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458 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
the gonads produce sex cells, or ______ and secrete ______
gametes

steroid (sex) hormones

what are the accessory reproductive organs
ducts

glands


external genitalia

a sperm and egg fuse to form a _____
zygote
______ = the first cell of a new individual from which all body cells will arise
zygote
________ = sex hormones in males
androgens
________= sex hormones in females
estrogen

progesterone

path of sperm from the testes
testes

epididymis


ductus deferens


ejaculatory duct


urethra

what are the accessory sex glands in males
seminal glands

prostate


bulbourethral

the _______ divides the testes
septum
the scrotum provides a temperature of ______ degrees lower than core body temp
3
the ______ muscle wrinkles the scrotal skin
dartos
the dartos muscle is located in the _______ of the scrotum
superficial fascia
the ______ muscles are bands of skeletal muscle that elevate the testes
cremaster
the cremaster muscles arise from the _______ muscles
internal oblique
the testes are surrounded by 2 tunics:
tunica vaginalis

tunica albuginea

outer tunic of the testes is the ____
tunica vaginalis
what ________ is the fibrous capsule of the testis
tunica albuginea
septa extending inward from the tunica albuginea divide the testis into about 350 wedge shaped ______
lobules
each lobule of the testes contains 4 tightly coiled _____
seminiferous tubules
______ = "sperm factories"
seminiferous tubules
seminiferous tubules consist of epithelium containing ______ and ______ cells
spermatogenic cells

sustentocytes

surounding each seminiferous tubule are 3-5 layers of smooth-muscle like ______ cells
myoid
______ cells help squeeze sperm and testicular fluid through the tubules and out of the testes
myoid
the seminiferous tubules of each lobule converge to form a _____________ that convey sperm into the _____
straight tubule

rete testis

_______= a tubular network on the posterior testes that go through here before efferent ductules
rete testis
the sperm leave the rete testes through the _______and enter the _______
efferent ductules

epididymis

three parts of the epididymis
head

body


tail

immature sperm are are stored in the _____ of the ______ until ejaculation
tail

epididymis

_______ cells lie in the soft connective tissue surrounding the seminiferous tubules
leydig cells
_______ cells produce androgens, most importantly ____
leydig

