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447 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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along with nervous system, coordinates and integrates the activity of cells
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endocrine system
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chemical messengers released into the blood
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hormone
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study of hormones and endocrine organs
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endocrinology
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the 9 endocrine glands
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-pituitary
-thyroid -pineal -adrenal -parathyroid -thymus -hypothalamus -ovary and testis -pancreas |
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most hormones (amines, peptides, proteins)
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amino-acid based hormones
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synthesized from cholesterol; gonads adrenal cortex only
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steroid hormones
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luekotrienes, prostaglandins, etc
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elcosanoid hormones
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tissues that respond to a particular hormone
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target cells
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proteins on plasma membrane that can bind to the hormone
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hormone receptors
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a cell can have receptors for __ hormone (s)
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many
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hormones can affect __ tissues
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few or many
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the hormone receptor population is __ (# of tissues affected is variable)
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dynamic
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factors in activation of cells by hormones
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-blood levels of the hormone
-number of receptors on the cell -affinity between hormone and acceptor |
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formation of more or fewer receptors that alters response
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down-and up-regulation
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hormones alter __
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cell activity
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-changes in plasma membrane permeability and or electrical state via ion channels
-synthesis of proteins in the cell -enzyme activation -causes secretory activity stimulation of mitosis |
actions caused by hormones
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-necessary for protein hormones because they're too big to fit through themselves
-proteins and peptides cannot penetrate cell |
second-messengers
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__are generated by hormone binging to plasma membrane receptors
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second messengers
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the __ second messenger system is best understood
-a series of steps lead to activation of cell enzymes -cause cell response |
cyclic AMP
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when steroid and thyroid bind to intracellular receptors because they are lipid soluble
(they go through the cell membrane because they are a lipid) -process "turns on" a specific gene; mRNA production follows -protein production occurs |
direct gene activation
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-lies in sella turcia of the sphenoid bone
-has anterior (adenohypophysis) and posterior (neurohypophysis) lobes |
pituitary gland
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connects to the hypothalamus
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infundibulum
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arises from the supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei of hypothalamus, travels down the infundibulum to the __ and then on the posterior pituitary
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hypothalamic-hypophyseal tract
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releases and inhibits hormones traveling to the anterior lobe via the blood
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hypophseal portal system
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all anterior pituitary hormones are __
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proteins
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releasing hormones from the hypothalamus causes the release of __ hormones
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anterior pituitary
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TSH, GSH, LH, ATCH, GH, and prolactin
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hormones produced by the anterior pituitary
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-produced by somatotrophs
-primary targets are bones and skeletal muscles -promotes protein synthesis (anabolic) and enhances use of fats for fuel to conserve glucose |
growth hormone
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growth-promoting proteins produced by teh liver (maybe kidneys and muscles)
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somatomedins
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GH stimulates the uptake of __ to produce __
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amino acids, proteins
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GH stimulates the uptake of __ into the cartilage matrix (needed for chondroitin sulfate)
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sulfur
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__ mobilizes fats from fat deposits
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GH
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__ decreases rate of glucose uptake and metabolism, also encouraging glycogen breakdown and glucose release from the liver
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GH
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the hormone that stimulates GH release
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Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH)
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the hormone that inhibits GH release
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Growth hormone-inhibiting hormone (GHIH)
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the condition characterized by too much GH in children
-excessive growth, normal proportions |
gigantism
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the condition characterized by too much GH in adults
-enlarged extremities -thickening of bony areas and soft tissues |
Acromegaly
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the condition characterized by too little GH in children
-can be treated with GH replacement therapy |
pituitary dwarfism
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the condition characterized by GH deficiency in adults
-body tissues atrophy; premature aging |
progeria
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stimulates normal development and secretions of the thyroid
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Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)
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__ form teh hypothalamus stimulates thyrotropes
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TRH
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-corticotropin secreated by corticotropes
-stimulates adrenal cortex to release corticosteroid hormones, primarily glucocotricoids to resist stressors |
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
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corticotropin releasing hormone from the hypothalamus; dirunal rythems, peaking in teh morning, stimulates production of ACTH
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CRH
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GHRH and GHIH function in a __ cycle
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diurnal
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fever, hypoglycemia, and stressors may trigger a release of __
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ACTH
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-regulate ovary and testis production
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gonadotropins (FSH and LH)
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the two kinds of gonadotropins
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FSH and LH
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stimulates gamete production in both sexes
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follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
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stimulates gonadal hormone production (testosterone, estrogen, progestren)
-triggers ovulation |
LH
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__ stimulates gonadotropes to release FSH and LH
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GnRH
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__ stimulates lactotropes
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PRH
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__ prevents the secretion of prolactin
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PIH (dopamine)
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low estrogen stimulates __ and high estrogen stimulates __
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PIH, PRH
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__ stimulates PRH
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suckling
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hypersecretion of __ results in tumor of pituitary; galctorrhea, amennorhea and imotence
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prolactin
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do men have prolactin?
