensive Therapy - referral to a professional with advanced training if necessary |
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What are the nursing sexuality assessment questions? |
1. are you married or do you have a significant other? 2. With whom do you have sex with? Men? Women? Both? 3. How many partners do you have? 4. Are there any changes in your self or sex life? 5. How long has your illness, meds or surgeries affected the sexual aspect of your life? 6. Are you in a relationship where someone is hurting you or forcing you to have sex? 7. Tell me what you know about safe sex, contraception and STI prevention. |
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What influences sexual attitudes? |
- religious beliefs - society values - the media - family |
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No matter what the nurse's attitude toward sexuality is, what does the nurse need to do? |
Be sensitive to patient's needs |
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Regarding sexuality, what is important in routine nursing care? |
It is important to assess sexual concerns in routine nursing care. |
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Why is sexuality important? |
It is related to all dimensions of health and it is a part of each individual's identity and self worth. |
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When does sexual development begin? |
In infancy and involves all stages of life. |
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A 15 year old girl states she is having sex with her boyfriend. She asks about contraception and the nurse informs her that (select all that apply) A. Condoms or diaphragms must be used with each sexual encounter B. Hormonal methods offer little protection against STIs C. Barrier methods offer some protection against STIs D. Sterilization is an effective option that should be considered. |
B and C. Hormonal methods offer little protection again STIs and barrier methods offer some protection against STIs |
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The nurse is providing education about condom use at the community clinic for the elderly. Which of the following demonstrates that the adults understand correct use of the condoms (select all that apply) A. I can use any kind of lubricant such as lotion or baby oil B. Before using the condom I should check the package for damage or expiration C. I need a condom to help reduce the risk of STI D. A good place to store condoms is in the bathroom so they don't dry out. |
B and C. condom packages should always be checked for damage and expiration and condoms help to protect against STIs. |
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In completing an admission history, the nurse learns that a female patient has a female sex partner. This data speaks to the patient's A. Sexual bias B. Gender role C. Gender identity D. Sexual orientation |
D. Sexual orientation |
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A 17 year old patient comes to the clinic and states "I think I have an infection in my vagina". The nurse's best response is A. Can you tell me what kind of infection you think you have? B. Have you told your mother about your concerns? C. May I ask you if you are currently sexually active? D. Do you know how you got this infection? |
C. opens the dialogue about sexual activity. |
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What percentage of surgeries are outpatient and what are they expected to be next year? |
In 2014 60% of all surgeries are outpatient and they are expected to rise to 75% in 2015. |
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What time frame does the pre-operative phase cover? |
From the decision to have surgery to entering into the OR. |
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What time frame does the intra-operative phase cover? |
The time in the OR. |
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What time frame does the post-operative phase cover? |
After surgery, to the PACU and home. |
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What does PACU stand for? |
Post anesthesia care unit (recovery room). |
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What does the PACU focus on? |
Preventing complications from surgery. 10% of all surgical related deaths are preventable errors. |
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What does AORN/ JCAHO focus on? |
- prevention of infection - improved patient accuracy - correct surgery, patient, body part - time out - prevention of 'never events' |
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What is a "time out" in the OR? |
Time taken before a surgical procedure to verify the correct procedure in the correct location on the correct patient. |
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What are "never events"? |
- surgery on the wrong body part - surgery on the wrong patient - DVT after knee or hip replacement - surgical site infections after elective procedures |
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What are some pre-existing conditions that increase surgical risk? |
- cardiovascular disease - chronic respiratory disorders - coagulation disorders (could bleed out or cause a clot) - DM & liver disease (can body's ability to metabolize fats, carbs and prothrombin for clotting) - neurological disorders (increase risk of vasomotor instability and likelihood of a seizure) - renal disease (affects ability to excrete meds and anesthetic agents) - meds, smoking, substance abuse, acute conditions, herbal supplements or vitamins - acute infection, URI, fever |