testosterone

leydig cells secrete hormones into the _____
interstitial fluid
testicular arteries and veins arise from a network called _______ that surrounds the scrotum to keep the temperature right
pampiniform plexus
function of the penis
deliver sperm into female reproductive tract
the penis and scrotum hand from the _______
perineum
_______ = enlarged tip of the penis
glans penis
loose skin covering the penis is called the _______ which is usally removed
prepuce
the midventral erectile body is called the ________ that surrounds the urethra
corpus songiosum
the root of the penis is called the _________
bulb of the penis
the muscle that covers the bulb of the penis is called the ______ and secures it to the _______
bulbospongiosus
urogenital diaphragm
the paired dorsal erectile bodies are called the _________ that make up most of the penis
corpora cavernosa
the two corpora cavernosa are bound by the ____
fibrous tunica albuginea
the proximal ends of the corpora cavernosa form the ______ of the penis
crura
each crura is surounded by an _______ muscle and anchors to the _______
ischiocavernosus muscle
pubic arch of the bony pelvis
describe erectile tissue
dense fibrous connective tissue and smooth muscle riddled with vascular spaces that fill with blood
name the accesory ducts of the penis in order from proximal to distal
epididymis
ductus deferens
ejaculatory duct
urethra
describe the tissue of the epididymis
pseudostratified epithelial
nonmotile microvilli
what does the microvilli of the epididymis do
absorb excess tesituclar fluid
pass nutrients to sperm stored in lumen
fluid of the epididymis contain _______, most importantly ___
antimicrobial proteins
defensins
the trip from the testes to the epididymis takes about _______ and what happens during this trip
20
gain ability to swim
sperm is moved through the vas deferens by _____
peristalsis
the vas deferens connects the _____ to the ____
epididymis
ejaculatory duct
three regions of the male urethra
prostatic
membranous
spongy
what are the accessory glands of the male reproductive system
paired seminal glands
paired bulbo-urethral
prostate
what does semen contain
sperm
testicular fluid
accessory gland secretions
______ lie on the posterior bladder surface
seminal vesicles
what does the seminal vesicle contain
fibrous capsule that enclosed a thick layer of smooth muscle that contacts during ejaculation to empty the gland
seminal gland is made up of _______ epithelium
pseudostratified columnar
seminal vesicles secretion:
yellowish viscous alkaline fluid containing
fructose sugar
citric acid
coagulating enzyme vesiculase
prostaglandins
the yellow color of the seminal fluid is due to:
a yellow pigment that fluorecses under UV light
_____ and _____ mix in the ejaculatory duct and enter the _______ together during ejaculation
sperm
seminal fluid
prostatic urethra
seminal gland secretion accounts for _____% of the volume of semen
70
role of prostatic secretion and what does it contain
activates sperm
milky slightly acidic contains citrate, enzymes, and prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
prostatic secretion accounts for ____% of the semen volume
30
______ is the second most cmmon cause of cancer in men
prostate
what is the function of bulbourethral secretion
lubricates the glans penis
mucus neutralizes traces of acidic urine and lubricates the urethra prior to ejactulation
the _____ from the seminal gland secretion provides all fuel needed for sperm ATP synthesis
fructose
______ decrease the viscosity of the mucus guarding the entry of the uterus
prostaglandins
the hormon ______ in semen enhance sperm motiliy
relaxin
pH of semen
7.2-8
what is the amount of semen propelled during ejaculation
2-5mL - 10% sperm (20-150 million sperm per mL)
what are the chief phases of male sexual response
erection of the penis
ejaculation
sexual excitement triggers a _______ reflex that promotes the release of _____ locally
parasympathetic
nitric oxide
role of NO on erection
relaxes smooth muscle in blood vessel walls - dilating arterioles and allowing to fill with blood
how does blood not come out of penis during erection
enlargement of the corpus cavernosa compresses drainage veins - maintianing engorgement
role of corpus spongiosum during erection
keep the urethra open during ejaculation
bulbourethral glands are under ______ control in lubritcating the glans penis
parasympathetic
ejaculation is under _______ control
sympathetic
what are the 3 responses required for ejaculation
1. the bladder sphincter muscle constricts, preventing expulsion of urine or reflux of semen into the bladder
2. the reproductive ducts and accessory glands contract, emptying their contents into urethra
3. semen in the urethra triggers a spinal reflex through somatic motor neurons
speed of ejactulation
11mph
what causes Erectile Dysfunction to occur
parasympathetic nerves do not release enough NO
what are the lifestyle factors of ED
psychological factors
alcohol
drugs
diabetes mellitus
arteriosclerosis
nervous system
diploid is the chromosomal number in ___ cells
body
haploid is the chromosomal number in ____ cells
gamete
number of chromosomes in body cells
46
number of chromosomes in gametes
23
what cellular event must take place before meiosis can begin
one round of DNA replication resulting in 4 daughter cells - each with half as many chromosomes as body cells
why is meiosis I called the reduction division
reduces the chromosome number from 2n to n
prophase I of meiosis I
replicated chromosomes seek out their homologous partners and pair up with them - takes place a discrete spots - called synapsis
synapsis forms:
4 little groups of 4 chromatids called tetrads
during synapsis, a second unique event called _____ happens
crossover
what happens during crossover
form within each tetrad - pairs maternal and paternal chromosomes to exchange genetic material
______ accounts for 90% of the total period of meiosis
Prophase I
what happens during metaphase I of meiosis I
tetrads line up randomly at spindle equator so either the paternal or maternal chromosome can be on a given side
meiosis I results in: (2)
1. two copies of one member of each homologous pair either parternal or maternal and none of the other
2. A haploid chromosomal number, but twice the amount of DNA in each chromo
how many cells are produced by meiosis I, know the chromosome number
2
2n
why is meiosis II called the equational divison of meosis
bc the chromatids are distributed equally to the daughter cells
what are the two important tasks of meosis
1. reduces the chromosomal number by half
2. introduced genetic variability
how many cells are produced by meiosis II? know chromosome number
4
n
fate of type A daughter cell in spermatogenesis
remains at basal lamina to maintain the pool of dividing germ cells
fate of type B daughter cell in spermatogenesis
pushed toward lumen where becomes primary spermatocyte
one primary spermatocyte forms:
4 sperm
where does spermatogenesis take place
outermost tubule cells in direct contact with epitherlial basal lamina
explain spermatocytes to spermatids
spermatocyte -> meiosis I -> 2 seconday spermatocytes -> meiosis II -> 4 spermatids
spermiogenesis is _____ to ______
spermatids to sperm
each spermatid is has the chromosomal number ___
n
what happens during spermiogenesis
spermatid elongates
sheds excess cytoplasmic baggage
forms tail
sperm is also called ____
spermatozoa
three parts of sperm
head
midpeice
tail
what does the head of the sperm contain
flattened nucleus of compacted DNA
acrosome sits ontop of the nucleus containing hydrolytic enzymes that help penetration
what is the function of the sperm midpiece
mitochondiea spiraled around microtubules of the tail
during spermatogenesis, nonreplicating supporting cells called _____ or _____ are formed
sertoli
sustentocytes
sertoli cells extend from the ____ to the _____
basal lamina
tubule lumen
sustentocytes are bound to each other by _______ and divide the ______
tight junctions
seminiferous tubule
the seminiferous tubule is divided into ______ and _____ by sustentocytes
basal
adluminal
the _____ compartment of the seminiferous tubule contains meiotically active cells
adluminal
the tight junctions between the sustentocytes form the ______
blood testis barrier
the blood testis barrier prevents:
membrane antigens of sperm from escaping = would activate immune system
functions of sustentocytes (5)
1. provide nutrients and essential signals to the dividin cells - live or die
2. move the cells along the lumen
3. secrete testicular fluid - provides the transport medium for sperm in the lumen
4. phagocitize faulty germ cells
5. product chemical mediators that help regulate spermatogenesis
what are the chemical mediators that regulate spermatogenesis
inhibin
androgen-binding protein
the _______ regulates the production of gametes and sex hormones
hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis
(HPG)
explain the sequence of events involving the HPG axis
1. hypothalamus released GnRH - releases FSH and LH from anterior pituitary
2. FSH stimulates spermatogenesis by stimulating the sustentocytes to release androgen binding protein - keeps conc of testosterone high
3. LH binds to interstitial endocrone cells surrounding seminiferous toubules - secrete testosterone -> spermatogenesis
4. testosterone stimulates maturation of sex organds, ddevelopment and maintenance of secondary sex characteristics, and sex drive
5. raising levels of testosterone cause inhibit GnRH and inhibit gonadotropin release

