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410 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What constitutes a capacitor?
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Two conductors separated by an insulator.
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What is the purpose of a capacitor?
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It stores electrical energy in electrostatic fields.
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Does a capacitor in an AC circuit cause the current to lead or lag the voltage?
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It causes the current to lead the voltage.
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What is the basic unit of capacitance?
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The farad.
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Why should electrolytic capacitors not be used in an AC circuit?
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They are polarized. An electrolytic capacitor will pass current of one polarity, but will block current of the opposite polarity.
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What is meant by inductance?
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The ability to store electrical energy in electromagnetic fields.
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What is the basic unit of inductance?
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The henry.
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What is an example of an inductor used in a magneto?
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The coil.
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Does an inductor in an AC circuit cause the current to lead or lag the voltage?
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It causes the current to lag behind the voltage.
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How can you find the polarity of an electromagnet?
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Hold the electromagnet in your left hand with your fingers encircling the coil in the direction electrons flow (from negative to positive). Your thumb will point to the north pole of the electromagnet.
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What is meant by impedance?
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The total opposition to the flow of alternating current. It is the vector sum of resistance capacitive reactance, and inductive reactance.
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In what units is impedance measured?
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In ohms.
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What are five sources of electrical energy?
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Magnetism, chemical energy, light, heat, and pressure.
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What is the basic unit of power in a DC circuit?
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The watt.
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What is meant by a kilowatt?
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1,000 watts.
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What is meant by a megawatt?
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1,000,000 watts.
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What is the formula for power in a DC circuit?
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Power = Voltage times current (P = E x I)
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What is the relationship between mechanical and electrical power?
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1 horsepower = 746 watts
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What is meant by true power in an AC circuit?
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The product of the circuit voltage and the current that is in phase with this voltage.
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In what units is true power expressed?
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In watts.
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What is meant by apparent power in an AC circuit?
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The product of the circuit voltage and the circuit current.
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In what units is apparent power expressed?
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In volt-amps.
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What is meant by the reactive power in an AC circuit?
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The power consumed in the inductive and capacitive reactances in an AC circuit. Reactive power is also called wattless power.
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In what units is reactive power expressed?
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In volt-amps reactive (VAR), or kilovolt-amps reactive (KVAR).
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What is meant by power factor in an AC circuit?
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The ratio of true power to apparent power. It is also the ratio of circuit resistance to circuit impedance.
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Which law of electricity is the most important for an aircraft mechanic to know?
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Ohm's law.
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What are the elements of Ohm's law?
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Voltage E, current I, and resistance R (volts, amps, and ohms).
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What is voltage?
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Electrical pressure.
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What is the basic unit of voltage?
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The volt.
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What instrument is used to measure voltage?
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A voltmeter.
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To measure voltage, is a voltmeter placed in series or in parallel with the source of voltage?
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In parallel.
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What is electrical current?
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The flow of electrons in a circuit.
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What is the basic unit of current flow?
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The ampere (amp).
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What part of an amp is a milliamp?
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One thousandth (0.001) of an amp.
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What instrument is used to measure current flow?
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An ammeter.
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What two things happen when current flows through a conductor?
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Head is generated and a magnetic field surrounds the conductor.
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To measure current through a component, is an ammeter placed in parallel or in series with the component?
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In series.
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What is meant by resistance in an electrical circuit?
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The opposition to the flow of electrons.
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What is the basic unit of electrical resistance?
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The ohm.
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What is a megohm?
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One million (1,000,000) ohms.
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What four things affect the resistance of an electrical conductor?
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The material, the cross-sectional area, the length, and the temperature.
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What instrument is used to measure electrical resistance?
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An ohmmeter.
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How can you tell the resistance of a composition resistor?
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By a series of colored bands around one end of the resistor.
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What is meant by continuity in an electrical circuit?
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The circuit is continuous (or complete) when electrons can flow from one terminal of the power source to the other.
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What instrument is used to measure continuity in an electrical circuit?
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An ohmmeter.
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When measuring resistance of a component with an ohmmeter, should the circuit be energized?
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No, there should be no power on the circuit.
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What three things must an electric circuit contain?
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A source of electrical energy, a load to use the energy, and conductors to join the source and the load.
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What are three types of DC circuits with regard to the placement of various circuit components?
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Series, parallel, and series-parallel.
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What is the name of the law that describes the relationship in electrical circuit of voltage, current and resistance?
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Ohm's law.
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What is the basic equation of Ohm's law?
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E = I x R
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What formula is used to find current when voltage and resistance are known?
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I = E/R
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What formula is used to find resistance when voltage and current are known?
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R = E/I
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What happens to the current in a DC circuit if the voltage is increased but the resistance remains the same?
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It increases.
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What happens to the current in a conductor if the length of the conductor is doubled with all other parameters unchanged?
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It would decrease to one half.
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What is the voltage across each resistor connected in parallel across a 12-volt battery?
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12 volts.
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How much current flows through each of three resistors connected in a series if the total current is 3 amps?
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3 amps.
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What is the total resistance of three 12-ohm resistors connected in series?
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36 ohms.
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What is the total resistance of three 12-ohm resistors connected in parallel?
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4 ohms.
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What is meant by the capacity rating of a lead-acid battery?
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The number of hours a battery can supply a given current flow.
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In what units is battery capacity expressed?
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In ampere-hours.
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What electrolyte is used in a lead-acid battery?
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A mixture of sulfuric acid and water.
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Does the specific gravity of the electrolyte in a lead-acid battery increase or decrease as the battery becomes discharged?
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It decreases.
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What is the specific gravity of a fully charged lead-acid battery?
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Between 1.275 and 1.300.
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How many cells are there n a 24-volt lead-acid battery?
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12
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What is the range of temperatures of the electrolyte in a lead-acid battery that does not required a correction when measuring its specific gravity?
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Between 70°F and 90°F.
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What instrument is used to measure the specific gravity of the electrolyte in a lead-acid battery?
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A hydrometer.
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How do you treat a lead-acid battery compartment to protect it from corrosion?
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Paint it with an asphaltic (tar-base) paint or with a polyurethane enamel.
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What is used to neutralize spilled electrolyte from a lead-acid battery?
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A solution of bicarbonate of soda and water.
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How high should the electrolyte level be in a properly service lead-acid battery?
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Only up to the level of the indicator in the cell.
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Why is the closed-circuit voltage of a lead-acid battery lower than its open-circuit voltage?
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Voltage is dropped across he internal resistance of the battery.
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What is the open-circuit voltage of a lead-acid cell?
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2.1 volts.
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What gases are released when a lead-acid battery is being charged?
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Hydrogen and oxygen.
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What precautions should be taken in the maintenance ship where both lead-acid and nickel-cadmium batteries are serviced?
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The two types of batteries should be kept separate, and the tools used on one type should not be used on the other.
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What is the electrolyte used in a nickel-cadmium battery?
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Potassium hydroxide and water.
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Why is a hydrometer not used to measure the state of charge of a nickel-cadmium battery?
