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150 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
- 3rd side (hint)
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Leadership that is based on occupying a position in an organization is called: A) informal leadership B) formal leadership C) leadership D) management |
B) formal leadership |
Leadership that is derived due to a person's formal position of authority or due to a sanctioned, assigned role within an organization that confers influence, such as clinical nurse specialist is called formal leadership.
Text: Pg 3 |
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Kirkpatrick and Locke identified 6 traits that separate leaders from non-leaders are: A) Respectability, trustworthiness, flexibility, self-confidence, intelligence, and sociability B) self-confidence, progression of experiences, influence of others, personal life factors, honesty, and drive C) intelligence, self-confidence, integrity, sociability, and honesty D) drive, desire to lead, honesty, self-confidence, cognitive ability, and knowledge of business
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[C] Drive Desire to Lead Honesty Self-confidence Cognitive Ability Knowledge of Business |
ODD SHOCK [w/o the "O's] D = drive D = desire S= self-confidence H = honesty C = cognitive abilities K = knowledge |
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The leadership theory that considers follower readiness as a factor in determining leadership style is called: A) contingency B) path goal C) situational D) charismatic |
C) situational |
Hersey, Blanchard, and Johnson's (2008) situational leadership theory addresses follower readiness as a factor in determining leadership style and considers task behavior and relationship behavior as two important aspects of leadership. Follower readiness, called maturity, is assessed in order to select one of the four leadership styles for a given situation.
4 Leadership Styles: • telling leadership style • selling leadership style • participating leadership style • delegating leadership style
Text: Chapter 1, pg 10 |
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A leader who focuses on the day-to-day operations of the unit or department & short-term goals is considered a: A) transformational leader B) charismatic leader C) transactional leader D) autocratic leader |
C) transactional leader |
Burns (1978) maintained that there are two types of leaders: The traditional manager concerned with day-to-day operations, called the transactional leader, and a leader who is committed to a vision that empowers others, called the transformational leader. Transformational leadership theory is based on the idea of empowering others to engage in pursuing the collective purpose by working together to achieve a vision of a preferred future.
TB: pg 12 |
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Which of the following motivation theories and models contains collective decision-making, long-term employment, use of quality circles, and holistic concern and mentoring? A) theory X B) theory Y C) theory Z D) McClellands model |
C) theory Z |
Theory X = emphasizes the principles of security through minimal responsibility and the need for coercion (via threats & punishment). Theory Y =!belief that increased creativity and greater productivity occur when that people enjoy their work
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A full-time employee works how many hours per week? A) 1040 B) 2,080 C) 1,664 D) 1,872 |
B) 2,080 |
1 year = 52 weeks 40 hours/week x 52 weeks = 2,080 hours/year |
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A nurse is doing patient charting. This activity is considered ____________ . A) direct care B) productive time C) indirect care D) non-productive time |
C) indirect care |
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Acuity data and Nursing Hours Per Patient Day (NHPPD) are concrete parameters that are used primarily for: A) benchmarking B) adjusting staffing levels C) developing Nursing budgets D) reviewing patient care outcomes |
B) adjusting staffing levels |
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Benner's Model of Novice to Expert (1984) is based on how many levels of experience? A) five B) six C) seven D) four |
A) five |
Novice - no experience, behavior is governed by context-free rules and concepts Advanced Beginner - limited experience, begins to recognize patterns and form principles based on experiences that affect actions Competent - a nurse with 2-3 years of experience caring for patients in the same or similar setting, increasingly organized and efficient, long term goals Proficient - more holistic in thinking, improves decision making, knows what to expect in most situations. Expert - no longer relies on principles to guide actions, intuitively knows what needs to be done and what to expect, much more experienced in clinical situations.
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You are a nursing manager on an inpatient medical-surgical unit. How many FTEs per day would you need if your target NHPPD was eight and you expected to have 22 patients on your 24 bed unit? A) 20 B) 22 C) 24 D) 26 |
B) 22 |
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You are a perioperative nurse in a small rural hospital and have just received your schedule for the upcoming month. You were dismayed to find that you seem to be scheduled to work on the one day you requested off in order to attend an event at your son's elementary school. Whose responsibility is it to schedule staff and to whom should you talk to you about this? A) staff members themselves B) nursing staffing office C) nurse manager D) director of nursing |
C) nurse manager |
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On your inpatient OBGYN unit, the model of patient care delivery consists of a group of patients who are cared for by an RN, an LPN, and a Nursing Assistive Personel (NAP). This patient care model is called: A) functional Nursing B) team Nursing C) total patient care D) primary nursing |
B) team Nursing |
Team Nursing = A care delivery model that assign staff to teams that are then responsible for a group of patients. The team leader (usually an RN) supervises and coordinates all the care provided by those on his or her team which is typically made up of LPN's, NAP's. Care is divided into the simplest components and then assigned to the appropriate care provider.
Pros: the RN is able to delegate work to others, it can promote a more efficient use of resources. Cons: patients sometimes receive fragmented, depersonalized care. The shared responsibility and accountability can cause confusion & may result in a lack of accountability. |
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In which model of care delivery is the focus on the patient's needs rather than staff needs? A) primary B) patient-centered C) differentiated practice D) modular |
B) patient-centered |
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The concept of _________________ does not work well when applied to healthcare, because the general rule that when the price of an item or service goes up then the demand goes down does not necessarily apply to the public demand for (or their belief in their right to obtain) a healthcare item or service. A) Price elasticity B) scarcity C) economics D) cost maximization |
A) Price elasticity |
Healthcare is much less "elastic" with reference to price from many other consumer goods.
Pg. 261 |
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A ________________ business has no stockholders. A) For-profit B) not-for-profit C) monopoly D) fiefdom |
B) not-for-profit |
Revenue (income) minus cost (expense) equals profit. In for-profit businesses, a portion of the profit is distributed to stockholders in appreciation for their investing in the business and the remainder is used to maintain and grow the organization. In non-profit businesses, there are no stockholders to share the profit, so the profit margin is reinvested in the business for maintenance and growth. |
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_______________ is responsible for the administration of Medicare and Medicaid. A) The health care financing administration (HCFA) B) social security department C) tax equity and fiscal responsibility act (TEFRA) D) congress |
A) The health care financing administration (HCFA) |
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A budget that outlines anticipated revenue and expenses over a specified time period is called: A) operational B) capital C) construction D) accounting |
A) operational |
An operational budget accounts for the income and expenses associated with day-to-day activity within a department or organization. Revenue generated is based on billable services and expenses associated with equipment, supplies, staffing, and other indirect costs. Revenue maybe based on the number of days that a patient stays on an inpatient unit or the number of hours spent in the procedure room. Revenue may be also based on the types of procedures deliver to a patient. Depending on reimbursement rates and requirements expenses are sometimes bundled or included into a procedure or room charge, for example an admission packet that includes a wash bin, cup, soap, toothbrush, socks, etc. In other situations supply items may be billed separately, such as IV start kit, or leukocyte removal filters. |
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A department manager's budget that is concerned with the income and expenses associated with day-to-day activities of the unit is a ____________ budget. A) operational B) capital C) construction D) balanced |
A) operational |
Text book pg 270 |
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Gas, electricity, and telephone costs are considered: A) fixed cost B) variable costs C) direct expenses D) indirect expenses |
D) indirect expenses |
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In the budget preparation phase, obtaining information regarding a competitor's performance is considered: A) demographic information B) regulatory influences C) strategic initiatives D) competitive analysis |
D) competitive analysis |
A competitive analysis is examines how the facility's competition is performing as compared to other healthcare organizations. It analyzes other hospitals' or practices' strengths and weaknesses, in addition to details such as location and new or existing services and technology.
