• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/272

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

272 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
4 functions of the foot
-acts as a base of support for maintaining upright posture
-provides flexibility to adapt to uneven terrain
-shock absorption
-acts as lever during pushoff/aids in weight bearing
the forefoot is comprised of __ metatarsals and __ phalanges
5, 14
waht does MTP stand for ?
metatarsophalangeal joint
what does PIP stand for?
proximal interphalangeal joint
what does DIP stand for?
distal interphalangeal joint
what does TM
tarsometatarsal joint
waht does IM stand for?
intermetatarsal joint
there are __ total phalanges in the body
56
the big toe doesn't have a __, just an __
PIP, IP
there are __ total tarsal bones in each foot
7
the midfoot is comprised of the __
navicular, cuboid, and 3 cuneiform bones
the hindfoot is comprised of the __
calcaneus and talus
__ is the largest tarsal bone
calcaneus
the __ in the hindfoot bears the weight in the foot
talus
runs from the anterior, inferior calcaneus to the metatarsal heads
medial and lalteral longitudinal arch
runs across the anterior tarsals and the anterior metatarsals
transverse arch
a specialized thick band of fascia that covers the plantar surface of the foot.
plantar fascia
extends from the posterior medial calcaneus to the proximal phalanx of each toe.
plantar fascia
acts like a spring during gait and may be elongated by stratching the achilles tendon
plantar fascia
hammer and claw toes are often __ but can be __ becuase of improperly fitted shoes, contractures of the foot muscles, or malalignment of bony structures
developed, congenital
a flexion deformity of the PIP joint
hammer toe
a hyperextension of the MTP joint and hyperflexion of the DIP and PIP joints
claw toe
found on the plantar aspect of the foot. they have tiny, dark red or black dots within each one. commonly recurs
plantar warts
plantar warts __ recurs
commonly
plantar warts is also konw as __
verrucae plantaris
a common fungal condition characterized by extreme itching on the sole of the foot and between the toes. skin may be scaling, peeling, and cracking
athletes foot
what is athletes foot real name
tinea pedis
characterized by localized pain primarily in the 2nd and 3rd metatarsal space that often radiates into the other toes. the nerve is compressed between the toes
plantars neuroma
what is often used to test for plantars neuroma?
a pencil eraser
typically found on the medial ascpect of teh MTP joint of the great toe, but can occur on the lateral aspect of the 5th toe.
bunions
when the great toe, (due to several conditions) shifts laterally and overlaps the 2nd toe leading to a rigid non-functional hallux valgus deformity
bunions
what are bunions actually called?
hallux valgus
discomfort around the metatarsal heads
matatarsalgia
what is bursitis commonly called?
pump bump
when teh bursa associated with the achillies tendon can become swollen and irritated due to external pressure from a shoe or excessive pronation
bursitis
signs and symptoms are pain with palpation just anterior to teh achilles and pain with active push off
bursitis
can be quite painful due to getting stepped on or dropping something on teh foot. fractures must be ruled out first. contusions can occur on the plantar aspect from a loos cleat irritating ball of the foot
midfoot/forefoot contusions
caused by excessive body weight, age, worn out shoes, and hard surfaces
hindfoot contusion (heel bruise)
when the medial or lateral aspect of the nail grows into the nailbed. the ingrown area causes disruption and infection of the skin. appears red and swollen
ingrown toenail
another name for ingrown toenail
onychocryptosis
occur by tripping or stubing the toe.
MP and IP sprinas
varus and valgus forces normally only affect the __
1rst and 5th toes.
the heel of teh foot has a __
fat pad
when the 1rst toe is shorter than normal
mortons toe
caused by jamming the great toe into the end of the shoe, or hyperextending the MTP joint of the great toe. it is related to artificail turf and hyperflexible shoes
turf toe
with turf toe, the __ are drawn forward to bear weight under the 1rst metatarsal head
sesamoid
the result of severe dorsiflexion, plantar flexion, or pronation
midfoot sprain
mostly seen in sports where the foot is unsupported like gymnastics or intrack with less supported flats
midfoot sprains
__ have signs and symptoms of pain and swelling deep within the plantar aspect of the foot and pain with weight bearing
midfoot sprains
casued by excessive achilles tightnes, excessive pronation, or obesity overloading the plantar fascia at the calcaneus
plantar fascitis
plantar fascitis is most common in __
runners
S/S of __ are:
pain upon arising in the morning that diminished within 5-10 min, pain with weight bearing, pain with palpation over medical calcaneus and increases with toe extension
plantar facitis
seen in running and jumping especially after an increase in work outs, working out on non-yielding surfaces or wearing improper shoes
stress fractures
the __ is the most common foot structure to get a stress fracture
2nd metatarsal
S/S of __ are:
pain w/WB, swelling and point tender over fracture site
stress fracture
occurs normally at the stie of a ligament or tendon attachement.
