Mary Lou Assessment Final Anschutz

Front 1

contraction of ventricles causes

Back 1

closure of atrioventricular valves, opening of the semilunar valves

Front 2

the major heart sounds are caused by

Back 2

valves closing

Front 3

apical PMI felt beyond 5th intercostal space may mean:

Back 3

left ventricular hypertrophy

Front 4

to hear diastolic heart sounds, you would ask patients

Back 4

lay on their left sides (left lateral recumbent)

Front 5

the most helpful non-auditory objective finding in determining left-sided heart failure is:

Back 5

jugular vein distention

Front 6

Mr. O., age 50, comes for his yearly health assessment, which is provided by his employer. During your initial history-taking interview, Mr. O. mentions that he routinely engages in light exercise. At this time, you should:

Back 6

ask him to describe his exercise

Front 7

An example of a physiological (not structural ) heart murmur is one that is caused by:

Back 7

anemia

Front 8

When is the click associated with mitral valve prolapse heard?

Back 8

During systole

Front 9

When listening for carotid bruits, what instruction must be given to the patient?

Back 9

Hold your breath

Front 10

What is a pulse deficit?

Back 10

when the radial pulse is less than the apical pulse

Front 11

What does the term PMI stand for?

Back 11

point of maximal impact/impulse

Front 12

What distal vascular assessment associated with a bounding, pulsating, wide aortic pulse leads the provider to believe there is an AAA ( Abd Aortic Aneurysm)?

Back 12

no pedal pulses

Front 13

What alteration in cardiac sounds would occur with a significant collection of pericardial effusion?

Back 13

muffled or quiet heart sounds

Front 14

The S4 heart sound is most typically associated with:

Back 14

stiff ventricular wall

Front 15

Which of the following jugular findings is indicative of significant heart failure when the patient is assessed laying at a 45 degree angle?

Back 15

distention reaches the level of the jaw

Front 16

What vascular problem is associated with men losing their previously full leg hair during middle age?

Back 16

arterial insufficiency

Front 17

If the provider believes they hear a split heart sound, what should they do next?

Back 17

Compare whether the sound is heard equally when the patient inhales and exhales.

Front 18

If a patient had an implantable pacemaker, what would the provider hear on auscultation?

Back 18

nothing different

Front 19

What is the difference between the waves forms in normal patients between their carotid and their jugular?

Back 19

there are three forms in the jugular and 2 in the carotid

Front 20

When using a scale to assess for severity of edema what does a 1+ score reflect?

Back 20

very rapid resolution of very slight puffiness

Front 21

If edema is only one sided what should you consider?

Back 21

occlusion of a major vein

Front 22

What is meant by the term "splitting" in terms of heart sounds?

Back 22

the sounds of the valves are not happening as the exact same time

Front 23

Where would the sounds of the tricuspid valves be best heard?

Back 23

the second left ICS

Front 24

he assessment of Jugular Venous Pressure ( JVP) correlates with:

Back 24

central venous pressure

Front 25

Your patient has a capillary refill of greater than 3 seconds. What does this mean?

Back 25

arterial blood flow is inadequate

Front 26

Nurses typically think of socio-economic reasons why heart disease would be higher in certain groups of patients. When these variables are controlled for, which ethnic group has the highest death rate ( i.e. even "rich and educated folks in this group die earlier than others")?

Back 26

African Americans

Front 27

the cruciate ligaments of the knee provide for

Back 27

anterior and posterior stability

Front 28

The suprapatellar bursa separates the patella, quadriceps tendon, and muscle from the:

Back 28

femur

Front 29

The tibia, fibula, and talus articulate to form the:

Back 29

ankle

Front 30

Excessive hyperextension of the knee with weight bearing in a young person who is not physically active may indicate:

Back 30

weakness of the quadriceps

Front 31

The treatment for an ankle injury with medial malleolus tenderness and swelling and the ability to limp for four steps is:

Back 31

elevation and application of ice

Front 32

A positive straight leg raise test usually indicates:

Back 32

lumbar nerve root irritation

Front 33

Anterior cruciate ligament integrity is assessed via the _____ test.

