The character Hamlet in Hamlet is antic disposition to the max. He does a very good job at making it seem like he is just playing with the court, but maybe gets too deep into it. Is his madness feigned or real? What purpose does it serve him? Does he ever slip from his “acts” of madness? "I essentially am not in madness/ But mad in craft." (III. iv. 187-8.) This quote from
Hamlet says a lot about the play. There is much evidence in the play that Hamlet obviously feigned fits of madness in order to confuse and through the king and his attendants. When speaking with Horatio with the arrangements for the play, and just before the entrance of the court, Hamlet says, "I must be idle." (III. ii. 85.) This evidently is a declaration of his intention to be "foolish,". …show more content…
One side doesn't want him to believe in what he has just saw, and the other side is like his bad side. This side is telling him to go avenge his father's death by killing Claudius while he is sinning so he goes to hell. The ghost mentioned that to hamlet, so she has to be very careful while seeking revenge. Hamlet obviously goes with the bad side because it is Shakespeare, but one of the times hamlet could've killed Claudius, he was praying, so Hamlet couldn't seek revenge. "Now might I do it pat, now he is praying,/ And now I'll do 't. [He draws his sword.] And so he goes to heaven,/ And so am I revenged. That would be scanned:/ A villain kills my father, and for that,/ I, his sole son, do this same villain send/ To heaven. (3.3.77-83.)
The King and Queen want Rosencrantz and Guildenstern to come check in on Hamlet to see why he has been acting mad. Those three used to be really good buds, so the King and
Queen trust those two. "I am but mad north-north-west. When the wind is southerly I know a hawk from a handsaw." (II. ii. 381-382.) Hamlet says this to Guildenstern because what he means by this is that he is only acting crazy, he actually knows what's going on in his head,
Hamlet says a lot about the play. There is much evidence in the play that Hamlet obviously feigned fits of madness in order to confuse and through the king and his attendants. When speaking with Horatio with the arrangements for the play, and just before the entrance of the court, Hamlet says, "I must be idle." (III. ii. 85.) This evidently is a declaration of his intention to be "foolish,". …show more content…
One side doesn't want him to believe in what he has just saw, and the other side is like his bad side. This side is telling him to go avenge his father's death by killing Claudius while he is sinning so he goes to hell. The ghost mentioned that to hamlet, so she has to be very careful while seeking revenge. Hamlet obviously goes with the bad side because it is Shakespeare, but one of the times hamlet could've killed Claudius, he was praying, so Hamlet couldn't seek revenge. "Now might I do it pat, now he is praying,/ And now I'll do 't. [He draws his sword.] And so he goes to heaven,/ And so am I revenged. That would be scanned:/ A villain kills my father, and for that,/ I, his sole son, do this same villain send/ To heaven. (3.3.77-83.)
The King and Queen want Rosencrantz and Guildenstern to come check in on Hamlet to see why he has been acting mad. Those three used to be really good buds, so the King and
Queen trust those two. "I am but mad north-north-west. When the wind is southerly I know a hawk from a handsaw." (II. ii. 381-382.) Hamlet says this to Guildenstern because what he means by this is that he is only acting crazy, he actually knows what's going on in his head,