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100 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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The intestinal bacterium __________ was the initial focus of efforts to understand genes and genetics.
Choose one answer. a. Escherichia coli b. Salmonella typhi c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Mycoplasma genitalium e. Enterobacter aerogenes |
a. Escherichia coli
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Agarose gel electrophoresis separates DNA based on:
Choose one answer. a. size b. charge c. sequence d. all of the above e. none of the above |
size
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__________ naturally function to cut the DNA of invading plasmids and phages at specific points.
Choose one answer. a. Histones b. Gyrases c. Ligases d. Polymerases e. Restriction enzymes |
Restriction enzymes
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__________ and __________ are noncoding sequences that make up a large portion of eukaryotic chromosomes.
Choose one answer. a. Exons; introns b. Bacteriophages; plasmids c. Plasmids; introns d. Introns; pseudogenes e. Pseudogenes; bacteriophages |
Introns; pseudogenes
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__________ is a process that involves cell-to-cell contact to move the plasmid from a donor cell to a recipient cell.
Choose one answer. a. Transformation b. Transduction c. Pseudogene d. Conjugation e. Transposons |
Conjugation
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The DNA of phage T4 replicates by the __________ method.
Choose one answer. a. semiconservative b. conservative c. bidirectional d. operon e. rolling-circle |
rolling-circle
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The DNA proofreading activity is intrinsic to:
Choose one answer. a. DNA polI b. DNA polII c. DNA polIII d. DNA polIV e. DNA polV |
DNA polIII
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The primer in DNA replication is:
Choose one answer. a. an RNA starter sequence with a free 3' OH group b. an RNA starter sequence with a free 5' OH group c. a DNA starter sequence with a free 3' OH group d. a DNA starter sequence with a free 5' OH group e. a telomere with a free 5' phosphate |
an RNA starter sequence with a free 3' OH group
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The lagging strand is synthesized __________ , while the leading strand can be synthesized __________.
Choose one answer. a. continuously; discontinuously b. discontinuously; continuously c. 5'-to-3'; 3'-to-5' d. 3'-to-5'; 5'-to-3' e. quickly; slowly |
discontinuously; continuously
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Supercoiling in bacteria is typically introduced by an enzyme called:
Choose one answer. a. gyrase b. helicase c. ligase d. polymerase e. endonuclease |
gyrase
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It takes approximately how many minutes to move the entire E. coli chromosome from one cell to another?
Choose one answer. a. 10 b. 20 c. 50 d. 100 e. 200 |
100
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Intestinal microbes contain __________ times more genes than the human genome?
Choose one answer. a. 10 b. 20 c. 50 d. 100 e. 1,000 |
100
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A shuttle vector is so named because it
Choose one answer. a. contains a replication origin compatible with E. coli and a second origin that will allow the plasmid to replicate in a eukaryote or archaea. b. is designed to shuttle foreign DNA in and out of a cell. c. is easily transferred from one bacterial species to another. d. was designed by Herbert Shuttle. |
contains a replication origin compatible with E. coli and a second origin that will allow the plasmid to replicate in a eukaryote or archaea.
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Chromosome replication differs from the rolling-circle method of plasmid replication in that
Choose one answer. a. only chromosomal replication requires a helicase. b. only chromosomal replication produces Okazaki fragments. c. only chromosomal replication requires ligase to seal nicks in the DNA backbone. d. only chromosomal replication leads to the production of new double-stranded DNA molecules. |
only chromosomal replication produces Okazaki fragments.
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Initiation of DNA replication in a bacterial species
Choose one answer. a. always occurs after a defined time period, like clockwork. b. is a random event. c. is influenced by environmental factors. d. does not begin until the previous round of replication is complete. |
is influenced by environmental factors.
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In most bacterial species the DNA is
Choose one answer. a. negatively supercoiled. b. positively supercoiled. c. single-stranded. d. enclosed in a nuclear membrane called the nucleoid. |
negatively supercoiled.
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After __________, each polypeptide must be properly folded and placed at the correct cellular or extracellular location.