Back 33

lachmann

Front 34

In differentiating osteoarthritis from rheumatoid arthritis (RA), the osteoarthritis patient typically exhibits

Back 34

less weakness and fatigue

Front 35

A 45-year-old laborer presents with low back pain, stating that the pain comes from the right buttock and shoots down and across the right anterior thigh, down the shin to the ankle. Which examination finding is considered more indicative of nerve root compression from a bulging disk?

Back 35

positive straight leg test

Front 36

A 7-year-old child who BEGINS to limp and complains of persistent hip pain may have:

Back 36

Legg-Calvé-Perth disease

Front 37

The medical terminology for flat feet is:

Back 37

pes planus

Front 38

When an ankle joint is overextended with sole of the foot pointing inward toward the other foot and the malleous tilted downward toward the ground, this is called an _______ injury.

Back 38

inversion

Front 39

What is the medical term used to describe a great toe that is deviated laterally and starts to cross the second toe?

Back 39

hallux valgus

Front 40

The ballottement test on the knee is used to determine:

Back 40

an effusion under the patella

Front 41

Asymmetry of the hips in an adult is charted as a positive ______sign:

Back 41

trendelenberg

Front 42

When pain and numbness from a low back pain injury extends down to the ankle and side of the foot, the _____ spine is suspected to have a disc injury.

Back 42

sacral 1

Front 43

Scoliosis is frequently associated with what other physical finding?

Back 43

Scapular assymetry

Front 44

The Ottowa rules help determine whether there is high suspicion for ankle facture in adults. Which of the following findings would trigger ordering an Xray?

Back 44

point tenderness just over the tip of the malleolus

Front 45

Which of the following findings of the Achilles tendon is of concern?

Back 45

the thickness of the superior tendon thins out as it reaches midpoint and continues to be stringy at the heel

Front 46

How much can the the typical knee flex?

Back 46

120-130 degrees

Front 47

In the posterior knee, what is the name of the structure that connects the patella to the tibia?

Back 47

patellar ligament

Front 48

When assessing the ROM of the foot and ankle, what is the expected dorsiflexion of the foot?

Back 48

20 degrees

Front 49

hen reviewing a chart that shows the nerve root nerve distribution of L4-S1, which nerve root is tested by doing heel walking?

Back 49

L5

Front 50

The most common congenital foot deformity is:

Back 50

metarsus varus

Front 51

Talipes equinovarus is also known as:

Back 51

Club foot

Front 52

What structure is located at the five-o’clock and the seven-o’clock positions of the vaginal orifice?

Back 52

Bartholin glands

Front 53

Which risk factor is associated with cervical cancer?

Back 53

multiple sex partners

Front 54

When you enter the examination room of a patient who is scheduled for a pelvic examination, you note that she seems very anxious. You should:

Back 54

try to determine the source of the anxiety

Front 55

The presence of cervical motion tenderness may indicate:

Back 55

pelvic inflammatory disease

Front 56

What structure of the male genitalia travels through the inguinal canal and unites with the seminal vesicle to form the ejaculatory duct?

Back 56

vas deferens

Front 57

Normally the male urethral orifice is located:

Back 57

2 mm ventral to the tip of the glans

Front 58

You are inspecting the genitalia of an uncircumcised adult male. The foreskin is tight and cannot be easily retracted. You should:

Back 58

chart the finding as phimosis

Front 59

Which technique is appropriate to detect an inguinal hernia?

Back 59

move your finger upward into the inguinal canal

Front 60

When performing a rectal examination in a man who cannot stand, in which position is the patient most commonly placed?

Back 60

left lateral

Front 61

Small firm white or yellow round palpable areas on the cervix are probably:

Back 61

nabothian cysts

Front 62

What are the characteristics of a nulliparous cervix?

