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211 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
The activity of which enzyme controls the rate of glycolysis?
Phosphofructokinase
A glycolytic enzyme that catalyzes the irreversible transfer of a phosphate from ATP to fructose-6-phosphate.
Phosphofructokinase
What are the reagents and products in a reaction with phosphofructokinase?
fructose-6-phosphate + ATP ---- fructose-1,6-bisphosphate + ADP
What enzyme is stimulated by ADP and AMP and is inhibited by ATP and Citrate?
Allosteric enzyme
What is an important allosteric activator of the allosteric enzyme, and an allosteric inhibitor of _____?
Fructose-2-6-biphosphate
Fructose-1-6-biphosphate
What enzyme converts fructose-1-6-bisphosphate into two 3-carbon metabolites, _____ _____ and _____?
What is this reaction called?
Aldolase
dihydroxyacetone phosphate
glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
Aldolytic reaction of glycolysis
Where is aldolase plentiful anatomically?
Skeletal and heart muscle tissues
Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm in the _____ of oxygen.
Absence
How many molecules of ATP are used to phosphorylate glucose and start glycolysis?
2
Two molecules of _____ capture H+ and are reduced to 2 molecules of _____ in glycolysis.
NAD+
NADH+H+
How many molecules of ATP are produced by substrate phosphorylation?
4
What is the end product of glycolysis?
What can this undergo?
Pyruvate
Either aerobic respiration in mitochondria or anaerobic respiration (fermentation)
What is the net gain of ATP in glycolysis?
2
What catalyzes the isomerization of glucose-6-phosphate to fructose-6-phosphate?
Phosphoglucose isomerase
What interconverts dihydroxyacetone phosphate and glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate?
Triose phosphate isomerase
The first sign of myocardial infarction in a patient is a high plasma level of which enzyme?
Creatine Kinase (CK)
In liver disease which two enzymes will be elevated in the plasma?
Glutamate-oxaloacetate transaminase (GOT)
Glutamate-pyruvate transaminase (GPT)
What enzyme functions in the transamination of alpha-ketoglutarate and L-alanine to glutamate and pyruvate?
What is another name for this?
Glutamate-pyruvate transaminase (GPT)
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
What is another name for Glutamate-oxaloacetate transaminase (GOT)
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
What are the enzymes most seen in the heart?
Creatine Kinase
Lactate dehydrogenase
Glutamate-oxaloacetate transaminase
Glutamate-pyruvate transaminase
What amino acids are not transaminated?
Lysine
Serine
Threonine
What is the first step of amino acid catabolism?
Removal of alpha-amino group
How is nitrogen transferred from one amino acid to another?
What is involved?
Transamination reactions
2 different pairs of amino acids & corresponding alpha-keto acids
What usually serves as one of the two pairs that are utilized in amino acid transaminase reactions?
Glutamate
alpha-ketoglutarate
What is required for transaminases to catalyze the transfer of amino acids?
Pyridoxal phosphate
What reactions result in the liberation of an amino group as a free ammonia (NH3)
Oxidative deamination reaction
Where do oxidative deamination reactions generally take place?
What are the products?
Liver and Kidney
alpha-ketoacids (energy) and ammonia (source of N in urea synthesis)
What enzyme is used on Glutamate in a deamination reaction?
Glutamate dehydrogenase
What enzyme is used on Histidine in a deamination reaction?
Histidase
What enzyme is used on Serine and threonine in a deamination reaction?
Serine dehydrogenase
What kind of reaction shares a common prosthetic group?
What is that group?
Aminotransferases (transaminases)
Pyridoxal phosphate (PLP)
Pyridoxal phosphate (PLP) is the coenzyme form of what?
Pyridoxine or vitamin B6
What functions as an intermediate carrier of amino groups at the active sites of aminotransferases?
PLP or Pyridoxal phosphate
PLP undergoes reversible transformations between its aldehyde form, _____ _____, which can accept an amino group, and its aminated form, _____ _____, which can donate its amino acid to an alpha-keto acid.