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What is the goal of the preoperative assessment? |
Identify the patient's 'normal' preoperative function and prevent and minimize possible post op complications. Includes PMH. |
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What questions might be asked in a preoperative assessment? |
- do you feel unwell? - recent history of cold, fever or flu? - recent chest pain - past history of serious illness? - SOB upon exertion? - any ankle swelling? - can you walk up a flight of stairs? - meds in the last few months |
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List two preop nursing diagnoses. |
- ineffective airway clearance r/t respiratory issues - ineffective coping from extreme anxiety |
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What is a planning outcome for a preop nursing diagnosis? |
Patient will be adequately prepared for the OR |
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How is surgery classified? |
- By degree of risk (major vs. minor) - by degree of urgency (elective, urgent or emergent) - by purpose (ablative, diagnostic, reconstructive, palliative, transplant, procurement) |
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What kind of surgery is scheduled within 24-48 hours to alleviate symptoms, repair a body part or restore function? |
Urgent, not emergent |
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What are the wound types? |
- clean wound - clean-contaminated wound - contaminated wound - infected wound |
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What kinds of wounds are "clean" wounds? |
Face lifts, mastectomies. Anything not being cut into the GI, GU or respiratory tract |
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What kinds of wounds are "clean-contaminated" wounds? |
Wounds that cut into the GI, GU or respiratory tract. A whipple procedure (a pancreatoduodenectomy). |
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What kinds of wounds are "contaminated" wounds? |
Trauma, compound fractures, or a major break in surgical asepsis. |
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What kinds of wounds are "infected" wounds? |
Wounds that have evidence of purulent drainage, necrotic tissue, or bacteria counts over 100k. |
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What type of surgery would a terminally ill patient undergo if the purpose is removal of tissue to relieve pain? A. procurement B. ablative C. Palliative D. Diagnostic |
C. Palliative |
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What is ASA classifications procedure? |
They are classifications assigned to patients based on patients physiological condition independent of a proposed procedure. |
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What are the ASA classifications? |
ASA1: Healthy (no meds needed) ASA2: mild disease (hypertension, managed DM) ASA3: Severe (many co-morbidities) ASA4: Threat of life (trauma, emergent surgery) ASA5: Moribund (unlikely to live but will still try) ASA6: Procurement (donor) |
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What is a major predictor of risk delay or cancellation of surgery? |
- an acute MI within the past 7 days - a recent MI within 8-30 days - unstable angina - severe angina - decompensated heart failure (pitting edema, SOB, rales, etc) |
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What is an intermediate predictor of risk delay or cancellation of surgery? |
- mild angina - a previous MI more than 30 days prior - compensated heart failure - Diabetes Mellitus - decreased renal function - a serum creatinine over 2.0mg/dL |
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What is a minor predictor of risk delay or cancellation? |
- advanced age - abnormal EKG - rhythm other than normal sinus rhythm(NSR) - uncontrolled HTN - history of cardiovascular disease - history of falls |
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Why is a history of falls important in the elderly? |
It is a predictor of risk of mortality post op. Hip replacement or hip fractures put a patient at higher risk for mortality post op. |
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What are the factors used for assessing surgical risk? |
- age - type of wound - preexisting conditions - mental status (surgery may exacerbate dementia, confusion or disorientation) - focused nursing history - brief head to toe assessment - diagnostic testing |
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What are the special risks for older adults regarding surgery? |
- most older adults have CAD, hypotension is an issue, creating a risk for falls - age related respiratory factors like pneumonia - age related skin changes - risk for impaired tissue integrity (being on the operating table for 3 hours unable to move - pressure ulcers) - age related musculoskeletal changes - risk for falls and impaired mobility - co-morbid conditions of the central nervous system (panic disorders, mood disorders, depression) - age related decrease in GI motility, risk for ileus or aspiration r/t vomiting - decrease in GU function (decreased bladder tone, decreased renal function, urinary incontinence and impaired skin integrity) |
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What screening would be done preoperatively and why? |