hormones that regulate the HPG axis
GnRH
FSH
LH
testosterone
testosterone is synthesized from ___
cholesterol
estrogen and progesterone are produced in _____
ovary
what are the female accessory ducts
uterine tubes
uterus
vagina
what are the ligaments in the female reproductive system
ovarian
suspensory
broad
_______ anchors the ovary medially to the uterus
ovarian ligament
________ anchors the ovary laterally to the pelvic wall
suspensory ligament
________ suspends the ovary inbetween the ovarian and suspensory ligaments
mesovarium
the suspensory ligamenta nd the mesovarium are part of the ______, a peritoneal fold that tents over the uterus
broad ligament
the _______ encloses the ovarian ligaments
broad ligament
the ovarian blood essels reach the ocaries by traveling through the _______ and _____
suspensory ligaments
mesovariua
each ovary is surrounded externally by a fibrous _________
tunica albuginea
the tunica albuginea of the ovaries are covered by a layer of _______ epithelial cells called the ______
cuboidal
germinal epithelium
embedded in the ovary cortex are sac like structures called __________
ovarian follicles
each ovarian follicle contains _______
an immature egg called an oocyte
the cells surrounding the oocyte are called ______ if a single layer, and _______ if more than one layer
follicle
granulosa
single layer of follicle cells surrounding an oocyte is called a _____
primordial follicle
the fully mature follicle can be called three things:
vesicular
antral
tertiary
fully mature follicles have a central fluid-filled cavity called an ______
antrum
describe a mature follicle
extends from the deepest part of the ovarian cortex
bulges from the surface of the ovary
oocyte sits on a stalk of granulosa cells at one side of the antrum
_______ = the event when the follicle ejects its oocyte from the ovary
ovulation
after ovulation, the follicle is transformed into a ______ that is eventually degenerated
corpus luteum
the _______ receive the ovulated oocyte and are the site where fertilization occurs
uterine tubes
the ______ connects the uterine tube and the uterus
isthmus
the distal end of each uterine tube expands as it curves around the ovary, this is known as the ____
ampulla
the ampulla of the uterine tube ends in the ______
infundibulum
______ = an open funnel shaped structure with ciliated fingerlike projections called fimbrae
infundibulum
the _______ on the fimbriae create currents in the peritoneal fluid that carry the oocyte into the uterine tube
cilia
the oocyte is carried toward the uterus by a combination of _____ and _____
peristalsis
beating cilia
nonciliated cells of the mucosa in the uterine tubes contain _______ that produce secretion that keeps the oocyte moist and nourished
dense microvilli
the uterine tubes are covered by ______ and supported by a short mesentery called _____
peritoneum
mesoalpinx
_______ = inflammation in the reproductive tract that can cause scarring of the uterine tubes and ovaries resulting in sterility
pelvic inflammatory disease
the ______ receives, retains, and nourishes a fertilized ovum
uterus
three parts of the uterus
body
fundus
cervix
the _____ is the part of the uterus that projects into the vagina
cervix
the cavity of the cervix is called the _______ that communicates with the vagina via the ______ and with the uterine body via the _____
cervical canal
external s
internal os
the mucosa of the cervical canal contains _______ that secrete a mucus that blocks the spread of bacteria from the vagina into the uterus
cervical glands
________ blocks sperm entry except at the midcycle when it becomes less viscous
cervical mucous
the uterus is supported laterally via a part of the broad ligament called the _____
mesometrium
the _______ extend from the cervix and superior vagina to the lateral walls of the pelvis
cardinal ligaments
the _______ secure the uterus to the sacrum posteriorly
uterosacral
the condition where the muscles tear during childbirth and the uterus sinks until the tip of the cervix protrudes through the external vaginal opening
prolapse of the uterus
blind ended peritoneal pouch between the bladder and uterus
vesicouterine pouch
blind ended peritoneal pouch between the retcum and uterus
rectouterine pouch
three layers of the uterine wall
perimetrium
myometrium
endometrium
the _____ = layer of the uterine wall that contains muscle that contracts during child birth
myometrium
if fertilization occurs, the embryo is implanted into the _______ for the rest of development
endometrium
the endometrium has two chief layers:
stratum functionalis
stratum basalis
the ________ layer of the endometrium undergoes cycle changes in response to blood levels of ovarian hormones
stratum functionalis
the _______ layer is shed during mestruation
stratum functionalis
the _______ layer of the endometrium contains glands and forms a new stratum functionalis after menstruation ends
stratum basalis
the uterine arteries arise from the ________ arteries
internal iliac
the uterine arteries break into ____ and ____ arteries into the endometrium
arcuate
radial
the vascularization of the straum basalis is called the _____ arteries; _______ is in the functionalis
straight
spiral
the wall of the vagina has three layers:
fibroelastic adventita
muscularis
inner mucosa
the inner mucosa of the vagina is marked by ______ that stimulate the penis during intercourse
rugae
the mucosa of the vagina is made up of _____ epithelium
stratified squamous
________ are present in the mucosa of the vagina and act as antigen presenting cels
dendritic
the ________ are thought to provide the route of HIV transmission during intercourse
dendritic cells
the ____ breaks during the first sexual intercourse
hymen
the vagina is very acidic due to:
epithelial cells release glycogen which is metabolized to lactic acid by the resident bacteria
what are the structures of the external genitalia
mons pubis
labia
clitoris
vestibule
________ = rounded area overlying the pubic symphysis that is covered with hair during puberty
mons pubis
outer skin folds of the vagina
inner skin folds
labia majora
labia minora
labia minora enclose the _______ that contain the external openings of the urethra and vagina
vestibule
the vaginal opening contain glands called ________ that release mucus into the vestibule for lubrication
greater vestibular glands
the vestibule and the labia minora come together to form a ridge called the _____
fourchette
anterior to the vestibule is the _____ = small protruding structure composed of erectile tissue
clitoris
the exposed portion of the clitoris is called the _______ and is hooded by a skin fold called the ______
glans of the clitoris
prepuce of the clitoris
the _______ of the clitoris has dorsal erectile columns that become swollen with blood
body
the ______ , in females become engorged with blood and help the vagina grip the penis, and shuts off the ________ which prevents semen from getting into the bladder during intercourse
bulbs of the vestibule
urethral orifice
fxnmammary glands are modified ________ and are part of the _______ system
sweat glands
integumentary
the mammary glands are located within the _____ of the breast
hypodermis
_________ make te areola slightly bumpy and produce sebum
large sebaceous glands
_______ attach the breast to the muscle fascia and dermis
suspensory ligaments
________ within the lobules of the mammary glands produce milk
alveoli
alvolar glands pass the milk into the ______ that open to the outside of the nipple
lactiferous ducts
_______ = production of female sex cells
oogenesis
explain oogenesis
1. diploid stem cells multiply rapidly by mitosis
2. primordial follicles
PUBERTY
3. primary oocytes - surrounded by follicle cells