avulsion fractures
when teh peroneusbrevis tendon can avulse the shaft of teh 5th metatarsal
jones fracture
what should you look for in bilateral observation of the foot? (3)
-flat foot
-high arch
-pronation/supination
what ROM's and strengths should you check with the foot? (6)
-PF/DF/EV/IV/Toe ext/toe flex
the tibiofibular joint is a __ or __ type of joint
fiberous, syndesmosis
what ligaments support the lateral aspect of the tibiofibular joint? (7)
-anterior talofibular
-posterior talofibular
-calcaneofibular
-anterior tibiofibular
posterior tibiofibular
-retinaculum
-interosseous membrane
the articulation formed by the distal articular surface of the tibia and its medial malleolus, the fibulas lateral malleolus, and the talus
ankle mortise
spans between the talus, tibia, and fibula
ankle mortise
a uniaxial modified hinge synovial joint located between the talus, medial malleolus, and lateral malleolus
talocrural (ankle) joint
the talocrural (ankle) joint is designed for __ especially in __
stability, DF
the major medial ligament of the talocrural joint is the __ ligament
deltoid
the deltoid muscle consists of 4 ligaments:
-tibionavicular
-tibiocalcanean
-posterior tibiotalar
-anterior tibiotalar
if the deltoid ligament ruptures the foot __
everts
what is the "spring ligament" of the ankle?
plantar calcaneonavicular
a bony structure, protrudes on calcanus, goes inferior on medial malleolus. IS THE ATTACHEMENT SITE FOR CALCANEAL NAVICULAR LIGAMENT
sustentacululm tali
stabalizes against excesssive inversion of the talus. most commonly injured by a lateral ankle sprain
anterior talofibiular ligament
resists andkle DF and talar AD/medial rotation/medial translation
posterior talofibular ligament
'stailizes against maximum IV at the ankle and subtalar joint. second most injured by a lateral ankle sprain
calcaneofibular ligament
holds the peroneal tendons in place
retinaculum
the subtalar joint is a __ joint
synovial
the __ is supported by the lateral and medial talocalcaeanal ligaments
subtalar joint
no muscles attach to the __
talus
not a specific structure but is an indentation formed on teh talus next to the extensor digitorum brevis. it is concave. after injury to theATF or taler fx, it fills with fluid and loses its indentation in teh foot
sinus tarsi
__ and __ are the most unstable ankle positions
PF and EV
enclosed by the interosseous membrane lying posteriorly, contains the tivia, fibula on either side and a nonexpansive fascia covering the compartment anteriorly
anterior compartment
muscles contained in the anterior compartment (5)
-tibialis anterior
-extensor digitorum longus
-extensor hallucis longus
-peroneal nerve
-anterior tibial artery
the tibialis anterior does __
DF/IV
the extensor digitorum does __
DF/toe extension
the extensor ahllicus longus does __
great toe extension
the peroneus tertius does __
DF/EV
structure contained in the lateral compartment (5)
-peroneus longus
-peroneus breivs
-peroneal artery
-fibula
-peroneal nerve
the peroneus longues does __
PF/EV
the peroneus brevis does __
PF/EV
muscles contained in the posterior deep compartment (5)
--flexor digitorum .longus
-flexor hallucis longus
-tibialis posterior
-popliteus
-posterior tibial artery
the flexor digitorum ongus does __
PF/toe flexion
the flexor hallucis longus does __
PF/great toe flexion
the tbialis posterior does __
PF/IV
the popliteus does __
knee flexion and flexed leg IR
what is contained int eh posteiror superficial compartment? (3)
gastrocnemius
soleus
plantaris
what makes up the triceps surae?
gastrocnemius
soleus
plantaris
the peroneal nerve courses behind the __
fibular head
a hard plastic used to treat dropfoot
ankle foot orthotic (AFO)
the gastrocnemius does ___
PF/knee flexion
the soleus does __
PF
what does the plantaris do?
