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219 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Catabolism involves oxidizing and burning to get energy from _______.
(energy production, carbohydrates, lipid and protein)

and store it in ATP, NADH, NADPH
Anabolism you spend energy and use high energy carrier to make ___, ____, ____.
ADP, NAD+, NADP+;

(Synthesis of macromolecules, muscle contraction, active ion transport, thermogenesis)
Energy requirements of your body are determined by the _____________ and _________________.
basal energy expenditure (BEE);
body mass index (BMI)
Energy is extracted from food molecules by a process of _______ oxidation (_______ burning).
gradual; controlled;

Controlled oxidation occurs on simple monomeric fuels and energy is stored in activated carrier molecules (ATP).
Energy is produced within cells by ________ of simple monomeric fuels (carbs, fatty acids, amino acids).
oxidation

For sequential reactions ∆G values are additive!
Energetically favorable reaction of ATP hydrolysis can be coupled to otherwise _______ reactions.
unfavorable;
Glycogen is the storage form of _____.
glucose (primary carb for metabolic fuel in mammals)

Glucose --> pyruvate (glycolysis)--> acetyl CoA oxidized in TCA
Mobilizable protein is protein that is converted into _________.
amino acids
Triacylglycerols are _____.
fats

So, fat is by far the largest fuel source in mammals.
Most of ATP from glucose metabolism from reduction of ____ and ___ to ___ and ____, and their reducing power in the electron transport chain.
NAD+, FAD, NADH, FADH2

Electron flow generates proton gradient in mitochondrion that drives oxidate phosphorylation and ATP production. (full oxidation of glucose ~36 ATP)

NADH and FADH2 from TCA cycle = energy carriers - store tremendous amount of energy and mainly electrons (goes through oxidation chains)
Like glucose, __________ can be completely oxidized in TCA cycle via conversion to ________. Complete oxidation of palmitate yields 129 ATP.
fatty acids, acetyl CoA
Amino acids can be oxidized by conversion to their corresponding _____, via class of enzymes called ________.
keto-acids; transaminases;

many keto-acid products are intermediates in TCA or glycolysis

In addition to oxidation, amino acids used in gluconeogenesis (very imp. in starvation)
Integration of Metabolic Pathways
1. Metabolic intermediates can enter multiple pathways and serve as points of integration.

2. One pathway can affect another.

3. Organs/tissues have diffferent forms of key enzymes/proteins for integration in organ systems.

4. Genes for proteins in pathway are coordinately regulated.

5. Regulation by the “anabolic” hormone insulin and the “catabolic” hormone glucagon
How do insulin and glucagon control metabolism?
Sugar has how many carbons in it?
6
The hydrolysis of _________ to glucose and galactose is catalyzed by the enzyme _________.
lactose; lactase;

e.g. milk
________ is the name given to a number of enzymes that catalyze the hydrolysis of sucrose to ________ and glucose.
Sucrase; fructose;

e.g. cane sugar or syrup
Digestion and ________ are required for uptake of dietary carbohydrates.
absorption
Amylase is in saliva and secreted by the ______, as the major luminal enzyme. The membrane enzymes hydrolyze products of amylase action and other poly and disaccharides to glucose, galactose and fructose.
pancreas
A critically important feature of absorption of substances across the epithelium is the requirement for a __________ cell.
polarized
____________ and ___________ can be transported via secondary active transport with Na+ with _____ proteins - couples ion transport with sugar transport.
Glucose; galactose; SGLT1
In contrast, to glucose and galactose, fructose is absorbed by a distinct apical membrane protein called GLUT5 in a process termed _____________.
facilitated diffusion
Once inside the cell, each monosaccharide is transported across the basolateral membrane by the same protein, _______, in a facilitated transport manner .
GLUT2
Mammals express two classes of glucose carrier: 1) ____________ and 2) ________________.
Na+ dependent cotransporter; facilitated glucose transporters;
High affinity for glucose, these transporters are _______ and _____.

_______ does erythrocyte transport, BBB, and transformed (cancerous cells).

_____ is the predominant brain isoform.
GLUT-1;GLUT-3; GLUT-1; GLUT-3
GLUT2 is a ____ affinity and _____-capacity glucose transporter. It is mostly expressed in ____ and _____.
low; high;

liver; pancreatic B-cell;

glucose transport ~ [glucose] --> allows sensing for insulin secretion

low affinity allows allocation to brain when glucose is low.

liver - act as glucose buffer, can regulate storage as glycogen or triglyceride - the high Km allows liver to only act when blood glucose is high
Glucose transport in muscle or fat tissues requires ________ while transport of glucose into liver or brain is largely independent of _______.
insulin; insulin;
_______ is translocated from the inside of the cell to the plasma membrane in response to insulin administration.
GLUT4

blood glucose clearance for maintaining good level;

stored in either glycogen (muscle) or fat (adipose)
Hexokinases I-III have a _____ affinity for glucose, a _____ tissue distribution, ______ specificity and strong _____ inhibition by _____.
high; wide; limited; allosteric; G-6-P.

The G-6-P (product) inhibition of HK prevents tying up cell inorganic phosphate (depleting ATP).
Hexokinase IV is also known as ______, and it has a ___ affinity for glucose, ____ tissue distribution (liver, islets, pituitary), and no ________ regulation by G-6-P.
glucokinase; lower; limited; allosteric;
Liver and islets are the two glucose sensing tissues that have specialized proteins _______ and _______ for handling glucose.
GLUT-2; glucokinase;

Islets sense glucose by secreting insulin;

Liver is an organ of glucose storage at high glucose;
G-6-P has multiple fates such as _______, ______, and ________.
storage (G1P to UDP glucose to glycogen - short term storage in muscle); DNA,RNA via ribose production (6C to 5C); Energy (glycolysis for pyruvate to lactate)
Glycolysis: __ Glucose = __ Lactate + __ ATP
1; 2; 2;
Fermentation under anaerobic conditions recycles NAD+ from NADH (oxidation) through the action of ______________ in the production of lactate.
lactate dehydrogenase (reduces pyruvate to lactate)

