• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/126

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

126 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Which primary bone tumor:
Most common malignant primary bone tumor of children
Osteosarcoma
Which primary bone tumor:
Most common benign bone tumor
Osteochondroma
Which primary bone tumor:
11 ;22 translocation
Ewing Sarcoma
Which primary bone tumor:
Soap-bubble appearance on X-ray
Giant cell tumor of bone
Which primary bone tumor:
Onion-skin appearance of bone
Ewing Sarcoma of bone
Which primary bone tumor:
Cadman's triangle on X-ray
Osteosarcoma
What are the most common causes of hypocalcemia?
Deficiency of PTH
Deficiency of Ca2+
-Insufficient Ca2+ intake
-Vit D Def (more common than insuff Ca2+ intake)
-Chronic renal dz
-Parathyroidectomy

-Autoimmune destruction of parathyroid gland
-Pseudohypoparathyroidism--kidneys unresponsive to PTH, Ca2+ excreted
-DiGeorge Syndrome
-Acute pancreatitis
What is the triad of symptoms of Wernicke's encephalopathy?
Confusion
Ophthalmoplegia
Ataxia
What is the triad of symptoms for Korsakoff syndrome?
Memory loss
Confabulation
Personality changes
Which drug:
AE: Agranulocytosis
Clozapine
Carbamazepine
Colchicine
PTU (thyroid drug)
Methinazole (thyroid drug)
Which drug:
AE: Osteoporosis
Corticosteroids
LT heparin use
Which drug:
AE: Pulmonary fibrosis
Bleomycin
Busulfan
Amiodarone
Which drug:
AE: Gyncomastia
Some Drugs Create Awesome Knockers

Spironolactone
Digitalis
Cimetidine
Estrogen
Ketoconazole
Chronic EtOH
Marijuana
Which drug:
AE: Photosensitivity
SAT for a Photo
Sulfonamides
Amiodarine
Tetracycline
Which drug:
AE: Drug-induced lupus
SHIPP
Sulfonamides
Hydralazine
INH
Phenytoin
Procainamide
What are the 4 cardinal features of Parkinson's disease?

How does Lewy body dementia differ?
Tremore (pill rolling)
Rigidity--cogwheel
AKinesia
Postural instability

Lewy Body dementia:
-Visual hallucinations
-Repeated falls
-Syncope
Describe how a mitral regurgitation murmur differs from an aortic regurgitation murmur.
Mitral regurg:
-Holosystolic
-Heard best at apex
-Heard best in left lateral decubitus
-Enhanced by squat

Aortic regurg:
-Immediate diastolic murmur
-Assocd w/widening of pulse pressure
What BP values mark the diagnosis of hypertension?

What values mark prehypertension?
HTN: SBP≥140 OR DBP≥90

PreHTN: SBP 120-139 OR DBP 80-89
What organisms cause endocarditis?
Most common:
Staph aureus
Viridans streptococci
Enterococci
Staph epidermidis
What are the most common locations for tophi in gout patients?
External ear
Olecranon bursa
Achilles tendon
Which autoimmune disorder:
Anti-TSH receptor antibodies
Graves'
Which autoimmune disorder:
Antimitochondrial antibodies
Primary Biliary Cirrhosis
Which autoimmune disorder:
Anticentromere antibodies
CREST
Which autoimmune disorder:
Antihistone antibodies
Drug-induced lupus
Which autoimmune disorder:
Anti-smooth muscle antibodies
Autoimmune hepatitis
Common site of mets from:
Stomach
Celiac Nodes
Common site of mets from:
Duodenum, jejunum
Superior Mesenteric Nodes
Common site of mets from:
Sigmoid colon
Colic Nodes
Common site of mets from:
Rectum
Inferior iliac nodes-->Inferior mesenteric nodes
Common site of mets from:
Testes
Paraaortic LNs
Common site of mets from:
Scrotum
Superficial inguinal nodes
Falciform ligament:
Connects
Structures contained
Derived from?
Connects liver to anterior abdominal wall

Contains ligamentum teres

Derived from fetal umbilical vein
Hepatoduodenal ligament:
Connects
Structures contained
Liver to duodenum

Contains hepatic artery, portal vein, common bile duct (PORTAL TRIAD)
Gastrohepatic ligament:
Connects
Structures contained
Connects liver to lesser curvature of stomach

Contains gastric aa
Gastrocolic ligament:
Connects
Structures contained
Greater curvature and transverse colon

Contains gastroepiploic aa
Gastrosplenic ligament:
Connects
Structures contained
Connects greater curvature and spleen

Contains short gastrics
Splenorenal ligament:
Connects
Structures contained
Connects spleen to posterior abdominal wall

Contains splenic artery and vein
What are the layers of the gut wall going from inside to outside?