Back 62

uniform consistency with smaller round os

Front 63

How is the cremasteric reflex elicited in a male?

Back 63

the inner thigh is stroked which causes the scrotum and testicle to rise upward on that side

Front 64

Transillumination of the scrotal sac can help determine:

Back 64

If any swelling is fluid or solid in origin

Front 65

When examining the rectum, why is the patient asked to bear down?

Back 65

to reach a few cm further inside

Front 66

To determine whether there is any penile discharge, the provider should:

Back 66

compressing the shaft of the penis from the base toward the glans

Front 67

Early prolapse of the uterus may indicated by what physical finding?

Back 67

The cervix appears to be closer to the introitus...as if the vagina is shortened

Front 68

What is the current guideline concerning nipple compression during physical exam?

Back 68

It is no longer standard to do so unless the patient indicates discharge is a concern.

Front 69

What is the significance of breast nipple inversion ?

Back 69

if it is new, it may point to malignancy

Front 70

Which of the following changes in the breast tissue is typically associated with menses?

Back 70

fibrocystic changes become more tender

Front 71

Which is most common form of hernia?

Back 71

indirect

Front 72

The inability to remplace the foreskin to its resting position is called:

Back 72

paraphimosis

Front 73

The correct produce for inserting the examiners finger into the rectum of a male patient for performing a prostate exam is:

Back 73

pressing on the anal opening and then pointing downward

Front 74

What is the difference between an anal fissure and an anal fistula?

Back 74

a fissure is a tear in the outer skin and mucosa; the fistula runs from the rectum to the skin

Front 75

If a patient cannot shrug the shoulders against resistance, which cranial nerve requires further evaluation?

Back 75

CN XI, spinal accessory

Front 76

You have asked a patient to close his eyes and identify an object placed in his hand. You are evaluating:

Back 76

sterognosis

Front 77

To assess spinal levels L2, L3, and L4, which deep tendon reflex should be tested?

Back 77

patellar

Front 78

On a scale of 1+ to 4+, which deep tendon reflex score is used to document a finding of clonus in a patient?

Back 78

4+

Front 79

Diabetic peripheral neuropathy will likely produce:

Back 79

Diminished pain sensation

Front 80

A neurologic past medical history should include data about:

Back 80

neurovascular conditions

Front 81

The awareness of position of the big toe is known as:

Back 81

proprioception

Front 82

Persons with Parkinson disease have an altered gait that is characterized by:

Back 82

short shuffling steps

Front 83

When assessing a 17-year-old for neck mobility, you gently raise his head off the examination table. He involuntarily flexes his hips and knee, which is the Brudzinsk's sign. To confirm your suspicions associated with this positive test, you would also perform a test for _____ sign.

Back 83

kernigs

Front 84

The thalamus is the major integration center for perception of:

Back 84

pain

Front 85

Normal physical exams include testing of all cranial nerves for function except which two senses?

Back 85

taste and smell

Front 86

Loss of voluntary upper motor neuron function of the face is consistent with which pathology?

Back 86

stroke/brain attack

Front 87

A resting tremor is most consistently associated with which pathology?

Back 87

parkinsons

Front 88

Gait disturbances are best assessed:

Back 88

with shoes off

Front 89

When testing for sensory impairment in a diabetic the monofilament is used. The correct procedure is:

Back 89

apply just enough pressure to bend the filament

Front 90

Hyperactive reflexes such as clonus and a positive Babinski are associated with:

Back 90

upper motor neuron pathology

Front 91

Which of the following cranial nerves have both sensory and motor function?

Back 91

trigeminal and vagus

Front 92

How many pairs of spinal nerves are there?

Back 92

31

Front 93

Temperature and deep pressure examination of sensory function occurs:

Back 93

only when superficial pain is not intact

Front 94

Testing the brachioradial reflex is done by:

Back 94

lexing the supported arm and striking the tendon insertion point directly about 1-2 inches above the wrist.