NAD+/NADH ratio determines cell redox state
There is an oxygen requirement for pyruvate dehydrogenase (PDH) plus _____ activity.
TCA cycle;

(produces acetyl CoA and CO2)
Metabolic fates of pyruvate?
Galactose can be made from _____ or from diet as part of ______. It is transported, like ______, with a Na+ linked transporter.
glucose; lactose (milk); glucose;

Gal important in glycoproteins (e.g. N-acetyl galactosamine)
3 enzymes are required for galactose utilization:

1) _______
2) _______
3) _______
1) Galactokinase (phosph. C1 - not C6 like gluco/hexokinase; almost exclusive to liver)

2) Uridyl transferase (xfers UDP from Glu to Gal)

3) UDP-Galactose-4-Epimerase (UDP-Gal to UDP-Glu; requires NAD - reversible rxn which is why Gal is not essential)
Hereditary problems in galactose metabolism lead to acccumulation of Gal and Gal-1-P. Gal is reduced to polyalcohol _______ by aldolse reductase.

Accumulation of these leads to eye lens damage and ______ in diabetic and ______ individuals.
galactitol; cataracts; galactosemic;

(can also have non-enzymatic glycosylation of proteins)

(in babies have mental retard. and death from liver damage)
Fructose is metabolized very efficiently in _____, but rarely in other tissue. Fructokinase is analogous to ______________ in phosphorylating C1.
liver; galactose kinase;

F1P Aldolase gives DHAP and glyceraldehyde

in muscle and adipose tissue, it enters glycolysis as F6P via hexokinase
The pathway of fructose metabolism in the liver bypasses ____ and its regulation of glycolysis.
PFK;

this is most important control of glucose metabolism and you will use up all inorganic phosphate;

remember liver has special enzymes for glucose, galactose and fructose.
______________ is an uncommon (1 in 130,000) autosomal recessive disorder that involves fructose kinase deficiency. It has no pathological effects because the kidney is capable of excreting the excess fructose efficiently.
Essential fructosuria
_____________________ has a higher incidence and caused by deficiency in F1P aldolase.
Hereditary Fructose Intolerance;

(nausea, vomiting, and failure to grow)

fructose intake can lead to hypoglycemia (ATP and Pi depletion since fructose is phosph. but stalls there)
Metabolism of Fructose in extrahepatic tissues
Fructose is synthesized from glucose in the seminal vesicles by a combination of two oxidoreductases and the intermediate formation of the polyalcohol sorbitol.

Glucose + NADPH → Sorbitol + NADP

Sorbitol + NAD → Fructose + NADH
____________, the synthesis of glucose from pyruvate in liver and kidney is essential for maintenance of blood glucose levels.
Gluconeogenesis;

most other tissues including the brain almost exclusively use glucose (RBC = glucose only)

liver maintains glucose level by stimulating glycolysis and glycogen deposition OR gluconeogenesis when starved
In gluconeogenesis, the pyruvate kinase reaction is reversed by _________ and ___________.

The PFK reaction is reversed by __________.

Hexo/Glucokinase reaction is reversed by __________.
pyruvate carboxylase; phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase;

F1,6,BPase (F2,6,BPase activates PFK also inhibits F1,6,BPase so it is a good way to activate glycolysis and block gluconeogenesis)

G6,Pase (in lumen of ER, non-specific hexose phosphohydrolase - specificity by G6P translocase in ER membrane);
Gluconeogenic precursors include ________ & ________, __________, and __________.
lactate and pyruvate (Cori cycle - exercising muscle and erythrocytes - convert glucose to 3C metabolites in extrahepatic tissue and regenerate glucose in liver --> +2 ATP - 6 ATP); amino acids(need transaminase reaction to remove amino group - only subset of AA have this ability to enter TCA or glycolysis); fatty acids (propionyl --> OAA --> Glu);

cancer uses glycolysis as energy source leading to lactate buildup and severe liver burden
Key enzymes are heavily regulated at the ___________ step.
rate-limiting
For enzyme regulation, the TF regulation can regulate ______ at a time (group of genes for metaoblism).
many
Modes of regulation are:
1) Allosteric
2) Protein localization
3) Covalent modification
4) Gene expression
Glucose phosphorylation is an example of _________.
protein localization;
Hexokinases 1-3 are _____-hepatic, __________ inhibited to prevent import of excess glucose and are _____ affinity.
extra; product; high;
Hexokinases 4 or _______ is found in the liver, NOT __________ inhibited - but instead inhibited by F-6,P, to prevent import of excess glucose and is _____ affinity.
glucokinase; product; low;

note that F-6,P is in equilbrium with G-6,P
_______ and __________ have low affinities for glucose that allow the liver to buffer blood glucose levels.
GLUT2 and Glucokinase
Glucokinase is regulated by _______ since when circulating glucose concentration is low then liver glucose concentration is low, and the glucokinase would be sequestered in the nucleus.

After a meal, the plasma glucose levels increase and enter liver via GLUT2 which leads to dissociation of _____ from GKRP which allows the GK to go to the _________.
Glucokinase regulatory protein (GKRP);

Glucokinase; cytosol;
Allosteric regulation involves the _____ which is the MOST regulated enzyme of the body, as it catalyzes the committed step.

The regulation of PFK by many stimuli is called the _______ effect.
PFK; Pasteur;
________ is the major regulator of PFK in liver as it antagonizes ATP ________ of PFK, ______ the Km of PFK for F-6,P.
F-2,6,BP (imp. in regulation gluconeo vs. glycolysis); inhibition; lowers;
The bifunctional protein is the ___________ interconverts F-6,P and F-2,6,BP.
6-PF-2K/Fru-2,6Pase;
A fasting state is catabolic (insulin/glucagon ___) and activates PKA (cAMP dep.), activates the phosphatase and inactivates the _____ (slowing glycolytic flux).
low; kinase;
A fed state is anabolic that activates a phosphatase which activates kinase and inactivates __________, which increases glycolytic flux.
phosphatase;
_______ and __________ have low affinities for glucose that allow the liver to buffer blood glucose levels.
GLUT2 and Glucokinase
Glucokinase is regulated by _______ since when circulating glucose concentration is low then liver glucose concentration is low, and the glucokinase would be sequestered in the nucleus.