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yes
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hormones produced by the posterior pituitary and hypothalamus
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oxytocin and ADH
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-stimulates uterine contractions for childbirth
-released during sexual arousal and orgasm -cuddle hormone |
oxytocin
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__ receptors increase in uterus in response to progesterone during __
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oxytocin, pregnancy
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uterine stretching and milk letdown due to suckling triggers impulses in hypothalamus to produce __
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oxytocin
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uterine stretching and milk letdown due to suckling triggering oxytocin release is a __ feedback mechanism
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positive
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man made oxytocin given to make contractions stronger in pregnancy
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pitocin
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inhibits urine formation
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ADH
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hypothalamic neurons that monitor solute concentration of blood (ie glucose and salt)
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osmoreceptors
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ADH is released in response to __
-may also be pain, low BP, drugs |
high solute concentration
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__ in hypothalamus produce ADH
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supraoptic nuclei
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cuases water reabsorbtion from kidney tubules
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ADH
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__ inhibits ADH secretions
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alcohol
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causes vasoconstriction in high concentrations
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ADH
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a condition characterized by copious amounts of urine and intense thirst due to low ADH
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diabetes insipidus
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the thyroid is made up of two lobes by an __
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isthus
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the largest pure endocrine gland
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thyroid
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cuboidal or squamous cells (follicle cells) that porduce thyroglobulin and lumen, stores colloid
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follicles
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__ cells produce calcitonin
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parafollicular cells
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metabolic hormones whose release is stimulated by TSH
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thryoid hormones (T3 and T4)
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__ is the primary thyroid hormone secretion
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T4
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thyroid hormone that is formed by conversion at the target tissue
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T3
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__ increases BMR (basal metabolic rate)
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thyroid hormones (T3, T4)
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the effect of thyroid hormone in increasing O2 consumption and heat production
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calorigenic effect
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can cause tissue growth and development (especially skeletal and nervous development and reproductive maturity) NOT GH
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thyroid hormones
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steps of TH synthesis
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1. formation and storage of thyroglobulin in colloid
2. iodination 3. coupling of T2 and T1 |
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__ transports most thyroid hormone, is produced in the liver
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thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG)
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__ binds more rapidly to TBG and is __x more active
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T3, 10
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most tissues have enzymes to convert T4 to T3 by removing one __
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iodine
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low thyroxine levels trigger __ release and vise versa
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TSH release
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pregnancy, cold, etc, trigger __
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TRH
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a disorder characterized by hypothyroidism that causes low metabolic rate, chills, constipation, thick, dry skin, puffy eyes, mental sluggisheness
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myxedma
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a disorder characterized by myxedema resulting from low iodine; thyroid enlargment
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endemic goiter
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a disorder characterized by hypothyroidism in infants; short body, thick tongue
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cretinism
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a disorder characterized by hyperthyroidism, autoimmune.
-high metabolic rate, sweating, bluging eyes (exopthalamus), nervousness, weight loss |
graves disease
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-produces by parafollicular C cells
-lowers blood calcium levels -inhibits osteoclasts and stimulates calcium uptake and incorporation into bone matrix |
calcitonin
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-located on posterior thyroid
-made up of two pairs |
parathyroid gland
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-secrete PTH
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chief cells
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-stimulates osteoclasts
-enhaces calcium reabsorption the kidneys -increases absorbtion of calcium by instetine via vitamin D activation |
function of PTH
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__ is the primary control of blood calcium; released when blood calcium is low
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PTH
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__ is important for muscle, nerve, bone, and blood clotting
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calcium
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-produces corticosterioids
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adrenal glands
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the layer of the adrenal glands that produces mineralocorticoids
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zona glomerulosa
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the layer of the adrenal glands that produces glucocortiocoids
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zona fasciculata
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the layer of the adrenal glands that produces glucocorticoids and gonadocorticoids
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zona reticularis
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95% of mineralocorticoids, released because of a sodium ion imbalance
-decreases secretion of sodium in urine -enhances socium ion reabsorbtion from perspiration, saliva |
aldosterone
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stimulated by high blood potassium, low sodium, decreasing blood volume and pressure
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aldosterone (mineralocorticoids)
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primary regulator of aldosterone relase; juxtaglomerular apparatus stimulated with low BP or plasma osmolarity and release renin--->angoitensin II formation--->aldosterone release
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renin angiotensin system
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-inhibits inflammation, depresses immunity and causes changes in cardio, nerve and GI function
-released in resonse to stress |
cortisol
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__ is the primary effect of cortisol release; this saves glucose for the brain
-formation of glucose from noncarboyhydrates such as fats and proteins |
gluconeogenesis
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cells that secrete E and NE in teh adrenal medulla
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chromafin cells
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__% of hormones produced in teh adrenal meulla is E, __% is NE
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80, 20
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the pancreas is a __ (endocrine and exocrine glands)
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mixed gland
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__ produce enzymes (exoenzymes) in teh pancreas
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acinar cells
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produce pancreatic hormones
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pancreatic islets (islets of langerhans)
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produce glucagon
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alpha cells
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produce insulin
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beta cells
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-targets the liver (increase blood glucose levels)
-stimulates breakdown of glycogen to glucose (glycogenolysis) |
glucagon
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causes release of glucose into the blood
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glucagon
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-lowers glucose blood levels
-influences protein and fat metabolism -enhances glucose uptake by cells, especially mucle -increases AA uptake and protein synthesis in muscle |
insulin
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a disfunction characterized by hyposecretion of insulin
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diabetes mellitus