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The electrolyte of a nickel-cadmium battery does not enter into the chemical changes hat occur when the battery is charged or discharged. Its specific gravity does not change appreciably.
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Is the electrolyte level of a nickel-cadmium battery lowest when the battery is fully charged or fully discharged?
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Fully discharged.
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What is the result of cell imbalance in a nickel-cadmium battery?
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The low internal resistance allows current to flow between the unbalanced cells and generate heat.
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What is the thermal runaway?
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The large current flow allowed by the low internal resistance causes the middle cells to produce more heat than they can dissipate. The heat further lowers the internal resistance so more current can flow; this continues until the battery destroys itself.
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How may thermal runaway be prevented.
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By carefully monitoring the temperature of the middle cells and controlling the charging current to prevent an excess of current flowing into the battery.
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How is it possible to know when a nickel-cadmium battery is fully charged?
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Completely discharge the battery and give it a constant-current charge to 140% of its ampere-hour capacity.
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What is used to neutralize spilled electrolyte from nickel-cadmium battery?
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A solution of boric acid and water.
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How many views can there be on an orthographic projection?
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Six.
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How many views are used to show most objects in an aircraft drawing?
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Three.
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What information is given in the title block of an aircraft drawing?
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The name and address of the company who made the part, the name of the part, the scale of the drawing, the name of the draftsman, the name of the engineer approving the part, and the number of the part (the drawing number).
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Where is the title block normally located on an aircraft drawing?
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In the lower right-hand corner of the drawing.
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How can you know that the aircraft drawing you are using is the most current version of the drawing?
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By the number in the revision block, and by the log of the most recent drawings.
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What is a fuselage station number?
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The distance in inches from the datum, measured along the longitudinal axis of the fuselage.
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What is a butt line?
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A reference line to the right or left of the center line of the aircraft.
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What is a detail drawing?
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A drawing that includes all the information needed to fabricate the part.
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What is an assembly drawing?
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A drawing that shows all the components of a part in an exploded form. A parts list is included with an assembly drawing.
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What is an installation drawing?
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A drawing that shows the location of the parts and assemblies on the complete aircraft.
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What type of drawing is most helpful in troubleshooting a system?
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A schematic diagram.
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What is a block diagram?
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A drawing that shows the various functions of a system by a series of blocks. These blocks do not include any detail, but instead indicate what happens in each block.
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How are dimensions shown on an aircraft drawing?
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By numbers shown in the break of a dimension line.
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What is the purpose of a sketch of a repair?
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It shows a specific bit of information and includes the minimum amount of detail needed to manufacture the part.
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What are the four steps in making a sketch?
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Block in the space and basic shape used for the sketch.
Add details to the basic block. Darken lines that are to show up as visible lines in the finished sketch. Add dimensions and any other information that will make the sketch more usable. |
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What is the purpose of a center line on an aircraft drawing?
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It divides a part into symmetrical halves.
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When should an aircraft be reweighed?
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After an extensive repair or alteration that could change its weight or center of gravity.
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Why is it necessary to consider the category under which an aircraft is licensed when computing its weight and balance?
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Different categories under which an aircraft can be licensed have different maximum gross weights and different center of gravity ranges.
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Where do you find the leveling means that are specified for a particular aircraft?
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In the Type Certificate Data Sheets for the aircraft.
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What is meant by tare weight?
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The weight of any chocks and other items that are used to hold the aircraft on the scales.
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What must be done with tare weight when an aircraft is weighed?
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It must be subtracted from the scale readings to find the weight of the aircraft.
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Why are the distances of all the items installed in an aircraft measured from the datum when computing weight and balance?
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This makes it possible to find the point about which the aircraft would balance (the center of gravity).
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Which has the more critical center of gravity range, an airplane or a helicopter?
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A helicopter.
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What is included in the empty weight of an aircraft?
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The weight of the airframe, engines, and all items of operating equipment that have fixed locations and are permanently installed in the aircraft. Empty weight includes optional and special equipment, fixed ballast, full reservoirs of hydraulic fluid and engine lubricating oil, and unusable fuel.
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Where is the maximum allowable gross weight of an aircraft found?
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In the Type Certificate Data Sheets for the aircraft.
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What equipment must be installed in an aircraft when it is weighed to find its empty weight center of gravity?
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All the equipment listed in the Aircraft Equipment List as "required equipment" or as equipment that is permanently installed.
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What is meant by permanent ballast for an aircraft?
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Weight that is permanently installed in an aircraft to bring the empty weight center of gravity into allowable limits.
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Is there a Federal Regulation required that all private aircraft be reweighed periodically?
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No.
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What must be done with temporary ballast when weighing an aircraft?
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It must be removed from the aircraft.
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What must be done to find the empty weight of an aircraft if it has been weighed with fuel in its tanks?
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The weight of the fuel and its moment must be subtracted from the weight and moment of the aircraft as it was weighed.
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What is meant by minimum fuel as is used in the computation of aircraft weight and balance?
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No more fuel than the quantity necessary for one-half hour of operation at rated maximum continuous power. It is the maximum amount of fuel used in a weight and balance computations when low fuel may adversely affect the most critical balance conditions.
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What is meant by he maximum zero fuel weight of an aircraft.
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The maximum permissible weight of a loaded aircraft (passengers, crew, cargo, etc.), less its fuel.
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What is meant by undrainable fuel?
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The fuel that is left in the tank, lines and components when the aircraft is placed in level flight position and the fuel drained at the main fuel strainer. This is also called residual fuel.
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Describe the way you would find the empty weight and empty weight center of gravity of an airplane if there are no weight and balance records available.
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The aircraft is weighed, and the empty weight center of gravity is computed. These values are recorded in new weight and balance records started for the aircraft.
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What are two reasons weight and balance control are important in an aircraft?
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For safety of flight and for efficient operation of the aircraft.
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Where is the center of gravity for most airplanes located in relation to the center of lift?
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The CG is normally ahead of the center of lift.
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What is meant by the datum that is used for weight and balance computations? |
It is a readily identified reference chosen by the aircraft manufacturer from which all longitudinal locations on the aircraft are referenced. |
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What is meant by moment in the computation of weight and balance?
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A force that tends to cause rotation. It is the product of the weight of an object in pounds and the distance of the object from the datum in inches.
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How do you find the moment of an item installed in an aircraft?
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Multiply the weight of the item in pounds by its distance from the datum in inches.
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What is meant by the arm of an item installed in an aircraft?
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The distance, in inches, between the center of gravity of the item and the datum.
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Where do you find the arm of an item installed in an aircraft?
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In the Type Certificate Data Sheets for the aircraft.
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What is meant by a moment index?
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A moment divided by a constant such as 10, 100, or 1,000.
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What is meant by he center of gravity range?
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The distance in inches between the forward allowable center of gravity and the rearward allowable center of gravity.
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What is the significance of the empty weight center of gravity range of an aircraft?
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If the empty weight center of gravity falls within the EWCG range, the aircraft cannot be legally loaded in such a way that its loaded center of gravity will fall outside of the allowable loaded CG range. Not all aircraft have an EWCG range.