Pyridoxal phosphate (PLP)
Pyridoxamine phosphate (PMP)
Oxidative deamination occurs primarily on _____ _____ because it was the end product of many transamination reactions.
Glutamic Acid
What is an enzyme that catalyzes the oxidative deamination of glutamate?
What is released from this reaction?
What is formed?
What class does this enzyme belong to?
Glutamate dehydrogenase
Ammonia
alpha-ketoglutarate
Oxidoreductase class
Glutamate dehydrogenase is unusual in that it can either use _____ or _____ as a coenzyme.
NAD
NADP
Both asparate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) are _____.
Transaminases
_____ deaminates glutamine to glutamate and an ammonium ion
Glutaminase
_____ deaminates asparagine to aspartate and ammonium ion.
Asparaginase
_____ is deaminated by histidase to form ammonium ion (NH4+) and _____.
Histidine
Urocanate
What is serine converted to by serine dehydratase?
Threonine?
Pyruvate
alpha-ketobutyrate
Carbonic anhydrases are _____-containing enzymes that catalyze the reversible reaction between carbon dioxide hydration and bicarbonate dehydration.
Zinc
What does Carbon dioxide exist in equilibrium with in the body?
Bicrabonate HCO3-
What can be freely diffused in and out of the cell?
Bicarbonate/Carbon dioxide?
Carbon Dioxide
What is the reaction that carbonic anhydrase catalyzes?
H2O + CO2 <---> H+ + HCO3-
What is one of the fastest known enzymes?
Where is this enzyme found?
Carbonic Anhydrase
Concentration in Erythrocytes
Within the erythrocyte what does carbonic anhydrase facilitate?
Combination of carbon dioxide and water to form carbonic acid
Carbonic Anhydrase also functions in the _____ with the reabsorption of bicarbonate ion.
Kidney
How is most CO2 transported in the blood?
What part of the blood is its conversion more rapid in?
Why?
Bicarbonate ion (HCO3-)
Whole blood more than plasma
Whole blood contains erythrocytes
What part of the electron transport chain accepts only electrons?
Cytochrome b
Named for the fact that electrons are transported to meet up with oxygen from respiration at the end of the chain.
Electron transport (respiratory) chain
Where is the electron transport chain located?
Inner mitochondrial membrane
_____ _____ and _____ _____ by oxidative phosphorylation proceed continuously in all cells of the body that contain mitochondria.
Electron transport
ATP Synthesis
What are the components of the electron transport chain?
FMN
Coenzyme Q
Cytochromes (b,c,a,a3)
Oxygen
Part of the electron transport chain that receives electrons from NADH and transfers them through _____ centers to coenzyme Q.
FMN
Fe-S
What is FMN derived from?
What is NAD derived from?
Riboflavin
Niacin
What part of the electron transport chain receives electrons from FMN and also through Fe-S centers from _____?
Coenzyme Q
FADH2
How is coenzyme Q derived?
Body synthesizes it
What part of the electron transport chain receives electrons from the reduced form of coenzyme Q?
Cytochromes (b,c,a,a3)
What does each cytochrome consist of?
Heme group associated with a protein
What is Cytochrome a+a3 called?
Cytochrome oxidase
What is heme synthesized from in humans?
Glycine and succinyl CoA
What ultimately receives electrons at the end of the electron transport chain and is then reduced to water?
Oxygen
What is a nonprotein substance (organic cofactor) that combines with an apoenzyme to form a haloenzyme?
Coenzyme
What is the protein portion of a complex enzyme?
Apoenzyme
What is a complete catalytically active enzyme?
Haloenzyme
Enzymes are _____. Most are large _____.
Enzymes
Proteins
How does an enzyme speed up a reaction by binding to a reagent in the reaction?
Speeds up activation energy
What determines the function of an enzyme?
Enzymes are _____ specific.