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type of diabetes mellitus characterized by:
-juvenile onset -insulin-dependency -usually get before 15 |
type I
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type of diabetes mellitus characterized by:
-adult onset (after 40) -heredity -inadequate insulin production or insulin receptors unable to resond usually caused by being overweight |
type II
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type II diabetes mellitus is __ % of diabetes
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90
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produces estrogen and progestron
-responsible for egg production |
ovaries
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-sperm formation
-testosterone production |
testes
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melantonin secreted by this
-diurnal cycle |
pineal gland
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-large at birth but involution occurs with age
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thymus
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the __ produces thymopoietins and thymosins that are vital for normal T lymphocytes productin and immunity
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thymus
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always prepared, forms the first line of defense (skin) and second line of defense
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nonspecific defense system
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-third line of defense
-specific -functinoal system made up of cells in tissues and fluids -lyphoctyes and macrophages |
specific (adaptive) defense system (immune system)
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specific resistance to disease
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immunity
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disease-causing micoorganisms
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pathogens
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skin layers and keratin are very __
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resistant
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ciliated mucosa in respiratory tract sweep mucus toward __
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esophogus
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the acidity of skin (pH 3.5) inhibits __
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bacterial growth
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HCL from stomach mucosa and protein digesting enzymes __
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kill bacteria
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__ in saliva and __ in tears kills bacteria
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lysozyme, lacrimal fluid
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sticky substance that traps microorganisms in the digestive and respiratory to be expelled or digested
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muscus
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phagocytes derived from monocytes
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macrophages
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travel around body tissue spaces searching for invaders
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free macrophages
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permanent residents of a tissue (kuffer cells of liver, alveolar macrophages of lungs)
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fixed macrophages
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become phagocytic when they encounter infectious materials
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neurophils
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important attackers of parasitic worms
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eosinophils
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-monitor blood and lymph
-lyse and kill cancer cells and viral infected cells -a type of lymphocyte -nonspecific-looking for lack of self-antigens on cell surfaces |
natural killer cells
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natural killer cells target cell membrane and release cytolytic chemicals called __
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perforins
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-prevents spread of damaging agents through clotting
-disposes of cell debris -set stage for repairs-increases oxygen and nutrients in blood around tissue |
inflammation
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the __ response is triggered due to injury by heat, trauma, chemicals, fungi, viruses, and bacteria
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inflammartory
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redness, heat, swelling, and pain are the cardinal signs for __
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inflammation
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found on macrophages and other cells that recognize microbes
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toll-like receptors
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chemical released by cells that cause vessel dilation
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cytokines
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congestion of blood in area that causes redness and heat
-result of mast cells, lymphocytes, and basophils releasing histamines |
hyperemia
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fluid containing clotting factors and antibodies. causes edema, resulting in pain
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exudate
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3 reasons why edema is helpful
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-dilutes substances
-brings o2 and nutrients to tissues -entry of clotting proteins |
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released by injured cells; promote increase in neutrophils from bone marrow
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leukocytosis-inducing factors
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attract neutrophils and other WBC's to site
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chemotactic agents
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neutrophils cling to capillary wall
-signaled by CAM's of inflamed endothelial cells in area |
margination or pavementing
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the ability for neutrophils to move through capillary walls
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diapedesis
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monocytes migrate to an area and become __
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macrophages
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dead or dying neutrophils, tissue cells, living and dead pathogens
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pus
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__ clean up in an infected area
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macrophages
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proteins secreted by virus infected cells
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interferons
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interfere with viral replication and attract macrophages and mobilize natural killer cells
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antimicrobial proteins
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used to treat rare lukemia, hepatitis C, and others
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antimicrobial proteins
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-20 plasma proteins, normally inactive
-when activated, releases chemicals that amplify inflammatory response, kill bacteria and other pathogens -result in cell lysis, phagocytosis and inflammation |
complement
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a systematic response to microorganisms
-release of pyrogens -increases metabolic rate of tissue cells to speed up defense repair |
fever
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secreated by leukocytes and macrophages exposed to bacteria or other invaders; increases thermostat temperature (hypothalamus)
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pyrogens
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__ causes the liver to sequester iron and zinc that bacteria need to multiply
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fever
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the immune response is __ specific
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antigen
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the part of the immune response that is not restricted to the infection site
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systemic immune system
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the part of the immune response that deals with recognition; the second attack is stronger
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memory immune system
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antibody-mediated; antibodies in body fluids that bind bacteria, toxins, and viruses, marking them for destruction by phagocytes
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humoral immunity
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lymphocytes lyse foreign cells (direct) or release chemicals (indirect) that enhance inflammatory response or activate other lymphocytes or macrophages
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cell-mediated immunity
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substances that can provoke an immune response; recognize nonself
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antigens
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ability of an antigen to stimulate lymphocyte proliferation and antibody formation
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immunogenicity
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the ability of an antigen to react with antibodies and lymphocytes
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reactivity
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what has the strongest immunogenicity and reactivity?
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foreign proteins
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reactive but not immunogenic unless attached to protein carriers; drugs, poison ivy, animal dander, detergents, cosmetics, etc.
-CAUSE ALLERGIES |
hapten (incomplete antigen)
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antigenic to others, recognized by self
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self antigens
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genetic; marks cells as self
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Major Histocompatibility Complex Proteins (MHC)
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what two people would have the same MHC?