Front 95

When using a tuning fork to test the neurological system, which of the following is true:

Back 95

you place the fork over bone and ask if the patient can sense it

Front 96

The Tinetti balance and gait assessment tool:

Back 96

can be used with anyone who has balance or gait disturbances

Front 97

If a clot occludes the internal carotid artery, what neurologic sign might be present?

Back 97

unilateral blindness

Front 98

What cranial nerve disease is characterized by very intense, sharp pain across the face?

Back 98

trigeminal neuralgia

Front 99

What is the first symptom of normal pressure hydrocephalus in an adult?

Back 99

gait disturbance

Front 100

To assess a patient's spinal level L2, L3, L4 which deep tendon reflexes would have to be tested?

Back 100

patellar

Front 101

When not considering neurological disease and issues related to CV health or trauma , which ethnic group has the highest neurological disease burden?

Back 101

none

Front 102

Which cultural variant may determine the degree of disability after a neurological event?

Back 102

learned tolerance of altered function

Front 103

When measuring visual acuity, you are assessing cranial nerve:

Back 103

II, optic

Front 104

Xanthelasma may suggest that the patient has an abnormality of:

Back 104

lipid metabolism

Front 105

Entropion implies that the lid is:

Back 105

turned inward

Front 106

An abnormal growth of conjunctiva extending over the cornea from the limbus is known as:

Back 106

pterygium

Front 107

You observe pupillary response as the patient looks at a distant object and then at an object held 10 cm from the bridge of the nose. You are assessing for:

Back 107

accommodation

Front 108

Cupping of the optic disc may be a result of:

Back 108

glaucoma

Front 109

Cotton wool spots are most closely associated with:

Back 109

hypertension

Front 110

Opacities blocking the red reflex may indicate the presence of:

Back 110

cataracts

Front 111

After focusing on a blood vessel in the retina with your ophthalmoscope, you attempt to locate the optic disc. You should:

Back 111

follow the vessel toward the midline of the head

Front 112

Visual fields can be estimated by means of which test?

Back 112

confrontation

[The confrontation test measures peripheral vision. The examiner sits or stands across from the patient and asks the patient to close one eye while the examiner closes the opposite eye. The examiner then proceeds to wave the fingers while moving the extended arms from a lateral to a central position along both the temporal and the nasal fields. The pupillary reaction test is done by observing the pupil’s response to light. The accommodation test deals with pupil reaction to light, whereas the Snellen chart measures visual acuity.]

Front 113

What is the medical name for a sty (stye) on the eyelid?

Back 113

hordeolum

Front 114

The term used to describe a condition where the eyelid sags down over the globe when the eye is supposed to be open is called:

Back 114

ptosis

Front 115

During the eye exam, the provider should look at the eye from the far sideways position in order to see:

Back 115

if the cornea is clear and even in contour

Front 116

What is the classic description given by a patient who is having a partial retinal detachment?

Back 116

It's like a curtain or shadow has come down on part of my visual field.

Front 117

If the provider shines a light into the right eye, the left pupil should:

Back 117

also contrict

Front 118

When testing visual acuity in a pediatric patient, when does the APN need to refer the child to an eye specialist?

Back 118

if there is a two line difference between the 2 eyes

Front 119

the normal color of the sclera is

Back 119

white

Front 120

The tear duct in the nasal corner of the eye is better referred to as the:

Back 120

medial canthus

Front 121

Which cranial nerve is implicated when there is a ptosis of the eye?

Back 121

III, oculomotor

Front 122

When trying to find the disc to examine, the beginner provider directs their attention:

Back 122

toward the nasal region of the globe

Front 123

Suppose you find that the pupils were equally reactive to light, but are not the same size. Which condition would you suspect?

Back 123

anisocoria

Front 124

If you observe AV nicking on a fundoscopic exam, what would have seen?