Shape
substrate
The arrangement of molecules on an enzyme produces an area known as the _____ _____ within the specific substrates will fit.
Active Site
What classification catalyzes a redox reaction?
Oxidoreductases
What classification transfers a functional group reaction?
Transferases
What classification causes hydrolysis reaction?
Hydrolases
What classification break C-O, C-C, or C-N bonds?
Lyases
What classification Arranges functional groups?
Isomerases
What classification joins two molecules -- for example, DNA ligase joins pieces of DNA?
Ligases
What effects the activity of an enzyme?
Substrate concentration
pH
Temp.
Enzyme concentration
The enzymatic model that assumes that enzymes have flexible conformations is called _____ _____.
Induced fit
What is the active precursor of an enzyme?
Proenzyme
What enzyme is used to dissolve blood clots?
Plasmin or fibrinolysis
Plasmin is normally present in the blood in its inactive form called _____.
Plasminogen
What is a soluble protein normally present in the plasma that is essential to the blood clotting process?
Fibrinogen
What is fibrinogen converted to?
By What?
Soluble or Insoluble?
Fibrin
Thrombin
Insoluble
What is the protein precursor of Thrombin?
Where is this formed?
Prothrombin
Liver
What specifics are required to converted prothrombin to thrombin?
Thromboplastin
Calcium Ions
What linkages does Thrombin act on in fibrinogen to produce Fibrin?
Arginyl-glycinr linkages
A zymogen is converted to the active enzyme form in which way?
Where is this done?
Removal of a peptide fragment
Lumen of the digestive tract
What are enzymatically inactive precursors of proteolytic enzymes?
Zymogens
The _____ enzymes that hydrolyze proteins are produced and secreted as zymogens in the _____ and _____.
Digestive
Stomach
Pancreas
What mediates the release and activation of the pancreatic zymogens?
Cholecystokinin
Secretin
Where is Pepsinogen synthesized?
What is the active form?
Stomach
Pepsin
Where is chymotrypinogen synthesized?
What is its active form?
Pancreas
Chymotrypsin
Where is Procarboxypeptidase A synthesized?
What is its active form?
Pancreas
Carboxypeptidase A
Where is Trypinogen synthesized?
What is its active form?
Pancreas
Trypsin
Where is Procarboxypeptidase B synthesized?
What is its active form?
Pancreas
Carboxypeptidase B
Where is Proelastase synthesized?
What is its active form?
Pancreas
Elastase
What are starch molecules broken down by?
What is another name for this?
Amylase
Ptyalin
Amylase is the name given to _____ _____ enzymes that break down starch into glucose molecules.
Glycoside hydrolase
What are the three classifications of amylases?
alpha
beta
gamma
By acting in random locations what form of amylase breaks down long-chain carbohydrates.
Alpha-amylase
What does alpha-amylase break down? Into What?
Amylose - maltotriose and maltose
Amylopectin - amylose, maltose, limit dextran
What is faster?
alpha or beta amylase
Why?
alpha
Can act anywhere on the substrate
What are typically alpha-amylases in the body?
Salivary and pancreatic amylases
What form of amylase works from the non-reducing end, and catalyzes the hydrolysis of the second alpha-1,4 glycosidic bond, cleaving off two glucose units at a time?
Beta
What form of amylase cleaves the last alpha-1,4-glycosidic linkages at the non-reducing end of amylose and amylopectin, yielding _____, and will also cleave alpha-_____-glycosidic linkages?
gamma
glucose
1,6
What are various branched polysaccharides fragments that remain following the hydrolysis of starch?
Limit dextrins
Where are dissaccharides and small glucose polymers hydrolyzed?
By what?
Brush boarder of intestine
lactase, sucrase, maltase, alpha-dextrinase
Only _____ are absorbed in the small intestine.
Monosaccharides
What does lactase degrade lactose into?
Glucose and galactose
what cleaves a glucose linked 1,6 to another glucose as is found at the branch points in starch and glycogen?