- urinalysis (glucose & protein) - CBC (RBCs, WBCs) - EKG (heart rhythm & history of issues) - Chest X-ray (lungs, heart size) - Blood type and cross or type and hold (in case there's blood loss) - electrolytes (sodium & potassium) - fasting blood sugar (FBS) - Complete metabolic panel (CMP - liver enzymes) - others (tissue typing for Tx patient, CT scans, vascular studies) |
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What is some preoperative teaching to prevent surgical site infection? |
- stop smoking (recommended 30 days prior) - discuss preexisting conditions (diabetes will affect healing) - should you need a preoperative antibiotic - do not shave near the surgical site (don't want to break the skin barrier - risk for infection - use clippers) |
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What medications increase surgical risk? |
- antibiotics - anticoagulants - anti-dysrhythmics - anti-hypertensives - aspirin - corticosteroids - diuretics - opioids - OTC herbal medications - platelet aggregators |
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A patient is admitted for hip surgery. The patient usually takes a daily dose of an anticoagulant, a multivitamin and Vitamin E 1500IU. He stopped taking his anticoagulant 4 days ago, but has continued to take his multivitamin and vitamin E. An important problem for this patient is which? A. Potential complication: anemia B. Risk for infection related to inadequate anticoagulant dosage C. Risk for noncompliance related to inability to follow instructions D. Risk for bleeding (vitamin E)? |
D. Vitamin E can increase bleeding time. |
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A 2 year old needs a tonsillectomy. When determining the plan of care, the nurse should A. Include the parents or caregivers in the plan of care B. Explain to the child that she will have a sore throat after surgery C. Tell the child that she can have her favorite foods for the first 24 hours after surgery D. Prepare the child for discharge from the hospital as soon as she is alert. |
A. Include the parents or caregivers in the plan of care. |
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When conducting preoperative patient and family teaching, you demonstrate proper use of an incentive spirometer. You know the patient understands the need for this intervention when he states : 'I use this device to A. help my cough reflex B. expand my lungs after surgery C. Increase my lung capacity D. Drain excess fluid from my lungs |
B. Expand my lungs after surgery |
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What is the focus of nursing activities in the preoperative phase? |
To prepare the patient mentally and physically for surgery. |
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What are the 8 pre-op teaching areas that are necessary? |
- explain planned pre-op procedure - discuss skin prep - discuss prescribed pre-op meds - outline activities specific to the procedure - NPO guidelines (clear liquids up to 4 hrs before) - explain bowel prep (if it applies) - remove and keep items safe (no jewelry) - give patient time of planned procedure |
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What are the 11 pre-op teaching areas regarding the day of procedure that are necessary? |
- waiting room info (who will be there) - activities in the holding room (undressed, IV started, VS, recent cold or chest pain, empty bladder) - discuss anesthesia plan - describe the OR - explain who will be in the OR and what their roles are - explain the PACU (post anesthesia care unit) - family visitation (after patient is stabilized) - assessments (VS every 10-15 min) - pain meds - progression of activity, cough, deep breathing, leg exercises and dietary intake - anti-embolism stockings or SCDs |
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What are the pre-op meds that may be given? |
- antibiotics (given within an hour of incision time) - anticholinergics (dries up secretions) - anxiolytics (meds to decrease anxiety, will be put on a monitor) - antihistamines - barbiturates (help to relax before surgery) - H2 receptor antagonists (lung surgery histamine blockers) - hypnotics - (anesthesia) - neuroleptics - opioid analgesics
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What steps are taken to be sure no mistakes are made before surgery? |
- the use of a pre-op checklist - verify the patient's ID before leaving the pre-op area - mark the surgical site before surgery - time out before starting procedure |
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What is the most common cause of medical errors? |
Miscommunication |
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Who makes up the intra-operative team in the OR? |
- a clean team - a sterile team |
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Who makes up the clean team of the intra-operative team in the OR? |
- an anesthesiologist - CRNA (certified registered nurse anesthetist) - Circulating (or circulator) nurse |
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What does the circulating nurse of the clean team and intra-operative team in the OR do? |
- coordinates all activities - responds to emergencies - communicates between everyone on the team - patient advocate while the patient is under anesthesia |
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Who makes up the sterile team of the intra-operative team in the OR? |
- surgeon - surgical resident/ surgical assistants - scrub tech or scrub nurse |
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Who, in the intra-operative team in the OR, is responsible for preventing positioning injuries to the patient? |