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Why is the empty weight center of gravity range not given in the Type Certificate Data Sheets for some aircraft?
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The empty weight center of gravity range is given only for aircraft that cannot be legally loaded in such a way that their loaded center of gravity will fall outside of the allowable limits.
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What is meant by the mean aerodynamic chord (MAC)?
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The chord of an imaginary airfoil that has the same aerodynamic characteristics as the actual airfoil.
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What is a loading envelope?
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The enclosed area on a graph of an airplane's loaded weight and the CG location. If lines drawn from the weight and the CG cross within this envelope the airplane is properly loaded.
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What is meant by the permanent ballast for an aircraft?
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Weight that is permanently installed in an aircraft to bring the empty weight center of gravity into allowable limits.
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Where must a record be kept of the current empty weight and the current center of gravity of an aircraft?
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In the aircraft flight manual or weight and balance records required for 14 CFR §23.1583.
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Of what material are most low-pressure rigid fluid lines made?
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1102-1/2 hard or 3003-1/2 hard aluminum alloy tubing.
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Is the size of a rigid fluid line determined by its inside or its outside diameter?
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By its outside diameter.
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When routing a fluid line parallel to an electrical wire bundle, which should be on top?
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The electrical wire bundle should be on top.
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How can you distinguish an AN fluid line fitting from an AC fitting?
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The AN fitting has a shoulder between the end of the flare cone and the first thread. The threads of an AC fitting extend all the way to the flare cone.
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How tight should an MS flareless fitting be tightened?
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Tighten the fitting by hand until it is snug, and then turn it with a wrench for 1/6-turn to 1/3-turn. Never turn it more than 1/3-turn with a wrench.
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What damage can be caused by overtightening an MS flareless fitting?
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Overtightening drives the cutting edge of the sleeve deep into the tube and weakens it.
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What kind of rigid tubing can be flared with a double flare?
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5052-O and 6061-T aluminum alloy tubing in sizes from 1/8-inch to 3/8-inch OD.
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Of what material should rigid fluid lines be made that carry high-pressure (3,000 psi or greater) hydraulic fluid?
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Annealed or 1/4-hard corrosion-resistant steel.
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What is the difference between the flare angle for aircraft and automotive fittings?
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Aircraft fittings have a 37˚ flare angle and automotive fittings use 45˚.
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What should be done to the end of a tube that is to be flared?
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The cut end should be polished to remove any sharp edges that could cause the tubing to crack.
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What is the function of the lay line (the identification stripe) that runs the length of a flexible hose?
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To show the mechanic whether or not the line was twisted when it was installed. The line should be straight, not spiraled.
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Where are quick-disconnect fluid line couplings normally used in an aircraft hydraulic system?
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In the lines that connect the engine-driven pump into the hydraulic system.
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Is the size of a flexible hose determined by its inside or its outside diameter?
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By its inside diameter.
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What is the minimum amount of slack that must be left when a flexible hose is installed in an aircraft hydraulic system?
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The hose should be at least 5% longer than the distance between the fittings. This extra length provides the needed slack.
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What is the principle advantage of Teflon hose for use in an aircraft hydraulic system?
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Teflon hose retains its high strength under conditions of high temperature.
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How much pressure is used to proof-test a flexible hose assembly?
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The varies with the hose, but it is generally about two times the recommended operating pressure for the hose.
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What is the proper type of nondestructive inspection to use for locating surface cracks in an aluminum alloy casting or forging?
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Zyglo or dye penetrant.
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What inspection method would be most appropriate for checking a nonferrous metal part for intergranular corrosion?
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Eddy current inspection.
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What inspection method would be most appropriate for checking the internal structure of an airplane wing for corrosion?
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X-ray inspection.
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How does filiform corrosion usually appear on an aircraft structure?
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As thread-like lines of puffiness under a film of polyurethane or other dense finish system topcoats.
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What inspection method would be most appropriate for checking a steel landing gear component for stress cracks?
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Magnetic particle inspection.
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What type of inspection is best suited for detecting a fault within a piece of nonferrous metal?
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Ultrasonic inspection.
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Explain the procedure to use when making a dye penetrant inspection of a part.
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Clean the part thoroughly, apply the penetrant, and allow it to soak for the recommended dwell time. Remove all of the penetrant from the surface and apply the developer.
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Why is it important that all the parts be thoroughly cleaned before they are inspected by the dye penetrant method?
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Any grease or dirt in a fault will keep the penetrant from seeping into the fault.
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Explain the procedure to use when performing a magnetic particle inspection of a part.
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Thoroughly clean the part, magnetize it as directed by the appropriate service manual, flow the indicating medium over the surface, and inspect it under a "black" light. When the inspection is complete, thoroughly demagnetize the part.
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Why is it necessary to magnetize a part both circularly and longitudinally when inspecting a steel part by a magnetic particle method?
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To detect faults that extend across as well as lengthwise within the part.
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Does circular magnetization detect parts that are across or lengthwise to the part?
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Lengthwise.
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Why is it important that all engine parts which have been inspected by the magnetic particle method be completely demagnetized?
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If the parts are not completely demagnetized, they will attract steel particles that are produced by engine wear and will cause damage to bearing surfaces.
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What is the principle of eddy current inspection?
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A current is induced into a metal being tested by a test probe. The amount of induced current is determined by the conductivity, mass, and permeability of the material, and the presence of any faults or voids.
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Why is it important that a piece of aluminum alloy be quenched immediately after it is removed from the heat-treating oven?
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Any delay in quenching aluminum alloy after it is removed from the oven will allow the grain structure to grown enough that intergranular corrosion is likely to form within the metal.
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What is meant by normalizing a piece of steel after it has been welded or machined?
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Normalizing removes stresses that are locked into the material by welding or machining.
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Explain the way a steel structure is normalized after it has been welded.
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Heat the steel structure to a temperature above its critical temperature and allow it to cool in still air.
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Why is a piece of steel tempered after it has been hardened?
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When steel is hardened, it becomes brittle. Tempering removes some of this brittleness.
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How is steel annealed?
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It is heated to just above its upper critical temperature until it reaches a uniform temperature throughout, then it is allowed to cool very slowly in the oven.
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How is steel hardened?
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It is heated to its critical temperature and quenched in water, brine, or oil.
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What is meant by tempering steel?
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The steel is first hardened; then some of the hardness is removed to relieve some of the internal stresses and brittleness.
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What is meant by case hardening?
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The surface of metal is hardened by the infusion of carbon or aluminum nitride. The interior of the metal remains strong and tough.
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What are two methods of case hardening?
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Carburizing and nitriding.
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How is steel nitrided?
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The steel part is heated in a retort in which there is an atmosphere of ammonia (a compound of nitrogen and hydrogen). Aluminum, an alloying element in the steel, combines with the nitrogen to form an extremely hard aluminum nitride on the surface of the steel.
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Describe the method of solution heat treatment of an aluminum alloy.