PF/Knee flexion
the path of the peroneal nerve courses behind the __
fibular head
a hard plastic used to treat dropfoot
ankle foot orthotic (AFO)
results in immediate pain, waeakness, and partial loss of motion in the calf. there is a tender/firm mass
gastrocnemius/calf contusion
due to direct trauma to the tibia which does not have much subutaneous fat (wear shin gaurds to prevent)
shin contusio/bruise
pain down leg to foot. lasts a few seconds, if it worsens, numbness and loss of function occur
peroneal nerve contusion
may result from a adirect blow to the lower leg, a fracture, or circulatory oclusion
compartment syndrom
the __ compartment is most vulnerable to increases in internal tissue pressure
anterior
casued by exploding off a slightly pronated foot or by being kicked from behind near the lateral malleolus
strains
caused by vigorous jumbing or excessive endurance running
achillles tendon strain
caused by a sudden contraction of the gastroc-soleus complex, pusing off in running or landing form a jump. also can be caused by not stratcing proporly.
achilles tendon rupture
caused by a plantarflexed foot being suddenly dorisflexed
gastrocnemius strain
casued by tight heel cords, foot malalignment, change in running surfaces, a sudden increase in the workout, or running hills
achilles tendonopathy
the peroneal dislocations can be classified into __ different groups
4
any pain along the medial border of the tibia usually the distal third, often associated with excessive pronation. other factors are distance, speed, form, stretching, footwear, or surfaces
medial tibial stress syndrom (MTSS)
tibial stress fractures are common in __
running activities
__ women have a higher incidence rate
ammenorrheic
nonunion or stress fracture of steidas process
traumatic os trigonum
when teh steidas process separates from the talus
os trigonum
blood clot, potentially life threatening
deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
deep vein thrombosis can be found by using __
homans sign
2 ways of doing vascular assesment for the lower leg
-posterior tibial artery
-dorsalis pedis artery
a test for the achilles tendon
thomas test
different stress tests for the leg (4):
-squeeze test
-tuning fork
-tap test
-homans sign
passively DF the athletes foot with the knee extended. its + if pain
homans sign
with walking, one foot is __
always on the ground
with running, there is a period of time when __
neither foot is in the contact with the ground
higher arch people __
supinate
flat arch people __
pronante
characterized by ankle PF, subtalar IV and forefoot AD
supination
characterized by ankle DF, subtalar EV and forefoot AB
pronation
the time interval or sequence of motions occurring between two consecutive initial contacts of teh same foot (heelstrike to heel stike)
gait cycle
as the velocity of the cycle __ the cycle length or stide length __
increases, increases
jogging is __% of walking cycle and running is __% of the gait cycle
70, 60
what 2 parts make up the gait cycle?
stance phase and swing phase
with walking, one foot is __
always on the ground
with running, there is a period of time when __
neither foot is in the contact with the ground
higher arch people __
supinate
flat arch people __
pronante
characterized by ankle PF, subtalar IV and forefoot AD
supination
characterized by ankle DF, subtalar EV and forefoot AB
pronation
the time interval or sequence of motions occurring between two consecutive initial contacts of teh same foot (heelstrike to heel stike)
gait cycle
as the velocity of the cycle __ the cycle length or stide length __
increases, increases
jogging is __% of walking cycle and running is __% of the gait cycle
70, 60
what 2 parts make up the gait cycle?
stance phase and swing phase
makes up 60-65% of the walking cycle. the foot is on the ground and bearing weight.
stance phase
5 subphases of the stance phase:
-heel strike
-foot flat
-midstance
-terminal stance
-toe off
when the foot is in heel strike, its __
rigid and supinated
makes up 35-40% of the walking cycle. the foot is not in contact with the ground and is moving forward.
swing phase
the swing phase consists of __ subphases
3
the 3 subphases of swing phase
-initial swing
-midswing
-terminal swing
in the initial swing, the knee is __
bent
in teh midswing, the leg is __
swingning
the terminal swing is __
right before the heelstrike
injuries occur more often in the __ phase due to the hamstrings eccentrically contracting to slow knee extension
swing
__ strains happen at terminal swing
hamstring
during the swing phase: the hip has __ degrees of extension to __ degress of flexion
10, 50/55
during the swing phase: teh knee has __ extension (sprinters) and __ degrees of flexion
full, 125/40
during the swing phase: the ankle has __ degrees of plantarflexion to __ degrees of dorsiflexion
25/20
sequence of events from a specific point in teh gait on one extemity to the same point in the opposite extremity
step
distance traveled between teh initial contacts of the right and left foot
step legnth
distance between the points of contact of both feet
step width
foot to groiund contact points of teh same foot (two sequential steps). decreases with age and fatigue
stride length
side to side movement of the pelvis during walking. it increases if the feet are further apart
lateral pelvic shift
hip hike
vertical pelvic shift
normally anterior to the 2nd sacral vertebra (belly button) and is higher in men
center of gravity
number of steps taken per unit time
cadence (gait)
normal cadence is __ steps per minute
90-120
women have a __ cadence than men by 10 steps
faster
the adult average steps per minute is __
107+-2.7
time required to complete a single stride
stride time
The distance between your first and last points of contact.