Choose one answer. a. replication b. transcription c. translation d. degradation e. conjugation |
translation
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Post-translational modification may involve:
Choose one answer. a. adenylylation b. phosphorylation c. acetylation d. all of the above e. none of the above |
all of the above
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The __________ of transcription and translation helps microbes rapidly adjust gene expression to changes in their environment.
Choose one answer. a. coupling b. separation c. processes d. slowing e. pausing |
coupling
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Which of the following are required for the termination of translation?
Choose one answer. a. sRNAs b. degrons c. tolC proteins d. release factors e. ubiquitins |
release factors
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What is the significance of the Shine-Dalgarno sequence?
Choose one answer. a. It is the site where RNA polymerase binds to begin transcription. b. It is the site where ribosomes bind to begin translation. c. It is the site where DNA polymerase binds to begin chromosome replication. d. It is the site where the tRNA binds to the mRNA in translation. e. It is the site where DNA polymerase begins synthesis of the Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand. |
It is the site where ribosomes bind to begin translation
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Peptidyl transferase is present in the __________ ribosomal subunit.
Choose one answer. a. 30S b. 50S c. 5S d. 16S e. 80S |
50S
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What does it mean to say that the genetic code is degenerate?
Choose one answer. a. There is more than one kind of amino acid in proteins. b. More than one rRNA can bind to the ribosome at the same time. c. A codon is composed of more than one nucleotide. d. More than one codon can specify the same amino acid. e. All products of translation contain a certain minimum number of mistakes, called mutations. |
More than one codon can specify the same amino acid.
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The average half-life for mRNA in E. coli is:
Choose one answer. a. 10–30 seconds b. 30–60 seconds c. 1–3 minutes d. 3–5 minutes e. 5–10 minutes |
1–3 minutes
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Rho functions in:
Choose one answer. a. protein degradation b. protein secretion c. initiation of translation d. termination of transcription e. release of ribosomes from the mRNA |
termination of transcription
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Which of the following is NOT true of initiation of transcription?
Choose one answer. a. The RNA polymerase holoenzyme binds. b. GTP hydrolysis catalyzes bubble formation. c. The promoter unwinds. d. The first rNTP is usually a purine. e. Position +1 marks the start of the gene. |
GTP hydrolysis catalyzes bubble formation.
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Transcription occurs in the __________ and translation occurs in the __________ of a eukaryotic cell.
Choose one answer. a. nucleoid; cytoplasm b. cytoplasm; cytoplasm c. nucleus; cytoplasm d. nucleus; nucleus e. nucleoid; nucleoid |
nucleus; cytoplasm
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The “housekeeping” sigma factor in E. coli is:
Choose one answer. a. sigma-28 b. sigma-38 c. sigma-54 d. sigma-70 e. sigma-97 |
sigma-70
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Signal sequences are found:
Choose one answer. a. in the 30S ribosomal subunit b. in the 50S ribosomal subunit c. at the N-terminal end of a protein d. at the C-terminal end of a mRNA e. upstream of the promoter |
at the N-terminal end of a protein
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In eukaryotes, protein degradation occurs through organelles called __________.
Choose one answer. a. proteases b. lysosomes c. RNases d. proteasomes e. vacuoles |
proteasomes
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Sigma factors are necessary in which phase of transcription?
Choose one answer. a. initiation b. elongation c. termination d. all of the above |
initiation
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Each segment of double-stranded DNA contains how many possible open reading frames?
Choose one answer. a. one b. three c. four d. six |
six
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What is the correct temporal sequence for factors binding to an mRNA in bacterial translation initiation?
Choose one answer. a. 30S ribosomal subunit, N-formylmethionine-tRNA, 50S subunit b. N-formylmethionine-tRNA, 30S ribosomal subunit, 50S subunit c. 50S subunit, 30S subunit, N-formylmethionine-tRNA d. N-formylmethionine, 50S subunit, 30S subunit |
30S ribosomal subunit, N-formylmethionine-tRNA, 50S subunit
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Proteins destined for the bacterial inner membrane
Choose one answer. a. are inserted post-translationally. b. are targeted to the inner membrane by a signal sequence on their carboxy-terminus. c. can be inserted into the membrane without help from other proteins. d. usually contain long stretches of amino acids with hydrophobic side chains that will span the bilayer. |
usually contain long stretches of amino acids with hydrophobic side chains that will span the bilayer.