After a meal, the plasma glucose levels increase and enter liver via GLUT2 which leads to dissociation of _____ from GKRP which allows the GK to go to the _________.
Glucokinase regulatory protein (GKRP);

Glucokinase; cytosol;
Allosteric regulation involves the _____ which is the MOST regulated enzyme of the body, as it catalyzes the committed step.

The regulation of PFK by many stimuli is called the _______ effect.
PFK; Pasteur;
________ is the major regulator of PFK in liver as it antagonizes ATP ________ of PFK, ______ the Km of PFK for F-6,P.
F-2,6,BP (imp. in regulation gluconeo vs. glycolysis); inhibition; lowers;
The bifunctional protein is the ___________ interconverts F-6,P and F-2,6,BP.
6-PF-2K/Fru-2,6Pase;
A fasting state is catabolic (insulin/glucagon ___) and activates PKA (cAMP dep.), activates the phosphatase and inactivates the _____ (slowing glycolytic flux).
low; kinase;
A fed state is anabolic that activates a phosphatase which activates kinase and inactivates __________, which increases glycolytic flux.
phosphatase;
When Pyruvate Kinase is phosphorylated, it is ______, and when PK is ___________ it is more active.
inactive; dephosphorylated;

(-) effectors of PK = ATP, Alanine
(+) effectors of PK = F-1,6,BP
An example of transcriptional regulation is the ____ and the ____ effect.
HIF; Warburg (high aerobic glycolysis in cancer);

low O2 enhances glycolysis, forms heterodimer with ARNT (target glyc. enzymes and gluc. transporters)
HIF upregulates expression of:
1) F-2,6BP (iPFK-2 increase F-2,6BP, it is bifunctional but phosphatase domain is removed)
2) GLUT 1,3
3) CAiX (increase pH in response to acidosis)
4) LDHA (make lactate to recycle NADH to NAD+)
5) PDKinase (inhibit Acetyl CoA production since not useful)
ChREBP = glucose mediated induction of gene expression.

Here, high sugar levels mean dephosphorylated sites leading to nucleus entry and TF binding.
short term (sugars) --> reduced fuels for long term (fats)

citrate --> triglyceride with ACL, ACC, and FAS prots.

Xu5P-->PP2A-->PF2K/Pase -->F6P/F26P ratio (short term)

or PP2A-->ChREBP-->triglycerides (long term)
Regulation of gluconeogenesis occurs at several sites:
1) FA oxidation (via lipase) stimulates gluconeogenesis (Acetyl CoA activates pyruvate carboxylase, inhibits PDH)

2) glucagon/insulin ratio regulates gluconeogenesis by PK, bifunctional enzyme (phosph. state)

3) glucagon regulates CREB by PKA which upregulates PEPCK (same with insulin)
Glucose can go through:
1) Glycolysis
2) Storage (muscle/liver glycogen)
3) Pentose phosphate (NADPH - red. power, protection from oxidative stress & 5C sugars)
Glycogen = glucose polymer with a1,4 and a1,6 linkages to form helix configuration. Helices allow reduction of _______, increased ___________, rapid release of glucoso monomers.
osmotic effect; solubility;
Glycogen in muscle not available to other cells as it is in liver, since muscles lack _____.
G-6Pase
Glycogen, instead of fat is used since fat is not as rapidly ___ in skeletal muscle.

Also fat can not be _____ to produce energy anaerobically.

It also requires ____ input.

Fat also can not be converted into _____.
mobilized; oxidized; energy; glucose;
UDP glucose makes glycogen formation favorable, and the irreversible hydrolysis of __________ drives the reaction forward.
pyrophosphate
Glycogen synthase requires a primer substrate. ______ is responsible for making the short polymer.
Glycogenin (it is self-glycosylating)
_______ enzyme breaks a1,4 bond and makes a1,6 link.
Branching;

Glycogen synthesis is efficient (only consumes 1 ATP but full oxidation of glycogen yields 37 ATP)
______________ is the rate-limiting enzyme of glycogen degradation.
Glycogen phosphorylase;

G1P to G6P via phosphoglucomutase

it can not cleave a1,6 bonds, so a separate enzyme "debranching enzyme" cleaves these.
Glycogen breakdown is initiated by falling glucose in liver through action of _____ and in muscles by flight/fight response via epinephrine (they lack glucagon receptors).
glucagon;
Three enzymes affect the conversion of phosphorylase a and b:
(1) phosphorylase kinase (phosphorylates glycogen phosphorylase)

(2) cAMP- dependent protein kinase, which phosphorylates (thereby activating) phosphorylase kinase

(3) phosphoprotein phosphatase-1, which dephosphorylates and deactivates glycogen phosphoylase a.
Phosphorylase kinase has four subunits:

2 inhibitory: _____, ______

1 catalytic: ______

1 Ca2+ sensitive: _______
alpha, beta (these are phosphorylated when active);

gamma;

delta (calmodulin, significant since glycogen breakdown is coupled with muscle contraction due to Ca2+ influx);
cAMP signaling is stimulated by glucagon or ______, and it also inhibits ______ phosphatase.
epinephrine; phosphoprotein;
Regulation of Liver and Muscle Glycogen Stores:
Glycogen phosphorylase can be in either the "T" or "R" state, where the "R" state binds glycogen and is stimulated by ____, and inhibited by ATP and ____.
AMP; G6P;
Phosphorylase a and b are controlled both ______ and allosterically.
covalently;
Phosphorylation of _____________ inactivates the enzyme, from a to b form.
glycogen synthase
Glycogen synthase phosphorylation is induced by ____, cAMP, and ____.
Ca2+; DAG

phosphoprotein phosphatase is inactivated by PKinase A
Glucagon inhibits glycolysis at ____ and _____.
PFK, pyruvate kinase;
Epinephrine leads to ____ release from ER and inactivates synthase, and activates phosphatase.
Ca2+;