What are the contents of each layer?
Mucosa--epithelium (absorption), lamina propria (support), muscularis mucosae (motility)

Submucosa - Includes Submucosal nerve plexus (Meissner's!)

Muscularis externa - includes Myenteric nerve plexus (Auerbach's!)

Serosa/adventitis
Submucosal plexus:
AKA
Role
Meissner's Plexus = Submucosal

Regulates local secretions, blood flow, and absorption
Myenteric plexus:
AKA
Role
AKA Auerbach's Plexus

Coordinates gut motility along entire gut wall; located between inner and outer layers of SM of GI tract wall
What are the frequencies of basal electric rhythm (slow waves) for the stomach and small intestine?
Stomach - 3 waves/min
Duodenum - 12 waves/min
Ileum - 8-9 waves/min
Brunner's glands:
Role
Location
Associated disease
Secrete alkaline mucus to neutralize acid contents entering duodenum from stomach

Located in duodenal submucosa

Hypertrophy of Brunner's glands seen in Peptic Ulcer Dz
Peyer's patches:
Role
Location
Unencapsulated lymphoid tissue found in lamina propria and submucosa of small intestine

Contain M cells that take up antigen

B cells stimulated in germinal centers of Peyer's patches differentiate into IgA_secreting plasma cells, which ultimately reside in lamina propria
Describe the muscle types of the esophagus.
Upper 1/3: Striated muscle
Middle 1/3: Striated and smooth muscle
Lower 1/3: Smooth muscle
Draw and label the branches of the abdominal aorta.
Foregut:
Structures
Arterial supply
Celiac artery--stomach to proximal duodenum

Liver, gallbladder, pancreas, spleen
Midgut:
Structures
Arterial supply
SMA--distal duodenum to proximal 2/3 transverse colon
Hindgut:
Structures
Arterial supply
IMA--distal 1/3 transverse colon to upper portion of rectum; splenic flexure = watershed region
What area of the gut is most sensitive to hypoxia?
Splenic flexure--during times of hypoperfusion (hypotension); it's a watershed area
What is a watershed area?
Regions of the body that receive dual blood supply from the most distal branches of two large arteries; during atherosclerotic blockage are resistant to ischemia due to dual supply

However, during hypoperfusion (hypotension), most sensitive to hypoxia
Draw and label celiac trunk.
Esophagus:
Anastamoses
Effect of portal hypertension
Esophageal vein<--->Left gastric vein

Portal HTN-->backed up LGV-->esophageal varices
Umbilicus:
Anastamoses
Effect of portal hypertension
Superficial and inferior epigastric veins<---->Paraumbilical veins

Portal HTN-->Caput medusae
Rectum:
Anastamoses
Effect of portal hypertension
Superior Rectal vein<-->Middle and inferior rectal veins

Portal HTN-->Internal hemorrhoids
Sclerosed esophageal varix. Overlying esophageal mucosa is generally normal.
Pectinate line:
What is it?
Abnormalities that occur above/below it
Arterial supply above/below it
Venous drainage above/below it
Where hindgut (Distal 1/3 transverse colon to upper portion or rectum) meets ectoderm (striated squamous epithelium of rectum)

Above pectinate line:
Internal hemorrhoids, adenoca (endoderm derivation)
Arterial supply = superior rectal artery (branch of IMA)
VEnosu drainage to superior rectal vein-->inferior mesenteric vein-->portal system

Below pectinate:
External hemorrhoids; squamous cell carcinoma (ectoderm derivation)
Arterial supply: internal pudendal
Venous drainage to inferior rectal vein-->internal pudendal vein-->internal iliac vein-->IVC
Internal vs External Hemorrhoids:
Innervation
Internal: visceral innervation, not painful; can be sign of portal HTN

External: somatic innervation, painful. Innervated by inferior rectal nerve (branch of pudendal nerve)
Describe RBC breakdown and bilirubin excretion.
Gilbert's Syndrome:
Pathophys
Presentation
Mildly dec'd UDP-glucoronyl transferase or dec'd bilirubin uptake.

Asyx.

Elevated unconj'd bilirubin without overt hemolysis. Bilirubin increases with fasting and stress.

In short, it's a problem with bilirubin uptake into hepatocytes-->unconj'd bilirubinemia
Crigler-Najjar syndrome, type I:
Pathophys
Presentation
Absent UDP-glucoronyl transferase; presents early in life with jaundice, kernicterus (bilirubin deposition in brain), inc'd unconj'd bilirubin

Patients die within a few years.