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The process of importing free DNA into cells is known as __________.
Choose one answer. a. tranposition b. conjugation c. specialized transduction d. generalized transduction e. transformation |
transformation
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The level of recombination between species is estimated to be about how many times greater than the mutation rate?
Choose one answer. a. 10 b. 20 c. 50 d. 100 e. 1,000 |
100
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Evolution toward pathogenicity may involve:
Choose one answer. a. horizontal gene transfer b. gene loss c. gene acquisition d. A and C e. all of the above |
all of the above
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__________ are designed to spread when a population is facing danger.
Choose one answer. a. F plasmids b. Bacteriophage c. Resistance plasmids d. Conjugative transposons e. Integrases |
Conjugative transposons
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Within a/an __________, the antibiotic cassettes can be shuffled in their position by excision and reintegration.
Choose one answer. a. integrase b. pathogenicity island c. integron d. F plasmid e. Hfr |
integron
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Which of the following forms of transposition specifically describes the transfer of DNA from one cell to another?
Choose one answer. a. nonreplicative b. replicative c. composite d. complex e. conjugative |
composite
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Which of the following requires no homology between donor and recipient DNA molecules?
Choose one answer. a. phage integration b. phase variation c. D-loop formation d. transposition e. integron capture |
transposition
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Ames used his reversion test with Salmonella to screen compounds for potential __________.
Choose one answer. a. virulence b. pathogenicity c. toxicity d. antibiotics e. mutagenicity |
mutagenicity
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The spontaneous mutation rate per generation occurs at which frequency indicated below?
Choose one answer. a. 10–2 b. 10–3 c. 10–5 d. 10–7 e. 10–9 |
10–7
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Mutations that occur even in the absence of a mutagen are known as __________ mutations.
Choose one answer. a. spontaneous b. silent c. missense d. nonsense e. frameshift |
spontaneous
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A synonymous substitution is a/an:
Choose one answer. a. inversion b. deletion c. silent mutation d. insertion e. missense mutation |
silent mutation
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The transfer of F factor in E. coli from one donor cell to a __________ cell results in two __________ cells.
Choose one answer. a. donor; donor b. recipient; recipient c. donor; recipient d. recipient; donor e. recipient; Hfr |
recipient; donor
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The process of importing free DNA from the environment into cells is called
Choose one answer. a. Transcription b. transformation c. Conjugation d. transduction |
transformation
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Uptake of foreign DNA into a bacterium
Choose one answer. a. does not happen. b. Always benefits the bacterium. c. Always harms the bacterium. d. may help or harm the bacterium. |
may help or harm the bacterium
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Transposable elements differ from plasmids in that
Choose one answer. a. Only plasmids may code for antibiotic resistance b. Only plasmids consist of double-stranded DNA. c. only plasmids may exist autonomously, not integrated into host DNA. d. Only plasmids may be transmitted horizontally from one bacterium into another. |
only plasmids may exist autonomously, not integrated into host DNA.
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One sign of horizontal gene transfer is
Choose one answer. a. a GC base ratio different from flanking chromosomal DNA. b. Uniform codon usage throughout the genome. c. Gene duplication. d. Pathogenicity via gene loss. |
a GC base ratio different from flanking chromosomal DNA
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The transfer of a phosphate group from a phosphorylated sensor kinase to its cognate response regulator is referred to as:
Choose one answer. a. chemophosphorylation b. autophosphorylation c. transphosphorylation d. dephosphorylation e. pyrophosphorylation |
transphosphorylation
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Which molecule is used for hybridization to DNA bound on a DNA microchip?
Choose one answer. a. DNA b. RNA c. mRNA d. cDNA e. any of the above |
cDNA
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All the cell’s expressed RNAs are collectively referred to as the cell’s __________.
Choose one answer. a. genome b. transcriptome c. proteome d. holoenzyme e. ORF |
transcriptome
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A quorum-sensing gene system requires the accumulation of a secreted small molecule called a/an __________.