Note that Epinephrine in muscle leadsto increased glycolysis (since muscle don't have glucose transporters)
The production of __________ and the generation of ______ are the most significant consequences of the pentose shunt pathway.
pentoses; NADPH;
Pentose phosphate pathway
Production of NADPH for a variety of intracellular processes

Production of the pentose – ribose

Production of various 5- and 7-carbon carbohydrates

Primarily located in the cytosol
Where does the pentose phosphate pathway occur?
1. FA and steroid synthesis tissues (e.g. liver)

2. RBCs

3. The eye - high ROS and NADPH demand

note: Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase is specific for NADP+ in mammals and is considered to be the rate- limiting step in the pentose shunt pathway.
______ is highly regulated since it is committed step in carbohydrate to lipid synthesis or TCA.
Pyruvate Dehydrogenase (PDH)
_________ is product of fatty acid oxidation or PDH.
Acetyl CoA
Pyruvate can be converted into:
- lactate (reduction)

- alanine (transamination)

- oxaloacetate (carboxylation)

- Acetyl CoA (oxidative decarboxylation)
PDH consists of three subunits: _________, _______, __________.

It is irreversible which is why ____ can not be converted into carbohydrate.


It is analogous to alpha-___________ DH.
decarboxylase,transacetylase,dehydrogenase;

fat;

ketoglutarate;
RARE FACT: PDH is NOT regulated by ______.
cAMP
PDH controls TCA, gluconeogenesis and _____________.
glucose to fat conversion
Pyruvate is charged and therefore needs a _______ to move through membrane.
transporter;
PDH _________ inactivates PDH.

PDH _________ activates PDH.
kinase; phosphatase;

Insulin and Ca2+ stimulate phosphatase activity;
When starving, FA oxidation yields __________ and ____.
acetyl CoA; ATP;

(also inhibits PDH via kinase)

Acetyl CoA also activates pyruvate carboxylase.
TCA is most of the tissue CO2, NADH, precursors (amphobolic).

There are __ carbons in and __ carbons out.
2; 2;

excess energy used for FA synthesis; oxaloacetate primes the cycle;
Enzymes in steps of TCA.
1. citrate synthase (irreversible, -ve ATP/ADP, reg'd by OAA availability)

2. aconitase

3. isocitrate DH (+ve ADP, -ve NADH,ATP); gives NADH and CO2

4. alpha-ketoglutarate DH (-ve ROS); gives NADH

5. succinyl-CoA synthetase (only rxn to make GTP)

6. succinate DH (integral membrane protein); make NADH

7. Fumarase

8. Malate DH (makes NADH and OAA)
Succinate DH is sensitive to changes in levels of ___.
OAA
TCA cycle = source of biosynthetic intermediates

alpha-ketoglutarate goes to _________.

___________ --> replenish TCA intermediates
amino acids; Anaplerosis
Quinones act as electron and proton carriers.

Can be reduced by one and two electrons. (semi or hydro)

Carrier is _______ in semiquinone form.
negative
Flavoproteins = ___ e- acceptors and ___ e- donors.
2; 1;
Fe-S prots = carriers only transfer __ e-
one;
Heme proteins = 1e- carriers, protect heme iron from molecular ______.
O2
Respiratory Chain has Complex I,II,III,IV.

Only complex ___ does not transport protons across membrane.
II; (this is succinate reductase from TCA)
CoQ = hydrophobic and restricted to membrane.

Redox energy of NADH converted to _____ gradient.
proton;
Complex I
FMN bound NADH DH and Fe-S

- Complex I CoQ turns QH2 form to diffuse into hydrophobic membrane

HIGHLY exergonic, enough for ATP production
Complex II
succinate and FADH2, BUT NOT EXTRUSION OF PROTONS
Complex III
relocates electrons from QH2 to oxidized cyt c.

transfer from 2e- carrier to 1e- carrier is most efficient
Complex IV
transfer cyt c electrons to O2.
Chemiosmotic Hypothesis
- e-transport/ATP synthesis are coupled

- vectorized protein distribution

- need intact membrane

equilibrium of ATP synthase
F1F0 ATP Synthase
F1 = trimer of heterodimers alpha-beta

proton motive force
O2 regulated by need for ___ (except in brown adipose tissue).

Measure of control = ratio of O2 used with ADP, and without.
ATP;
Uncouplers of O2 phosphorylation =
DNP, CCCP, Valinomycin
Thermogenin allow return of ___, as in brown fat.
H+
Need specific metabolic shuttles.

Malate-aspartate shuttles:
NADH in cytosol reduce OAA (NADH-->NAD+) --> malate --> malate oxidized to OAA in matrix (NAD+ --> NADH) --> OAA transaminated with glutamine to alpha-ketoglutarate
Alcohol DH uses cytosolic ______.

Aldehyde DH in mitochondria uses _____.
NAD+; NAD+;

So shuttle is dead, inhibition of gluconeogenesis and FA oxidation.

Leads to fatty liver (NADH increases pyruvate to lactate)

Cancer = problems in succinate DH, isocitrate DH, fumarase
Insulin resistance due to

(INFLAMMATION is big time in reduced insulin sensitivity)
1) obesity

2) cachexia (cancer-associated)

3) congenital/acquired lipodystrophies
Adipose tissue depots respond in __________ fashion to metabolic challenges (unlike donor organs).
coordinated

Sexual dimorphism (male = central fat pad/visceral/apple; female = subcutaneous, lower extremity pear)

fat pads also respond differently
________ shuttles FA to adipocytes for storage.
Insulin

"ideal adiposity"

adipose = protective and deleterious (inflammation)
Pancreas = insulin and glucagon

Liver and Kidney = gluconeogenesis

Glucose consumers = _________ and _________

Heart runs on _______.