Pg 274 |
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A payment classification system used for reimbursement of health care costs by Medicare is: A) managed care contracts B) penetration rate revenue C) diagnosis related groups D) length of stay records |
C) diagnosis related groups |
Diagnostic related groups (DRGs) are patient groupings established by the federal government for reimbursement purposes. DRGs are sorted by patient disease or condition, and acuity levels are assigned for each. Based on the acuity of the patient's diagnosis, the average number of nursing hours is set. This value represents the average number of hours a patient with a given diagnosis requires. The data are then used by hospitals in determining the cost of nursing care and negotiating contracts with payers for a specific patient population. |
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Estimates of cost for turnover per nurse can equate up to: A) $24,000 B) $43,000 C) $67,000 D) $72,000 |
C) $67,000 |
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A _____________ is a plan that provides formal quantitative expressions for the acquisition and disbursement of monies over a specified period of time. A) accounting B) budget C) Mission D) vision |
B) budget |
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PDSA is: A) a national quality improvement campaign B) process, demonstrate, supervise, and analyze C) an acronym for an EBP model D) a type of quality improvement outcome that is part of the 100,000 lives campaign |
C) an acronym for an EBP model |
The PDSA cycle can be individual or system focused. It can be used to solve a specific patient problem or to structure strategies for managing groups of patients with common problems. It consists of several phases: the planning, doing, and studying phases. Pg 349 |
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Nurse Z has been assigned to care for Mrs. D, a trauma patient with bilateral femoral spiral fractures and a torn spleen, which was removed two days ago. Mrs. D confides to Nurse Z that she agreed to an advance directive when she entered the hospital, but now she's not so sure that this is what she wants. Mrs. D asks if this is normal for her to feel this way. Which element of the University of Colorado Hospital model should Nurse Z consider first in the situation? A) clinical expertise B) benchmarking data C) patient preferences D) quality improvement & risk data |
C) patient preferences |
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A key benefit of adopting quality improvement methods and principles are: A) empowering staff and providing an outlet for critical thinking B) viewing every problem as an opportunity to improve, and improving staff satisfaction C) decreasing necessary expenses from lost business, and helping customers think you care about them D) involving staff in how work is planned & done, and increasing the customers perception that you care about them by designing processes that meet the providers' needs |
B) viewing every problem as an opportunity to improve, and improving staff satisfaction |
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An example of an external customer is: A) A staff nurse B) a pharmacist C) the joint commission (JC) D) a hospital chaplain |
C) the joint commission (JC) |
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The _______________ model provides a way for the nurse to organize information needed not only to care for the patient, but also to evaluate the care provided. This is the definition of which model? A) Model For Improvement B) University of Colorado Hospital C) Mayo Clinic D) Samaritan Hospital Quality Practice |
B) University of Colorado Hospital |
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To increase the ability to predict the effect that one or more changes would have if they were implemented is a goal of: A) FOCUS B) QA C) PDSA D) risk management
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C) PDSA |
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A sentinel event is: A) A major change in the patient's status B) an unexpected incident involving a death or serious physical or psychological injury to a patient C) A way to identify processes for improvement based on analysis of care over a long period of time D) an occurrence involving a sentinel or someone who is watching |
B) an unexpected incident involving a death or serious physical or psychological injury to a patient |
During analysis of Sentinel Events, opportunities for improving the system will arise and should be taken advantage of. Linkage of sentinel event review to the organizations performance improvement system will identify strategies for prevention of future events.
Pg 353 |
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To increase the ability to predict the effect that one or more changes would have if they were implemented is a goal of: A) FOCUS B) QA C) PDSA D) risk management
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C) PDSA |
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Nurse Q has gathered data on his patient's behaviors and status regarding pain management while on his shift. These include: nonverbal behaviors, respiratory rate, and pain rating. Which phase of the PDS a cycle is Nurse Q working under? A) planning phase B) doing phase C) studying phase D) acting face |
B) doing phase |
During the doing phase a nurse should carry out evidence-based standards for assessing managing, evaluating, and documenting measures related to the care planned in the previous phase of the cycle. patient status |
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Philosophies: A) are a way of looking at the world through rose colored glasses B) are a rational investigation of truths, reality, and human behavior C) are an investigation into behaviors and truths, but not necessarily of reality D) stem from a persons beliefs and opinions, and principles of bioethics |
B) are a rational investigation of truths, reality, and human behavior |
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An example of teleology is: A) do onto others as you would have them do unto you B) murder is always wrong C) The achievement of a good outcome justifies using undesirable means to attain it D) A person's character must be developed so that he will be predisposed to behave virtuously |
C) The achievement of a good outcome justifies using undesirable means to attain it |
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Beneficence, nonmaleficence, Fidelity, justice, autonomy, veracity, and respect for others are all examples of: A) philosophies pertaining to nursing B) ethical dilemmas C) philosophies related to organizational law D) ethical principles and rules |
D) ethical principles and rules |
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The duty to do good to others and maintain a balance between those items that may cause harm and those that may cause good is called: A) Fidelity B) nonmaleficence C) beneficence D) veracity |
C) beneficence |
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A virtuous person, according to Burkhardt and Nathaniel (2002), has: A) compassion, discernment, integrity, and trustworthiness B) discernment, compassion, understanding, and empathy C) trustworthiness, integrity, sympathy, and follows the rules D) integrity, compassion, understanding, and makes the best decision that is fair for all |
A) compassion, discernment, integrity, and trustworthiness |
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Which is NOT necessarily a characteristic of values? A) provide a set of rules by which to live B) guide actions and decisions C) hinder problem-solving and give direction to life D) influence how people react to others |
C) hinder problem-solving and give direction to life |
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Nurse X has always maintained that "whatever you think is right, is right" in his personal and professional relationships. Upon what ethical principle is he basing this kind of decision making? A) Beneficence B) nonmaleficence C) teleology D) relativism |
D) relativism |
Relativism is an ethical theory in which no universal ethical standards, such as "murder is always wrong" exist. Virtues are relative to person, place, time, and culture. Whatever a person thinks is right, is right. This theory has been largely rejected.
Pg 397 |
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Registered nurses can be identified as a: A) culture B) subculture C) group D) organization |
B) subculture |
In addition to belonging to a major cultural group, people also belong to a variety of subcultures, smaller groups within a culture. Subcultures maybe based upon the following: • professional and occupational affiliations (RNs, veterans, law enforcement, etc) • nationality or race • age group (Generation X, Y, Z) • gender • socioeconomic status (lower, middle, and upper class) • political viewpoints (republican, democrat, independent) • sexual orientation (lesbian, gay, transgender, heterosexual)
Pg 413 |
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Identification of a person according to genetic traits and physical characteristics is called: A) culture B) acculturation C) race D) cultural ethnicity |
C) race |
Race describes a geographical or global human population distinguished by genetic traits and physical characteristics such as skin color or facial features. Major US Census classifications of race or American Indian, Asian, black or African-American, pacific islander/Hawaiian, or white.
Pg 413 |
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According to DeRosa and Kochura's (2006) article entitled "Implement Culturally Competent Health Care in your Workplace," cultures have different patterns of verbal and nonverbal communication. Which of the following communication behaviors is NOT one of the noted communication differences? A) conversational style B) personal behavior C) eye contact D) subject matter |
B) personal behavior |
This article discusses selected verbal and nonverbal communication patterns of culture. Even when two people speak the same language, communication may be hindered by different values or beliefs. Nonverbal differences are ethnic dialects can also block mutual understanding. Communication differences include the following: 1. Conversational style 2. Personal space (not personal behavior) 3. Eye contact 4. Subject matter & conversation length
Pg. 421 |
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Perception of the nurse's role in healthcare can vary according to culture. Of the important findings in a study of Philippine-American nurses by Spangler (1992), which of the following is NOT one of these? A) expressed dedication to work B) desire to utilize the latest innovative techniques in the best interest of the patient C) attentiveness to patient's physical comfort needs D) respect & patience carried forth into the nurse's relationships with patients |
B) desire to utilize the latest innovative techniques in the best interest of the patient |
This 1992 study revealed a common theme amongst Filipino-American nurses, an obligation to care that prevailed in all aspects of their work. These findings reflected the Filipino American nurses' strong belief that bedside nursing is truly the core of nursing. This value conflicted with the attitude of some American nurses that the physical care of patients is devalued work with no prestige and a task that is best delegated.
Pg 424 |
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An individual with an impaired ability to integrate meaning and purpose in his life through connectedness with others, self, music, nature, or a higher power has: A) spiritual distress B). Philosophical distress C) depression D) schizoid personality disorder |
A) spiritual distress |
Spiritual distress is a NANDA term used to identify when an individual has an impaired ability to integrate meaning and purpose in life through connectedness with self, others, art, music, literature, nature, or a power greater than oneself.