Choose one answer. a. autoinducer b. activator c. repressor d. inducer e. corepressor |
autoinducer
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Phase variation in Salmonella enterica involves:
Choose one answer. a. gene inversion b. chemotaxis c. outer membrane proteins d. sRNA e. slipped-strand mispairing |
gene inversion
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Which of the following explains the regulatory activity of sRNA?
Choose one answer. a. It codes for a sigma factor. b. It prevents CRP interaction with RNA polymerase, thereby blocking its access to the promoter. c. It synthesizes ppGpp. d. It target mRNAs for degradation. e. It creates an attenuator stem loop. |
It target mRNAs for degradation
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Transcriptional attenuation is a common regulatory strategy used to control many operons that code for what?
Choose one answer. a. amino acid degradation b. amino acid biosynthesis c. carbohydrate degradation d. carbohydrate biosynthesis e. none of the above |
amino acid biosynthesis
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Binding of tryptophan to the __________ makes a holorepressor.
Choose one answer. a. aporepressor b. corepressor c. repressor d. inducer e. activator |
aporepressor
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__________ analysis with the lactose operon showed that the area protected by the repressor overlaps the area protected by RNA polymerase.
Choose one answer. a. PCR b. DNA footprint c. Agarose gel electrophoresis d. PAGE e. X-ray crystallography |
DNA footprint
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All of the following typically occur in the presence of high glucose and high lactose concentrations EXCEPT:
Choose one answer. a. Enzyme II glucose is unphosphorylated. b. cAMP concentrations are low. c. CRP levels in the cell are low. d. Adenylate cyclase is inhibited. e. Lactose is kept out of the cell. |
CRP levels in the cell are low
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Which is the favored carbon source of E. coli?
Choose one answer. a. lactose b. galactose c. glucose d. sucrose e. fructose |
glucose
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How many of the gene products of the lactose operon are required for the utilization of lactose to occur?
Choose one answer. a. none b. one c. two d. three e. four |
two
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The protein product of the lacI gene is
Choose one answer. a. an activator b. a regulatory protein c. a corepressor d. sensor kinase |
a regulatory protein
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Accumulation of the of the heat-shock sigma factor, sigma H, increases at high temperatures because
Choose one answer. a. at high temperatures proteolysis of sigma H increases b. at high temperatures fewer chaperone proteins are expressed c. at high temperatures sigma H mRNA adopts an unfolded secondary structure. d. at high temperatures sigma H has a reduced affinity for RNA polymerase. |
at high temperatures sigma H mRNA adopts an unfolded secondary structure
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Acyl homoserine lactone produced by luxI of Vibrio fisherii is an example of
Choose one answer. a. an autoinducer b. an inducer c. a repressor d. a bioluminescent molecule |
an autoinducer
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The cAMP receptor protein (CRP) has binding sites for
Choose one answer. a. lactose. b. the RNA polymerase alpha subunit. c. DNA of any sequence, 20 base pairs in length. d. all of the above. |
the RNA polymerase alpha subunit
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In many bacteria, the electron carrier __________ is used for biosynthesis, whereas __________ feeds the electron transport system.
Choose one answer. a. NADPH; NADH b. FADH2; NADPH c. NADH; acetyl-S-CoA d. all of the above e. none of the above |
NADPH; NADH
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Which if the following statements is correct with respect to heterotrophic organisms?
a. They use preformed organic compounds for biosynthesis. b. Most organotrophs are also heterotrophs. c. Along with decomposers, they are ecologically defined as consumers. d. All of the above. e. None of the above. |
d. All of the above.
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Some freshwater and marine bacteria can use ultraviolet and near-infrared light to do photosynthesis. Why are wavelengths below UV and beyond IR NOT used for photosynthesis?
Choose one answer. a. X-rays and other ionizing radiation can damage molecules. b. The quantum energy of radio waves and microwaves is insufficient to drive photochemistry. c. The range of wavelengths used by photosynthetic organisms is energetically suitable for the formation and breakdown of molecular bonds in organic compounds. d. All of the above. e. None of the above. |
d. All of the above.
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The greatest amount of reduced coenzyme NADH is produced during which stage of aerobic respiration?
Choose one answer. a. glycolysis b. pyruvate conversion to acetyl-S-CoA c. TCA cycle d. glyoxylate bypass e. oxidative phosphorylation |
c. TCA cycle
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Which of the following molecules is responsible for the distinctive flavor of Swiss cheese?