Central regulation by brain.
Brain; muscle;

Fatty acids
Glucose tolerance test = oral or IV (bypass digestive tract)

Track plasma clearance of glucose.
OGTT > HOMA-IR > FSIVGT > Euglycemic clamp

(more complex means more specific info)
Excessive reduction in insulin sensitivity leads to ________ in pregnancy.
gestational diabetes;

(precursor to diabetes)
Diabetes is a disease of the beta-cell but is complex:
insulin resistance in liver and muscle leads to inappropriate deposition of lipid in wrong tissues
Islet has 3 cell types:
alpha - glucagon

beta - insulin

delta - somatostatin

diabetes = loss of beta, alpha remain

islets highly vascularized to ensure rapid delivery of hormones into blood stream

loss of glucagon opposition is problem, so if you antagonize glucagon you would actually be OK
C-peptide indicates secretion, so a C-peptide/insulin ratio shows insulin ______ and ________.
release; clearance;
Preproinsulin --> proinsulin (3 disulfide bonds, cleaved by peptidase) --> insulin --> _______________
secretory granules
GLUT2 uptake of glucose increases ATP/ADP ratio which inactivates ___ channel to open ___ channel for Ca2+ influx, which releases ___ from their storage granule.
K+, Ca2+, insulin
Insulin release is a ____ process.
biphasic

(readily released pool and sustained slow release from reserve pool)
An incretin, such as GLP-1 potently stimulates _______ release. It is a major accessory factor for beta-cell to respond to increases in carbohydrates.
insulin
Insulin resistance affects different organs in different ways:

In liver, it increases gluconeogenesis, and ___________, increasing plasma glucose.

In muscle and fat, glucose uptake is reduced which ________ plasma glucose.

Adipocyte increases lipolysis and increases FA release, which is used for gluconeogenesis by the ________.
glycogenolysis; increases; liver;
Insulin receptor has an alpha and beta subunit. The beta is the _______ kinase.
tyrosine;

Insulin binds, TK gets autophosphorylated then cross; IRS-1 binds, PI3K, then PDK1 and then Akt
You have the TM, JM and Tyr 972 which binds PTB of ____ and ___.
IRS-1 and Shc
Insulin increases levels of _____ for glucose transport.
GLUT4
___ in liver and kidneys breaks down blood insulin.
insulinase;
additional effects of insulin = ras pathway

there is regulation of pro-mitogenic action of insulin
IRS phosphorylates Shp2 (SH2 which is a tyrosine phosphatase) then Grb2 (SH3) then SOS1 then Ras.
Overexpression of Grb14 leads to hyperphosphorylation of IR and a decrease in _____ phosphorylation leading to insulin resistance.
IRS-1
SOCS proteins bind phosphotyrosine on IR, then blocks _____.
IRS-1
Counterregulatory hormons (back up glucagon) are:
From Adrenal Gland - Catecholamines (Epi, Norepi - special because block insulin and stimulate glucagon), and Hydrocortisone

From pituitary - GH
T2DM leads to ______ resistance and inability to dispose of glucose into muscle and adipose.
insulin

It is also linked to the ability of liver to listen to the insulin (insulin-resistance)
Insulin also regulates release of FA, so insulin resistant cells will inappropriately release ____.
FFA;

Depot specifity is important.
Subclinical inflammation leads to increase in ____, which affects macro and microvasculature.
CRP;

IL-6 from fat triggers CRP;
FA, ketones, AA can stimulate insulin release.

AA can also stimulate _______.
glucagon;
Defense against hypoglycemia is:
liver and kidney gluconeogenesis;

liver glycogenolysis;

1/2 of glucose used by brain, rest of body lipid economy; FA oxidation leads to ketones (not full oxidized so brain can still use)
Defense against hyperglycemia is:
insulin (insulin resistance leads to polyuria)
T1DM problem is diabetic _________.
ketoacidosis
Diabetic = uncontrolled _______, like uncontrolled fasting.
catabolism;

insulin deficiency and excess glucagon;
Early stage/non-emergent diabetes is:
elevated blood glucose, polyuria, increased thirst and food intake (hypertriglyceridemia and hypercholestermia)

Weight loss in T1DM

Weight gain in T2DM
Emergent diabetes:
T1DM = diabetic ketoacidosis

T2DM = non-ketotic hyperosmolar coma (clots especially in brain)
Late complication syndrome is:
retionopathy, neuropathy, nephropathy (microvascular) and MI, stroke, gangrene, amputation (macrovascular)
Symptoms of hypoglycemia are _________ and _________.
neurogenic (2* to ANS activity - tremor, sweat, hunger, anxiety, tachy)

neuroglycopenia (low glucose in CNS - confusion, dizzy, vision blur, difficult speaking, loss of conscious, convulsion)
Measurement of _____________ is accepted as a method for long-term glucose control in patients with diabetes mellitus.
hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c)
Major classes of diabetic medications are:
1. Thiazolidinediones/Biguanides(decrease insulin resistance by making muscle and adipose cells more sensitive to insulin, also suppress hepatic glucose production); Side effect of TZD is weight gain (higher fat mass for insulin sensitivity)

biguanide example is metformin

2. Drugs that stimulate the pancreas to make more insulin: Sulfonylureas Meglitinides (concern that SU's cause hypoglycemia and CV disease, exhaust beta-cell function)

3. Drugs that slow the absorption of starches: Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

4. DPP IV inhibitor (incretin)
________ plays a critical role in the adipogenic transcriptional cascade
PPARγ

PPAR isoforms share a common domain structure and molecular mechanism of action

PPARγ activity can be modulated by many different additional factors that include co-activtors and co-repressors.
Iron overload can lead to generation of ______ _______ species, that damage various tissues when uncontrolled.
reactive oxygen (ROS)

Fenton rxn, ad microbial infections

"tug of war" between host and bacteria (lactoferrin in breast milk chelates and sequesters iron, just like transferrrin away from bacterial hemolysin)

PROBLEM: iron availability is increased in acidity or iron overload
Iron works as a cofactor in _____, Fe-S, and dioxygenases (HIF).
heme
The body needs to sense and regulate Fe, so the _____ are storage depot for RBCs and recycle it.