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The metal is hardened by heating it in a furnace to a specified temperature and immediately quenching it in water. It is soft when it is removed from the quench, but as it ages it regains its hardness.
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Describe the method of precipitation heat treating of an aluminum alloy.
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The metal is heated and quenched, then it is returned to the oven and heated to a lower temperature. It is held at this temperature for a specified time, then removed from the oven and allowed to cool in the still air. This increases the strength and hardness of the metal.
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What is another name for precipitation heat treatment?
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Artificial aging.
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What is meant by an icebox rivet?
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A rivet made of 2017 or 2024 aluminum alloy. These rivets are heat-treated and quenched, then stored in a sub-freezing ice box until they are ready to be used. The cold storage delays the hardening of the rivet.
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What are the two most commonly used rivet heads?
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MS20470 universal head and MS20426 100˚ countersunk head.
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What alloy is identified by the following rivet codes: A, AD, D, DD, B?
|
A is 1100 aluminum.
AD is 2117-T aluminum alloy. D is 2017-T aluminum alloy. DD is 2024-T aluminum alloy. B is 5056-T aluminum alloy. |
|
|
What mark on the head of a rivet identifies the following alloys: 2117-T, 2017-T, 2024-T, 5056-T?
|
2117-T recessed dot.
2017-T raised dot. 2024-T raised double dash. 5056-T raised cross. |
|
|
What is the meaning of this rivet designation: MS20470AD4-6?
|
MS20470 = Universal head.
AD = 2117-T aluminum alloy. 4 = 4/32 (1/8) inch diameter. 6 = 6/16 (3/8) inch long. |
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|
What type of loading should be avoided when using a self-locking nut on an aircraft bolt?
|
A self-locking nut should not be used for any application where there are any rotational forces applied to the nut or to the bolt.
|
|
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What determines the correct grip length of a bolt used in an aircraft structure?
|
The grip length of the bolt should be the same as the combined thicknesses of the materials being held by the bolt.
|
|
|
How tight should the nut be installed on a clevis bolt that is used to attach a cable fitting to a control surface horn?
|
The nut on a clevis bolt should not be tight enough to prevent the clevis bolt from turning the cable fitting and the horn.
|
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|
What bolt is described by this number AN6-14A?
|
AN6 = Hex head bolt, 6/16 (3/8) inch diameter.
14 = Length = 1-4/8 (1-1/2) inch long. A = The shank is not drilled for a cotter pin. |
|
|
What is indicated by a triangle on the head of a steel bolt?
|
This is a close tolerance bolt.
|
|
|
What is a correct application for self-tapping sheet metal screws on an aircraft?
|
They may be used to hold nonstructural components onto the aircraft.
|
|
|
How can you tell when a self-locking nut must be discarded?
|
When you can screw the nut onto a bolt without having to use a wrench.
|
|
|
What is a channel nut?
|
A series of nuts mounted loosely in a channel that is riveted to the aircraft structure. You can install screws in a channel nut without having to hold the nut with a wrench.
|
|
|
Of what two materials are cotter pins made?
|
Low-carbon steel and corrosion-resistant steel.
|
|
|
What is the smallest size cable that is allowed to be used in the primary control system of an aircraft?
|
1/8-inch diameter.
|
|
|
What type of control cable must be used when pulleys are used to change the direction of cable travel?
|
Extra-flexible cable (7 x 19).
|
|
|
What is the basic wood used for aircraft wing spars?
|
Sitka spruce.
|
|
|
What type of fabric is most widely used for covering aircraft structures?
|
Heat-shrinkable polyester fabric.
|
|
|
What is the alloy number of the most commonly used aluminum alloy for aircraft structural use?
|
2024-T
|
|
|
What is the alloy number of a high strength aluminum alloy that has zinc as an alloying component?
|
7075
|
|
|
Why is it very important that the surface of a piece of clad aluminum alloy not be scratched?
|
The pure aluminum used for the cladding is non corrosive, but the aluminum alloy below the cladding is susceptible to corrosion. If the cladding is scratched through, corrosion could form.
|
|
|
Why is it important that a piece of aluminum alloy be quenched immediately after it is removed from the heat treating oven?
|
Any delay in quenching aluminum alloy after it is removed from the oven will allow the grain structure to grow enough that intergranular corrosion is likely to form in the metal.
|
|
|
Explain the way a piece of aluminum alloy is solution heat-treated.
|
The aluminum is heated in an oven to the proper temperature for a specified time; then it is removed and quenched in water.
|
|
|
What is meant by precipitation heat treatment of a piece of aluminum alloy?
|
After a piece of aluminum has been solution heat-treated, it s held at a specified elevated temperature for a period of time. Precipitation heat treating is also called artificial aging.
|
|
|
What type of composite material is used when stiffness is the prime requirement?
|
Graphite (carbon).
|
|
|
What type of composite material is used when toughness is the prime requirement?
|
Kevlar®.
|
|
|
How does filiform corrosion usually appear on an aircraft structure?
|
As thread-like lines of puffiness under a film of polyurethane or other dense finish system topcoats?
|
|
|
What determines the size of tip that is to be used when gas-welding steel?
|
The thickness of the material being welded. The size of the tip orifice determines the amount of flame produced and thus the amount of heat put into the metal.
|
|
|
How is the welding flux removed from a piece of aluminum that has been gas-welded?
|
It should be removed by scrubbing it with hot water and a bristle brush.
|
|
|
What must be done to a welded joint if it must be rewelded?
|
All traces of the old weld must be removed so the new weld will penetrate the base metal.
|
|
|
What kind of measuring instrument is used to measure the runout of an aircraft engine crankshaft?
|
A dial indicator.
|
|
|
What measuring instruments are used to measure the fit between a rocker arm shaft and its bushing?
|
The outside diameter of the shaft is measured with a micrometer caliper. The inside of the bushing is measured with a telescoping gauge and the same micrometer caliper.
|
|
|
In what increments can a vernier micrometer caliper be read?
|
One ten thousandth (0.0001) inch.
|
|
|
What is an advantage of a vernier caliper over a micrometer caliper?
|
The range of a vernier caliper is far greater than that of a micrometer caliper.
|
|
|
What precision tool is used to measure piston ring side clearance?
|
Thickness gage.
|
|
|
What precision tools are used to measure the inside diameter of a cylinder?
|
A telescoping gage and a micrometer caliper.
|
|
|
What precision tools are used to measure the inside diameter of a small hole?
|
A small hole gage and a micrometer caliper.
|
|
|
What special precautions should be taken when towing an aircraft that is equipped with a steerable nose wheel?
|
Be sure that the nose wheel does not try to turn past its stops. Some aircraft require the torsion links on the nose wheel strut to be disconnected when towing.
|
|
|
What publication lists the standard hand signals used for directing a taxiing aircraft?
|
ASA-AMT-G, General textbook, page 629.
|
|
|
What action should a mechanic take while taxiing an aircraft on a runway if the tower shines a flashing red light at him?
|
Taxi the aircraft clear of the runway in use.
|
|
|
What type of fire extinguisher is best suited for extinguishing an induction fire in a reciprocating engine?