Choose one answer. a. lactate b. glucose c. galactose d. propionate e. acetate |
d. propionate
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Some intestinal bacterial groups feed on __________ from mucus secretions using the Entner-Doudoroff pathway.
Choose one answer. a. gluconate b. glucose c. pyruvate d. 2-oxoglutarate e. none of the above |
a. gluconate
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The process of prioritized consumption of substrates is known as catabolite __________.
Choose one answer. a. induction b. poisoning c. competition d. repression e. none of the above |
d. repression
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Disparate animal groups, such as ruminants and termites, can ferment cellulose from grasses or wood because they harbor cellulase-bearing bacteria, such as:
Choose one answer. a. Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus subtilis b. Salmonella and Shigella c. Escherichia coli and Enterococcus faecalis d. Ruminococcus and Succinomonas e. Escherichia chrysanthemi and Erwinia uredovora |
d. Ruminococcus and Succinomonas
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Fermentation can be defined as completion of metabolism:
Choose one answer. a. without an electron transport system b. without a terminal electron acceptor c. without further production of ATP after a few substrate-level phosphorylation reactions d. in the absence of oxygen e. all of the above |
e. all of the above
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With regard to protein folding, thermophilic (heat-loving) microbes usually contain proteins with
Choose one answer. a. a less negative H than the H of proteins from non-heat-loving microbes. b. a more negative H than the H of proteins from non-heat-loving microbes. c. a similar H to the H of proteins from non-heat-loving microbes. d. It is impossible to predict how the H of protein folding will differ in thermophilic versus non-thermophilic organisms. |
a. a less negative H than the H of proteins from non-heat-loving microbes.
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What is a common occurrence in the three different glucose-to-pyruvate catabolic pathways?
Choose one answer. a. NADH is oxidized to NAD+. b. Glucose is reduced by the addition of hydrogen atoms. c. The presence of phosphorylated sugars. d. There is no net production of ATP |
c. The presence of phosphorylated sugars.
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Which of the following molecules must be degraded by aromatic catabolism?
Choose one answer. a. lignin b. glucose c. acetate d. glycerol |
a. lignin
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Fermentation pathways have in common
Choose one answer. a. the oxidation of NADH to NAD+. b. the production of lactic acid. c. the production of ethanol. d. the use of oxygen as an electron acceptor. |
a. the oxidation of NADH to NAD+.
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If a molecule is found in greater concentration inside the cell than outside, we can conclude that
Choose one answer. a. this represents the maximal entropy state for that molecule. b. the concentration gradient cannot be used to do work. c. energy was required to produce the concentration gradient. d. all of the above |
c. energy was required to produce the concentration gradient.
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Enzymes transferring electrons at the start of the ETS are referred to as __________, whereas enzymes transferring electrons to the terminal electron acceptor are designated __________.
Choose one answer. a. dehydrogenases; oxidases b. oxidases; dehydrogenases c. sulfatases; nitrogenases d. none of the above e. all of the above |
a. dehydrogenases; oxidases
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Some pathogenic bacteria use __________ to expel antibiotics from the cell.
Choose one answer. a. proton-driven efflux pumps b. sugar or amino acid inward carriers c. heme cofactors d. all of the above e. none of the above |
a. proton-driven efflux pumps
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The proton motive force drives the following process in bacteria:
Choose one answer. a. ATP biosynthesis from ADP and Pi b. flagellar rotation c. nutrient uptake d. all of the above e. none of the above |
d. all of the above
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What is lithotrophy?
Choose one answer. a. breakdown of molecules using light energy b. oxidation of organic electron donors to CO2 and H2O c. photolysis of H2S or H2O coupled to CO2 fixation d. oxidation of inorganic electron donors such as Fe2+ using O2 or anaerobic electronic acceptors e. none of the above |
d. oxidation of inorganic electron donors such as Fe2+ using O2 or anaerobic electronic acceptors
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In Rhodospirillum rubrum photosystem II, bacteriochloropyll P870 can absorb weak infrared wavelengths in the __________ range.