To decrease or eliminate spiritual distress, it is expected that an individual will connect with the elements he or she considers important to arrive at meaning and purpose in life. These elements may include: • meditation • prayer • participating in religious services or rituals • communing with nature, plants, and animals • sharing of self •caring for the self and others
Pg 429 |
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According to Giger and Davidhizar (2004), the members of which cultural group tend to believe themselves in harmony with nature rather than being controlled by or in control of nature? A) some Mexican-Americans B) some Appalachian C) some Puerto Rican D) some Chinese-Americans |
D) some Chinese-Americans |
One area where individuals differ based on cultural values and beliefs is "Locus of Control," which refers to the degree of control that individuals feel that they have over events.
• internal locus of control = the belief or feeling that the individual is in control of their environment and life • external locus of control. = individuals who believe that luck, fate, or chance control their lives
* American Indians, Chinese-Americans, and Japanese Americans believe themselves to be in harmony with nature rather than being controlled by nature or in control of nature.
Pg 425 |
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Which of the following are characteristics of the traditional generation? A) workaholic, strong-willed, and work for material gain, promotions, job security, and corner offices B) seek a balance between work and leisure C) they expect countless options and focus is on early retirement D) obligated to conform and believe that work is one's duty |
D) obligated to conform and believe that work is one's duty |
Current Patient & Workforce Populations consist of individuals from 4 Generations: • traditional generation = born before 1940 * post-Great Depression, raised to be disciplined & obey elders. * obligation to conform * believe that work is one's duty
• baby boomers = 1940 to 1960 * raised in time of economic expansion & focus on education * work for the challenge and value career advancement * characterized as workaholic, strong-willed individuals focused on material gain, promotion, recognition, job security, and a corner office * the LARGEST generation
• generation X = born 1960 to 1980 * latch-key kids
• generation Y (Millennials) = born after 1980 *the children of baby boomers * grew up during end of Cold War, the invention of the Internet * they have a speak-your-mind philosophy, mantra of change * goal is early retirement * expectation of options |
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The NCLEX-RN exam covers knowledge and patient care needs in a number of categories. Which of the following is not one of these categories? A) safe, effective care environment B) physiologic integrity C) psychological integrity D) health promotion and maintenance |
C) psychological integrity |
Test questions on the NCLEX-RN examination cover 4 main areas of nursing care. These include: • safe, effective care environment • physiologic integrity • psychosocial integrity *NOT "psychological" • health promotion and maintenance |
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Which of the following areas contains the bulk of the questions on the NCLEX-RN exam? A) safe, effective care environment B) physiological integrity C) psychological integrity D) health promotion and maintenance |
B) physiological integrity |
Physiological Integrity is further broken down into 4 subcategories: • Physical Care & Comfort = 6-12% • Pharmacological & Parenteral Therapies = 12-18% • Reduction of Risk Potential = 9-15% • Physiological Adaptation = 11-17%
Total Percentage of questions from this category = 38 - 62% |
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There are a variety of methods that can be used in planning and implementing an effective job search. Which of the following is not usually a productive method to use for job searches? A) networking through family, friends, and acquaintances B) reviewing positions listed in the newspaper C) attending job fairs D) showing up at as many hospitals as you can asking for a job |
D) showing up at as many hospitals as you can asking for a job |
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Components for organizing a review for the NCLEX-RN exam are listed below. Which of the following is NOT usually an area to concentrate on for this exam review? A) NCLEX knowledge review B) NCLEX test question practice C) test anxiety control D) re-read all nursing textbooks |
D) re-read all nursing textbooks |
In preparing to take the NCLEX new graduates may find it useful to focus their preparation on three areas: • NCLEX knowledge review - review books, computer software, NCLEX review courses are all valuable to test concepts you learned t/o nursing school - knowledge of the test content • NCLEX test question practice - practicing 60 test questions daily from different review books, CDs, & online review sites - complete a total of 3,000 NCLEX review questions - use results to focus studying on areas of weakness • Test Anxiety Control - visualization & relaxation techniques before and during the test to control anxiety level * positive thinking, guided imagery, relaxation techniques, avoidance of those who generate anxiety, taking several slow, deep breaths.
Pg 445 |
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You will most likely be asked to answer questions about yourself (past experiences, strengths and weaknesses, future goals or aspirations, etc) during an interview. Which of the following questions do you not need to answer? A) Why do you want to work here? B) What would your references say about you? C) What are your strengths? D) What do you plan to do with your children if you work overtime? |
D) What do you plan to do with your children if you work overtime? |
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A variety of performance feedback mechanisms and tools exist. Which of the following is NOT an evaluation tool that new nurses may encounter? A) 365° feedback B) Preceptor feedback C) formal performance feedback D) informal performance feedback |
A) 365° feedback |
Many healthcare organizations have moved to a performance evaluation program known as the 360° performance feedback * NOT a 365 performance feedback
In the 360° performance feedback system an individual as assessed by variety of people in order to provide a broader perspective about his or her performance. The nurse may complete a self-assessment and submit a portfolio that documents competency, critical thinking, values, beliefs, and skills. The portfolio may include elements of nursing orientation, nursing practice, leadership, teamwork, scholarly activity, documentation, and committee work. The portfolio also documents pier reviews, evaluation by the nurse's immediate supervisor, and patient interviews.
Pg 471 |
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General orientation usually includes some of the following. Which is NOT usually provided? A) validation of CPR certification B) human resource policies C) specific requirements for certain units D) policies related to medication administration |
C) specific requirements for certain units |
Many healthcare organizations divide nursing orientation into general and unit specific sections. One hired, new nurses receive a GENERAL orientation that includes information and skills that ALL nurses new to the facility need, regardless of their eventual unit assignment.
Unit based orientation, focuses on the specific competencies a new nurse needs to care for the diagnoses and ages of patients typical to the assigned unit.
Pg. 467 |
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Utilizing the example of the unit specific competency tool for the emergency department, there are a number of skills that are specific to any new nurse. Which of the following is not necessarily correct? A) monitor data so that I am up-to-date on evidence-based care for my patients B) network primarily with other nurses C) participate in professional committees at work D) communicate pride in being a nurse |
B) network primarily with other nurses |
New nurses should develop a rapport with all members of the interdisciplinary team (doctors, interns, UAPs, unit secretary, pharmacists, lab techs, respiratory therapists, and any other individual who they work with regularly. |
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The following list contains some identified strategies to maintain physical health. Which item below does not belong in this list? A) Good nutrition B) physical exercise C) stress prevention exercises D) sleep |
C) stress prevention exercises |
Physical health is one of the 6 elements of living a healthy life. It encompasses nutrition as well as exercise, coupled with a balanced amount of sleep. Physical health also includes health promotion and disease prevention behaviors such as avoiding smoking, maintaining a healthy body mass index with healthy nutrition and exercise, and having annual Pap smear's and other screening procedures that detect health problems early.
The 6 Elements of Health 1) physical health 2) intellectual health 3) emotional health 4) professional health 5) social health 6) spiritual health
Pg 486 |
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Some strategies to maintain professional health are listed below. Which of the following is NOT necessarily correct with regards to professional health? A) set goals B) read fiction and nonfiction materials C) join a professional organization D) network with others who work in the health care field |
B) read fiction and nonfiction materials |
Individuals who are professionally healthy are satisfied with their career choices and feel that there is continual opportunity for growth. They are goal-directed, seeks opportunities to obtain knowledge and new learning experiences. Examples of actions that promote professional health include going back to school for more education, becoming certified in his or her clinical practice area, and avoiding occupational hazards.