Back 124

vein stops on either side of an artery

Front 125

order of heart valves

Back 125

TPMA

tricuspid, pulmonic, mitral, aortic

Front 126

atrioventricular valves

Back 126

tricuspid & mitral

Front 127

semilunar valves

Back 127

pulmonic & aortic

Front 128

P wave indicates

Back 128

spread of a stimulus through the atria

Front 129

PR interval

Back 129

time from initial stimulation of atria to initial stimulation of the ventricles, 0.12 to 0.2 seconds

Front 130

QRS complex

Back 130

spread of a stimulous through the ventricles

Front 131

fetal circulations differences

Back 131

foramen ovale between atria, ductus arteriosis between pulmonary artery and aorta

Front 132

peau d'orange

Back 132

indicates edema of the breast caused by blocked lymph drainage in advanced or inflammatory breast cancer

Front 133

aging signs in the eye

Back 133

arcus senilus (corneal arcus composed of lipids deposited in periphery fo cornea);

presbyopia (weakening of accomodation); cataract formation (clouding of the lens to become partially or totally opaque).

Front 134

romberg test

Back 134

stand, feet together and arms at sides, loss of balance indicates cerebellar dysfunction

Front 135

balottement of abdomen

Back 135

single handed: push in at 90 degree angle, if object is movable, it will float up; bimanual: one hand pushes, the other receives

Front 136

ballottement of knee

Back 136

with knee extended apply downward pressure on the suprapatellar pouch with one hand, then push the patella sharply downward against the femur with a finger of your other hand. With effusion, tapping or clicking will be sensed when patella is pushed against the femur.

Front 137

benign prostatic hypertrophy symptoms

Back 137

hesitancy, decreased force and caliber of stream, dribbling, incomplete emptying of bladder, frequency, urgency, nocturia, dysuria

Front 138

cardiac auscultation

Back 138

aortic (2nd right IC space), pulmonic (2nd left IC space), 2nd pulmonic (3rd left IC space), tricuspid (4th left IC space), mitral (5 left IC space at MCL)

Front 139

chief complaint

Back 139

brief statement about why patient is seeking care, direct quote from patient

Front 140

history of present illness

Back 140

step by step evaluation of the circumstances that surround the primary reason for the patient's visit

Front 141

OLDCART

Back 141

onset, location, duration, characteristics, aggravating factors, relieving factors, treatment

Front 142

cranial nerves

Back 142

OOOTTAFVGVAH:

I: Olfactory, II: optic, III: oculomotor, IV: trochlear, V: trigeminal, VI: abducens, VII: facial, VIII: acoustic, IX: glossopharyngeal, X: vagus, XI: spinal accessory, XII: hypoglossal.

SSMMBMBSBBMM

Front 143

on scale of one to four, active or expected reflex response is:

Back 143

2+

Front 144

testing bicep reflex tests which spinal nerves

Back 144

C5 and C6

Front 145

testing brachioradial reflex tests which spinal nerves?

Back 145

C5 & C6

Front 146

testing triceps reflex tests which spinal nerves?

Back 146

C6, C7, & C8

Front 147

testing patellar reflex tests which spinal nerves?

Back 147

L2, L3, and L4

Front 148

testing achilles reflex tests which spinal nerves?

Back 148

S1 and S2

Front 149

testing upper abdominal reflex tests which spinal nerves

Back 149

T8, T9, and T10

Front 150

testing lower abdominal reflex tests which spinal nerves?

Back 150

T10, T11 and T12

Front 151

testing cremasteric reflex tests which spinal nerves?

Back 151

T12, L1, and L2

Front 152

testing plantar reflex tests which spinal nerves?