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identical twins
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what does the T in a T cell stand for?
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thymus
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what does the B in a B cell stand for?
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Bone Marrow
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teh ability to recognize a lymphocytes one specific antigen
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immunocompetance
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T and B cells become __ in different organs
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immunocompetent
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part of lymphocte education in fetus; makes them able to ID foriegn antigens
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self-tolerance
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__ develop specific receptors on surface and bind only a specific antigen (all of its receptors are the same)
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lymphocytes
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lymphoctes become immunocompetent __ meeting the antigen
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before (genetic)
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-engulf antigens and present fragments on surface to be recognized by T cells
-dendritic cells, macrophages, and B lymphocytes in connective tissues and epidermis |
antigen-presenting cells (APC's)
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__ are activated by presentation of antigens by dendritic cells and macrophages
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T cells
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T cells cause macrophages to become __
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activated macrophages
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macrophages reside in __
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tissues
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-the most important antigen presenters
-migrate to secondary lymphoid organs |
dendritic cells
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Ag binding activates B cells and completes differentiation; grows and multiplies to form many clones
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clonal selection
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most clones become __ that secrete antibodies
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plamsa cells
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there is more __ in plasma cells because antibodies are proteins
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rough ER
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plasma cells survive __ days and produce __ molecules per second
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4-5, 2000
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those clones taht do not become plasma cells
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membory cells
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why are memory cells produced?
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immunty
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which live longer, memory cells or plasma and B cells?
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memory cells
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-consists of a lag period of 3-6 days after antigen challenge
-tme needed to make plasma cells |
primary immune response
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the peak Ab production in the primary immune response is __
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10 days
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-consits of a future exposure to the same Ag
-is faster and more prolonged and more effective -lasts weeks to a month -antibodies have a greater affinity and plasma cells live longer |
teh secondary immune resposne
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durning the secondary immune resposne, antibody production is peak in __ days; and higher than the primary response
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2-3
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when B cells encounter antigens
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active humoral immunity
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immunity involving bacterial and viral infections and the development of symtoms
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naturally acquired active immunity
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immunity involving vaccinations; usually dead or weakened pathogen
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artificially acquired active immunity
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immunity involving antibodies obtained from animal or human donar
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passive humoral immunity
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immunity involving mother to fetus through placenta
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naturally acquired passive immunity
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-gamma globulin infusions (hepatitis, snake bites, botulism, rabies, tetanus)
-needed for diseases that would kill you before you could mount an immune response |
artificially acquired passive immunity
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gamma globulins of the blood proteins (5 classes)
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antibodies (immunoglobulins)
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-made of two heavy (H) chains; identical
-two light (L) chains; identical to one antohers, half as long as H chains |
antibodies
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four chains combined (antibodies)
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antibody monomer
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part of the antibody that recognizes different antibodies
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variable region
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found on the H and L chains of each arm
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antigen-binding site
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kind of antibody bound to B cell surface as a receptor
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IgD
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kind of antibody that is the first released; fix complement
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IgM
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kind of antibody that crosses the placenta; fixes completment
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IgG
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kind of antibody that is in mucus and secretions that bathe surfaces; prevents entry (most common)
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IgA
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kind of antibody that is rarely found in blood; allergy causing
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IgE
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achieved by recombination of gene segments (shuffling) by each B cell
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antibody diversity
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when an antibody attatches to an antigen, it forms __, marked for destruction; neutralization, agglutination, precipitation or complement fixation follow
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ag-ab complexes