|
Carbon dioxide (CO₂).
|
|
|
What is proper way to extinguish an induction system fire that occurs when starting a reciprocating engine?
|
Keep the engine running, which will blow the fire out. If this does not work, use a CO₂ fire extinguisher directed into the carburetor air inlet.
|
|
|
When starting an aircraft engine equipped with a float carburetor, in what position should the carburetor heat control be placed?
|
In the Cold position.
|
|
|
What is meant by a liquid lock on the cylinder of an aircraft engine, and how is it cleared?
|
Oil accumulates in the cylinders below the center line of the engine and prevents the piston from moving to the top of its stroke. To clear a liquid lock, remove one of the spark plugs and turn the engine crankshaft until all of the oil is forced out of the cylinder.
|
|
|
What is the procedure if a hung start occurs when starting a turbojet engine?
|
Terminate the starting operation and find the reason the engine would not accelerate as it should.
|
|
|
How far ahead of an idling turbojet engine does the danger area extend?
|
25 feet.
|
|
|
Why is it important that the aircraft and the fuel truck be grounded together before the aircraft is fueled?
|
Grounding prevents the buildup of static electricity that causes sparks that could ignite the fuel vapors.
|
|
|
What information must be located near the fuel tank filler opening in an aircraft powered by a reciprocating engine?
|
The word "Avgas," the minimum fuel grade.
|
|
|
What information must be located near the fuel tank filler opening in an aircraft powered by a turbine engine?
|
The words "Jet Fuel," the permissible fuel designations, or references to the Airplane Flight Manual (AFM) for permissible fuel designations; additionally, for pressure fueling systems, the maximum permissible fueling supply pressure and the maximum permissible defueling pressure.
|
|
|
What should be done to a reciprocating engine fuel system if turbine fuel is inadvertently put into the tanks and the engine is run?
|
The entire fuel system must be drained and flushed with gasoline, the engine given a compression check, and all of the cylinders given a borescope inspection. The oil must be drained and all of the filters and strainers checked. After the aircraft is properly fueled, the engine must be given a proper run-up and check.
|
|
|
What precaution must be observed regarding the tools used when servicing an aircraft oxygen system?
|
Be sure that there is no oil or grease on the tools. Pure oxygen can cause spontaneous combustion of petroleum products.
|
|
|
What kind of rope is best to tie down an aircraft?
|
Nylon or polypropylene.
|
|
|
What kind of knot is used for securing an airplane with a rope?
|
Bowline.
|
|
|
Why is it important that turbine fuel not be mixed with aviation gasoline used in an aircraft reciprocating engine?
|
The turbine engine fuel will cause the engine to detonate severely.
|
|
|
What grade of aviation gasoline is dyed blue?
|
Low-lead Grade-100.
|
|
|
What damage is likely to occur if an aircraft reciprocating engine that is designed to use grade 100 fuel is operated with grade 80 fuel?
|
Detonation will occur, leading to bent connecting rods, burned pistons, and cracked cylinder heads.
|
|
|
What is meant by detonation in an aircraft reciprocating engine?
|
Detonation is an uncontrolled burning of the fuel in the cylinder of an engine. It is an explosion, rather than a smooth burning.
|
|
|
What is the danger of using fuel that vaporizes too readily?
|
Vapor lock can occur in the fuel lines. This will shut off the flow of fuel to the engine.
|
|
|
What type of fuel is Jet-A?
|
A fuel with a heavy kerosine base, a flash point of 110-150°F, a freezing point of -40°F, and a heat energy content of 18,600 Btu/pound.
|
|
|
What are two functions of tetraethyl lead that is added to aviation gasoline?
|
It increases the critical pressure and temperature of the fuel, and it acts as a lubricant for the valves.
|
|
|
What documentation is required for a certificated aircraft to legally operate on automotive gasoline?
|
There must be a Supplemental Type Certificate for the aircraft to operate on automotive gasoline.
|
|
|
What is used to clean transparent plastic windshields and windows of an aircraft?
|
Mild soap and lots of clean water.
|
|
|
What is used to neutralize the electrolyte from a lead-acid battery that has been spilled on an aircraft structure?
|
A solution of bicarbonate of soda and water.
|
|
|
What is used to neutralize the electrolyte from a nickel-cadmium battery that has been spilled on an aircraft structure?
|
A solution of boric acid and water, or vinegar.
|
|
|
What solvent is recommended for removing grease from aircraft fabric prior to doping it?
|
Methyl Ethyl Ketone (MEK) or lacquer thinner.
|
|
|
Where is filiform corrosion most likely to occur on an aircraft?
|
Under a dense coating a topcoat enamel such as polyurethane. Filiform corrosion is caused by improperly cured primer.
|
|
|
Where is fretting corrosion most likely to occur on an aircraft?
|
In a location where there is a slight amount of relative movement between two components, and no way for the corrosive residue to be removed as it forms.
|
|
|
Where is intergranular corrosion most likely to occur on an aircraft?
|
Along the grain boundaries of aluminum alloys that have been improperly heat-treated. Extruded aluminum alloy is susceptible to intergranular corrosion.
|
|
|
Where is dissimilar metal corrosion most likely to occur on an aircraft?
|
Anywhere different types of metal come in contact with each other, especially where moisture is present.
|
|
|
Where is stress corrosion most likely to occur on an aircraft?
|
In any metal component that is continually under tensile stress. The metal around holes in castings fitted with pressed-in bushings is susceptible to stress corrosion.
|
|
|
What must be done to a piece of aluminum alloy to remove surface corrosion and to treat the metal to prevent further corrosion?
|
Remove the corrosion residue with a bristle brush or nylon scrubber. Neutralize the surface with chromic acid or with some type of conversion coating. Protect the surface from further corrosion with a coat of paint.
|
|
|
What is used to keep corrosion from forming on structural aluminum alloy?
|
An oxide coating or aluminum cladding.
|
|
|
How may rust be removed from a highly stressed metal part?
|
By glass bead blasting, by careful polishing with mild abrasive paper, or by using fine buffing compound on a cloth buffing wheel.
|
|
|
What tools are proper for removing corrosion from aluminum alloy?
|
Aluminum wool or aluminum wire brushes. Severe corrosion can be removed with a rotary file.
|
|
|
What can be used to repair the anodized surface of an aluminum alloy part?
|
A chemical conversion coating such as Alodine.
|
|
|
What type of device is used to remove surface corrosion from a piece of magnesium alloy?
|
A stiff hog-bristle brush.
|
|
|
How is the inside of structural steel tubing protected from corrosion?
|
The tubing is filled with hot linseed oil and then drained.
|
|
|
What is meant by the root of a number?
|
The root of a number is one of two or more equal numbers that, when multiplied together, will produce the number.
|
|
|
What is the eighth power of 2?
|
256
|
|
|
What is the square root of 4,096?
|
64
|
|
|
What is the square of 99?
|
9801
|
|
|
What is the cube of 5?
|
125
|
|
|
What is the cube root of 1,000?