Some Fe floats around, but it is bounded to _______.

The loss of Fe is ___________.
macrophages;

transferrin;

UNREGULATED;

recycled iron is main source of need;
_______ is the primary protein expressed in intestine, main way for Fe uptake. Fe needs to be ____________ to be taken up.
DMT-1; REDUCED (dietary factors can help reduce);
You do not want Fe in cytosol (ROS), so if it is not in Heme or Fe-S, excess iron is ___________ and put into ________.
oxidized; ferritin (shell keeps Fe hidden and good depot);
Tissues that would need to export iron are liver, intestinal cells and macrophages.

_________ exports Fe2+ which is oxidized by _______ or _________.
Ferroportin; hephaestin; ceruloplasmin;
Non-intestinal cells have transferrin receptors which allow Fe3+ entry via ________, so Fe3+ is reduced then released via ______ into cytosol.
endosome (acidic); DMT-1;
_______ regulation of iron coordinates intestinal iron absorption and iron storage in liver and macrophage with iron consumption and O2 demand.
Systemic
_______ is produced by liver, which binds ferroportin (leading to its internalization and destruction via lysosome or Ub).
Hepcidin

It can be upregulated or downregulated.

conditions favoring reduced Fe mobilization --> hepcidin release (for iron overload, infection/inflammation)

conditions of high iron demand (anemia, hypoxia, erythropoesis) downregulate hepcidin expression, allowing Fe export
There is also a need to regulate gene products coordinately at a cell level.

A post translational modification used is IRE (either in 5' UTR or 3' UTR), which are binding sites for _______.
IRPs (regulated by iron availability; IRP1 forms Fe-S cluster and IRP2 degraded in high iron state)

When Fe is low, IRP binds 5' UTR of ferritin (downregulate iron storage), and 3' UTR of transferritin receptor (upregulate iron uptake)
Misregulation of iron homeostasis leads to:
Fe overload syndromes (hemochromatosis - HFE involved in hepcidin regulation, hemosiderin accumulation; liver-cirrhosis, heart failure, CNS-Parkinsons)

Fe deficiencies (anemia, hypochromic microcytic anemia)
Heme is generated from succinyl CoA and glycines. Heme biosynthesis needs mitochondrial and cytosolic enzymes.

Here, the first step is catalyzed by ______.
ALA-synthase (in mito)

uses vit B6 and activity regulated by feedback inhibition by heme and by repression of synthesis by heme
Intermediates of heme biosynthesis can generate ROS.

___________ controls rate limiting step of first step (feedback by heme).
ALA synthase;

build up of intermediates lead to porphyrias (hepatic most common - e.g. acute intermittent porphyria (AIP) deficiency in uroporphyrinogen I synthase)

lack of control of ALA synthase by heme increases production and excretion of ALA and porphobilinogen (symptoms brought about by drugs)
Heme degradation involves:
Recycle iron; process hydrophobic products of porphyrin ring cleavage

initial reaction in degradation catalyzed by heme oxygenase (requires O2 and NADPH) and produces CO and biliverdin

biliverdin reductase acts to make bilirubin pigment
Bilirubin binds ________ which helps increase solubility then transport to liver.

Conjugation of bilirubin to ____ by UDP glucoronyltransferase occurs in the liver.
albumin; glucuronic acid (solubilizes in liver and exrete into bile and large intestine);

Glucuronides cleave by b-glucuronidase in intestine releasing bilirubin, which is reduced (oxidation of this produces stool color)
Kernicteris = bilirubin toxicity
excess amounts of bilirubin circulating in the blood stream dissolve in the subcutaneous fat causing a yellowish appearance of the skin and the whites of the eyes
Bilirubin in the plasma is carried either as the diglucuronide or bound to serum albumin.

The van den Berg reaction only detects _____ bilirubin.
"free"

direct = diglucuronide that is soluble without albumin

indirect = freed from albumin by methanol
If jaundice is due to hemolysis, liver can not form glucuronides for all heme, and the _____ form of bilirubin will increase.

With biliary obstruction, glucuronide not secreted properly which will lead to increase in _______ form of bilirubin with lower fecal content of bile pigments. Both direct/indirect if obstruction is prolonged.

Cirrhosis/hepatitis fails to conjugate bilirubin which will decrease bile secretion and increase ______ form of bilirubin.

Neonatal hyperbilirubinemias have increase unconugated bilirubin (low UDP-glucouronyltransferase activity). Treated with ___ light to break down bilirubin.
indirect;

direct;

indirect;

UV;
Erythropoiesis accounts for nearly 80% of the daily iron and heme demands in humans.

____ is a glycoprotein hormone that regulates red blood cell production
Erythropoietin (Epo)

1. Discovery and therapeutic applications (anemia)
2. Regulation: Hypoxia Inducible Factor


HIF induction is regulated by both oxygen and iron availability at multiple levels (including the presence of an IRE within the the 5’ UTR of the HIF-2α subunit)
Amino acids usually used for protein synthesis or for synthetic purposes. The excess is degraded.

_________ is a waste product of amino acid breakdown.
Ammonia;

especially in amino purines (AMP)

Most excreted as urea

No storage form for AA except tissue protein.

AA breakdown are substrates for gluconeogenesis.
Common reactions that involve AA: (all use pyridoxine or vit b6)
1. transamination (transaminases highest in liver and muscle, equilibrium near 1 - no energy needed)

e.g. pyr --> ala; OAA-->Asp; 2-ketoglutarate-->Glu

2. Decarboxylation (produce corresponding amines; many produce NTs, decarb of Glu makes GABA)

3. Deamination (most are oxidative, i.e ser-->pyr)
Aldehydes are able to combine with amino groups non-enzymatically and form a covalent compound called a ____________.