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primary antibody ammunition against cellular antigens
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complement
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antibodies bound to targets __ to expose complement-binding sites
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change shape
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complement binding causes __ of the cell
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lysis
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when antibodies block specific sites on viruses ect. so they cannot bind to receptors on tissue cells
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neutralization
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cross-lining of antigens causing clumping; IgM has 10 Ag-binding sites and is a potent agglutinating agent
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agglutination
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soluble molecules cross-linked into complexes that precipitate and therefore more easily captured and engulfed by phagocytes
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precipitation
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commercially prepared Abs' used in pregnancy tests, STD's hepatitis and rabies
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monoclonal antibodies
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activated when antibodies are ineffective against microorganisms like bacteria
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cell-mediated response
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cytotoxic T cells or CD8 cells that destroy body cells that harbor foreign substances
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effector cells
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-helper T cells or CD4 cells
-Suppressor T cells or CD8 cells -Memory T cells |
regulatory cells
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Ab binding to pathogen prepares them for destruction by __
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T cells
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T cells only respond to __ displayed on body cells, they cannot see free antigens
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Ag fragments
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__ MHC is on all body cells but RBC's, recognized by CD8 cells
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Class I
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__ MHC on mature B cells so immune cells recognize one another
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Class II
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steps to T cell activation
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1. Antigen Binding
2. Costimulation |
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__ bind to Ag's displayed on antigen-presenting cells (APC's) like macrophages, lanngerhans cells of epidermis
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Helper T cells
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cytotoxic T cells activated by Ag fragments presented with __ proteins (any body cells main display)
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MHC I
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T cells may "check out" surfaces of body cells, act cytotoxic cells searching for viral or cancer cells
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immunologic surveillance
|
|
|
costimulatory signals needed for T cells to form a clone
|
costimulation
|
|
|
chemicals that enhance immune response (IL-1 and IL-2), positive feedback to create cell numbers
|
cytokines
|
|
|
chemically or directly stimulate proliferation of other T cells and B cells that have bound to antigen, there is no immune response without them
|
helper T cells
|
|
|
directly attack and kill other cells by releasing PERFORIN into their plasma membrane that causes cell lysis, target virus infected cells primarily but also bacteria-infected, parasites, cancer cells, foreign cells of tranfusions or transplants
|
cytotoxic or killer T cells
|
|
|
cytotoxic or killer T cells directly attack and kill other cells by releasing __ into their plasma membrane that causes cell lysis
|
perforin
|
|
|
release lymphokines that supress T and B cells
|
suppressor T cells
|
|
|
graft given from the same person; skin, bone marrow, blood vessels
|
autografts
|
|
|
graft given from genetically individuals (identical twins)
|
isografts
|
|
|
graft given from individuals of the same species; kidneys, liver, pancreas, intestine, bone marrow, valves, ligaments, heart, lung, hand, cornea
|
allografts
|
|
|
graft given from another species; pig valves
|
xenografts
|
|
|
corticosteroid drugs suppress __
|
inflammation
|
|
|
kind of immunosuppressant drugs
|
cyclosporine
|
|
|
-corticosteroids
-cytotoxic drugs -radiation therapy -antilymphocytes glovulins -immunosuppresant drugs |
immunosuppressive therapy
|
|
|
congenital and acquired diseases in which production or function of immune cells, phagocytes or complement is abnormal
|
immunodeficiencies
|
|
|
an immunodeficiency that is a B and T cell deficiency; need bone marrow transplant (bubble boy disease)
|
SCID
|
|
|
an immunodeficiency that is an aquired type, cancer of the lymph nodes
|
hodgkin's disease
|
|
|
an immunodeficiency that intereres with helper T cell activity
|
AIDS
|
|
|
what is the effect of AIDS?
|
no immune response
|
|
|
begin in seconds or minutes after contact with allergen
|
immediate hypersenstivities (allergies)
|
|
|
initial contact sensitizes person; later encounter causes histamine and other inflammatory chemicals that induce inflammatory response
|
anaphylaxis
|
|
|
have a slower onset (1-3) hours and lasts longer (10-15 hours)
|
subacute hypersensitivites
|
|
|
caused by poison ivy, allergic contact, dermatitis from metals, cosmetics, deoderants, etc. (1-3 days to onset)
|
delayed hypersensitivities
|
|
|
an autoimmune disease characterized by white matter of teh brain and spinal cord being destroyed
|
multiple sclerosis
|
|
|
an autoimmune disease characterized by nerve and skeletal muscle communication impaired; ab's attatch to Ach receptors
|
myasthenia gravis
|
|
|
an autoimmune disease characterized by excessive thyroxine
|
graves disease
|
|
|
an autoimmune disease characterized by pancreatic beta cells being destroyed
|
juvenile diabetes mellitus
|
|
|
an autoimmune disease characterized by the kidneys, lungs, and skin being primarily effected
|
systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
|
|
|
an autoimmune disease characterized by impairment of kidney function
|
glomerulonephritis
|
|
|
an autoimmune disease characterized by joint destruction
|
rheumatoid arthritis
|
|
|
functions of the respiratory system
|
-supply oxygen
-dispose of carbon dioxide |
|
|
air in and out of the alveoli
|
pulmonary ventilation
|
|
|
gas exchange between blood and alveolar air
|
external respiration
|
|
|
blood transports from lungs to cells
|
gas transport
|
|
|
gas exchange between blood and tissue cells
|
internal respiration
|
|
|
functions of the nose
|
-airway
-warms and moistens air -filter -resonating chamber for speech -olfaction |
|
|
the nasal septum is made of __
|
hyaline cartilage
|
|
|
the __ and __ bones form the roof and palate floor which is divided into the __ and __ palates
|
ethmoid and sphenoid, hard and soft
|
|
|
sensory receptors for smell
|
olfactory mucosa
|
|
|
psudostratified, ciliated columnar epithelium; goblet cells, mucous, ad serous glands; lysozme, an antibacteria enzyme from glands
|
respiratory mucosa
|
|
|
what causes turbulence in the nose?