Isomaltase
What does sucrase degrade sucrose into?
Glucose and fructose
If a patient has von Gierke's disease they are missing the enzyme _____, which converts _____.
Glucose-6-phosphate
glucose-6-phosphate to glucose
G6P is vital for the release of glucose into the bloodstream from _____ breakdown.
Glycogen (glycogenolysis)
Where does glucose-6-phosphatase break glycogen stores?
Liver not muscle
Glucose that is released from glycogen stores of the muscle will be _____ in the glycolytic pathway
oxidized
A biochemical process in which glucose is made from molecules that are not carbohydrates (primarily from amino acids but not fatty acids).
Where does this process take place?
Gluconeogenesis
Liver
Typically gluconeogenesis involves the conversion of lactic acid or amino acid into _____ or _____, which is then converted to glucose.
Pyruvate
phosphoenolpyruvate
What does Pyruvate carboxylse catalyze?
Pyruvate - oxaloacetate
What does phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase catalyze?
Oxaloacetate - phosphoenolpyruvate
What does fructose-1,6-bisphosphase catalyze?
Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate - fructose-6-phosphate
What does glucose-6-phosphatase catalyze?
glucose-6-phosphate - glucose
Glucose-6-phosphatase does/does not contain a high-energy bond.
Does not
The Michaelis constant is = the _____ _____ at which Vo (_____ _____ _____) is one-half Vmax.
What are the units?
Substrate conc.
Initial reaction velocity
Molarity
What are the ranges of Km?
10^-1 and 10^-6 M
What does the Km value of an enzyme depend on?
Particular substrate
Environmental conditions
The _____ the Km the _____ the relative affinity.
Lower
Higher
The Km values for enzyme-substrate reactions increase in the presence of a _____ _____.
Competitive inhibitor
Km values for enzyme-substrate reactions are not affected in the presence of a noncompetitive inhibitor; however, _____ is reduced.
Vmax
What is obtained when the enzyme sites are saturated with substrate?
Maximal rate (Vmax)
Allosteric enzymes usually show a complex relationship between the _____ and _____ _____.
Velocity
Substrate Concentration
What are the 2 mechanisms acting on enzymes which regulate metabolic processes?
Allosteric modification
Covalent modification
An allosteric enzyme is a regulatory is a regulatory enzyme and has both an active site for _____ and an allosteric site for _____.
Substrate
Effector
A substrate binds to the active site when what is absent?
What has a higher binding potential than the substrate?
What causes conformational changes on a protein which thereby changes its active site?
Effector
Those binding aspects on a protein which increase catalytic activity.
Positive effector
Those binding aspects on a protein which decreases catalytic activity.
Negative effector
What is the reversible covalent modification of an enzyme
Covalent modification
What is the most common form of covalent modification?
Enzyme phosphorylation
What groups does phosphorylation occur on?
Ser-OH
Thr-OH
Tyr-OH
What are the two states that an enzyme exists in?
Phosphorylated
Unphosphorylated

or

Active
Inactive
What is enzyme phosphorylation catalyzed by ?
ATP-dependent protein kinases
How are phosphorylated enzymes dephosphorylated?
By phosphoprotein phosphatases
What is the substrate for glycogen synthesis?
UDP Glucose
and
non-reducing end of glycogen
What is the enzyme which carry's out the synthesis of glycogen?
Glycogen synthase
Glycogen synthase is responsible for making the _____ linkages in glycogen.
1,4
What is glucose initially phosphorylated by in most tissues for glycogen synthesis?
Hexokinase
What is glucose initially phosphorylated by in the liver for glycogen synthesis?
Glucokinase
What initiates glycogen synthesis?
What enzyme does this?
glucose-6-phosphate <--> glucose-1-phosphate
phosphoglucomutase
What is glucose-1-phosphate converted to in the second step of gylcogen synthesis?