The enzymes that carry out these reactions are called ___________.
Schiff's base

Forms with lysine chain, which can be displaced by an AA. Once bound tautomeric shifts can activate different bonds to reactive. (all of this is reversible)

aminotransferases; (aspartate or alanine (elevations in AST or ALT for liver or muscle damage - MI))
Glutamate is a source of NH3 (deamination) - uses ATP (reg'd)

Glutamate and NH3 form glutamine (glutamine synthetase) - uses ATP (reg'd)

__________ releases NH3
Glutaminase;

Glutamine = Most abundant free amino acid in blood (Transports “ammonia” among organs, buffer moderates hyperammonemia)
Deficiencies in the conversion of amino groups to urea result in elevated ammonia levels, or __________.
hyperammonemia;

elevated glutamine is a marker of this, its amino is also imp. in synthetic rxns
After amino group removal via transamination or deamination, the carboxylic acid (2-ketoacid usually) makes stuff to be converted to glucose via __________.
gluconeogenesis; (glucogenic)

substrates for gluconeo = pyruvate and TCA intermediate (2-keto, succinate, fumarate, OAA)

ketogenic (acetyl CoA not convertable to glucose, in liver if acetyl CoA made faster than it is oxidized you make ketones, which do energy but no glucose)
Excess glutamine release can deplete muscle of TCA intermediates, inhibiting ____ metabolism.
aerobic;

(amido nitrogen of glutamine - one added by synthetase is imp. source of amino group in synthetic reactions)

breakdown of aminopurines gives ammonia (adenine for muscle in exercise)
Ammonia from glutaminase used in kidney to establish ______ balance and in liver it provides ammonia for ____ cycle.
acid-base (urine); urea;
5 enzymes are required to make urea
1. Carbamylphosphate synthetase 1

2. Ornithine transcarbamylase

3. Argininosuccinate synthetase

4. Argininosuccinate lyase

5. Arginase

Liver is ONLY organ with full urea cycle.
Urea cycle regulation
1. Rate of urea synthesis regulated at CPS1 step

2. N-acetylglutamate is required activator

3. Urea cycle enzyme activities induced by starvation and high protein meals.
Ammonium is generated by glutamate dehydorgenase and allosterically inhibited by ___ and ____. ADP and GDP are activators.
ATP; GTP;
Urea Cycle
Arginine in Urea Cycle
- Only UC intermediate used in protein synthesis

- Synthesized in intestine and kidney

- Liver not involved in arginine synthesis

- Used in synthesis of creatine

- Used in synthesis of nitric oxide

- Becomes an essential aa in urea cycle defects
All patients who are hyperammonemic have elevated levels of glutamine and alanine.

OTC deficiency has a hallmark as excreted orotic acid and ______.

AL and AS enzyme deficient patients become symptomatic when they run out of ________.
uracil; (b/c CPS is in pyrimidine synthesis too)

arginine;
AL deficiency leads to ASA accumulation, and is solved by giving ______.

AS deficiency is addressed by arginine, but not enough to prevent hyperammonemia. Sodium benzoate conjugates with glycine (formed by ammonia) which is excreted, but replenishing of glycine depletes ammonia.
arginine
CPS and OTC deficiency do not accumulate AA in blood, but arginine not helpful. Instead PAA conjugate with glutamine. Since it smells, inow we use ______.
phenylbutyrate
Ornithine not in diet, but can be made from arginine or glutamate and is source of proline (another non-essential).
All enzyme defects except arginase deficiency have same symptoms!
PKU
Deficiency in Phe hydroxylase (uses O2 and cofactor BH4)

makes tyrosine (catecholamines, melanin, thyroxine)

no Phe transaminase (reason high levels of PhePyr indicate PKU)

pts treated with phenylacetate (UC issues) smell like PKU

Tyr becomes essential AA

need to lower Phe (low prot)

Phe hydroxylase = homotetramet (compact form with BH4, opens up with Phe)
BH4 deficiency
BH4 synthesized denovo from GTP

BH2 recycled to BH4 by DHPR

problem with DHPR or 3 enzymes leads to BH4 deficiency

leads to issues with Phe degradation, L-DOPA, catecholamine, serotonin precursor, NO, 5-hydroxytrp

PKU = normal biopterin

BH4 deficiency = low levels

DHPR defect = normal biopterin, but low BH4

BH4 oral therapy fix Phe levels, but not NT so need NT therapy as well

BH4 responsive PKU?
MSUD
Hydroxy derivatives of ketoacids corresponding to valine, isoleucine, leucine massively excreted.

All three branched chain amino acids (valine, leucine, isoleucine) share a common keto-acid decarboxylase.

Deficient in branched chain ketoacid DH --> ketoacid formed by transamination giving ketoacidosis. The AA's also build up since transamination reversible. possible hypoglycemia.

Restrictintake of 3 branched AAs and low protein with protein formula without branched chains. Dialyze in acute situation, some respond to thiamine (E1 subunit)

newborn screen test for elevated leucine
Propionyl-CoA carboxylase deficiency leads to
Proprionic acidemia

major symptoms are acidosis, compensated for by rapid deep breathing (Kussmaul respirations)

Proprionyl-CoA normally converted to methylmalonyl-CoA (biotin is cofactor)

Proprionyl-CoA is exclusively intracellular, when it accumulates you see metabolic effects (form methylcitrate instead of citrate, odd ketons, proprionylglycine)

Ile, Val, Thr, Met NOT elevated (unlike PKU and MSUD proprionic acidemia is not a primary amino acidopathy), may have high Gly

proprionyl-CoA = competitive substrate for acetyl-CoA which is why hyperammonemia (N-acetylglutamate interference for CPS in UC) and hypoglycemia (interference with pyr carboxylase activation by acetyl-CoA inhibiting gluconeogenesis)

Carnitine non-essential that acyl transfers (so see lot of poprionyl-carnitine in their tissues)

Some with multiple carboxylase (holocarboxylase synthetase issues = recurrent ketoacidosis and hypoglycemia) or biotinidase (remove biocytin issues = scaly skin) deficiencies resspond to large doses of biotin.
Methylmalonic acidemia (just like prioprinic acidemia)
lethargy, ketoacidosis, rapid repsiration, massive excretion of methylmalonic acid, lesser excretion of metabolites of proprionyl-CoA

racemase needed for D to L methylmalonyl-CoA; then methylmalonyl-CoA mutase deficiency or defect in vit B12 metabolism (coenzyme B12 and methylcobalamin (for homocytinuria) are active forms). Many with B12 issues have higher homocysteine levels.