Ensure professional health by: 1. Avoiding Occupational Hazzards • common injuries that result from HCP exposure to hazzards: contact dermatitis, carpal tunnel, back injuries • infectious agents - TB, blood borne pathogens (Hep A, B, or C, HIV/AIDS), herpes simplex, etc • physical agents - radiation exposure, lifting, excessive noise (vents, alarms, suction equip, call lights, monitors, etc) • environmental agents - violence, shift work, air quality, mold/fungus, bioterrorism •chemical agents - disinfectants, antiseptics, latex, chemo, anesthetic agents
2. Setting Goals for the Future • pursue higher education [obtaining BSN, MSN, and ARNP/CNM, etc] • certifications related to field of interest
3. Stay Up-to-Date on EBPs Specific to Your Area/Specialty • subscribe to nursing journals • complete CNEs • attend workshops, lectures, or other events offered by employer
4. Join Professional Organizations - American Nursing Association - American Association of Critical Care Nurses - American Heart Association: Council on CV Nursing - Wound, Ostomy, and Continence Nurses Society (WOCNS) - Emergency Nurses Association |
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A number of safeguards have arisen as a means of preventing occupational hazards. An example of one of these preventative measures for environmental agents is: A) use personal protective equipment (PPE) B) assess the work area for the amount of noise C) Develop standards of care for handling hazardous agents D) be aware of bioterrorist alerts
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D) be aware of bioterrorist alerts |
Types of Occupational Hazards: 1. Infectious Agents 2. Physical Agents 3. Environmental Agents 4. Chemical Agents
Nurses can decrease their risk of injury due to exposure to occupational hazards by: - developing and following standards related to the handling of dangerous substances or performing tasks that have the potential to cause injury. - regularly assessing the environment for hazards and eliminating them when possible - implementing good body mechanics and using equipment to lift heavy patients - developing policies to protect nurses and other staff from violence or verbal abuse by patients - ensure adequate ventilation - follow infection control procedures for patients with infectious conditions that require isolation and PPE use. - adhere to best-practice guidelines r/t hand washing and other infection control measures |
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How many career ladder stages are included in the Colorado Differentiated Practice Model? A) 4 B) 3 C) 5 D) 8 |
A) 4 |
The Colorado Differentiated Practice Model for Nursing builds on the work of Benner (1984) regarding career ladder stages. There are 4 measures or components: 1. Competency statements 60% 2. Skills 10% 3. Institutional goals 15% 4. Professional activities 15%
Ladder Stages: Stage I = entry/learning level Stage II = Individual who competently demonstrates acceptable performance adapting to time and resource constraints. Stage III = proficient individual Stage IV = expert individual
Pg 484 |
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A number of safeguards have arisen as a means of preventing occupational hazards. An example of one of these preventative measures for environmental agents is: A) use personal protective equipment (PPE) B) assess the work area for the amount of noise C) Develop standards of care for handling hazardous agents D) be aware of bioterrorist alerts
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D) be aware of bioterrorist alerts |
Types of Occupational Hazards: 1. Infectious Agents 2. Physical Agents 3. Environmental Agents 4. Chemical Agents
Nurses can decrease their risk of injury due to exposure to occupational hazards by: - developing and following standards related to the handling of dangerous substances or performing tasks that have the potential to cause injury. - regularly assessing the environment for hazards and eliminating them when possible - implementing good body mechanics and using equipment to lift heavy patients - developing policies to protect nurses and other staff from violence or verbal abuse by patients - ensure adequate ventilation - follow infection control procedures for patients with infectious conditions that require isolation and PPE use. - adhere to best-practice guidelines r/t hand washing and other infection control measures |
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A nurse who functions proficiently in her area of specialization is considered to be in which stage of the Colorado Differentiated Practice Model clinical ladder? A) Stage I B) Stage II C) Stage III D) Stage IV |
C) Stage III |
Ladder Stages: Stage I = entry/learning level Stage II = Individual who competently demonstrates acceptable performance adapting to time and resource constraints. Stage III = proficient individual Stage IV = expert individual
Pg 484 |
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Which of the following is not considered to be one of the six areas or elements that make up health? A) spiritual health B) social health C) professional health D) Nursing health |
D) Nursing health |
The 6 Elements of Health 1) physical health 2) intellectual health 3) emotional health 4) professional health 5) social health 6) spiritual health |
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Evidence-based practice has been established and Nursing to do which of the following? A) Reduce healthcare costs B) Facilitate the highest quality of care & best patient outcomes C) communicate the values of the nursing profession D) encourage increased research utilization |
B) Facilitate the highest quality of care & best patient outcomes |
Evidence-based practice (EBP) = a problem-solving approach to clinical decision-making that integrates the best available scientific evidence with practitioner experience. EBP uses evidence-based resources to guide the development of appropriate strategies for delivering high-quality, consistent, cost-effective care. Outcomes provide evidence about benefits, risks, and results of treatment so individuals can make informed decisions and choices to improve the quality of life.
Pg 84 A nurse managers discussing why she feels traditional generation nurses make good employees. Which statement by the nurse manager reflects those values? Value working as one's duty reflect a speak your mind philosophy value working primarily for the challenge use Internet daily as part of one's life |
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The nurse manager is discussing why she feels traditional generation nurses make good employees. Which statement by the nurse manager reflects those values? A) Value working as one's duty B) reflect a speak-your-mind philosophy C) value working primarily for the challenge D) use the Internet daily as part of one's life |
A) Value working as one's duty |
The traditional generation includes individuals born before 1940; they came of age after the Great Depression and were raised to be disciplined and obey their elders. They feel obligated to conform and believe that work is one's duty.
Pg 428 |
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Establishing professional goals is an example of which of the following? A) aggression B) Healthy People 2020 Indicators C) physical health D) professional health |
D) professional health |
The professional healthy individual is goal directed and six every opportunity to obtain knowledge and learning experiences. This may include going back to school for more education, becoming certified in his or her clinical practice area, and avoiding occupational hazards.
Pg 493 |
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A nurse is working in a long-term care facility and has an 85-year-old patient with dehydration secondary to diarrhea. The healthcare provider has ordered to infuse potassium chloride 10 mEq over one hour. Prior to implementation, the nurses plan should include which of the following? A) validating that the patient has adequate urine output B) obtaining an accurate height and weight C) arranging for placement of a central line D) assessing possible causes for diarrhea |
A) validating that the patient has adequate urine output |
Prior to administering IV fluids containing potassium chloride the nurse must ensure that the patient has urine output of at least 30 mL/hour. This verifies adequate renal function to excrete K+ and decreases the risk of toxicity.
Pharm ATI - page 397 |
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Mrs. J's son has medical power of attorney for her & is at bedside discussing options for her ongoing care. Mrs. J has just been dialyzed, and has not received pain medication, and is rational about her decision-making. Mrs. J's son states that he she should not receive any more dialysis treatments due to the acute stage of her illness, the discomfort that she has suffered, and her inability to care for herself. Mrs. J disagrees. Which decision should be followed? A) Mrs. J's son B) both, and the hospital's ethics committee should convene and decide C) Mrs. J's D) neither, this is a legal decision and should be made in a court of law |
C) Mrs. J's |
A power of attorney is a legal document executed by an individual (the principal) granting another person (the agent) the right to perform certain activities in the principal's name. It may be specific to a given situation or general and all inclusive.
In most states, a power of attorney is voluntarily granted by the individual and DOES NOT take away his right to exercise his own choices. Thus, if the principal patient disagrees with his agent's decisions, the patient's wishes are the ones that prevail.
Pg 380 |
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A patient is receiving prednisone, a corticosteroid. Which of the following possible changes in lab value should the nurse be alert for? A) increased K+, decreased Ca+, and increased glucose B) decreased K+, increased Ca+, and decreased glucose C) decreased K+, decreased Ca+ and increased glucose D) increased K+, increased Ca+, and increased glucose |
C) decreased K+, decreased Ca+ and increased glucose |
Corticosteroids are associated with hypokalemia, and hyperglycemia. |
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When a person fears another enough to act or behave differently than he would otherwise, the source of the other person's power is called: A) reward power B) coercive power C) expert power D) connection power |
B) coercive power |
Coercive Power = power that comes from the ability to punish others, when used to influence other individuals to change their action or behaviors.
Ex/ Using the threat of the hospital's disciplinary evaluation system to alter a person's behavior.
Pg 189 |
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Nurses are discussing the option of organizing a union at the hospital where they are employed. Many options I discussed. Which response by a nurse best explains the reason professional nurses unionize? A) nurses are usually satisfied with working conditions but want to see what else they could get. B) nurses in the workplace feel powerless & believe a collective voice would help address issues for nurses & improve pt safety. C) nurses like the power of a union so they can strike. D) nurses want to union to get more money & work fewer hrs. |
B) nurses in the workplace feel powerless & believe a collective voice would help address issues for nurses & improve pt safety. |
In general, nurses who are content in their workplace do not unionized. It is the nurses feel powerless that the initiate attempts to unionize. Other motivations to unionize include job stress and physical demands. Nurses are also motivated to join unions when they feel the need to communicate concerns and complaints to management without fear of losing their jobs. Some nurses believe that they need a collective voice so that management will hear them and change it will be instituted.