stride length
distance covered per unit time
gait velocity
contact of the foot with the ground creates force yielding vertical anteroposterior and mediolateral components
ground reaction force (GRF)
the characteristics of movement related to time and space (eg range of motion, velocity, and acceleration) the effects of joint action)
kinematic
the forces being analyzed; the cases of joint action
kinetic
shows the path of the pressure point under the foot during gait
center of pressure (COP)
what 3 things make up efficient gait?
-minimal side to side motion
-maximal forward motion
-body rises and falls appox 5 cm
differences between running and walking gait cycles (3)
-flight phase
-no period of double limb support
-stance phase time
as __ of gait cycle changes, arm swing, stride length, cadence, knee flexion ROM, muscular force, speed of contraction, and less up and down motion change
speed
the hip __ during the stance phase and __ during the swing phase
extends, flexes
the knee is __ during heel strike, foot flat, and midstnace.
flexed
casues less knee flexion and more IR which leads to pronation in stance phase
patellofemoral pain syndrome
the foot and ankle should have immediate __ at inintial contact
PF
pronation is necessary for __
shock absorption
pronation through a range __ has been linked with LE injury
15.5
pronation is found in __ during the gait cycle
midstance or just after push off
causes tibial rotation and hip rotation
pronation
causes stress on lateral soft tissues (peroneus longus)
toe in
causes stress on medial and plantar structures
toe out
a result of an injury to the plevis, hip, knee, ankle, or foot. the effected leg stance phase is shorter than the other leg (remove weight as quickly as possible). the swing phase on the other leg is decreased as is step lenth
antalgic (painful) gait
theis gait results from stiffness, laxity, or deformity (leg length discrepancy). painful or not. the person will lift the entire leg higher than normal to clear the ground
arthogenic (stiff hip or knee) gait
if the person was in a cast or brace for a long time. there are several possibilities with this type of gait
contracture gait
the contralateral side droops. if bilateral there will be a side-to side- movement
tredelenbergs gait
a person with weak or paralyzed dorsiflexors results in drop foot. to compensate, the knee is lifted higher than normal. the foot will slap the ground on contact due to no muscle control
drop foot gait
__ counterbalances hips and pelvis
arm swing
when running, arms swing is __
longer
-absence of initial heel contact
-PF at the ankle is avoided in terminal stance and preswing
flat foot stance
there is a fat pad on the knee for __ flexion after that its bone on bone
20
normally the knee is near full extension at __ during walking
contact
during the swing phase, the knee is normally flexed __ during walking and over __ during running
30-60, 90
ways to improve gait: (7)
-cue words or phrases during gait
-footprints on floor
-hand on body segment
-orthotics
-different shoes
-strength training exercises
-flexibility or ROM
__ is related to genu valgum
pronation
pronation causes __
calcaneal eversion
calacaneal eversion causes increased pressure on the __
1rst metatarsal
causes asymmetrical arm swing (3)
-UE injury
-leg length discrepancies
-spine dysfunction
causes of plantarflext ankle at initial contact (4)
-gastrocnemius spasiticity
-drop foot
-hamstring pathology
-knee joint pathology
causes of flat foot stance (3)
-ankle sprain
-gastrocnemius strain
-soleus strain
what causes inadequate ankle plantarflexion angle at pushoff (3)
-inadequate strength (triceps surae)
-acute ankle sprain
-forefoot pathology
causes of excessive knee flexion angle at contact (3)
-pain (hamstring, hip add)
-tight hamstring/spasm
-sciatic nerve pathology
causes of inadequate knee flexion angle during stance (2)
-quad pathology
-knee joint pain
causes of inadequate knee flexion angle during swing (3)
-hamsting pathology (stairns, spasms, sciatica
causes of inadequate hip extension at terminal stance (1)
-contacture of hip flexors
what does forward trunk angle indicate? (3)
-low back pathology
-weak and painful hip flexors
-weak ankle plantarflexors
what are the purposes of MMT? (5)
-analyze strength
-analyze muscle tone
-give a baseline
-evaluate an injury
-set up a rehab program
when testing for separate or idividual muscle action, sometimes two actions are tested in order to __ a specific muscle
isolate
it is important to differentiate between 2 muscles that perform the same __
action
when testing 2 muscles, one must be __ and the other one is tested activly