Addition of B12 may help.
Homocystinuria (Methionine and Cysteine Metabolism)
THF is good, homocysteine goes round and round, you gotta make methyl groups

eye lens dislocation, abnormal blood clots, thin bones, mental retardation

classical homocystinuria = deficiency in cystathionine beta-synthase (homocysteine degraded to cysteine and 2-ketobutyrate); pts have high homocysteine and methionine and low cysteine (but cause is high homocysteine); treated with pyridoxine, or low methionine diet with betaine or folic acid? (methylate homocysteine to get methionine, pts will have high met)

with one carbon metabolism, and deficient 5,10 MTHFR you get high homocysteine with normal or low methionine (methyl group comes from 5-methyltetrahydrofolic acid); This leads to neurologic issues (seizure, mental retard) and higher CV disease. Remethylation of homocysteine requires methyl-B12 (second B12 requiring rxn in humans). B12 metabolism defect or deficiency can increase homocystein, low methionine and increase methylmalonic acid.

5,10 MTHF acid from degradation of Gly,Ser
Hypoxanthine, xanthine and uric acid contain ____, _____, and _____ oxygens respectively and are known as oxopurines.
one, two and three

Hypoxanthine is the initial product of de novo purine synthesis in the body.

Uric acid is the end product of purine degradation and is excreted in the urine.
If one hydroxyl in hypoxanthine or xanthine is replaced by an amino group, the aminopurines ________ and _______ are produced.
adenine and guanine
Initial product of pyrimidine biosynthesis is _______.
orotic acid (precursor of other pyrimidines, no other role)

decarboxylate orotic acid --> uracil (amino for keto substitution = cytosine; methylation of uracil = thymine)
Hypoxemia increases the proportion of nucleotide mono and di-phosphates.

_______ are synthesized as ribonucleotide monophosphates rather than as free bases.
Purines;

Make IMP:
1st committed step = PRPP -> phosphoribosylamine
+ PPi
(inhibited by IMP, AMP, GMP; it is irreversible since hydrolysis of 2 phosphate bonds)

Form rings using Gly, Asp, Gln, formyl-THF
IMP --> -->AMP
Uses GTP
Inhibited by AMP

De novo purine synthesis consumes lot of energy, so have feedback inhibition of initial two enzymes PRPP synthetase and glutamine PRPP amidotransferase.
Guanylate is also made by a two step process:
IMP --> XMP --> GMP

First rxn inhibited by GMP.
ATP consumed in 2nd rxn.
The synthesis of AMP and GMP is kept in balance by _______ activation and inhibition.
reciprocal;

If cellular levels of both nucleotides are high, IMP is degraded and excreted as uric acid instead of being used for further AMP or GMP synthesis.
Purine base salvage
HGPRT
- Hypoxanthine + PRPP --> IMP
- Guanine + PRPP --> GMP
(guanine/hypoxanthine from purine nt degradation)
- Deficiency = Lesch-Nyhan syndrome = Hyperuricemia, brain dysfunction (high uric acid responds to allopurinol)

APRT
- Adenine + PRPP --> AMP
(adenine from S-adenosylmethionine)

Enzymes of purine synthesis do not act on native bases. Purines are synthesized as ribonucleotides.
Other purine reactions:
Adenosine kinase (Adenosine + ATP --> AMP + ADP, no kinase for guanine/hypoxanthine)

Various deaminases:
AMP-->IMP
GMP-->IMP
Adenosine-->Inosine

Nucleotidases and Nucleoside phosphorylases (nt --> ns --> base)
Guanine can be deaminated to form Xanthine.

Adenine cannot be deaminated.

It must be recycled to its nucleotide and be deaminated to form ____ before it can be excreted.
IMP
Synthesis of pyrimidines:
- synthesized as bases
- nts made by adding PRPP
- from Asp (to form ring) and Gln (as carbamylphosphate from CPS2)
- Orotate is first synthesized

CAD polypeptide makes dihydroorotate

The next reactions make UMP from dihydroorotate (dihydroorotate dehydrogenase and UMP synthase)

UTP + NH3 --> CTP

CPS2 inhibited by UTP and activated by PRPP, carbamoylphosphate destined to form orotate
dTMP is made from dUMP (thymidylate synthase; methyl from methylene-THF, THF oxidized to dihydrofolate)
dUDP is produced by reduction of UDP by ribonucleotide reductase or by deamination of CDP (reductase uses NADPH and inhibited by dATP, balance controlled by other dNTPs)

dUMP is produced by phosphate transfer from dUDP
_______ and _________ are not excreted as such. The pyrimidine rings are oxidized
and opened, releasing β-amino acids, CO2 and ammonia.
Uracil and thymine
PRPP synthesis
PRPP synthetase
- Ribose-5-P + ATP ---> PRPP + AMP
- Inhibited by purine nucleotides
- Ex. excess synthesis-->gout
-- Allopurinol also inhibits PRPP synthetase
-- Allopurinol also inhibits phosphoribosylamine synthesis
Methotrexate inhibits dihydrofolate reductase
Stops thymidine synthesis (methylene THF issues) and also stops recycling of dihydryofolate reductase (makes it DNA specific drug)

decreases purine synthesis (formyl THF)

lowers methionine synthesis (methyl THF)
Acyclovir
Guanosine analog

Acyclovir is inactive

Acyclovir triphosphate inhibits Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) DNA polymerase

No guanosine kinase in human, means that you can identify which cells express Herpes Simplex Virus (they will have a thymidine kinase to phosph. acyclovir)