at puberty, _____ rescuses a small number of growing follicles each month
FSH
in each cycle, one of the rescued follicles is selected to become the ______ and continue to _____
dominant follicle
meiosis I
following meiosis I, two haploid cells are produced - 1 large and 1 small
large cell = ______
smalled cell ________
small - first polar body
large - secondary oocyte
following oogenesis, the ______ becomes ovulated
secondary oocyte
what happens to polar bodys after oogenesis
they degenerate
if no ovulation what happens to the secondary oocyte
become a corpus luteum and degenerates
if ovulation happens what happens to the secondary oocyte
if sperm penetrates goes into meiosis II
two phases of the ovarian cycle
follicular
luteal
_______ = period when the dominant follicle is selected and beings to secrete large amounts of estrogen
follicular phase
how long does the follicular phase last
2 weeks: day 1 - 14
at what point of the follicular phase does ovulation begin
usually at the 14th day
______ = period of corpus luteum activity
luteal phase

what days are the luteal phase
14-28
the ______ phase of the ovarian cycle is always the same in every person
luteal - 14 days
name the 6 events of the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle - state the stage of oogenesis for each
1. primordial follicle becomes primary follicle - 1 year before ovulation
2. primary follicle becomes secondary follicle
3. secondary follicle - late secondary follicle
4. late secondary becomes vesicular follicle
5. ovulation
6. luteal phase
two phases of the follicular phase - what happens
1. gonadotropin preantral phase - intrafollicular paracrines (cytokines and growth factors) control oocyte and follicle development

2. antral phase - directed by FSH and LH - activated follicles grow and primary oocyte in dominant follicle resumes meiosis I
in the late secondary follicle stage, _______ forms by connective tissue and epithelial cells
theca folliculi
as the follicle grows,the thecal and granulosa cells cooperate to produce _______
estrogens
in response to LH, the inner thecal cells produce _______ which the granulosa cells convert to _____
androgens
estrogens
late secondary follicle - oocyte secretes a glycoprotein rich substance that forms a thick transparent extracellular layer called the ______
zona pellucida
no pregnancy -> corpus luteum -> degenerates -> remains is a scar called a ______
corpus albicans
the last two or three days of the luteal phase where the endometrium starts to erode - this is called +_____
luteolytic phase
which hormones interact to produce the cyclic events in the ovaries
GnRH
pituitary gonadotropins
estrogen
progesterone
______ plays an important role on stimulating the hypothalamus to release GnRH
leptin
leptin is directly linked to the amount of ______
adipose tissue
________ inhibit the hypothalamic release of GnRH
estrogens
GnRH stimulates the release of ____ and _____ which prompts the ovaries to secrete hormones
LH FSh
first menstrual period is known as _____
menarche
menstrual cycles usually take _____ years to become regulatory
3
surge of _____ triggers ovulation and formation of the corpus luteum
LH
_______ released by granulosa cells, exerts negative feedback on FSH release
inhibin
what happens when inhibit stops FSH release
only the dominant follicle survives
main function of FSH
graulosa cells of late secondary and vesicular follicles - causes them to release estrogens
main fxn of LH
prods the thecal cells to release adrogens
granulosa cells convert LH and FSH to _____
estrogens
as estrogen levels rise, they inhibit the release of ____ and ____
FSH
LH
the _______ causes the primary oocyte to move from is resting state and it completes the first meiotic division
LH surge
mestruation lasts ______
3-5 days
during menstruation what is happening with ovarian hormones
at their lowest
what happens in the proliferative phase of menstruation
endometrium rebuilds itself - under the influence of rising blood levels of estrogens - induce endometrial cells to synthesize progesterone receptors
what happens to the cervix during proliferative phase of mestruation
mucus becomes thin due to rising estrogen levels - form channels that facilitate sperm passage to the uterus
______ occurs at the end of the proliferative stage (day 14)
ovulation
ovulation occurs in response to:
sudden release of LH from the anterior pituitary
the secretory phase is also known as the ______ phase
postovulatory
how long is the secretory phase
14 days
which phase is the most constant
secretory
what happens during the secretory phase
endometrium prepares for an embryo to implant
1. rising levels of progesterone from the corpus luteum act on the endometrium
2. causes spiral arteries to elaborate - converts the functional layer to a secretory mucosa
3. endometrial glands enlarge, coil and secrete nutrients into the uterine cavity that sustains the embryo until it has implanted in the lining
as progesterone levels rise, what happens to the cervix
mucus becomes viscous - forming the cervical plug - block entry of sperm and pathogens
rising _____ levels inhibit LH release
progesterone
if fertilization has no occured, the corpus luteum degenerates and ______ levels decline
LH
two main fxns of estrogen
1. promote oogenesis and follicle growth in the ovary
2. exert anabolic effects on the female reproductive tract
what are the estrogen-induced secondary sex characteristics
breast development
increasing deposition of subcutaneous fat - hips and breast especially
development of a wider and lighter pelvis
metabolic effects of estrogens
maintaining low total blood cholesterol levels
calcium uptake
______ is an androgen produced by the adrenal cortex that associates the male desire in females
DHEA
causitive agent of gonorrhea
neisseria gonorrhoeae
_______ invades the mucosae of the reproductive and urinary tracts
gonorrhea
symptoms of gonorrhea in males
inflammation of the urethra
painful urination
discharge of pus
symptoms of gonorrhea in women
abdominal discomfort
vaginal discharge
abnormal uterine bleeding