In short, = problem with bilirubin conjugation.
Dubin-Johnson syndrome:
Pathophys
Presentation
Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia due to defective liver excretion.

Grossly black liver.

Benign.

IN short, = problem w/excretion of conjugated bilirubin, resulting in conj'd bilirubinemia.
The bile duct runs in close association with the ______.
Hepatic artery and portal vein
Describe the path bile takes beginning with its synthesis and ending with its release.
Liver-->L/R hepatic ducts
-->Common hepatic duct
-->Cystic duct-->Gall Bladder

Gall bladder-->Cystic duct
-->Common bile duct
-->Ampulla of Vater
-->Sphincter of Oddi
-->Duodenum
Describe the vascular/nerve contents of the femoral region, in order.
Going from lateral to medial: NAVEL

Femoral Nerve-Artery-Vein-Empty Space-Lymphatics

VENOUS NEAR THE PENIS
What is a hernia?
Protrusion of peritoneum through opening, usually a site of weakness.
Indirect vs Direct Inguinal Hernias:
Path taken
Relation to Inferior Epigastric Artery
Fascia Covering
Populations Affected
Indirect IH: goes through INternal (deep) inguinal ring, external (superficial) inguinal ring, and INto the scrotum.
Lateral to inferior epigastric artery.

Occurs in infants owing to failure of processus vaginalis to close.

Note: follows path of descent of testes. Covered by all 3 layers of spermatic fascia.

Direct IH: Protrudes through inguinal triangle. Bulges through abdominal wall medial to inferior epigastric artery. Goes through external (superficial inguinal ring only). Covered by external spermatic fascia.

Occurs in older men.

MDs don't LIe:
Medial to inferior epigastric = Direct; Lateral to inferior epigastric = Indirect
Femoral hernia:
Path taken
Populations affected
Protrudes below inguinal ligament through femoral canal below and lateral to pubic tubercle.

More common in women.
Diaphragmantic hernia:
Path
Sliding vs Paraesophageal
Abdominal structures enter thorax

Most commonly a sliding hernia (GE junction is displaced; "hourglass stomach")

Paraesophageal hernia--GE jn normal. Cardia moves into thorax.
G cells:
Function
Stimulators
Gastrin (pro-gastric)

Stimulated by hypercalcemia, phenylalanine, tryptophan
I cells:
Function
CCK (pro-duodenum, anti-gastric)
S cells:
Function
Secretin (pro-HCO3, antacid)
D cells:
Function
Somatostatin (inhibits all)
Intrinsic factor:
Source
Function
Source: parietal cells (stomach)

Vitamin B12 binding protein required for B12 uptake in terminal ileum
Gastric acid:
Source
Regulation
Parietal cells (stomach)--
Inc'd by histamine, ACh, gastrin

Dec'd by SMS, GIP, PG, secretin
H2 Blockers:
Prefix/Suffix
MOA
Use
AE
-idines (Cimetidine)

MOA: Reversible block of H2 receptors to dec H+ secretion by parietal cells

Use: Peptic ulcer, gastritis, GERD

Cimetidine = potent inhibitor of cyt p450; it also has anti-androgen effects (prolactin release, gynecomastic, impotence, dec'd libido)
Proton Pump Inhibitors:
Prefix/Suffix
MOA
Use
-prazole (omeprazole)
MOA: Irreversibly inhibit H/K-ATPase in stomach parietal cells.

Use: Peptic ulcer, gastricits, GERD, Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
Bismuth:
MOA
Binds ulcer base, provides physical protection, allows HCO3- secretion to reestablish pH gradient in mucus layer
Sucralfate:
MOA
Binds ulcer base, provides physical protection, allows HCO3- secretion to reestablish pH gradient in mucus layer
Misoprostol:
MOA
Uses
PGE1 analog; inc'd production and secretion of gastric mucus barrier, dec'd acid production

Use: Prevention of NSAID-induced peptic ulcers, maintenace of PDA, used to induce labor
Enterochromaffin-like cells:
Role
Produce histamine
Aluminum hydroxide:
Drug Class
AE
Antacid

Constipation and hypophosphatemia; aluMINIMUM amount of feces.