What enzyme does this?
UDP-Glucose
UDP-Glucose pyrophosphorylase
Of the glycogen synthases what is the active enzyme and is the dephosphorylated form?
Glycogen Synthase A
Of the glycogen synthases what is the inactive form and is the phosphorylated form?
Glycogen Synthase B
What breaks down glycogen?
What are its forms?
Glycogen phosphorylase
A and B
What is the phosphorylated form of glycogen phosphorylase which forms an active enzyme?
Where does this happen?
Glycogen phosphorylase A
Liver cells
What is the dephosphorylated form of glycogen phosphorylase which forms the inactive enzyme?
Glycogen phosphorylase B
Where are Glycogen synthase and glycogen phosphorylase phosphorylated at?
Specific Serine residues
What is the protein which is located at the core of the glycogen molecule?
glycogenin
When an inhibitor resembles the substrate and binds to the active site of the enzyme. The substrate is then prevented from binding to the same active site.
Competitive Inhibitor
What is the hallmark of competitive inhibition?
Can be overcome by increasing amounts of substrate
When an inhibitor and substrate can bind simultaneously to an enzyme molecule. This means that their binding sites _____ _____ overlap.
Noncompetitive inhibition
Becuase the inhibitor and substrate do not compete for the same site, noncompetitive inhibitor _____ be overcome by increasing the substrate concentration.
Cannot
A noncompetitive inhibitor is by definition an _____ inhibitor.
Allosteric
Inhibition where the inhibitor and substrate bind at different sites which do not overlap.
Uncompetitive inhibition
What is the hallmark of uncompetitive inhibition?
Inhibitor only binds to the enzyme only when a substrate is already attached (ES Complex)
What are the reversible inhibitors?
Competitive inhibition
Noncompetitive inhibition
Uncompetitive inhibition
______ inhibitors are those that combine with or destroy a functional group on the enzyme that is essential for its activity.
Irreversible
What is a classic example of irreversible inhibition?
Aspirin inhibition of cyclooxygenase
(Acetylates active site serine)
What are the characteristics of competitive inhibition?
- Overcome by increasing substrate
- Vmax stays same
- Km increased
What are the characteristics of noncompetitive inhibition?
- Is not overcome by increasing substrate
- Vmax decreased
- Km unchanged
The rate at which an enzyme works is influenced by what factors?
Concentration of substrate
Temp.
Inhibitor presence
pH
Increased concentration _____ enzyme rate
Increased temp. _____ enzyme rate
Increased inhibitor _____ enzyme rate
Increased
Increased (Until upper limit reached)
Decreased
Trypsinogen is converted to Trypsin by what enzyme?
Enteropeptidase
The presence of amino acids in the small intestine (es. duodenum) stimulates the release of what?
In turn what does this cause a release of?
Cholecystokinin
Pancreatic Zymogens and Gall bladder contraction
_____ can act as an activator for all zymogens of pancreatic proteases
Trypsin
What are the specific zymogens that trypsin converts into an active form?
Trypsinogen
Chemotrypsinogen
Proelastase
Procarboxypeptidase A and B
What is secreted by chief cells in the stomach and activated by low pH or other activating _____ molecules?
Pepsinogen
Pepsin
What cleaves peptide bonds in which the carboxyl group is contributed by lysine and arginine (basic amino acids)?
Trypsin
What cleaves peptide bonds in which the carboxyl group is contributed by the aromatic amino acids or by leucine?
Chymotrypsin
What cleaves at the carboxyl end of amino acid residues with small, unchanged side chains such as alanine, glycine, or serine?
Elastase
What has little activity on aspartate, glutamate, arginine, lysine, or proline?
Carboxypeptidase A
What cleaves basic amino acids, lysine, and arginine?
Carboxypeptidase B
What refers to any of a large group of enzymes that catalyze the hydrolysis of peptide bonds in the interior of a polypeptide chain or protein molecule?