Back 152

L5, S1, and S2

Front 153

spastic hemiparesis gait finding

Back 153

affected leg stiff and extended with plantar flexion of the foot

Front 154

spastic diplegia gait finding

Back 154

patient uses short steps, dragging the ball of the foot across the floor

Front 155

steppage gait finding

Back 155

hip and knee elevate excessively high to lift the plantar flexed foot off the ground, foot is brought down to the floor with a slap

Front 156

cerebellar ataxia gait finding

Back 156

feet are wide-based, staggering and lurching from side to side

Front 157

sensory ataxia gait finding

Back 157

gait is wide based, feet are thrown forward and outward, bringing them down first on heels then on toes, patient watches the ground to guide steps

Front 158

parkinsonian gait finding

Back 158

short shuffling, rigid body, stooped posture, hesitation on starting and difficulty stopping

Front 159

hallux valgus

Back 159

lateral deviation of great toe

Front 160

hammertoe

Back 160

hyperextension of the metatarsophalangeal joint with flexion of the toe's proximal joint

Front 161

claw toe

Back 161

hyperextension of the metatarsophalangeal joint with flexion of the toe's proximal and distal joints

Front 162

toe walking evaluates which spinal nerve

Back 162

S1

Front 163

numbness to thigh, motor weakness in extending quadriceps, diminished knee jerk indicates herniation at what disk?

Back 163

L4

Front 164

pain to upper hip and lateral leg, numbness to lateral calf, motor weakness of dorsiflexion of great toe and foot, difficulty heel walking indicates herniation at what disk?

Back 164

L5

Front 165

pain to buttocks and mid-lateral leg, numbness to posterior calf and plantar surface of foot, motor weakness with plantar flexion of foot and great toe, and diminished ankle reflex indicates herniation at what disk?

Back 165

S1

Front 166

McMurry test

Back 166

detect torn medial/lateral meniscus; Pt flexes knees, provider positions thumb and fingers on either side of the joint space, hold heel with other and and fully flex knee and rotate the foot and knee outward to a lateral position. Extend and then flex.

Front 167

drawer test

Back 167

Identify instability of anterior and cruciate ligaments.

Pt lies supine & flex knee with foot flat on table. Provider places both hands on the lower leg with thumbs on anterior tibia & draws the tibia forward and backwards

Front 168

Lachman test

Back 168

Evaluate ACL integrity.

Flex the knee 10 to 15 degrees with heel on table. Stabilize femur and pull tibia anteriorly.

Front 169

varus and valgus stress test

Back 169

Identify instability of LCL and MCL.

Stabilize the femur and hold ankle. Apply varus force and internal rotation, then apply valgus force and external rotation.

Front 170

Ottawa ankle rules.

Back 170

An ankle x-ray is required only if there is any pain in malleolar zone and any of these findings:bone tenderness at edge of medial or lateral malleolus or inability to weight bear both immediately and in the casualty department.

Front 171

Ottawa knee rules

Back 171

Knee x-ray if:

* age older than 55;

* tenderness at head of fibula;

* isolated tenderness of the patella;

* inability flex the knee to 90 degrees.

Front 172

occlusion of middle cerebral artery can cause

Back 172

alterations in communication, cognition, mobility and sensation;

contralateral homonymous hemianopia; contralateral hemiplegia and hemipareses, motor and sensory loss more in upper and face than in legs

Front 173

occlusion of anterior cerebral artery can cause

Back 173

emotional lability; confusion, amnesia, personality changes; urinary incontinence; contralateral hemiplegia or hemiparesis, greater in lower than upper extremities

Front 174

occlusion of posterior cerebral artery

Back 174

hemianesthesia; contralateral hemiplegia, more in face/upper; visual loss, receptive aphasia; memory deficits.

Front 175

Occlusion of vertebral and basilar arteries can cause

Back 175

unilateral or bilateral weakness of extremities, upper motor neuron weakness face/tongue/throat; diplopia; nausea, vertigo, tinnitus, syncope; dysphagia; dysarthria; confusion & drowsiness.

Front 176

varicocele

Back 176

abnormal tortuosity and dilatation of veins in the spermatic cord. Bag of worms.