|
chonchae
|
|
|
why do chonchae cause turbulence
|
because of the many passage-ways
|
|
|
in frontal, sphenoid, ethmoid, and maxillary bones, lighten skull, warms and moistens air
|
paranasal sinuses
|
|
|
this structure is a common pathway for food and air; usually called throat
|
pharynx
|
|
|
-only an air passage
-contains pharyngeal tonsils or adnoids -auditory tubes open here |
nasopharynx
|
|
|
__ closes when swallowing but not when laughing
|
uvula
|
|
|
coninuous with oral cavity; palatine and lingual tonsils
|
oropharynx
|
|
|
lined with statified squamous epithelium; coninuous with larynx and esophagus for air and food, respectivly
|
laryngopharynx
|
|
|
found between phaynx and trachea; attached to hyoid bone
|
larynx
|
|
|
functions of the larynx
|
-airway
-properly routes food and air -voice production |
|
|
layngeal prominence or Adam's apple where two plates fuse; larger in males due to testosterone effects on its growth
|
thyroid cartilage
|
|
|
elastic cartilage with taste buds; closes glottis or opening of larynx during swallowing (unless you are unconscious)
|
epiglottis
|
|
|
elastic fibers; form core of true vocal cords
|
vocal ligaments
|
|
|
release of air and opening/closing of glottis
|
voice production
|
|
|
length and tension of vocal cords; become longer and thicker in adolescent males
|
pitch
|
|
|
force of air; no movment of vocal cords to whisper
|
intesnsity or loudness
|
|
|
layer of trachea made of pseudostratiffied columnar with cilia; smoking inhibits and destroys cilia
|
mucosa
|
|
|
layer of trachea made of connective tissue with seromucous glands
|
submucosa
|
|
|
layer of trachea made of connective tissue reinforced by C shaped hyaline cartilage rings
|
adventitia
|
|
|
the last tracheal cartilage; expanded; mucosa very senstive (coughing reflex)
|
carina
|
|
|
-right and left primary bronchi into hilus of each lung
-secondary (lobar) bronchi : three on right and 2 on left |
conducting zones
|
|
|
why are there a different number of lobes on the right and left side?
|
because the heart takes up that space
|
|
|
under 1 mm, no cartilage in walls, no cilia, no mucous cells
|
bronchioles
|
|
|
the smallest bronchioles
|
terminal bronchioles
|
|
|
in the respiratory zone, the alveoli protrude from __
|
above
|
|
|
what is the pathway of the repiratory zone?
|
respiratory bronchioles--->alveolar ducts--->alveolar sacs (clusters of alveoli
|
|
|
clusters of alveoli
|
alveolar sacs
|
|
|
alveoli composed of squamous type 1 cells
|
repiratory membrane
|
|
|
alveolar and capillary walls
|
respiratory membrane (air-blood barrier)
|
|
|
secrere surfactant to reduce surface tension
|
type II cells
|
|
|
alveolar pores between alveoli __
|
equalize pressure
|
|
|
10 pyramid-shaped segments of each lung
|
cronchopulmonary segments
|
|
|
smallest subdivision of lobes visible
|
lobules
|
|
|
what is the advantage of all teh segments in the lungs
|
surface area, protection against spreading pathogens
|
|
|
take blood to lung tissues
|
bronchial arteries and veins
|
|
|
lines thoracic wall and diagram
|
parietal pleura
|
|
|
covers lung surface
|
visceral pleura
|
|
|
serous; lubricates and creates surface tension between pleura
|
plueral fluid
|
|
|
why do you want surface tension in the pleura and not in teh alveoi
|
inhailing and exhailing
|
|
|
between the pluera
|
pleural cavity
|
|
|
pressure in teh alveoli; always equalizes with atmospheric pressure
|
intrapulmonary pressure
|
|
|
pressure in the pleural cavity
-fluctuates but always 4 mm Hg less than alveolar (intrapulmonary) pressure so ti is negative compared to that of atmospheric |
intrapleural pressure
|
|
|
factors creating negative pressure
|
-recoil of lungs
-surface tension of alveolar fluid |
|
|
what opposes negative pressure in the lungs?
|
surfeace tension of pleural fluid in pleural cavity
|
|
|
difference between intrapleural and pulmonary; keeps lungs from collapsing and airways open and prevents collapse
|
transpleural pressure
|
|
|
only air in intrapleural space; can happen on one side only
|
pneumothorax
|
|
|
lung collapse if air enter pleural cavity
|
atelectasis
|
|
|
with constant temp, pressure of gas varies inversly with its volue (p1v1=p2v2
|
boyle's law
|
|
|
when diaphragm contracts, moving down and intercostal, muslces lift rib cage pushing sternum forward
-pressure lower than atmospheric prssure |
inspiration
|
|
|
-passive, depends on recoil of lungs with mucle relaxation
-increased pressure b/c it forces air out |
expiration
|
|
|
forced expiration is produced by the active contraction of __
|
abdominal muslces
|
|
|
__ increases respiratory passage resistance
|
friction
|
|
|
gas flow=
|
pressure gradient/resistance
|
|
|
what can cause an increase in respiratory passage resistance?
|
asthma, emphasema
|
|
|
ease with which lungs can be expanded
|
lung complience
|
|
|
there is a change in lung volume occurring with change in __
|
intrapulmonary pressure
|
|
|
the more teh lung expands, the better its __
|
complince
|
|
|
complieince is reduced by:
|
-decreased lung relience (fibrosis)
-blocked passageways increased surface tension in alveoli -decreased flexibility of thoracic cage |
|
|
lung distension and recoil (emphasemia decreases)
|
lung elasticity
|
|
|
water is composed of highly polar molecules with high surface tension that __ alveoli size
|
reduces
|
|
|
lipoprotein produced by alveolar type II cells to reduce surface tension
|
surfactant
|
|
|
what would be the result of no surfactant produced in the lungs?