what happens with untreated gonorrhea in males and females
males - urethral constriction and inflammation of duct system
females - pelvic inflammatory disease, sterility
what is the antibiotic used to treat gonorrhea
ceftriaxone
_____ is caused by the bacteria treponema pallidum
syphillis
_____ can be contracted from an infected mother and usually causes death in infants
syphilis
incubation period of syphilis
2-3 weeks
what is the first sign of syphilis
red, painless lesion called a chancre appears at the site of bacterial invasion
if syphilis is untreated, what are the secondary signs that appear several weeks later
pink skin rash all over the body
fever
joint pain
what is after the secondary phase of syphilis
latent period - detectable only by a blood test
tertiary syphilis is known as _______
gummas
what are the symptoms of gummas
destructive lesions of the CNS, blood vessels, bones, and skin
______ is the treatment of choice for all stages of syphilis
penicillin
______ is the largely undiagnosed silent epidemic on college campuses
chlamydia
_______ is the most common bacterial STD
chalmydia
______ is responsible for 20-50% of diagnosed pelvic inflammatory disease
chlamydia
______ is the bacteria causing chlamydia
chlamydia trachomatis
incubation period of chlamydia
1 week
symptoms of chlamydia
urethritis - painful urination, discharge
vaginal discharge
abdominal, rectal, testicular pain
painful intercourse
irregular mestration
URI
_____% of women with chlamydia have no symptoms
80%
newborns infected by chlamydia in the birth canal develop ______ and ___
conjunctivitis - eye infection
pneumonia
chlamydia is treated with ________
tetracycline
________ is the more common curable STI in sexually active women
trichomoniasis
_______ is indicated by yellow-green vaginal discharge with a strong odor
trichomoniasis
genital herpes is caused by the ________ virus
herpes simplex 2
only about _____% of the population displays signs of genital herpes
15
the antiviral drug ______ helps lesions of genital herpes heal and reduces the frequency of flare ups
acyclovir
the _______ gene is the master switch that decides gender
SRY
________ when meiosis distributes the sex chromosomes to the gametes improperly
nondisjunction
females with a single X chromosome is known as ____
turners syndrome
what happns with turners syndrome
females never dvelop ovaries
________ most common sex chromosome abnormality in males
klinefelters syndrome
what happens in klinefelters syndrome
males have Y and two or more X chromosomes = sterile
what happens to males with only a Y chromosome
dies during embryonic development
gonads develop at week 5 and from the _____
masses of mesoderm called gonadal ridges
________ causes the descent of the gonads and the migration is guided by a cord called the ______
testosterone
gubernaculum
_______ is the time frame from last period to birth
gestation (280 days)
_______ to _______ weeks is called embryo
1-8
______ to ______ weeks is called fetus
9-birth
why do very little sperm reach the oocyte
sperm leak from the vagina
destroyed by acidic environment
fail to make it through the cervix
forceful uterine contraction - disperse them
destroyed by resident phagocytes