Common issues that are the subject of collective-bargaining include: • poor wages • unsafe staffing • health and safety issues • mandatory overtime • poor quality of care • job security • restructuring issues - example: crosstraining nurses for areas of specialty other than those which they were hired to practice
Pg 193 |
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Which of the following researchers did NOT coin the phrase: "leaders are people who do the right thing; managers are people who do things right"? Select all that apply. A) Kotter (1990) B) Stodgill (1948) C) McCall (1998) D) Bennis & Nanus E) McGregor (1960) |
Answers: A, B, C, & E A) Kotter (1990) B) Stodgill (1948) C) McCall (1998) E) McGregor (1960) |
Not all leaders are managers. Bennis & Nanas (2003) popularized the phrase, "managers are people who do things right; leaders are people who do the right thing."
• Both roles are crucial and we should avoid thinking that leadership is important & management is insignificant. People need to be managed, as well as inspired and lead. Leadership is part of management, not a substitute for it.
Pg 3 |
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Which of the following are considered to be 3 major classifications of leadership theories? Select all that apply. A) behavioral B) contingency C) motivational D) contemporary E) democratic |
Answers: A, B, E A) behavioral B) contingency D) contemporary |
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Five basic emotional and social competencies have been associated with emotional intelligence. Which of the following are some of these competencies? A) self-awareness B) self-regulation C) motivation D) self-actualization E) empathy |
Answer = A, B, C, E A) self-awareness B) self-regulation C) motivation E) empathy |
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The nurse explains to a group at a senior citizen center that older adult clients may be predisposed fluid imbalances for which reasons? Select all that apply. A) They might not pay attention to thirst or may experience less thirst. B) they might be too much fluid if they have a tendency for ankles to swell. C) They might not drink fluids if it's difficult to go to the bathroom. D) They only eat prepackaged food. E) They tend to dislike the taste of water.p |
Answers = A, B, C
A) They might not pay attention to thirst or may experience less thirst. B) they might be too much fluid if they have a tendency for ankles to swell. C) They might not drink fluids if it's difficult to go to the bathroom. |
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Your manager has asked you to assist with determining the workflow analysis of your unit, which will measure activities that are value added and help determine those which contribute to improved patient outcomes. When determining value added activities on your unit, you know that they must possess the following characteristics: A) The customer is willing to pay for the activity B) activity should not inflict pain C) the activity must be done right first time D) the activity must somehow change the product or service in some desirable way E) the activity must be what you like to do |
Answers = A, C, D A) The customer is willing to pay for the activity C) the activity must be done right first time D) the activity must somehow change the product or service in some desirable way |
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Which of the following are considered to be care delivery management tools that may be used by organizations when trying to reduce length of stay (LOS)? Select all that apply. A) clinical pathways B) case management C) disease management D) Nurse management E) medical management |
Answers = A, B, C A) clinical pathways B) case management C) disease management |
The federal government established DRGs as a payment system for hospitals; it uses national average length of stay for a specific patient type/diagnosis to determine the payment for that grouping of patients. LOS refers to the average number of days a patient is hospitalized from day of admission to discharge. With the DRG system, hospitals are paid the same amount for caring for a DRG patient group regardless of the actual LOS of that specific patient. In an attempt to decrease costs by reducing the LOS, hospitals implemented clinical pathways and case management practices, and they are increasingly adopting disease management programs.
Clinical Pathways = care management tools that outline the expected clinical course and outcomes for a specific patient type. They differ by individual facility, they include multi-disciplinary orders for care, and set expected outcomes for each impatient day based on diagnosis. The standard expected outcomes are compared to actual patient progress to identify variances in care and patient progression.
Case Management = the assigning of patients to a case manager who is responsible for coordinating care, establishing goals from preadmission through discharge. The case manager is responsible for communicating with all disciplines to facilitate care, ensure that the critical pathway is being adhered to and that patient is on schedule for expected discharge date.
Disease Management (DM) = A systemic, population-based approach to identify persons at risk, intervene with specific programs of care, and measure clinical and other outcomes. The objective of disease management is cost containment; research indicates that patients with chronic diseases that are managed by nurses, have a lower number of readmissions (which in turn decreases cost). DM strategies range from simple measures such as a pharmaceutical pamphlet describing how to use a medication to complex actions such as a nurse manager developing an individualized care plan for patients who are regularly contacted to ensure compliance with the plans. A variety of methods are used for disease management including telephone calls, Internet follow ups, and in person visits. The goal is to keep high-risk, high-cost patients out of the hospital.
Pg 255-56 |
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Dashboards and balanced scorecards can be used to identify for perspectives of an organization. Which of the following are some of these perspectives? Select all that apply. A) customer satisfaction B) staff satisfaction C) finances D) learning and growth E) personal satisfaction |
Answers = A, C, D A) customer satisfaction C) finances D) learning and growth |
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Which of the following are part of the "4 P's of marketing?"!Select all that apply. A) Price B) product C) plan D) patient E) placement |
Answers = A, B, C, E A) Price B) product C) plan E) placement |
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The model for improvement begins with three questions. Which of the following are some of those questions? Select all that apply. A) what are we trying to accomplish? B) What change is needed for improvement? C) What change can be made that will result in improvement D) How will we know that the change is an improvement? E) When will it be improved? |
Answers = A, C, D A) what are we trying to accomplish? C) What change can we make that will result in improvement? D) How will we know that the change is an improvement? |
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Quality improvement efforts use data to determine relationships and outcomes. Which of the following types of charts are used in quality improvement efforts? Select all that apply. A) Timeseries chart B) Paretto chart C) histamine charts D) fishbone charts E) personal charts |
Answers = A, B, D A) Timeseries chart B) Paretto chart D) fishbone charts |
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Which of the following are some of the six primary areas for patient safety that the joint commission focuses on? Select all that apply. A) patient satisfaction B) communication C) Falls D) medication safety E) safety at home |
Answers = B, C, D B) communication C) Falls D) medication safety |
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Lawerence Kohlberg (1971) identified a multi-phase process of moral development. Which of the following are some of these phases of moral development? Select all that apply. A) cognitive B) preconventional C) conventional D) postconventional E) affective
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Answers= B, C, D B) preconventional C) conventional D) postconventional |
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A number of occupational health hazards exist that nurses are susceptible to. There are four primary categories of these occupational health hazards. Which of the following are some of these categories? Select all that apply. A) infectious agents B) physical agents C) workplace violence agents D) chemical agents E) environmental agents |
Answers = A, B, D, E A) infectious agents B) physical agents D) chemical agents E) environmental agents |
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Burkhardt and Nathaniel (2006) identified some guidelines that can be used for ethical decision making. Which of the following are some of these guides? Select all that apply. A) gather data and identify conflicting moral claims B) determine the best outcomes C) act on the choice D) identify options E) evaluate outcomes of actions |
Answers = A, C, D, E A) gather data and identify conflicting moral claims C) act on the choice D) identify options E) evaluate outcomes of actions |
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Which of the following are questions that can be asked when assessing organizational culture? Select all that apply. A) Are risk & change encountered? B) What is the informal chain of command? C) What is the colloquial chain of command? D) What are the rules about how things should be done? E) Are organization’s values consistent with your values? |
Answers = A, B, D, E A) Are risk & change encountered? B) What is the informal chain of command?