|
10
|
|
|
What is the base of this expression, 10³?
|
10
|
|
|
What is the exponent in this expression, 10³?
|
3
|
|
|
What is meant by scientific notation?
|
A method of writing very large or very small numbers using powers of 10.
|
|
|
What is an angle?
|
A figure formed by two lines radiating from a common point.
|
|
|
What is meant by a right angle?
|
An angle of 90°.
|
|
|
What is an obtuse angle?
|
An angle greater than 90° but less than a straight line.
|
|
|
What is an acute angle?
|
An angle between 0° and 90°.
|
|
|
What is a quadrant?
|
One fourth of a circle.
|
|
|
What is a sector?
|
The portion of a circle bounded by two radii and one of the intercepted arcs.
|
|
|
What is a polygon?
|
A closed figure having three or more sides.
|
|
|
What is an acute triangle?
|
A triangle with three acute angles.
|
|
|
What is an obtuse triangle?
|
A triangle with one obtuse angle.
|
|
|
What is a right triangle?
|
A triangle containing a 90° angle.
|
|
|
What is an equilateral triangle?
|
A triangle with three equal sides.
|
|
|
What is an isosceles triangle?
|
A triangle with two equal sides.
|
|
|
What is a scalene triangle?
|
A triangle in which no two sides are equal.
|
|
|
What is the hypotenuse of a right triangle?
|
The side opposite the right angle.
|
|
|
What is a quadrilateral?
|
A polygon having four sides.
|
|
|
What is a parallelogram?
|
A closed four-sided figure in which the opposite sides are parallel.
|
|
|
What is a trapezoid?
|
A closed four-sided figure in which only one pair of opposite sides are parallel.
|
|
|
What is a hexagon?
|
A closed figure with six equal sides.
|
|
|
What formula is used to find the area of a circle?
|
A = 0.7854 ⋅ D² or, A = π ⋅ R²
|
|
|
What formula is used to find the volume of a cylinder?
|
V = 0.7854 ⋅ D² ⋅ H
|
|
|
What formula is used to find the area of a rectangle?
|
A = L ⋅ W
|
|
|
What formula is used to find the volume of a rectangular solid?
|
V = L ⋅ W ⋅ H
|
|
|
What formula is used to find the area of a triangle?
|
A = (B ⋅ H) ÷ 2
|
|
|
What is the significance of the constant π?
|
Pi (π) is the constant amount the circumference of a circle is greater than its diameter.
|
|
|
What is the value of the constant π?
|
= 3.1416
|
|
|
What is meant by a ratio and how is a ratio expressed?
|
A fraction that compares one number to another; for example, 6:2 is a ratio.
|
|
|
What is meant by a proportion?
|
A statement of equality between two ratios; for example, (a/b) = (b/c) is a proportion.
|
|
|
What is meant by a percentage?
|
A fraction having 100 as the denominator.
|
|
|
What is meant by a negative number?
|
A number less than 0, or a number preceded by a minus (-) sign.
|
|
|
What steps are used to add signed numbers?
|
1. Add all numbers having a plus sign.
2. Add all numbers having a minus sign. 3. Of these answers, subtract the smaller from the larger number. The sign of the answer will be the sign of the larger number. |
|
|
What steps are used to subtract signed numbers?
|
1. Change the sign of the subtrahend (the number that is being subtracted).
2. If the signs are alike, add the two numbers and attach the common sign. 3. If the signs are different, subtract the smaller from the larger and give the answer the sign of the larger. |
|
|
What steps are used to multiply signed numbers?
|
1. Multiply the numbers, disregarding the signs.
2. If the signs of the two numbers are alike, the sign of the answer is positive. 3. If the signs of the two numbers are not alike, the sign of the answer is negative. |
|
|
What steps are used to divide signed numbers?
|
1. Disregard the signs and divide as though the numbers had no sign.
2. If the signs of the two numbers are alike, the sign of the answer is positive. 3. If the signs of the two numbers are not alike, the sign of the answer is negative. |
|
|
What records must be made of a 100-hour inspection before the aircraft is approved for return to service?
|
An entry must be made in the aircraft maintenance records that describes the type, the extent, and the date of the inspection; the aircraft total time in service; and the signature, certificate type, and number of the person approving or disapproving the aircraft for return to service.
|
|
|
What record must be made of the compliance of an Airworthiness Directive?
|
An entry must be made in the aircraft maintenance records stating that the AD has been complied with. This entry must include the AD number and revision date, the date of compliance, the aircraft total time in service, the method of compliance, and whether or not this is a recurring AD. If it is a recurring AD, the time of next compliance must be noted.
|
|
|
Where can you find an example of the correct type of write-up to use for recording a 100-hour inspection in the aircraft maintenance records?
|
In 14 CFR §43.11.
|
|
|
What action must a mechanic take if the aircraft he is inspecting on a 100-hour inspection fails because of an unairworthy component?
|
The aircraft maintenance records must indicate that the aircraft has been inspected and found to be in an unairworthy condition because of certain discrepancies. A signed and dated list of these discrepancies must be given to the owner or lessee of the aircraft.
|
|
|
What record must be made of a major repair to an aircraft structure?
|
An FAA Form 337 must be completed for the repair, and a record must be made in the aircraft maintenance records referencing the Form 337 by its date.
|
|
|
How many copies must be made of a Form 337 after a major airframe repair? What is the disposition of each copy?
|
At least two copies must be made. The original signed form goes to the aircraft owner, and a copy goes to the FAA district office.
|
|
|
Who is authorized to perform an annual inspection on an aircraft?
|
A certificated A&P mechanic who holds an Inspection Authorization.
|
|
|
Who is authorized to perform a 100-hour inspection on an aircraft?
|
A certificated mechanic who holds an Airframe and a Powerplant rating.
|
|
|
For how long must the record of a 100-hour inspection be kept?
|
For one year or until the next 100-hour inspection is completed.
|
|
|
Can a certificated A&P mechanic supervise an unlicensed person as the unlicensed person performs a 100-hour inspection on an aircraft?
|
No, a certificated mechanic must personally perform the inspection.
|
|
|
Where can you find a list of the basic items that must be inspected on a 100-hour inspection?
|
In 14 CFR Part 43, Appendix D.
|
|
|
What is done with the aircraft maintenance records that include the current status of the applicable Airworthiness Directives when the aircraft is sold?
|
These maintenance records must be transferred with the aircraft when it is sold.
|
|
|
What is meant by a progressive inspection?
|
An inspection that is approved by the FAA FSDO in which an aircraft is inspected according to an approved schedule. This schedule allows the complete inspection to be conducted over a period of time without having to keep the aircraft out of service as long as would be necessary to perform the entire inspection at one time.
|
|
|
Who is authorized to rebuild an aircraft engine and issue a zero time maintenance record?
|
Only the manufacturer of the engine or a facility approved by the manufacturer.
|
|
|
What is meant by matter?
|
Anything that occupies space and has weight.
|
|
|
What are the three basic physical states in which matter can exist?
|
Solid, liquid, and gas.
|
|
|
What is meant by pressure?
|
Force that acts on a unit of area.
|
|
|
What is the standard sea level atmospheric pressure expressed in inches of mercury and in pounds per square inch?
|
29.92 inches of mercury and 14.69 pounds per square inch.
|
|
|
What characteristic of the atmosphere determines the speed of sound?
|
Its temperature.
|
|
|
What is meant by the fulcrum of a lever?
|
The point about which the lever rotates.
|
|
|
Give an example of a first-class lever, a second-class lever, and a third-class lever.
|
First-class: A screwdriver being used to pry the lid from a can of paint.