|
lungs would collapse
|
|
|
infacnt respiratory distress syndrome is characterized by __
|
insufficient surfactant
|
|
|
measures respiratory volumes
|
spirometer
|
|
|
air in and out during normal quiet breathing (500 mL)
|
tidal volume
|
|
|
amount of air that can be inspired forcefully beyond the tidal volume (2100-3200 mL)
|
inspiratory reserve
|
|
|
amount that can be forced out after normal exhalation (1000-1200 mL)
|
expiratory reserve
|
|
|
1200 mL that remains in lungs at all time to prevent lung collapse
|
residual volume
|
|
|
the amount that can be inspired after tidal expiration
|
inspiratory capacity
|
|
|
inpiratory capacity=
|
TV+IRV
|
|
|
remarks after tidal expiration
|
functional residual capacity
|
|
|
functional residual capacity=
|
RV+ERV
|
|
|
total amount of exchangable air
|
vital capacity
|
|
|
vital capacity=
|
TV+IRV+ERV
|
|
|
all volumes of the lungs (6L in average size males)
|
total lung capacity
|
|
|
air that fills passageways unavailable for gas exchange
|
dead space
|
|
|
there is __ of anatomical dead space
|
150 mL
|
|
|
alveoli collapse or are obstructed by mucus, etc.
|
alveolar dead space
|
|
|
what can cause alveolar dead space
|
pnumonia
|
|
|
anatomical+alveolar dead space
|
total dead space
|
|
|
pulmonary test characterized as a deep breath and forceful exhalation
|
forced vital capacity
|
|
|
total gas in and out in one minute
|
minute or total ventilation
|
|
|
alveolar ventilation rate=
|
frequency x (TV-dead space)
|
|
|
coughing, sneezing, laughing, crying, hiccups, yawning
|
nonrespiratory air movements
|
|
|
total pressure exerted by a gas mixture is the sum of all the gases
|
daltons law of partial pressure
|
|
|
pressure of individual gases if it alone occupied the volume
|
partial pressure
|
|
|
atmospheric pressure is __ mm Hg at sea level
|
760
|
|
|
air is 79% __, 21% __, 0.4% __
|
nitrogen, oxygen, carbon dioxide
|
|
|
what happens to atmospheric pressure with an increase of altitude
|
is decreased
|
|
|
law that states that gases will dissolve in a liquid in proportion to their partial pressure
|
henry's law
|
|
|
__ is most soluble with O2 only 1/20 as soluble and N2 1/2 as soluble as oxygen (almost no N2 will go into solution)
|
CO2
|
|
|
high pressure conditions; hyperbarric O2 chambers for CO poisoning, circulatory shock or asphyxiation, gas gangrene and tetnus (bacteria cannot survive high O2)
|
hyperbaric conditions
|
|
|
how does CO kill?
|
attatches to hemeglobin more readily than O2
|
|
|
in alveolar gas, there is more __ and __ and less __
|
CO2, H2O vapor, O2
|
|
|
why is there more CO2 and H2O than O2 in alveolar gas? (30
|
-gas exchange mores O2 out
-humidifcation of air by conducting passageways -mixing of alveolar gas with breathing |
|
|
pulmonary gas exchange
|
external respiration
|
|
|
the partial pressure of O2 is __ mm Hg in pulmonary arteries but __ mm Hg in alveoli
|
40, 104
|
|
|
partial pressure of CO2 in pulmonary arteris is __ and __ in alveoli
|
45, 40
|
|
|
the partial pressure of CO2 is less than O2 but is __x more soluble in plasma
|
20
|
|
|
the respiratory membrane is __ microns thick normally
|
.5
|
|
|
the surface area for gas exchange is __ in normal (40x greater than skin surface)
|
140 m2
|
|
|
partial pressure reversed
|
internal respiration (capillary gas exchange)
|
|
|
exercise __ CO2 production, __ O2 used, __ temp, and __ pH
|
increase, increase, increase, decrease
|
|
|
__ is regulated by PO2, temp, pH, PCO2, and BPG conc. in blood
|
affinity of Hb for O2
|
|
|
blood is normally __% saturated with O2
|
98
|
|
|
__ mL O2 released in capillaries so Hb saturation is __% in venous blood
|
5, 75
|
|
|
increased temp, pO2, H+ or BPG (binds to Hb) __ affinity of Hb for O2 and shift dissociation curve to right to enhance oxygen unloading
|
decrease
|
|
|
acidosis weakens Hb-O2 bond to increase unloading
|
Bohr effect
|
|
|
reduced arterial PO2; CO poisening, pulmonary disease causes this
|
hypoxemic
|
|
|
inadequate oxygen delivery to tissues
|
hypoxia
|
|
|
too few RBC's or abnormal hemoglobin
|
anemic hypoxia
|
|
|
decreased circulation
|
ishemic
|
|
|
body cells unable to used oxygen due to posions like cyanide
|
histotoxic
|
|
|
__% of oxygen is dissolved in the plasma
|
1.5
|
|
|
__% of CO2 is dissolved in the plasma
|
7-10
|
|
|
__% of CO2 is chemically bound to the AA's of the carbaminohemoglobin
|
20-30
|
|
|
there are __% of bicarbonate ions in plasma
|
60-70
|
|
|
the carbonic acid equation
|
CO2+H2O<==>H2CO3 (carbonic acid)<==>H+ + HCO3- (bicarbonate)
|
|
|
RBC enzyme that dramatically increases speed of the carbonic acid equation
|
carbonic anhydrase
|
|
|
when Cl- ions enter the RBC's form plasma to counter negative HCO3- release
|
chloride shift
|
|
|
the carbonic acid process is reversed in the __
|
lungs