The circulating (or circulator) nurse. |
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Describe the surgical consent procedure. |
- the informed consent is a form signed by the patient stating that the patient understands the information communicated and was not coerced to consent - if patient is a minor, parent or guardian gives consent - if patient is unconscious or has dementia, family members or guardian gives consent - it is the physician's responsibility to gain the informed consent - the patient must be deemed competent to give informed consent - it is the nurse's responsibility to be a patient advocate and ask if the patient understands the procedure and if there are any questions left unanswered |
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A patient is admitted from a local nursing home to the outpatient surgery center for a surgical debridement of a stage IV sacral ulcer. The peri-operative nurse discovers that the patient does not have a signed consent form. The patient says she has not talked to the surgeon and that she has many questions regarding her surgery. When informed of this, the surgeon tells the nurse to have the patient sign the consent form and he will review it prior to the surgery. What should the nurse do? |
Inform the surgeon that she will have the patient sign after he discusses the surgery with the patient. |
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What are the anesthesia types? |
- general - regional - local - conscious sedation - peripheral nerve block |
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Describe general anesthesia. |
Comes in IV and inhalation and has 3 phases - induction (being given the anesthetic and being intubated. Causes loss of consciousness) - maintenance (positioning, skin prep then the procedure) - emergence (decreasing anesthetic to wake the patient. There is a risk of CV depression or irritability, there is respiratory depression and those with liver or kidney disease will have delayed wakening) |
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Describe regional anesthetics. |
- epidural (a catheter is placed in the epidural space outside the sac of fluid around the spinal cord. Works better for longer procedures) - spinal (a shot is given once in the fluid in your spinal cord. Works better for shorter procedures) |
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Describe local anesthetic. |
It is injected into the site causing loss of sensation. Used in pain management in post op. Does not cause loss of consciousness. |
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Describe conscious sedation. |
Moderate sedation, patient has decreased level of consciousness but airway stays intact. Used for endoscopies, biopsies, in the cath lab. VS need to be monitored closely. Is given by IV, and oxygen by nasal cannula. |
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Describe peripheral nerve block. |
Injected medication around a group of nerves. Can be used in post op pain management. |
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What is the intra-operative surgical phase? |
- Patient is transported to the room - admitted to the OR while still awake - Nursing process includes [assessment]: VS, positioning, suction, safety, comfort [Nursing diagnosis]: airway, volume, skin issue and [planning]: safety and team work
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What questions are included in the intra-operative questionairre? |
- what is your name (two identifiers) - What type of surgery are you having? - Is someone with you? (in case of delay or unexpected event) - allergies? (a latex allergy is common) - prosthetics? - what medications were taken prior to surgery? - scratches or other skin issues - painful body parts such as shoulders or legs (recorded so they know it existed before surgery and surgery didn't cause it) |
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What is part of the intra-operative implementation? |
The physical preparation which includes - monitoring - compression stockings (DVT prevention) - latex sensitivity (latex cart / first case of the day) - positioning of the patient (aligned to decrease injury, padding) - safety: grounding to prevent burns - laser eye safety |
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What's involved in the intra-operative nursing diagnosis? |
- risk of aspiration r/t depressed respirations and reflexes secondary to anesthetic agents - risk for temperature imbalances r/t cool environment in the OR - risk for fluid imbalances - risk for latex allergies |
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What are the nursing goals for the patient? |
- Patient will be free of injury - remain physiologically stable - experience optimal surgical outcomes - individual goals as well including maintain body temp, clear lung sounds and patent airway, urine output greater than 30cc/hr, no skin or neuromuscular injury, no acquired healthcare related infections |
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Describe the introduction of anesthesia. |
- induction and emergence phase are the most dangerous - emergence delirium more common in children and young adults - malignant hyperthermia - allergic reaction to anesthesia |
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The patient tells the nurse "I'm so nervous. I want to be knocked out for the surgery so I don't what is going on." When the nurse communicates with the surgeon and anesthetist, she tells them that the patient desires which type of anesthesia? |