Second-class: A wheelbarrow. Third-class: A hydraulically retracted landing gear. |
|
|
What formula is used to find the amount of work done when an object is moved across a floor?
|
Work = Force ⋅ Distance
|
|
|
What determines the mechanical advantage of an arrangement of ropes and pulleys?
|
The number of ropes that support weight.
|
|
|
What determines the mechanical advantage of a gear train?
|
The ratio between the number of teeth on the drive gear and the number of teeth on the driven gear.
|
|
|
What is meant by the resonant frequency of an aircraft structure?
|
The frequency that produces the greatest amplitude of vibration in the structure.
|
|
|
What is the principle upon which ultrasonic inspection is based?
|
Any fault within a material will change the material's resonant frequency. Comparing the resonant frequency of a known sound material with the material under test will indicate the presence of a fault.
|
|
|
What are two types of fluids?
|
Liquid and gaseous.
|
|
|
What is meant by the density of a fluid?
|
The mass-per-unit volume of the fluid.
|
|
|
What is meant by the specific gravity of a fluid?
|
The ratio of the density of the fluid to the density of pure water.
|
|
|
What effect does the increase in temperature of a confined gas have on its pressure?
|
When the volume of a gas remains constant, an increase in its temperature increases its pressure.
|
|
|
What effect does an increase in the volume of a gas have on its temperature if its pressure remains constant?
|
As the volume of a gas increases with a constant pressure, the temperature decreases.
|
|
|
What effect does an increase in the pressure of a confined gas have on its temperature?
|
Increasing the pressure of a confined gas increases its temperature.
|
|
|
What is the difference in the fluids used in a hydraulic system and those used in a pneumatic system?
|
Fluid used in a hydraulic system is incompressible. Fluid used in a pneumatic system is compressible.
|
|
|
What effect on density altitude is caused by an increase in air temperature?
|
As the temperature increases, the air density decreases and the density altitude increases.
|
|
|
What effect does an increase in density altitude have on engine performance?
|
As density altitude increases, air density decreases and engine performance decreases.
|
|
|
What effect does high humidity have on piston engine performance?
|
Water vapor is less dense than dry air and thus high humidity decreases the density of the air. The less dense air decreases engine performance.
|
|
|
What does the specific gravity of the electrolyte of a lead-acid aircraft battery indicate?
|
The amount of acid relative to the water in the electrolyte. This is an indication of the state of charge of the battery.
|
|
|
How much force is produced by 1,000 psi of hydraulic pressure acting on a piston with an area of 20 square inches?
|
20,000 pounds.
|
|
|
How many cubic inches of fluid is forced out of a cylinder by a piston with an area of 20 square inches, when the piston moves five inches?
|
100 cubic inches.
|
|
|
What will happen to the pressure of a confined gas if the temperature of the gas is increased?
|
The pressure will increase.
|
|
|
What is meant by a temperature of absolute zero?
|
The temperature at which all molecular movement stops.
|
|
|
What is the Celsius equivalent of a temperature of 50°F?
|
10°C
|
|
|
What are three methods of heat transfer?
|
Conduction, convection and radiation.
|
|
|
What is meant by the absolute humidity of the atmosphere?
|
The actual amount of water that is in a given volume of air.
|
|
|
What causes ice to change into liquid water?
|
The absorption of heat energy.
|
|
|
What happens inside a solid material when it absorbs heat energy?
|
The molecules within the material move faster.
|
|
|
What is the basic unit of heat in the English system?
|
British Thermal Unit.
|
|
|
How much work will one Btu of heat energy perform?
|
778 foot-pounds of work.
|
|
|
What is the basic unit of heat in the Metric system?
|
Calorie.
|
|
|
How much heat energy is in a small calorie?
|
The amount of heat energy that will raise the temperature of 1 gram of water 1°C.
|
|
|
How much heat energy is in a large calorie (Calorie)?
|
The amount of heat energy that will raise the temperature of 1 kilogram of water 1°C.
|
|
|
What is the first law of thermodynamics?
|
Heat energy can neither be created nor destroyed, it can only be changed in its form.
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What is the second law of thermodynamics?
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Heat energy can only flow from a body having a high temperature to a body having a lower temperature.
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What is an example of heat transfer by conduction?
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Removal of heat from an engine cylinder by air flowing over its surface.
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What is an example of heat transfer by convection?
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The uniform heating of the air in a room by a floor heater. The heated air rises and forces the cooler air down so it can be heated by conduction.
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What is an example of heat transfer by radiation?
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The heating of the Earth's surface by heat transmitted through space from the sun.
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Why do most metals expand when they are heated?
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As heat is absorbed, the electrons move faster and expand their orbits in the molecules of the metal.
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What is meant by the density of air?
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The weight of a given volume of air.
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What is meant by relative wind with regard to an airfoil?
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The direction the wind strikes an airfoil.
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What is meant by an angle of attack?
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The acute angle formed between the chord line of an airfoil and the direction the air strikes the airfoil.
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What is meant by the critical angle of attack?
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The highest angle of attack at which the air passes over the airfoil in a smooth flow. Above the critical angle of attack the airflow breaks away and becomes turbulent.
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What is meant by the stagnation point of an airfoil?
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The point on the leading edge of an airfoil at which the airflow separates, some flowing over the top and some over the bottom.
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What is the difference between speed and velocity?
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Speed is the rate at which an object is moving. Velocity is the vector quantity that expresses both the rate and direction an object is moving.
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What is meant by air density?
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The mass o air in a given volume.
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What is meant by weight?
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The measure of the force of gravity acting on a body.
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What is meant by thrust?
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The forward aerodynamic force produced by a propeller, fan, or turbojet engine as it forces a mass of air to the rear, behind the airplane.
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What is meant by drag?
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The aerodynamic force acting in the same plane as the relative wind striking an airfoil. Drag acts in the direction opposite to that of thrust.
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What is meant by autorotation in a helicopter?
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The aerodynamic force that causes a helicopter rotor to spin with no engine power applied to the rotor system.
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What is meant by dissymmetry of lift produced by a helicopter rotor?
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The difference in lift between the two sides of the rotor disc when the helicopter is in forward flight. The side with the advancing blade produces the greater lift because forward speed adds to the rotor speed. The side with the retreating blade produces less lift because the forward speed subtracts from the rotor speed.
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What is meant by a blade stall of a helicopter rotor?
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A condition of flight in which the retreating blade is operating at an angle of attack higher than will allow for the air to flow over its upper surface without turbulence.