D) What are the rules about how things should be done? E) Are organization’s values consistent with your values? |
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A number of techniques have been identified to assist nurses who work with staff from a different culture who speak English as a second language. which of the following are some of these techniques? Select all that apply A) if you can't achieve effective communication, give up B) acknowledge that your coworker’s value system and perception of what “good” is may be different from your own C) appreciate the knowledge you can gain from working alongside a skilled nurse from another culture D) provide your coworker with written resources that can help reinforce your verbal communication E) be rude & intrusive to obtain information by asking direct questions |
Answers = B, C, D B) acknowledge that your coworker’s value system and perception of what “good” is may be different from your own C) appreciate the knowledge you can gain from working alongside a skilled nurse from another culture D) provide your coworker with written resources that can help reinforce your verbal communication |
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A number of characteristics have been identified as behavioral styles of organizations in the United States. Which of the following are some of these characteristics? Select all that apply. A) a firm handshake is important B) use direct eye contact C) be on time to interview appointments D) casual dress is okay in many business situations and in clinical work settings E) be late for work frequently |
Answers = A, B, C A) a firm handshake is important B) use direct eye contact C) be on time to interview appointments |
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Which of the following are some of the predictors of performance on the NCLEX-RN exam? Select all that apply. A) GPA in science courses B) confidence in one’s abilities C) ACT score D) absence of emotional distress E) Critical thinking competency |
Answers = A, C, D, E A) GPA in science courses C) ACT score D) absence of emotional distress E) Critical thinking competency |
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Anxiety can disrupt even the most prepared test takers. Which of the following are some good strategies for anxiety reduction that nurses preparing for the NCLEX-RN exam might consider? Select all that apply A) guided imagery B) breathing exercises C) relaxation exercises D) fasting E) positive thinking
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Answers = A, B, C, E A) guided imagery B) breathing exercises C) relaxation exercises E) positive thinking |
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It is important for nurses to recognize key characteristics of good preceptors. Which of the following are some of these key characteristics of successful and effective preceptors? Select all that apply. A) assertive/aggressive in clinical expertise B) clinically prepared C) enjoy teaching D) committed to the role E) not difficult to work with |
Answers = B, C, D, E B) clinically prepared C) enjoy teaching D) committed to the role E) not difficult to work with |
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Some behaviors necessitate corrective action. Which of the following are some of these actions and behaviors? Select all that apply. A) excessive absenteeism B) failing to comply with policies or procedures C) inability to complete assignments in a timely manner D) a union complaint E) being aggressive and resentful toward coworkers
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Answers = A, B, C, E A) excessive absenteeism B) failing to comply with policies or procedures C) inability to complete assignments in a timely manner E) being aggressive and resentful toward coworkers |
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Some reasons for sleep deprivation that are specific to nurses are listed below. Which of the following are some of the reasons? Select all that apply. A) working the night shift B) rotating shifts C) working 10-hour to 12-hour shifts repeatedly D) ongoing thoughts about family and social pressures E) being absent from work frequently
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Answers = A, B, C A) working the night shift B) rotating shifts C) working 10-hour to 12-hour shifts repeatedly |
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Lawerence Kohlberg (1971) identified a multi-phase process of moral development. Which of the following are some of these phases of moral development? Select all that apply. A) cognitive B) preconventional C) conventional D) postconventional E) affective
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Answers= B, C, D B) preconventional C) conventional D) postconventional |
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A number of occupational health hazards exist that nurses are susceptible to. There are four primary categories of these occupational health hazards. Which of the following are some of these categories? Select all that apply. A) infectious agents B) physical agents C) workplace violence agents D) chemical agents E) environmental agents |
Answers = A, B, D, E A) infectious agents B) physical agents D) chemical agents E) environmental agents |
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Some workplace strategies that nurses can use to help prevent fatigue are listed below. Which of the following are they? Select all that apply. A) stay up for 24 hours when you are switching from a day to night shift B) take an uninterrupted 15-minute break every four hours C) rotate shift work clockwise when possible (e.g., days, evenings, nights) D) share a ride home or use public transportation E) call in late frequently |
Answers = B, C, D B) take an uninterrupted 15-minute break every four hours C) rotate shift work clockwise when possible (e.g., days, evenings, nights) D) share a ride home or use public transportation |
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Burkhardt and Nathaniel (2006) identified some guidelines that can be used for ethical decision making. Which of the following are some of these guides? Select all that apply. A) gather data and identify conflicting moral claims B) determine the best outcomes C) act on the choice D) identify options E) evaluate outcomes of actions |
Answers = A, C, D, E A) gather data and identify conflicting moral claims C) act on the choice D) identify options E) evaluate outcomes of actions |
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Which of the following are questions that can be asked when assessing organizational culture? Select all that apply. A) Are risk & change encountered? B) What is the informal chain of command? C) What is the colloquial chain of command? D) What are the rules about how things should be done? E) Are organization’s values consistent with your values? |
Answers = A, B, D, E A) Are risk & change encountered? B) What is the informal chain of command?
D) What are the rules about how things should be done? E) Are organization’s values consistent with your values? |
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A number of techniques have been identified to assist nurses who work with staff from a different culture who speak English as a second language. which of the following are some of these techniques? Select all that apply A) if you can't achieve effective communication, give up B) acknowledge that your coworker’s value system and perception of what “good” is may be different from your own C) appreciate the knowledge you can gain from working alongside a skilled nurse from another culture D) provide your coworker with written resources that can help reinforce your verbal communication E) be rude & intrusive to obtain information by asking direct questions |
Answers = B, C, D B) acknowledge that your coworker’s value system and perception of what “good” is may be different from your own C) appreciate the knowledge you can gain from working alongside a skilled nurse from another culture D) provide your coworker with written resources that can help reinforce your verbal communication |
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A number of characteristics have been identified as behavioral styles of organizations in the United States. Which of the following are some of these characteristics? Select all that apply. A) a firm handshake is important B) use direct eye contact C) be on time to interview appointments D) casual dress is okay in many business situations and in clinical work settings E) be late for work frequently |
Answers = A, B, C A) a firm handshake is important B) use direct eye contact C) be on time to interview appointments |
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Which of the following are some of the predictors of performance on the NCLEX-RN exam? Select all that apply. A) GPA in science courses B) confidence in one’s abilities C) ACT score D) absence of emotional distress E) Critical thinking competency |
Answers = A, C, D, E A) GPA in science courses C) ACT score D) absence of emotional distress E) Critical thinking competency |
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Anxiety can disrupt even the most prepared test takers. Which of the following are some good strategies for anxiety reduction that nurses preparing for the NCLEX-RN exam might consider? Select all that apply A) guided imagery B) breathing exercises C) relaxation exercises D) fasting E) positive thinking
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Answers = A, B, C, E A) guided imagery B) breathing exercises C) relaxation exercises E) positive thinking |
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It is important for nurses to recognize key characteristics of good preceptors. Which of the following are some of these key characteristics of successful and effective preceptors? Select all that apply. A) assertive/aggressive in clinical expertise B) clinically prepared C) enjoy teaching D) committed to the role E) not difficult to work with |
Answers = B, C, D, E B) clinically prepared C) enjoy teaching D) committed to the role E) not difficult to work with |
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Some behaviors necessitate corrective action. Which of the following are some of these actions and behaviors? Select all that apply. A) excessive absenteeism B) failing to comply with policies or procedures C) inability to complete assignments in a timely manner D) a union complaint E) being aggressive and resentful toward coworkers
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Answers = A, B, C, E A) excessive absenteeism B) failing to comply with policies or procedures C) inability to complete assignments in a timely manner E) being aggressive and resentful toward coworkers |
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Some reasons for sleep deprivation that are specific to nurses are listed below. Which of the following are some of the reasons? Select all that apply. A) working the night shift B) rotating shifts C) working 10-hour to 12-hour shifts repeatedly D) ongoing thoughts about family and social pressures E) being absent from work frequently
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Answers = A, B, C A) working the night shift B) rotating shifts C) working 10-hour to 12-hour shifts repeatedly |
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Lawerence Kohlberg (1971) identified a multi-phase process of moral development. Which of the following are some of these phases of moral development? Select all that apply. A) cognitive B) preconventional C) conventional D) postconventional E) affective
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Answers= B, C, D B) preconventional C) conventional D) postconventional |
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A number of occupational health hazards exist that nurses are susceptible to. There are four primary categories of these occupational health hazards. Which of the following are some of these categories? Select all that apply. A) infectious agents B) physical agents C) workplace violence agents D) chemical agents E) environmental agents |
Answers = A, B, D, E A) infectious agents B) physical agents D) chemical agents E) environmental agents |
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Some workplace strategies that nurses can use to help prevent fatigue are listed below. Which of the following are they? Select all that apply. A) stay up for 24 hours when you are switching from a day to night shift B) take an uninterrupted 15-minute break every four hours C) rotate shift work clockwise when possible (e.g., days, evenings, nights) D) share a ride home or use public transportation E) call in late frequently |
Answers = B, C, D B) take an uninterrupted 15-minute break every four hours C) rotate shift work clockwise when possible (e.g., days, evenings, nights) D) share a ride home or use public transportation |
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A number of issues that impact nursing practice are covered by criminal law. Which of the following are some of these issues? Select all that apply. A) criminal background checks B) prohibition against substance abuse C) Medicare requirements D) professional liability insurance E) professional liability |
Answers = A, D A) criminal background checks D) professional liability insurance |
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Burkhardt and Nathaniel (2006) identified some guidelines that can be used for ethical decision making. Which of the following are some of these guides? Select all that apply. A) gather data and identify conflicting moral claims B) determine the best outcomes C) act on the choice D) identify options E) evaluate outcomes of actions |
Answers = A, C, D, E A) gather data and identify conflicting moral claims C) act on the choice D) identify options E) evaluate outcomes of actions |
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Which of the following are questions that can be asked when assessing organizational culture? Select all that apply. A) Are risk & change encountered? B) What is the informal chain of command? C) What is the colloquial chain of command? D) What are the rules about how things should be done? E) Are organization’s values consistent with your values? |
Answers = A, B, D, E A) Are risk & change encountered? B) What is the informal chain of command?