General |
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Describe the PACU. |
The post anesthesia care unit. There the nurse must frequently monitor the patient - must take vital signs every 10-15 minutes - an aldrete score - report includes type of procedure, anesthesia, meds administered, duration of care, VS, allergies, labs, estimated blood loss, fluids, mobility/ sensation, complications, drains, tubes, catheters, IV line, pain management plan - assessment includes: drains, t-tube, IV, tachycardia, etc. |
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What does the post-operative assessment include? |
- skin integrity and condition of wound (assess skin pressure points, petechiae, abrasions, or burns) - metabolism (glucose monitoring) - genitourinary function (check bowel sounds, paralytic ileus, some time to regain bladder function) - comfort (increase awakening, pain) |
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What does the phase 2 of the post operative recovery phase? |
- recovery in ambulatory surgery - aldrete score greater than 18 - observation - phase 3 - ready for discharge - post op convalescence |
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What does post op convalescence include? |
- airway and respiration - circulation - temperature control - fluid and electrolytes - neurological functions (reflexes, pupils, motor function) |
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What are the potential respiratory postoperative complications? |
- aspiration - atelectasis - pneumonia - pulmonary embolus (if had a lower extremity DVT that traveled) |
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What are the potential cardiovascular postoperative complications? |
- thrombophlebitis - embolus - hemorrhage - hypovolemia |
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What are the potential GI postoperative complications? |
- nausea & vomiting - abdominal distention (tympanites) - constipation - paralytic ileus |
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What are the potential GU postoperative complications? |
- renal failure - urinary retention (common with spinal blocks) - UTI |
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What are the potential surgical incision postoperative complications? |
- dehiscence (wound opens up) - evisceration (abdominal contents coming out) - wound infection |
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What is included in patient teaching for postoperative care? |
- TCDB (turn, cough, deep breathe) - moving in bed - coughing - leg exercises - anti-embolism stockings - SCDs (sequential compression devices) - gastric secretions - salem pump (vented) - irrigating naso-gastric tubing |
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A patient had a colon resection for removal of a cancerous tumor. Postoperatively, on the surgical floor which of the following activities does not apply if the nurse performs for the purpose of decreasing the risk of postoperative complications? A. Assist the patient to turn, breathe deeply, and cough every 2 hours B. Teach the patient about the type of tumor removed C. Assess the drainage from the surgical site D. Monitor vital signs on a regular basis |
B. Teach the patient about the type of tumor removed That would not be part of activities that the nurse performs to decrease the risk of postoperative complications. |
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What is the definition of psychosocial theory? |
Understanding people as a combination of psychological and social events. |
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What is a patient's response to illness influenced by? |
- physical pathology - psychosocial health - overall wellness |
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What is the definition of self concept? |
A person's overall view of themselves. The answer to the question "who do you think you are?" Answer such as "a mother, daughter, friend," etc. |
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What is the definition of body image? |
One's mental image of one's physical self including appearance and physical functioning. |
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What is the definition of self esteem? |
Self respect or a favorable impression of one's self. |
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What is the definition of role performance? |
Actions a person takes and the behaviors they demonstrate to fill a role. |
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What is the definition of personal identity? |
A view of oneself as a unique human being different and separate from all. Constant and consistent, doesn't usually change. |
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What is anxiety? |
Vague, uneasy feeling of discomfort or dread. A common emotional response to a stressor. Often cannot be identified. |
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What are the 4 levels of anxiety? |
1. mild (normal everyday anxiety, sharpens the senses) 2. moderate (increases the HR, GI discomfort) 3. severe (perception field narrows, person can only focus on one thing - needs a referral) 4. panic (becomes unreasonable and irrational, unable to deal, lose contact with reality) |
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What is depression? |