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What is meant by translational lift in a helicopter?
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The additional lift produced by a helicopter rotor as the helicopter changes from hovering to forward flight.
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What is meant by ground effect in helicopter flight?
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An increase in lift when a helicopter is flying at an altitude of less than half the rotor span. This increase is produced by the effective increase in the angle of attack caused by the deflection of the downwashed air.
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What is meant by ground resonance in a helicopter?
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The destructive vibration that occurs when the helicopter touches down roughly and unevenly. The shock throws a load into the lead-lag hinges of the rotor blades and causes them to oscillate about this hinge. If the frequency of this oscillation is the same as the resonant frequency of the fuselage, the energy will cause the helicopter to strike the ground hard with the opposite skid or wheel. If corrective action is not taken immediately, ground resonance can destroy the helicopter.
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What is a Type Certificate Data Sheet?
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A document that sets forth essential factors and other considerations which are necessary for U.S. airworthiness certification of aircraft, engines and propellers.
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What are Aircraft Specifications?
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Documents that include basically the same information as the TCDS but are issued for aircraft, engines, and propellers certificated under the Air Commerce Regulations.
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What document specifies the type of fuel that should be used in an airplane?
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The TCDS for that airplane.
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What document would you use to find the control surface movement for a specified airplane?
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The TCDS for that airplane.
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Why is it necessary to refer to the TCDS for an airplane when conducting a 100-hour inspection?
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The TCDS includes the specifications required for the aircraft to maintain its airworthy status.
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Who issues a service bulletin and what is its purpose?
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It is issued by the manufacturer and used to outline procedures to make the product operate more efficiently and/or safer.
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May the data in an aircraft maintenance manual be used as approved data for an aircraft repair?
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Yes. An aircraft maintenance manual is an FAA-approved document.
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Where would you find the dimensional tolerances for the wrist pin fit in an aircraft engine?
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In the overhaul manual for that engine.
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What document would you use to find an approved repair for a damaged wing spar?
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The structural repair manual for the aircraft.
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What document would you use to find the part number for a landing light bulb for an airplane?
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The illustrated parts catalog.
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What document would you use to troubleshoot a malfunctioning electrical flap system?
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The aircraft wiring diagram manual.
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Where would you find the empty weight of an airplane?
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In the aircraft weight and balance manual.
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What FAA publication describes methods of nondestructive testing?
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AC 43-3 Nondestructive Testing in Aircraft.
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What is the purpose of a minimum equipment list (MEL)?
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An MEL permits operations with certain inoperative items of equipment for the minimum period of time necessary until repair or replacement can be accomplished.
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What is a master minimum equipment list (MMEL)?
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A document approved by the FAA that lists the minimum operative instruments and equipment required for safe flight in that aircraft type in each authorized operating environment.
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What are "Instructions for Continued Airworthiness"?
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A document prepared by the operator of a helicopter and approved by the FAA that explains the maintenance that will be performed. This document is described in 14 CFR Part 27, Appendix A.
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What is an approved flight manual (AFM) or pilot's operating handbook (POH)?
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Required documents that must be carried in an aircraft that list the operating limitations specific to that aircraft and its engines.
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Are instructions included in the Federal Regulations mandatory or optional?
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They are mandatory.
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What is the purpose of 14 CFR Part 43?
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It describes maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, and alteration of certificated aircraft.
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Who is authorized to approve an aircraft for return to service after a major repair?
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An aircraft mechanic holding an Inspection Authorization.
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Who is authorized to perform preventive maintenance on an aircraft that is not flown under Part 121, 127, 129, or 135?
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The holder of a pilot certificate that flies that particular aircraft.
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Who is authorized to rebuild an aircraft engine and issue a zero-time record?
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The manufacturer of the engine or a facility approved by the manufacturer.
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Who is authorized to approve an aircraft for return to service after a minor alteration has been performed on the airframe?
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A certificated mechanic holding an airframe rating.
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What is the purpose of an AD?
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It provides guidance and information to owners and operators of aircraft informing them of the discovery of a condition that prevents the aircraft from continuing to meet its conditions or airworthiness.
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What is the first step in the issuance of an AD?
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A notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) is published in the Federal Register.
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How is information on an AD disseminated?
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It is printed and distributed by first class mail to the registered owners and certain know operators of the product(s) affected.
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What type of AD may be adopted without an NPRM?
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ADs of an urgent nature are issued as immediately adopted rules without prior notice.
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How is information on an emergency AD sent to the owner or operator of an affected aircraft or other product?
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By first-class mail, telegram, or other electronic method.
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What publication lists all of the ADs that apply to aircraft, engines, propellers, or appliances?
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AC 39-6 Summary of Airworthiness Directives.
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How can you get information on subscribing to the Airworthiness Directives?
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Contact FAA, Manufacturing Standards Section (AFS-613), PO Box 26460, Oklahoma City, OK 73125-0460.
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What is the significance of the identification number 91-08-07 R1?
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91--This AD was issued in 1991.
08--This AD was issued in the eighth biweekly period (15th or 16th week) of 1991. 07--This is the seventh AD issued during this period. R1--This is the first revision of this AD. |
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Is it mandatory that the information in an AC be complied with?
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No, this information is advisory in nature.
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With which part of 14 CFR is AC 43.13-1B associated?
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14 CFR Part 43.
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May all of the information in AC 43.13-1B be used as approved data?
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No, it is acceptable, but not necessarily approved data.
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What is the purpose of General Aviation Airworthiness Alerts?
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They contain information gleaned from Malfunction and Defect Reports to warn maintenance personnel of problems that have been reported.
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What is the minimum age for a mechanic certificate?
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18 years.
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What are the two ratings that can be issued to a mechanic certificate?
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Airframe and Powerplant.
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How many months of practical experience is needed to qualify for the mechanic rating with both Airframe and Powerplant ratings?
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30 months.
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What can be used in place of the 30 months of experience to qualify to take the mechanic tests?
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A certificate of completion from a certificated aviation maintenance technician school.
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What type of experience is required to take the tests for mechanic certification?
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Practical experience with the procedures, practices, materials, tools, machine tools, and equipment generally used in constructing, maintaining, or altering airframes, or powerplants appropriate to the rating sought.
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What tests are used to demonstrate that a mechanic applicant has the proper knowledge?
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The written knowledge tests.
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What tests are used to demonstrate that a mechanic applicant meets the minimum skill requirements?
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The oral and practical tests.
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What certificate and ratings are required for a mechanic to conduct a 100-hour inspection and approve the aircraft for return to service?
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A mechanic certificate with both airframe and powerplant ratings.
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What certificate and ratings are required for a mechanic to conduct an annual inspection and approve the aircraft for return to service?
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A mechanic certificate with an Inspection Authorization.
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When, after making a permanent change of address, is the holder of a mechanic certificate required to notify the FAA?
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Within 30 days.
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How many months of experience within a 24-month period must a mechanic have to exercise the privileges of his or her certificate?
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At least 6 months.
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