before the sperm can penetrate an oocyte they must first be ______
capacitated
what happens when sperm are capacitated
in the vagina - motility enhanced and membranes become fragile so the enzymes in their acrosome can be released
how do sperm navigate to the oocyte
contain smell receptors that respond to chemical stimuli
what are the steps of sperm penetration
after breaching corona - sperm head binds to a ZP3 glycoprotein of the zona pellucida -> opens the calcium channels that triggers the acrosomal reaction
what is the acrosomal reaction
release of acrosomal enzymes that digest holes through the zona pellucida
what are the events after the acrosomal reaction
oocyte forms microvilli that surround the sperm head and the membranes of sperm and oocyte fuse - contents enter the oocyte leaving the sperms plasma membrane behind - creating a single membrane
what happens to ensure only one sperm enters the oocyte
waves of Calcium are released by endoplasmic reticulum which activates the oocyte to prepare for the second meiotic division
also causes the cortical reaction
what is the cortical reaction
granules in the plasma membrane spill their enzymes called zonal inhibiting protiens ZIP - destroy the sperm receptors and prevent sperm from entering
what is the true moment of fertilization
maternal and paternal chromosomes combine and produce a zygote
________ is a period of fairly rapid mitotic divisions of the zygote without intervening growth
cleavage
what is the goal of cleavage
produce small cells with a high-surface to volume ratio -> enhances their uptake of nutrients and oxygen and the disposal of wastes
______ hours after fertilization, the first cleavage division of the zygote has produced to identical cells called _______
36

blastomeres

two identical blastomeres divide to produce a cluster of cells called a _______
morula
what happens 4-5 days after fertilization
embryo consists of about 100 cells and begins accumulating fluid within an internal cavity and floats free in the uterus

zona pellucida begins to break down

what happens to the embryo when the zona pellucida breaks down
becomes a blastocyst
blastocysts are fluid filled hollow sphere composed of a single layer of large flattened cells called _____ and a small cluster of 20-30 rounded cells called the ______
trophoblast cells

inner cell mass

after the blastocyst forms, trophoblast cells begin to display _______ molecules on their surface and they take part in:
L-selectin adhesion

placenta formation and secrete immunosuppressive effects that protect the trophoblast from being attacked by the mother cells

the inner cell mass becomes the ________ which forms the embryo proper
embryonic disc
what is the fourth embryonic membrane called
chorion
while the blastocyst floats in the uterine cavity for 2-3 days, it is nourished by the:
glycoprotein-rich uterine secretions that contain steroids and various nutrients including iron and fat soluble vitamins
6-7 days after ovulation, given a properly prepared endometrium, ______ begins
implantation
the receptivity of the endometrium to implantation is called the _________ which is opened by the:
window of implantation

surging levels of ovarian hormones in the blood

if the mucosa is properly prepared for implantation, _____ and _____ proteins on the trophoblast cells bind to the extracellular matrix components: (3) of the endometrial cells
integrin and selectin

collagen, fibronectin, laminin

the trophoblast proliferates to form two distinct layers: the inner layer is called the ______ and the outerlayer is called the _____
cellular trophoblast

syncytial trophoblast

implantation takes about _____ days and is usually completed by the ____ day of ovulation
5

12th day

viability of the corpus luteum is maintained by a hormone called _______ secreted by the _____
hCG

trophoblast cells

hCG overrides ______ controls and prompts the corpus luterum to continue secreting progesterone and estrogen
hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian
_______ is an extraembryonic membrane that that develops from the trophoblast after implantation, this continues the hormonal stumulus from hCG
chorion
hCG is detectable in the mothers blood _____ (time) after fertilization
1 week
blood levels of hCG decline sharply to a low value at ________ (time)
4 months
between the second and the third month of implantation, the ______ assumes the role of progesterone and estrogen and the _________ degenerates
placenta

corpus luteum

all pregnancy tests for _____ in a womans blood or urine
hCG
what is the role of the placenta
provides nutrients and oxygen

carries away metabolic wastes

_______ = a temporary organ that originates from embryonic material and maternal tissues - provides nutrients and oxygen to embryo
placenta
cells from the inner cell mass give rise to a layer of ________ that lines the inner surface of the _____
embryonic mesoderm

trophoblast

the emrbyonic mesoderm and trophoblast become the ______
chorion
the chorion forms _______ that are invaded by embryonic blood vessels
chorionic villi
the chorionic villi extend to the embryo as the _________ and ______
umbilical arteries and vein
the chorionic villi produce large, blood-filled ________ in the stratum functionalis of the endometrium
lacunae
the chorionic villi lie in the ______ that are immersed in maternal blood
lacunae
the part of the endometrium that lies beneath the embry becomes the _______, and the embryo forms the _______
decidua basalis

decidua capsularis

_______ + _______ = placenta
decidua basalis

chorionic villi

when is the placenta fully functional
3 months
blastocyts are converted to ________ in which three primary germ layers are formed
gastrula
the subdivided innercell mass becomes the _____
embryonic disc
the extraembryonic membranes that form during the first 2-3 weeks of development are the: (4)
amnion

yolk sac


allantois


chorion

______ develops when the cells of the epiblast fashion themselves into a transparent membranous sac
amion
amnion fills with ________
amniotic fluid
eventually, the amnion extends all the way around the embryo, broken only by the _______
umbilical cord
what is the function of the amnion (3)
buoyant environment that protects the developing embryo from physical trauma

helps maintain a constant homeostatic temperature


prevents rapidly growing parts from adhering and fusing together



_______ forms from cells of the primitive gut that hangs from the ventral surface of the embryo
yolk sac
the ______ and the ____ resemble two balloons touching each other with the ________- at the point of contact
yolk sac and amnion

embryonic disc

what are the functions of the yolk sac (2)
1. forms part of the gut (digestive tubes)