Feelings of sadness, "the blues", diminished interest or pleasure in previously enjoyed activities. Feelings of emptiness and worthlessness. Physical symptoms include constipation, anorexia, tearful, difficulty concentrating. |
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What is the priority when caring for someone with depression? |
Keeping the patient safe, preventing suicide, keeping the patient from harming self. |
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What is a priority when caring for young sexually active patients? |
Assessing their knowledge of sexuality and reproduction. Many young adults/teens need information and are different levels of knowledge. |
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What is the proper technique for using an incentive spirometer? |
1. Breathe out normally 2. Place the mouthpiece in the mouth and create a seal with the lips 3. Breathe in slowly and as deeply as possible through the mouthpiece. Monitor the depth of inspiration by viewing the gauge. 4. Hold breath as long as possible, at least to a slow count of 3. 5. Remove the mouthpiece from your mouth and exhale. 6. Rest for a few seconds 7. Repeat the process 10 times every hour while awake, if possible. 8. After each set of 10 deep breaths, cough to be sure lungs are clear. Support incision with a pillow (if applicable). |
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What kind of surgery is ablative surgery? |
Removal of a diseased body part. |
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What kind of surgery is palliative surgery? |
Relieve discomfort, removal of a tumor that is causing pain. |
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What kind of surgery is diagnostic surgery? |
To confirm or rule out a diagnosis |
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What kind of surgery is reconstructive surgery? |
Example; to repair a rotator cuff, total knee replacement or total hip replacement |
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What kind of surgery is transplant surgery? |
Transplant of an organ; heart, kidney, pancreas, liver, lung, etc. |
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What kind of surgery is procurement surgery? |
Retrieving organs or tissue from a donor. |
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How is postoperative pain managed? |
Per provider's orders to keep on top of pain. |
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What is a nurse to do if a patient has absent bowel sounds after surgery? |
The patient has paralytic ileus and the nurse should encourage and assist the patient to move in bed and ambulate to encourage the bowels to return. Maintain NPO until the return of bowel sounds and have the patient avoid use of a straw until then to cut down on air in the GI tract. |
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What kind of nutrition is good for wound healing? |
- protein - vitamin A - vitamin C - zinc |
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What is holistic care? |
A field of alternative medicine where |
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What is allopathic care? |
Conventional Western medicine/ treatment. Treats pathologies and symptoms. |
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What is integrative care? |
Encompasses all traditional and alternative health practices used by a patient. |
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What is complementary care? |
Alternative care used in conjunction with traditional medical care. |
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What is homeopathy? |
Based on the understanding of how the body heals itself and an acceptance that all symptoms represent the body's attempt to restore itself to health. |
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What is Naturopathy? |
The belief that nature and each living being has the innate ability to establish, maintain and restore health. |
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What is hypnosis? |
A trance-like state characterized by relaxed brain waves, hyper suggestibility, and heightened imagination. It has been used to promote relaxation, weight loss and smoking cessation to suppress various symptoms. |
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What is biofeedback? |
A technique by which people learn voluntary control over involuntary activities. |
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Describe acupuncture? |
a system of complementary medicine that involves pricking the skin or tissues with needles, used to alleviate pain and to treat various physical, mental, and emotional conditions. Originating in ancient China, acupuncture is now widely practiced in the West. |
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What is chiropractic medicine? |
Adjustments and manipulation of vertebral column and extremities. |
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What is aromatherapy? |
A form of alternative medicine that used plant materials and aromatic plants and oils to alter one's mood, cognitive and psychological and physical well being. |
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What is massage? |
A healing modality used to induce relaxation and to restore flexibility. Examples include reflexology, shiatsu, and Swedish massage. |
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Why is relaxation and guided imagery useful and what are the benefits? |
They are helpful when used in conjunction with other pain therapies. Gives the patient something to concentrate on and distract from the pain. |