Proximal muscle weakness, osteodystrophy, seizures.
Magnesium hydroxide:
Drug Class
AE
Antacid

Diarrhea, hporeflexia, hypotn, cardiac arrest

Mg = Must Go to bathroom
Calcium carbonate:
Drug Class
AE
Antacid

HyperCa2+
Rebound acid
Salivary secretions:
Source
Function
Source: parotid (most serous), submandibular and sublingual (most mucinous) glands

Function:
1) alpha-amylase--beings starch digestion, inact'd by low pH on reaching stomach

2) Bicarbonate neutralizes oral bacterial acids, maintains dental health

3) Mucins (glycoproteins) lubricate food

4) Antibacterial secretory products

5) Growth factors promote epithelial renewal
What is the most common location of salivary gland tumors?
Parotid gland
What is the most common salivary gland tumor?

What is the histologic appearance of this tumor?
Pleomorphic adenoma

Histo: pleomorphic--both epithelial and mesenchymal differentiation
What is the second most common benign salivary gland tumor?
Warthin's tumor
What is the most common malignant salivary gland tumor?
Mucoepidermoid carcinoma (second most common overall salivary gland tumor)
What is the likelihood that a salivary gland tumor will be malignant based on the gland it is located in?
Parotid gland: <30% chance malignancy

Sublingual: >70% change malignancy
What is the biggest risk factor of salivary gland tumor malignancy?
Smoking
Trypsinogen:
Secreted by
Function
Secreted by panccreas, converted to trypsin by enterokinase/enteropeptidase (secreted by duodenal mucosa)

Trypsin activates other proenzymes and more trypsinogen (positive feedback loop)
What is the rate-limiting step of carbohydrate digestion?
Oligosaccharide hydrolase at brush border of intestine; produce monosaccharides from oligo- and disaccharides
Where in the GI tract is iron absorbed?
Fe2+ absorbed in duodenum
Where in the GI tract is folate absorbed?
Jejunum
Where in the GI tract is B12 absorbed?
Ilieum; along with bile acids; requires INTRINSIC FACTOR from parietal cells
What is a bile salt?

Role?
Bile acid conjugated to glycine/taurine; makes bile water soluble

Needed for digestion of TGs and micelle formation (required for absorption of non-polar nutrients such as lipids) in small bowel
What enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step of carbohydrate digestion?
Oligosaccharide hydrolases at intestinal brush border
What enzyme is responsible for the conjugation of bilirubin?
UDP glucoronyl transferase; up-regulated by phenobarbital
What important secretory products are secreted from:
G cells
Gastrin
What important secretory products are secreted from:
I cells
CCK
What important secretory products are secreted from:
S cells
Secretin
What important secretory products are secreted from:
D cells
SMS
What important secretory products are secreted from:
Parietal cells
Acid, IF
What important secretory products are secreted from:
Chief cells
Pepsinogen
Which GI ligament:
Contains portal triad and may be compressed to control bleeding
Hepatoduodenal lig
Which GI ligament:
Attaches spleen to posterior abdominal wall
Splenorenal
Which GI ligament:
Attaches spleen to stomach
Gastrosplenic lig
What drugs and endogenous hormones regulate the secretion of gastric acid?
Secretory Hormones:
Histamine
ACh
Gastrin

Inhibitory hormones:
PGs
SMS
Secretin
GIP
----
PPIs
H2RAs
Anti-muscarinics
Which hormones stimulate pancreatic secretion?
ACh
CCK
Secretin
What structures form Hesselbach's triangle?
Inferior gastric artery
Lateral border of rectus abdominis
Inguinal ligament
Which hereditary hyperbilirubinemia:
Mildly decreased UDPGT
Gilbert's, Crigler-Najjar Type II
Which hereditary hyperbilirubinemia:
Completely absent UDPGT
Crigler-Najjar Type I
Which hereditary hyperbilirubinemia:
Grossly black liver
Dubin-Johnson Syndrome
Which hereditary hyperbilirubinemia:
Responds to phenobarbital
Crigler-Najjar Type II
Which hereditary hyperbilirubinemia:
Treatment includes plasmapheresis and phototherapy
Crigle-Najjar Type I
Which hereditary hyperbilirubinemia:
Asymptomatic unless under physical stress (alcohol, infection)
Gilbert's
Which antacid:
May cause diarrhea
Magnesium hydroxide
Which antacid:
May cause constipation
Aluminum hydroxide
Which antacid:
May cause rebound hypercalcemia
Calcium carbonate
Which antacid:
May cause hypokalemia
Mg(OH)2
Al(OH)3
CaCO3
What enzyme is inhibited by PPIs?
Hydrogen Potassium ATP-ase
What is the arterial supply of the forgut?
Celiac
What is the arterial supply of the midgut?
SMA
What is the arterial supply of the rectum and distal third of the colon?
IMA