D) What are the rules about how things should be done? E) Are organization’s values consistent with your values? |
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A number of techniques have been identified to assist nurses who work with staff from a different culture who speak English as a second language. which of the following are some of these techniques? Select all that apply A) if you can't achieve effective communication, give up B) acknowledge that your coworker’s value system and perception of what “good” is may be different from your own C) appreciate the knowledge you can gain from working alongside a skilled nurse from another culture D) provide your coworker with written resources that can help reinforce your verbal communication E) be rude & intrusive to obtain information by asking direct questions |
Answers = B, C, D B) acknowledge that your coworker’s value system and perception of what “good” is may be different from your own C) appreciate the knowledge you can gain from working alongside a skilled nurse from another culture D) provide your coworker with written resources that can help reinforce your verbal communication |
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A number of characteristics have been identified as behavioral styles of organizations in the United States. Which of the following are some of these characteristics? Select all that apply. A) a firm handshake is important B) use direct eye contact C) be on time to interview appointments D) casual dress is okay in many business situations and in clinical work settings E) be late for work frequently |
Answers = A, B, C A) a firm handshake is important B) use direct eye contact C) be on time to interview appointments |
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Which of the following are some of the predictors of performance on the NCLEX-RN exam? Select all that apply. A) GPA in science courses B) confidence in one’s abilities C) ACT score D) absence of emotional distress E) Critical thinking competency |
Answers = A, C, D, E A) GPA in science courses C) ACT score D) absence of emotional distress E) Critical thinking competency |
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Anxiety can disrupt even the most prepared test takers. Which of the following are some good strategies for anxiety reduction that nurses preparing for the NCLEX-RN exam might consider? Select all that apply A) guided imagery B) breathing exercises C) relaxation exercises D) fasting E) positive thinking
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Answers = A, B, C, E A) guided imagery B) breathing exercises C) relaxation exercises E) positive thinking |
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It is important for nurses to recognize key characteristics of good preceptors. Which of the following are some of these key characteristics of successful and effective preceptors? Select all that apply. A) assertive/aggressive in clinical expertise B) clinically prepared C) enjoy teaching D) committed to the role E) not difficult to work with |
Answers = B, C, D, E B) clinically prepared C) enjoy teaching D) committed to the role E) not difficult to work with |
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Some behaviors necessitate corrective action. Which of the following are some of these actions and behaviors? Select all that apply. A) excessive absenteeism B) failing to comply with policies or procedures C) inability to complete assignments in a timely manner D) a union complaint E) being aggressive and resentful toward coworkers
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Answers = A, B, C, E A) excessive absenteeism B) failing to comply with policies or procedures C) inability to complete assignments in a timely manner E) being aggressive and resentful toward coworkers |
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Some reasons for sleep deprivation that are specific to nurses are listed below. Which of the following are some of the reasons? Select all that apply. A) working the night shift B) rotating shifts C) working 10-hour to 12-hour shifts repeatedly D) ongoing thoughts about family and social pressures E) being absent from work frequently
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Answers = A, B, C A) working the night shift B) rotating shifts C) working 10-hour to 12-hour shifts repeatedly |
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Lawerence Kohlberg (1971) identified a multi-phase process of moral development. Which of the following are some of these phases of moral development? Select all that apply. A) cognitive B) preconventional C) conventional D) postconventional E) affective
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Answers= B, C, D B) preconventional C) conventional D) postconventional |
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A number of occupational health hazards exist that nurses are susceptible to. There are four primary categories of these occupational health hazards. Which of the following are some of these categories? Select all that apply. A) infectious agents B) physical agents C) workplace violence agents D) chemical agents E) environmental agents |
Answers = A, B, D, E A) infectious agents B) physical agents D) chemical agents E) environmental agents |
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Some workplace strategies that nurses can use to help prevent fatigue are listed below. Which of the following are they? Select all that apply. A) stay up for 24 hours when you are switching from a day to night shift B) take an uninterrupted 15-minute break every four hours C) rotate shift work clockwise when possible (e.g., days, evenings, nights) D) share a ride home or use public transportation E) call in late frequently |
Answers = B, C, D B) take an uninterrupted 15-minute break every four hours C) rotate shift work clockwise when possible (e.g., days, evenings, nights) D) share a ride home or use public transportation |
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A number of issues that impact nursing practice are covered by criminal law. Which of the following are some of these issues? Select all that apply. A) criminal background checks B) prohibition against substance abuse C) Medicare requirements D) professional liability insurance E) professional liability |
Answers = A, D A) criminal background checks D) professional liability insurance |
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In which of the following situations could a nurse be accused of false imprisonment? Select all that apply. A) Inappropriate use of chemical restraints B) Inappropriate use of physical restraints C) Restraining a competent person D) Failure to follow the institution’s policies regarding the type and frequency of restraint use E) Using restraints in an emergency situation to protect the patient from harm |
Answers = A, B, C, D A) Inappropriate use of chemical restraints B) Inappropriate use of physical restraints C) Restraining a competent person D) Failure to follow the institution’s policies regarding the type and frequency of restraint use |
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Burkhardt and Nathaniel (2006) identified some guidelines that can be used for ethical decision making. Which of the following are some of these guides? Select all that apply. A) gather data and identify conflicting moral claims B) determine the best outcomes C) act on the choice D) identify options E) evaluate outcomes of actions |
Answers = A, C, D, E A) gather data and identify conflicting moral claims C) act on the choice D) identify options E) evaluate outcomes of actions |
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Which of the following are questions that can be asked when assessing organizational culture? Select all that apply. A) Are risk & change encountered? B) What is the informal chain of command? C) What is the colloquial chain of command? D) What are the rules about how things should be done? E) Are organization’s values consistent with your values? |
Answers = A, B, D, E A) Are risk & change encountered? B) What is the informal chain of command?