Endopeptidase
What enzyme is used as an indicator of osteoblastic activity?
Alkaline phosphatase

or

Osteocalcin
What is the second most abundant bone matrix protein used in bone after type 1 collagen?
Osteocalcin
What is believed to increase the local concentration of inorganic phosphate or to activate the collagen fibers in such a way that they cause the deposition of _____ salts?
Alkaline phosphatase

Calcium
Alkaline phosphatase is involved in bone _____ and hydrolysis of _____ _____.
What pH does it function at?
Mineralization
Phosphoric esters
8.6
_____ are any group of enzymes that liberate inorganic phosphate from phosphoric esters.
Phosphatases
What are two examples of phosphatases?
Alkaline phosphatase
Acid phosphatase
What diseases are high levels of alkaline phosphatase seen?
Low Levels?
Paget's bone disease and Osteosarcomas

Hypophosphatasia
A phosphatase with optimum functioning at pH 4.5 and is present in the prostate gland.
Acid phosphatase
What is an inorganic compound found in muscle tissue and capable of storing and providing energy for muscular contraction?
Creatine phosphate
What is a phosphate molecule which plays a secondary role in bone development?
Pyrophosphate
Apoenzyme + cofactor = ?
Haloenzyme
What is the cofactor for the enzymes:
Cytochrome oxidase
Catalase
Peroxidase
Ferredoxin?
Fe2+, Fe3+
What is the cofactor for the enzymes:
Cytochrome oxidase
Pyruvate phosphokinase?
Cu2+
What is the cofactor for the enzymes:
Carbonic anhydrase
Alcohol dehydrogenase?
Zn2+
What is the cofactor for the enzymes:
Hexokinase
Glucose-6-phosphatase
Pyruvate kinase?
Mg2+
What is the cofactor for the enzymes:
Arginase
Ribonucleotide reductase?
Mn2+
What is the cofactor for the enzymes:
Pyruvate?
K+
What is the cofactor for the enzymes:
Urease?
Ni2+
What is the cofactor for the enzymes:
Dinitrogenase?
Mo
What is the cofactor for the enzymes:
Glutathione peroxidase?
Se
What functions as a coenzyme that is vital to tissue respiration?
Thiamine pyrophosphate
Thiamine pyrophosphate is required as a cofactor for the enzyme _____ _____, which catalyzes the oxidative decarboxylation of _____, to form _____, which then enters into the _____ _____ for the generation of energy.
Pyruvate dehydrogenase
Pyruvate
Acetyl-CoA
Kebs Cycle
Thiamine pyrophosphate is also a coenzyme for _____, which functions in the _____ _____ _____, and alternate pathway for glucose oxidation.
Transketolase
Pentose phosphate pathway
What coenzyme functions in certain oxidation / reduction reactions in the body?
What is it derived from?
Flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD)
Riboflavin (Vitamin B2)
What coenzyme is utilized alternatively with NADH as an oxidizing or reducing agent in various metabolic processes?
What is it derived from?
Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD)
Nicotinic acid (niacin)
What coenzyme functions as an acyl group carrier and is necessary for fatty acid synthesis and oxidation, pyruvate oxidation, and other acylation reactions?
What is it derived from?
Coenzyme A
Pantothenic Acid (vitamin B3)
What coenzyme is essential for many enzymatic reactions, almost all of which are associated with amino acid metabolism?
What is it derived from?
Pyridoxal phosphate (PLP)
Pyridoxine (vitamin B6)
What coenzyme participates in the transfer of various carbon fragments from on e molecule to another; they are, for instance, involved in the synthesis of methionine and thymine?
What is it derived from?
Tetrahydrofolate
Folic Acid
What coenzyme is a cofactor for the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, which breaks down pyruvate to form acetyl-CoA?
What is it derived from?
Lipoate
Not required in diet
What coenzyme is an essential cofactor for several enzymes?
What is it derived from?
Coenzyme B12
Vitamin B12