2. is the source of the earliest blood cells and blood vessels

________ forms a small outpocketing of embryonic tissue at the caudal end of the yolk sac which is a structural base for the umbilical cord
allantois
the umbilical cord links the _____ to the _____ and eventually becomes part of the ______
embryo to the placenta

urinary bladder

the umbilical cord contains:
-core of embryonic connective tissue

-umbilical arteries and vein


-covered externally by amniotic membrane

during week _____ the two layered embryonic disc transforms into a three layered _____ : name the germ layers
ectoderm

mesoderm


endoderm

_______ = process of embryonic disc transforming into embryo
gastrulation
gastrulation begins when a groove with raised edges called the _______ appears on the embryonic disc
primitive streak
the first cells to enter the primitive streak displace the ________ and form the _____
hypoblast cells of the yolk sac

endoderm

as soon as the mesoderm is formed, the cells beneath the primitive streak aggregate to form the ______
notochord
________ = the first axial support of the embryo
notochord
the ectoderm forms the ______ and____
nervous system

skin epidermis

the endoderm forms the:
epithelial linings of the digestive, respiratory, and urogenital systems and associated glands
_______ is a mesenchyme which is an embryonic tissue with star shaped cells that migrate within the embryo
mesoderm
gastrulation sets the stage for the rearrangements that occur during ______
organogenesis
________ = formation of body organs and systems
organogenesis
by the end of ____ weeks, all of the adult organ systems are recognizable
8 weeks
the tube of the endoderm formed by the folding process is called the _________ that becomes the epithelial lining of the GI tract
primitive gut
the first major event in organogenesis is _______
neurulation
________ = the differentiation of ectoderm that produces the brain and spinal cord
neurulation
neurulation is induced by chemical signals from the ______
notochord
the ectoderm overlying the norochord thickens to form the _______ and then folds inward forming the ______
neural plate

neural groove

the ______ cells migrate widely and give rise to the cranial, spinal, and sympathetic ganglia
neural crest
the _______ cells of the adrenal medulla give rise to pigment cells of the skin, and contribute to some connective tissues
chromaffin
by the end of the ________ (time) the three primary brain vessicles are apparent
1st
the first evidence of mesodermal differential is the appearance of the ______ in the _____
notochord

embryonic disc

the notochord is eventually replaced by the ________
vertebral column
the ________ are paired mesodermal blocks that hug the notochord on either side
somites
there are ____ pairs of somites presens by the end of week 4
40
three functional parts of somites
sclerotome

dermatome


myotome

cells of the ______ migrate medially and gather around the notochord and neural tube to produce the vertebra and rib
sclerotome
_______ cells help form the dermis of the skin
dermatome
_______ cells form the skeletabl muscles of the neck and body trunk via their ______
myotome

limb buds

cells of the _______ form the gonads and kidneys
intermediate mesoderm
the __________ mesoderm consists of paired mesodermal plates: (2)
lateral plate

somatic and splanchinic mesoderm

cells of the superior mesodoerm plates help to form (3);
- skin dermis

- parietal serosa of ventral body cavity


- tissues of the limbs

________ cells form the heart and blood vessels and most connective tissues of the body
mesenchymal
the lateral mesodermal layers cooperate to form the serosae of the ________or ventral body cavity
coelom
the first blood cells arise in the ______
yolk sac
most of the blood coming through the umbilical vein enters the ________ which bypasses the liver sinusoids
ductus venosus
the ductus venosus empties into the _______
inferior vena cava
_________ opening in the interatrial septum that allows blood from the R atrium to the L atrium
foramen ovale
_______ trasfers most of the the R ventricle blood directly into the aorta, bypassing the pulmonary ciruit
ductus arteriosus
umbilical arteries branch from the ______
intenral iliac arteries
deoxygenated blood with metabolic wastes from the embryo is delivered back to the capillaries via the ________ of the placenta
chorionic villi
what is the mean duration of pregnancy
38 weeks
during pregnancy: female reproductive organs become engorged with blood and the vagina develops a purplish hue called ________
chadwicks sign
the placental production of the hormone ______ causes pelvic ligaments and pubic symphysis to relax, widen, and become more flexible
relaxin
as placenta enlarges, it secretes increasing amounts of _____ and _____
hPL - human placental lactogen

hCS - human chorionic somatomammotropic

functions of hPL
-stimulates maturation of breasts for lactation

-promotes growth of the fetus


-exerts glucose-sparing effect in mother

nausea and vomiting of women during first few months of pregnancy is releated to:
elevated levels of hCG, estrogens and progesterone
_______ are factors that may cause severe congenital abormalities or fetal death - include alcohol, nicotine, and drugs
teratogens
accomplishments during month 3
retina of eye present

skin obvious


liver prominent and bile sercreted


palate is fusing


blood cell formation begins in bone marrow


limbs molded


sex readily detected



accomplishments during month 4
cerebellum prominent

sensory organs differentiated


eyes and ears shaped


blinking of eyes and sucking motions of lips


glands in GI tract develops


kidneys attain structure


most bones are now distinct

accomplishments during month 5
vernix vasenosa covers body

lanugo covers skin


fetal position assumed



accomplishments during month 6 and 7
substantial increase in weight

myelination of spinal cord


eyes are open


skin wrinkled and red


fingernails and toenails present


bone marrow becomes sole sit of RBC formation



________ = insufficient placental blood supply
preeclampsia
________ = giving birth
parturition
parturition occurs within _____ days of the calculated due date
15
rises in estrogen during last few weeks of pregnancy has 3 important consequences
1. stimulates the myometrial cells of the uterus to form abundant oxytocin receptors