Front 177

hydrocele

Back 177

fluid accumulation in the scrotum

Front 178

spermatocele

Back 178

benign cystic accumulation of sperm in the epididymis, usually less than 1 cm

Front 179

skin layers

Back 179

1) epidermis -- tough; 2) dermis -- elastic; 3) separated by basement layers.

Front 180

macule description

Back 180

discrete flat area with change in skin color (freckle), < 1 cm

Front 181

papule description

Back 181

discrete elevation of the skin (eg, nevi), < 1cm

Front 182

nodule definition

Back 182

discrete, palpable elevation of skin, 1-2 cm

Front 183

patch definition (skin)

Back 183

flat, nonpalpable, irregularly shaped macule > 1 cm

Front 184

plaque definition

Back 184

elevated, firm, rough lesion with flat top surface, > 1 cm

Front 185

wheal definition

Back 185

elevated, irregular-shaped area of cutaneous edema (eg, insect bite, hives, allergy)

Front 186

nodule definition

Back 186

elevated, firm, circumscribed lesion, deeper than papule. 1-2 cm diameter

Front 187

tumor definition (skin)

Back 187

elevated and solid lesion, may or may not be clearly demarcated.

Front 188

vesicle definition (skin)

Back 188

elevated, circumscribed, superficial, not into dermis, < 1 cm (eg chickenpox, shingles)

Front 189

bulla definition

Back 189

vesical > 1 cm in diameter (blister)

Front 190

pustule definition

Back 190

elevated superficial lesion, similar to vesical but with purulent fluid

Front 191

cyst definition

Back 191

elevated, circumscribed, encapsulated lesion; in dermis or subcutaneous layer, filled with liquid or semisolid material.

Front 192

telangiectasia

Back 192

fine irregular red lines

Front 193

scale definition

Back 193

heaped up, keratinized cells; flaky skin

Front 194

lichenification

Back 194

rough, thickened epidermis secondary to persistent rubbing, itching or skin irritation

Front 195

keloid definition

Back 195

irregularly shaped, elevated, progressively enlarging scar that grows beyond the boundaries of the wound, caused by excessive collagen formation.

Front 196

scar definition

Back 196

thin to thick fibrous tissue that replaces normal skin following injury or laceration to the dermis.

Front 197

excoriation definition

Back 197

loss of epidermis, linear, hollowed out crusted area

Front 198

fissure definition

Back 198

linear crack or break from epidermis to dermis

Front 199

erosion definition

Back 199

loss of part of the epidermis, depressed, moist, glistening, follows rupture of vesicle or bulla

Front 200

ulcer definition

Back 200

loss of epidermis and dermis, concave, varies in size (eg decubiti)

Front 201

psoriasis description

Back 201

well-circumscribed, dry, silvery, scaling papules and plaques

Front 202

psoriasis pathophysiology

Back 202

multifactorial origin with genetic component & immune regulation, characterized by increased epidermal cell turnover, increased numbers of epidermal stem cells, and abnormal differentiation of keratin.

Front 203

acanthosis nigricans pathophysiology

Back 203

insulin resistance & hyperinsulinism lead to activation of insulin-like growth factor receptors, promoting epidermal growth

Front 204

acanthosis nigricans description

Back 204

symmetric, brown thickening of the skin with plaques or patches of thickened skin with velvety or slightly verrucous texture. Vary in severity.

Front 205

indirect hernia

Back 205

soft swelling in the area of internal ring; hernia comes down canal and touches fingertip on examination

Front 206

direct hernia

Back 206

bulge in area of hesselbach triangle; easily reduced. Hernia bulges anteriorly and pushes against side of finger on examination.

Front 207

femoral hernia

Back 207

inguinal canal is empty on examination

Front 208

strangulated hernia

Back 208

nonreducible, requires prompt surgical intervention

Front 209

menorrhagia

Back 209

regular, normal interval between periods. Excessive flow and duration

Front 210

metrorrhagia

Back 210

irregular interval between periods, excessive flow and duration

Front 211

menometrorrhagia

Back 211

irregular and excessive bleeding during periods and between periods