removed from consideration
examples of isolation is MMT (2)
-hastrings and gluteus maximus (hip extension)
-flex knee first to test for ext. extend hip first to test for flexion
when a muscle group attempts to compensate for the lack of function of a weak muscle
substition
during MMT, position the athletes in regards to __ and __
stability and comfort
assure proper __ by using an exam table, body weight, or the examiner
proper stabalization
the examiner places the athlete in the __, or if testing though the whole range the examiner shows the desired __ first
test position, motion
always apply resisitance/pressure __ of what is being tested
opposite
in MMT always apply pressure __
gradually
a factor in testing becuase it is a form of resistance
gravity
lifting the body part against gravity (heel raises)
anti gravity MMT
working in a plane parallel with the ground (plantar flexion seated on table)
gravity eliminated MMT
gravityis used to help assist the movement (wal slides for knee ROM
gravity assisted MMT
common errors in MMT (3)
-not stabalizing
-athlete positioning
-incorrect verbal instructions
a technique used in the measurement of joint angles, to measure a joints ROM
goiniometry
rationale for goiniometry: (3)
-assess an injury
-checking progress
-determines effectiveness of treatment
the goniometer consitis of the __ arm and the __ arm
stationary, moveable
what stops ROM? (3)
-bony blocks
-tissue apposition
-edema
when using the goniometer remember to have the numbers __ you
facing
when doing goiniometry, start in the __ position
anatomical
maintain at least a __ distance from the body part with the goiniometer
1 finger
passive ROM requires __ people
2
how well something can be reproduced
relability
is the measurement going to be the same between 2 or more separate clinitians
intertester relability
deals with the same person doing testing.
intratester reliability
the amount of force needed to overcome a body's or body parts present state of rotatory motion
moment of inertia
a reflex arc prohibiting the contraction of a specific muslce group
reflex inhibition
the crown of an arch that supports the structure on either side of it
keystone
a groove or depression within a bone
sulcus
the number of cardinal planes in which a joint allows motion
freedom of movement
a distinct band of tissue arising form the main portion of a structure
slip
the series of bones formed by the metatarsal and phalanges
ray
a form of athrisits marked by inflammation and pain in teh distal joints
gout
a cancerous tumor that forms in the shaft of long bones or, less frequently, in soft tissue and is most prevalent in children and teenagers
ewigs sarcoma
soft and fluid soacked
macerated
an oen sore or lesion of the skin or mucous membrane that is accompnied by inflamed and necrotic tissue
ulceration
small purplish hemorrhagic spots on the skin
petechiae
swirl markings in the skin. fingerpriints are images formed by these
whorls
a force that attempts to move a joint beyond its normal ROM
overpressure
the noninflammatory degeneration of the fascia
fasciosis
a lowering of teh medial foot caused by spasm of the peroneus longus muscle
peroneal spastic flatfoot
abnormal movement along the length of a bone caused by a fracture or incomplete fusion
false joint
decreased bone density, but less severe than osteoporosis
osteopenia
surgical jiont fusion
arthrodesis
immobility of a jiont
ankylosis
the closed packed position of the ankle is full __
DF
a relatively immobile joint in which two bones are bound together by ligaments
syndesmosis joint
the union of two bones though the formation of connective tissue
synostosis
pain caused by inadequate venous drainage or poor arterial innervation
claudication
__ decreses as velocity increases
stride width
Distance of feet when side to side.
stride width
Walking stride length is (usually) __ than a running stride length.
shorter
composed of two steps (stepping forward with one foot and then stepping forward with the other foot).
stride
muscles responsible for dorsiflexion (4)
-ext. digitorum longus
-ext. hallucis longus
-peroneus tertius
-tibialis anterior
muscles responsible for inversion (5)
-ext. hallucis longus
-flexor digitorum longus
-flexor hallucis longsu
-tibialis anterior
-tibialis posterior
muscle responsible for plantarflexion (8)
-flexor digitorum longus
-flexor hallucis longus
-gastrocnemius
-peroneus brevis
-peroneus longus
-plantaris
-soleus
-tibialis posterior
muscles responsible for eversion (4)
-extensor digitorum longus
-peroneus brevis
-peroneus longus
-peroneus tertius