Fire Hire Questions

Front 1

1. The shape and color classification for flammable liquids is:
A. Circle, Green
B. Square, Red
C. Triangle, Blue
D. None of the above

Back 1

1. The shape and color classification for flammable liquids is:
B. Square, Red

Front 2

2. Hand-held Carbon Dioxide extinguishers have a limited reach of:
A. 3 to 8 feet
B. 2 to 4 feet
C. 6 to 10 feet
D. 1 to 3 feet

Back 2

2. Hand-held Carbon Dioxide extinguishers have a limited reach of:
A. 3 to 8 feet

Front 3

3. Under normal circumstances, a pump tank water extinguisher has a reach of 40 to 50 feet.
A. True
B. False

Back 3

3. Under normal circumstances, a pump tank water extinguisher has a reach of 40 to 50 feet.
B. False

20-30 feet

Front 4

4. What is the NFPA Specifications Standard for helmets for structural firefighting?
A. 1972
B. 1973
C. 1901
D. 1971

Back 4

4. What is the NFPA Specifications Standard for helmets for structural firefighting?
D. 1971

Front 5

5. According to NFPA Standard 1975, all of the following garments must conform to the Standard, with the exception of:
A. Trousers
B. Shirt
C. Jacket
D. Socks

Back 5

5. According to NFPA Standard 1975, all of the following garments must conform to the Standard, with the exception of:
D. Socks

Front 6

6. Carbon Monoxide binds with the body’s hemoglobin 300 times more readily than Oxygen.
A. True
B. False

Back 6

6. Carbon Monoxide binds with the body’s hemoglobin 300 times more readily than Oxygen.
B. False

Front 7

7. Which of the following is not a natural rope-making fiber?
A. Manila
B. Aramid
C. Sisal
D. Cotton

Back 7

7. Which of the following is not a natural rope-making fiber?
B. Aramid

Front 8

8. Which of the following terms are used when tying a “knot”?
A. Standing part
B. Running part
C. Bitter end
D. All of the above

Back 8

8. Which of the following terms are used when tying a “knot”?
C. Bitter end

Front 9

9. NFPA 1983 breaks down life-safety rope into 2 categories.
A. True
B. False

Back 9

9. NFPA 1983 breaks down life-safety rope into 2 categories.
B. False

Answer: (3) light-use, general-use, throwline.

Front 10

10. The “block” portion of a block and tackle system contains one or more:
A. Harnesses
B. Couplings
C. Sheaves
D. Locks

Back 10

10. The “block” portion of a block and tackle system contains one or more:
C. Sheaves

Front 11

11. Which of the following methods for gaining access to victims is an unapproved method?
A. Through a normally operating door
B. Through a window
C. By compromising the body of the vehicle
D. All of the above are approved methods

Back 11

11. Which of the following methods for gaining access to victims is an unapproved method?
D. All of the above are approved methods

Front 12

12. Tempered automobile glass is utilized in all windows except:
A. Rear
B. Side
C. Front
D. All of the vehicles windows are tempered

Back 12

12. Tempered automobile glass is utilized in all windows except:
C. Front

Front 13

13. All of the tools below are considered striking tools, with the exception of which one?
A. Hammer
B. Battering Ram
C. Automatic center punch
D. Pick head axe

Back 13

13. All of the tools below are considered striking tools, with the exception of which one?
D. Pick head axe

Front 14

14. A tool utilized to pull or force a cylinder lock is known as a:
A. J-Tool
B. Pry axe
C. K-Tool
D. None of the above

Back 14

14. A tool utilized to pull or force a cylinder lock is known as a:
C. K-Tool

Front 15

15. The I-beams in wooden floors are generally spaced 24 inches apart regardless of span.
A. True
B. False

Back 15

15. The I-beams in wooden floors are generally spaced 24 inches apart regardless of span.
A. True

Front 16

16. Which of the below indicators concerning a backdraft is false?
A. Smoke stained windows
B. Smoke puffing from building
C. High flame activity
D. Yellow-gray smoke

Back 16

16. Which of the below indicators concerning a backdraft is false?
C. High flame activity

Front 17

17. Which of the following is not a common style of roof?
A. Manson
B. Gambrel
C. Lantern
D. Hip

Back 17

17. Which of the following is not a common style of roof?
A. Manson

Front 18

18. Hydraulic ventilation uses a hose line pointed out a horizontal opening.
A. True
B. False

Back 18

18. Hydraulic ventilation uses a hose line pointed out a horizontal opening.
A. True

Front 19

19. What is the NFPA Standard for ladder design specifications?
A. 1941
B. 1901
C. 1931
D. 1971

Back 19

19. What is the NFPA Standard for ladder design specifications?
C. 1931

Front 20

20. Single ladders have a common length up to:
A. 20 feet
B. 18 feet
C. 14 feet
D. 24 feet

Back 20

20. Single ladders have a common length up to:
D. 24 feet

Front 21

21. The optimum climbing angle for ladders is approximately 75 degrees.
A. True
B. False

Back 21

21. The optimum climbing angle for ladders is approximately 75 degrees.
A. True

Front 22

22. Which of the following is not a recognized water supply source?
A. Direct pumping
B. Gravity
C. Distributor
D. Combination