|
|
|
__ act as an alkaline reserve for carbonic acid-bicarobonate buffer system
|
bicarbonate ions
|
|
|
slow, shallow breathing causes __
|
CO2 accumulation in blood so pH drops
|
|
|
__ sets breathing pace (inspiratory center); impulses down __ and __ nerves to diaphragm and external intercostal muscles; causes contractions resulting in inspiration
|
dorsal respiratory group, phrenic, intercostal
|
|
|
normal respiratory rate and ryhthem of 12-15 breaths per minute
|
eupnea
|
|
|
sleeping pill, morphine, and alcohol overdoses can completely suppress the __
|
dorsal respiratory group
|
|
|
has inhibitory effects on the medulla
|
pneumotaxic center
|
|
|
dust, lint, smoke, etc. stimulate bronchiole receptors to promote constriction
|
pulmonary irritant reflexes
|
|
|
-inflation reflex
-protective to prevent excessive stretching -involves stretch receptors |
hering-breuer reflex
|
|
|
controls emotions and pain
|
hypothalamus
|
|
|
conscious control of breathing; limited control due to CO2 accumulation (so drowning victims always inhale water)
|
cortex
|
|
|
monitor changes in CO2, O2, H+ in arterial blood
|
chemoreceptors
|
|
|
the main chemoreceptor is in the __
|
aorta
|
|
|
mainly, chemoreceptors are in the __
|
brain stem
|
|
|
CO2 enters __ where it forms carbonic acid that dissociates to liberate H+
|
CSF
|
|
|
CSF contains no buffers, so __ or high CO2 causes pH drop
|
hypercaina
|
|
|
__ is the most important stimulus in breathing
|
CO2
|
|
|
CO2 in teh blood is equivilant to (becomes) __, which will __ pH
|
H+, lower
|
|
|
__ must drop substantially (to 60 mm Hg) before oxygen becomes a major stimulus to increase ventilation
|
arterial PO2
|
|
|
__ conatins a huge oxygen reservoir
|
Hgb
|
|
|
__ causes increased respiration rate because of low arterial pH
|
acidosis
|
|
|
why would a chronic emphysema patient possibly stop breathing is given oxygen?
|
because of such high CO2 levels, the brain bases breathing regulation on O2 levels. this would cause the brain to shut down respiratory function
|
|
|
deeper breathing with little change in respiratory rate (exercise)
|
hyperpnea
|
|
|
most of us live between __ and __ m
|
0-2400
|
|
|
long term adjustments to elevation
|
acclimatization
|
|
|
in acclimatization, minute respiratory volume increases to __ L/min higher
|
2-3
|
|
|
with acclimatization, there is a __ hemoglobin oxygen saturation
|
lower
|
|
|
you may become severely __ with strenuous exercise if you are not fully acclimatized to elevation
|
hypoxic
|
|
|
characterized by:
-smoking -dyspnea -coughing and pulmonary infections -development of respiratory failure |
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)
|
|
|
difficult breathing
|
dyspnea
|
|
|
alveolar enlargement and deterioration
|
obstructive emphysema
|
|
|
inhaled irritants cause excessive mucus production that obstructs passageways and impairs ventilation and gas exchange
|
chronic bronchitis
|
|
|
tuberculosis is caused by __
|
myobacterium tuberculosis
|
|
|
__ of the world is infected with tuberculosis but with no symptoms until immune system is weakened because bacteria are walled off in fibrous nodules (tubercles)
|
1/3
|
|
|
__ is associated with HIV infection but test negative because of a depressed immune system, therefore go untreated and spread the bacteria
|
tuberculosis
|
|
|
nearly 1/3 of all cancer deaths
|
lung cancer
|
|
|
over __ percent of lung cancer patients are/were smokers
|
90
|
|
|
the 5 year survival rate of lung caner is __%
|
14
|
|
|
squamous cell carcinoma is __% of lung cancer
|
20-40
|
|
|
adenocarcinoma is __% of lung cancer
|
25-35
|
|
|
small cell carcinoma is __% of lung cancer
|
10-20
|
|
|
caused by imbalance in mineralcorticoids and glucocorticoids
|
addisons disease
|
|
|
caused by high cortisol
|
cushings disease
|
|
|
caused by low ADH
|
diabetes insipidus
|
|
|
How does the hypothalamus control release of hormones from the anterior pituitary
|
Releasing hormones (GnRH, GHRH, etc)
|
|
|
What does ACTH do?
|
Stimulates the adrenal cortex – primarily controls cortisol secretion
|
|
|
True or false: macrophages are part of the second line of defense
|
True – inflammation is the second line of defense; macrophages are involved
|
|
|
Name the cardinal signs of inflammation
|
Redness, heat, pain, swelling
|
|
|
Name the structures which branch of the trachea to enter the lungs
|
Primary bronchi
|
|
|
Alveolar gas is high in _____ and low in _____ compared to the blood
|
O2; CO2
|
|
|
What is the role of interferon in defense against disease
|
protects cells that have not yet been infected by viruses
|
|
|
Why would a patient with no thymus lack an effective humoral immune response?
|
T cells are responsible for humoral immunity
|
|
|
Immunological memory is provided is an __ immunity
|
active
|