D) What are the rules about how things should be done? E) Are organization’s values consistent with your values? |
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A number of techniques have been identified to assist nurses who work with staff from a different culture who speak English as a second language. which of the following are some of these techniques? Select all that apply A) if you can't achieve effective communication, give up B) acknowledge that your coworker’s value system and perception of what “good” is may be different from your own C) appreciate the knowledge you can gain from working alongside a skilled nurse from another culture D) provide your coworker with written resources that can help reinforce your verbal communication E) be rude & intrusive to obtain information by asking direct questions |
Answers = B, C, D B) acknowledge that your coworker’s value system and perception of what “good” is may be different from your own C) appreciate the knowledge you can gain from working alongside a skilled nurse from another culture D) provide your coworker with written resources that can help reinforce your verbal communication |
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A number of characteristics have been identified as behavioral styles of organizations in the United States. Which of the following are some of these characteristics? Select all that apply. A) a firm handshake is important B) use direct eye contact C) be on time to interview appointments D) casual dress is okay in many business situations and in clinical work settings E) be late for work frequently |
Answers = A, B, C A) a firm handshake is important B) use direct eye contact C) be on time to interview appointments |
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Which of the following are some of the predictors of performance on the NCLEX-RN exam? Select all that apply. A) GPA in science courses B) confidence in one’s abilities C) ACT score D) absence of emotional distress E) Critical thinking competency |
Answers = A, C, D, E A) GPA in science courses C) ACT score D) absence of emotional distress E) Critical thinking competency |
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Anxiety can disrupt even the most prepared test takers. Which of the following are some good strategies for anxiety reduction that nurses preparing for the NCLEX-RN exam might consider? Select all that apply A) guided imagery B) breathing exercises C) relaxation exercises D) fasting E) positive thinking
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Answers = A, B, C, E A) guided imagery B) breathing exercises C) relaxation exercises E) positive thinking |
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It is important for nurses to recognize key characteristics of good preceptors. Which of the following are some of these key characteristics of successful and effective preceptors? Select all that apply. A) assertive/aggressive in clinical expertise B) clinically prepared C) enjoy teaching D) committed to the role E) not difficult to work with |
Answers = B, C, D, E B) clinically prepared C) enjoy teaching D) committed to the role E) not difficult to work with |
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Some behaviors necessitate corrective action. Which of the following are some of these actions and behaviors? Select all that apply. A) excessive absenteeism B) failing to comply with policies or procedures C) inability to complete assignments in a timely manner D) a union complaint E) being aggressive and resentful toward coworkers
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Answers = A, B, C, E A) excessive absenteeism B) failing to comply with policies or procedures C) inability to complete assignments in a timely manner E) being aggressive and resentful toward coworkers |
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Some reasons for sleep deprivation that are specific to nurses are listed below. Which of the following are some of the reasons? Select all that apply. A) working the night shift B) rotating shifts C) working 10-hour to 12-hour shifts repeatedly D) ongoing thoughts about family and social pressures E) being absent from work frequently
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Answers = A, B, C A) working the night shift B) rotating shifts C) working 10-hour to 12-hour shifts repeatedly |
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Lawerence Kohlberg (1971) identified a multi-phase process of moral development. Which of the following are some of these phases of moral development? Select all that apply. A) cognitive B) preconventional C) conventional D) postconventional E) affective
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Answers= B, C, D B) preconventional C) conventional D) postconventional |
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A number of occupational health hazards exist that nurses are susceptible to. There are four primary categories of these occupational health hazards. Which of the following are some of these categories? Select all that apply. A) infectious agents B) physical agents C) workplace violence agents D) chemical agents E) environmental agents |
Answers = A, B, D, E A) infectious agents B) physical agents D) chemical agents E) environmental agents |
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Some workplace strategies that nurses can use to help prevent fatigue are listed below. Which of the following are they? Select all that apply. A) stay up for 24 hours when you are switching from a day to night shift B) take an uninterrupted 15-minute break every four hours C) rotate shift work clockwise when possible (e.g., days, evenings, nights) D) share a ride home or use public transportation E) call in late frequently |
Answers = B, C, D B) take an uninterrupted 15-minute break every four hours C) rotate shift work clockwise when possible (e.g., days, evenings, nights) D) share a ride home or use public transportation |
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A number of issues that impact nursing practice are covered by criminal law. Which of the following are some of these issues? Select all that apply. A) criminal background checks B) prohibition against substance abuse C) Medicare requirements D) professional liability insurance E) professional liability |
Answers = A, D A) criminal background checks D) professional liability insurance |
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In which of the following situations could a nurse be accused of false imprisonment? Select all that apply. A) Inappropriate use of chemical restraints B) Inappropriate use of physical restraints C) Restraining a competent person D) Failure to follow the institution’s policies regarding the type and frequency of restraint use E) Using restraints in an emergency situation to protect the patient from harm |
Answers = A, B, C, D A) Inappropriate use of chemical restraints B) Inappropriate use of physical restraints C) Restraining a competent person D) Failure to follow the institution’s policies regarding the type and frequency of restraint use |
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A client is being treated with clozapine (Clozaril). Which findings during a nurse’s assessment indicate that the client is experiencing adverse effects of clozapine? Select all that apply. A) Increased restlessness and anxiety B) Extreme salivation C) Seizure Activity D) Agranulocytosis E) Blood glucose 192 mg/dl |
Answers = B, C, D, E B) Extreme salivation C) Seizure Activity D) Agranulocytosis E) Blood glucose 192 mg/dl |
Clozapine (clozaril) = the FIRST antipsychotic medication developed, this first generation medication is rarely prescribed today due to its severe adverse effects, which include: agranulocytosis (which in turn causes increased risk of infection), anti-cholinergic effects, metabolic effects (increased blood glucose & cholesterol), and OH.
Pharm pg 116 |
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Burkhardt and Nathaniel (2006) identified some guidelines that can be used for ethical decision making. Which of the following are some of these guides? Select all that apply. A) gather data and identify conflicting moral claims B) determine the best outcomes C) act on the choice D) identify options E) evaluate outcomes of actions |
Answers = A, C, D, E A) gather data and identify conflicting moral claims C) act on the choice D) identify options E) evaluate outcomes of actions |
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Which of the following are questions that can be asked when assessing organizational culture? Select all that apply. A) Are risk & change encountered? B) What is the informal chain of command? C) What is the colloquial chain of command? D) What are the rules about how things should be done? E) Are organization’s values consistent with your values? |
Answers = A, B, D, E A) Are risk & change encountered? B) What is the informal chain of command?
D) What are the rules about how things should be done? E) Are organization’s values consistent with your values? |
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A number of techniques have been identified to assist nurses who work with staff from a different culture who speak English as a second language. which of the following are some of these techniques? Select all that apply A) if you can't achieve effective communication, give up B) acknowledge that your coworker’s value system and perception of what “good” is may be different from your own C) appreciate the knowledge you can gain from working alongside a skilled nurse from another culture D) provide your coworker with written resources that can help reinforce your verbal communication E) be rude & intrusive to obtain information by asking direct questions |
Answers = B, C, D B) acknowledge that your coworker’s value system and perception of what “good” is may be different from your own C) appreciate the knowledge you can gain from working alongside a skilled nurse from another culture D) provide your coworker with written resources that can help reinforce your verbal communication |
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A number of characteristics have been identified as behavioral styles of organizations in the United States. Which of the following are some of these characteristics? Select all that apply. A) a firm handshake is important B) use direct eye contact C) be on time to interview appointments D) casual dress is okay in many business situations and in clinical work settings E) be late for work frequently |
Answers = A, B, C A) a firm handshake is important B) use direct eye contact C) be on time to interview appointments |
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Which of the following are some of the predictors of performance on the NCLEX-RN exam? Select all that apply. A) GPA in science courses B) confidence in one’s abilities C) ACT score D) absence of emotional distress E) Critical thinking competency |
Answers = A, C, D, E A) GPA in science courses C) ACT score D) absence of emotional distress E) Critical thinking competency |
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Anxiety can disrupt even the most prepared test takers. Which of the following are some good strategies for anxiety reduction that nurses preparing for the NCLEX-RN exam might consider? Select all that apply A) guided imagery B) breathing exercises C) relaxation exercises D) fasting E) positive thinking
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Answers = A, B, C, E A) guided imagery B) breathing exercises C) relaxation exercises E) positive thinking |
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It is important for nurses to recognize key characteristics of good preceptors. Which of the following are some of these key characteristics of successful and effective preceptors? Select all that apply. A) assertive/aggressive in clinical expertise B) clinically prepared C) enjoy teaching D) committed to the role E) not difficult to work with |
Answers = B, C, D, E B) clinically prepared C) enjoy teaching D) committed to the role E) not difficult to work with |
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Some behaviors necessitate corrective action. Which of the following are some of these actions and behaviors? Select all that apply. A) excessive absenteeism B) failing to comply with policies or procedures C) inability to complete assignments in a timely manner D) a union complaint E) being aggressive and resentful toward coworkers
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Answers = A, B, C, E A) excessive absenteeism B) failing to comply with policies or procedures C) inability to complete assignments in a timely manner E) being aggressive and resentful toward coworkers |
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Some reasons for sleep deprivation that are specific to nurses are listed below. Which of the following are some of the reasons? Select all that apply. A) working the night shift B) rotating shifts C) working 10-hour to 12-hour shifts repeatedly D) ongoing thoughts about family and social pressures E) being absent from work frequently
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Answers = A, B, C A) working the night shift B) rotating shifts C) working 10-hour to 12-hour shifts repeatedly |
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What are the goals of healthy people 2010? |
- to encourage people of all ages to increase life expectancy and improve overall quality of life - to eliminate disparities among various groups within the population. - selected 10 health indicators, are used to measure overall goals for the nation |
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What are the goals of healthy people 2010? |
- to encourage people of all ages to increase life expectancy and improve overall quality of life - to eliminate disparities among various groups within the population. - selected 10 health indicators, are used to measure overall goals for the nation |
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What are the 6 major areas of health? |
1. Physical 2. Intellectual 3. Emotional 4. Professional 5. Social 6. Spiritual |
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Aspects of physical health include: |
- balanced nutrition - exercise - adequate rest - regular preventative health care behaviors and health screens |
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What is the role of ANA? |
• professional nursing organization • collective bargaining unit • sets standards regarding nursing care |
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