Choose one answer. a. 65–700 b. 750–850 c. 800–1,100 d. all of the above e. none of the above |
c. 800–1,100
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The following is correct with respect to anaerobic photosystem I:
Choose one answer. a. PS I separates electrons associated with hydrogens from H2S. b. PS I separates electrons from organic electron donors such as succinate. c. PS I separates electrons from Fe2+. d. All of the above. e. None of the above. |
d. All of the above.
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How does bacteriorhodopsin couple photoexcitation with proton pumping?
Choose one answer. a. Bacteriorhodopsin has a proton channel domain. b. Bacteriorhodopsin makes the membrane porous to protons. c. Light-induced conformational changes of retinal cause the protein to extrude one proton. d. All of the above. e. None of the above. |
c. Light-induced conformational changes of retinal cause the protein to extrude one proton.
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The reduction of uranium to uranite by Geobacter metallireducens is an example of:
Choose one answer. a. assimilatory metal reduction b. fermentation c. dissimilatory metal reduction d. organotrophy e. lithotrophy |
c. dissimilatory metal reduction
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Anaerobic corrosion of steel is accelerated by __________.
Choose one answer. a. nitrifiers b. sulfur-reducing bacteria c. methanogenic archaea d. all of the above e. none of the above |
b. sulfur-reducing bacteria
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ATP production in halophilic archaea that contain bacteriorhodopsin differs from ATP production in cyanobacteria in that
Choose one answer. a. only cyanobacteria use light to excite electrons. b. only cyanobacteria create a proton motive force. c. only cyanobacteria are found in water. d. only cyanobacteria oxidize water. |
d. only cyanobacteria oxidize water.
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Which of the following is the most oxidized form of nitrogen?
Choose one answer. a. nitrate (NO3-) b. nitrite (NO2-) c. nitric oxide (NO) d. nitrogen gas (N2) |
a. nitrate (NO3-)
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Which of the following molecules can serve as an electron donor to fuel an electron transport chain?
Choose one answer. a. NADH b. water c. ammonia d. all of the above |
d. all of the above
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Cyanobacteria contain
Choose one answer. a. photosystem I only. b. photosystem II only. c. both photosystems I and II. d. neither photosystem I nor photosystem II. |
c. both photosystems I and II.
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For a given electron donor, the most energy will be released when oxygen serves as the final electron acceptor because
Choose one answer. a. the concentration of oxygen gas is higher than concentrations of other possible electron acceptors. b. oxygen is a stronger oxidizing agent than most other electron acceptors. c. oxygen has a higher molecular weight than other electron acceptors. d. oxygen donates electrons more readily than other electron acceptors. |
b. oxygen is a stronger oxidizing agent than most other electron acceptors.
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Which of the following forms of energy production does not use a proton gradient to synthesize ATP?
Choose one answer. a. fermentation b. oxidative respiration c. phototrophy d. All forms of energy production require a proton motive force. |
a. fermentation
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What is the main product from fermenting the vegetables at Real Pickles?
Choose one answer. a. acetic acid b. lactic acid c. pyruvate d. ethanol e. butyrate |
b. lactic acid
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Where do the bacteria used in fermenting vegetables at Real Pickes come from?
Choose one answer. a. Wild bacteria that are on the vegetables. b. A starter culture from the previous fermentation. c. A stater culture from Dan's grandmother. d. A commerical packet of defined bacteria. e. A mixture of bacteria from a UMass research lab |
a. Wild bacteria that are on the vegetables.
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How many volts of Bug Power are produced by Geobacter?
Choose at least one answer. a. 6V b. 3V c. 1.5V d. 0.5V e. 0.3V |
c. 1.5V
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The artificial "Mexican Wave" quorum sensing system created using in E. coli involves:
Choose one answer. a. genes from a bacteria that lives in a squid. b. a gene from Bacillus thuringiensis. c. a GFP fusion protein. d. all of the above |
d. all of the above
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In the music video "Oxidate It Or Love It/Electron To The Next One" the spinning umbrella represents:
Choose one answer. a. a flagellar motor b. the TCA cycle c. the Electron Transport System d. a FoF1 ATPase complex e. the pentose-phosphate shunt |
d. a FoF1 ATPase complex
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