2. it promotes formation of gap junctions between the uterine smooth muscle cells


3. it antagonizes progesterones quieting influce on uterine muscle

results of rise in estrogens on myometrial cells cause false labor contractionsknown as ______
braxton hicks
chemical signals as birth nears:
fetal cells being to produce oxytocin - placenta releases prostaglandins - stimulate smooth muscle
many studies indicated that the _______ acting as paracrines trigger the contractions of true labor and contribute to the thinning and softening of the cervix
prostaglandins
expulsive contractions from oxytocin and prostaglandins are aided by _______, an adhesive that binds to the tissues of the placenta and marternal tissues
fetal fibronectin
-hat are the major events of the dilation stage
labors onset until the cervix is completely dilated by babys head


contractions 15-30 min apart and last 10-30sec


eventually amnion ruptures "breaking water"


longest part of labor 6-12 hours


engagement occurs

_______ occurs when the infants head enters the true pelvis
engagement
what are the main events of the expulsion stage
fulldilation to child birth

contractions every 2-3 minutes that last 1 minute


about 50 min in first birth, 20 minutes in subsequent births


crowning

______ occurs when the largest dimension of the babies head distends the vulva
crowning
when crowning occurs, an ______ may be done to reduce tissue tearing
episotomy
in _____, an infant is in non-vertex position
breech
_______ is when the woman has a deformed pelvis making labor longer and more difficult
dystocia
what are the main events of the placental stage
delivery of the placenta and its attached fetal membranes - called the afterbirthw

30 minutes after the birth of infant

what are the stages of labor
dilation

expulsion


placental

the _______ period is the four-week period immediately after birth
neonatal
1-5 min after bitch, the infants physical status is assesed based on an _______: (5) things assesed
apgar score

heart rate, respiration, color, muscle tone, and reflexes

crucial first requirement of a newborn
breathing
6-8 hours after birth is known as the _________ period - alternating periods of activity and sleep
transitional
umbilical vein becomes the _____ which is the:

ligamentum teres

round ligament of the liver
the ductus venosus becomes the ____
ligamentum venosum on the livers undersurface
_______ is production of milk by the mammary glands
lactation
______ stimulates milk secretion
prolactin
a delay of 2-3 days before milk production begins, the mammary glands secrete a yellowish fluid called _______
colostrum
describe colostrum
less lactose than milk, almost no fat but contains more protein, vitamin A, and minerals

rich in IgA antibodies

______ causes the let-dwon reflex in ejection of milk from the mammary glands
oxytocin
advantages of breast milk for infant (5)
fats and iron better absorbed

amino acids metabolized more efficiently


chemicals IgA and lysozyme prevents infections


natural laxative effect helps cleans the bowels of meconium


encourages bacteria to colonize in large intestines (vit B and K)

_______ = tarry green-black paste containin epithelial cells, bile and substances that are later feces
meconium

_________ are pairs of chromosomes - one from the father and one from the mother

homologous chromosomes

________ = diploid chromosomal complement displayed in homologous pairs

karyotype

the diploid ______ or genetic makeup represents two sets of genetic instructions

genome

_________ - matched genes at the same location on homologous chromosomes

alleles

________ = genetic make up


________ = genotype expressed

genotype


phenotype

what are two important points about metaphase of meiosis I

1. the two alleles determining each trait are segregated - which means they are distributed to different gametes


2. Alleles on different pairs of homo chromos are distributed independently of each other

_________ = mixed contributions from each parents - chromosomes exchange gene segments

recombinant chromosomes

why are disorders caused by dominant genes uncommon

almost always expressed and result in the death of the embryo

examples of recessive diseases

albinism


cystic fibrosis


tay sachs disease

disorder of the brain lipid metabolism causing an enzyme defecit

tay sachs

______ when a heterozygote has a phenotype intermediate between dominant and recessiv

incomplete dominance

_______ is caused by a substitution of one amino acid in the beta chain of hemoglobin

sickel cell

example of multiple allele inheritance

blood type

_______ results in continuous or quantitative phenotypic variation between two extremes and explains many human charateristics

polygene inheritance

example of polygene inheritance

skin color - determined by three different genes

________ are environmentally produced phenotypes that are caused by genetic mutations

phenocopies



_________ small RNAs that replicate themselves and insert their copies into distance DNA sites that disable those genes

transposons

______ control timing of programmed cell death during development

small RNAs

_________ underlie genomic imprinting - maternal and paternal genes turn on or off at the same time

epigenetic

_________ tags genes as paternal or maternal and confers important functional differences in embry

genomic printing

_____ - chemical tags that bind to DNA segments and histones that determine if DNA is available for transcription

epigenetic marks

_____ (number) genes are in the mitochondria and are transmitted by the mother because the ovum donates all cytoplasm- this is called _____

37 - extranuclear inheritance

_______ traces a genetic train through several generations and helps predict the future

pedigree

_______ fetal testing where amniotic fluid is withrrawn

amniosentesis

________ - suctions bits of the chorionic willi from the placenta for examination

chorionic villus sampling