Back 22

22. Which of the following is not a recognized water supply source?
C. Distributor

Front 23

23. In general, fire hydrants should not be placed more than _____ apart in high value districts.
A. 200 feet apart
B. 250 feet apart
C. 350 feet apart
D. None of the above

Back 23

23. In general, fire hydrants should not be placed more than _____ apart in high value districts.
D. None of the above

Front 24

24. Two common indicator valves on a water system are the P.V. I. and O. S. & Y.
A. True
B. False

Back 24

24. Two common indicator valves on a water system are the P.V. I. and O. S. & Y.
B. False

Answer: indicating and nonindicating

Front 25

25. At 212° Fahrenheit, a cubic foot of water will expand approximately how much?
A. 1700 times it’s original volume
B. 1200 times it’s original volume
C. 2000 times it’s original volume
D. None of the above

Back 25

25. At 212° Fahrenheit, a cubic foot of water will expand approximately how much?
A. 1700 times it’s original volume

Front 26

26. Foam extinguishes or prevents fires by:
A. Smothering
B. Cooling
C. Separating
D. All of the above

Back 26

26. Foam extinguishes or prevents fires by:
D. All of the above

Front 27

27. The rate of discharge from a fire stream is measured in pounds per square inch.
A. True
B. False

Back 27

27. The rate of discharge from a fire stream is measured in pounds per square inch.
B. False

Front 28

28. A smoothbore nozzles length is ______ times its’ diameter.
A. 1/2 to 3/4
B. 3/4 to 1
C. 1 to 1-1/2
D. 1-1/2 to 2

Back 28

28. A smoothbore nozzles length is ______ times its’ diameter.
C. 1 to 1-1/2

Front 29

29. Of the following items, what is not required of fire hose?
A. Be watertight
B. Be equipped with National Standard threads
C. Be flexible
D. Have a smooth lining

Back 29

29. Of the following items, what is not required of fire hose?
B. Be equipped with National Standard threads

Front 30

30. Which of the following basic supply hose loads are not used on fire service apparatus?
A. Reverse horseshoe
B. Horseshoe
C. Flat
D. Accordion

Back 30

30. Which of the following basic supply hose loads are not used on fire service apparatus?
A. Reverse horseshoe

Front 31

31. When a hose line bursts, it is only necessary to replace it with one section of hose.
A. True
B. False

Back 31

31. When a hose line bursts, it is only necessary to replace it with one section of hose.
B. False

Front 32

32. A Siamese connection is one female 2-1/2 connection to two 2-1/2 male connections.
A. True
B. False

Back 32

32. A Siamese connection is one female 2-1/2 connection to two 2-1/2 male connections.
B. False

Front 33

33. Which of the following are not considered methods to attack a fire?
A. Bidirectional
B. Combination
C. Direct
D. Indirect

Back 33

33. Which of the following are not considered methods to attack a fire?
A. Bidirectional

Hint 33

Direct Attack: applying water to the base of the burning material
Combination: roll the stream around the perimeter of the room
Indirect: remote injection of the water

Front 34

34. In case of a possible building collapse, a “collapse zone” should be set-up. It should be equal to _____ times the height of the involved building.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 1-1/2
D. 2-1/2

Back 34

34. In case of a possible building collapse, a “collapse zone” should be set-up. It should be equal to _____ times the height of the involved building.
C. 1-1/2

Front 35

35. A technique called “penciling” and “painting” is considered a part of a combination attack.
A. True
B. False

Back 35

35. A technique called “penciling” and “painting” is considered a part of a combination attack.
A. True

Front 36

36. A nationally recognized testing laboratory should test an automatic sprinkler system. One is the Underwriters’ Laboratory. What is the other?
A. NSTI-National Sprinkler Testing Institute
B. AIA-American Insurance Association
C. FMG-Factory Mutual Global
D. UL-Underwriters’ Laboratory is the only authorized testing agency

Back 36

36. A nationally recognized testing laboratory should test an automatic sprinkler system. One is the Underwriters’ Laboratory. What is the other?
C. FMG-Factory Mutual Global

Front 37

37. Of the following, which is not a type of release mechanism for a sprinkler head?
A. Fusible link
B. Chemical pellet
C. Rate of rise
D. Frangible bulb

Back 37

37. Of the following, which is not a type of release mechanism for a sprinkler head?
C. Rate of rise

Front 38

38. The inspectors test valve is located near the clapper valve on fixed sprinkler systems.
A. True
B. False

Back 38

38. The inspectors test valve is located near the clapper valve on fixed sprinkler systems.
B. False

Front 39

39. It is allowable to fold and store a synthetic salvage cover when wet.
A. True
B. False

Back 39

39. It is allowable to fold and store a synthetic salvage cover when wet.
A. True

Front 40

40. A backpack type of wet vacuum normally carries what capacity?
A. 3-4 gallons
B. 4-5 gallons
C. 5-6 gallons
D. None of the above

Back 40

40. A backpack type of wet vacuum normally carries what capacity?
B. 4-5 gallons

Front 41

41. Overhaul is the practice of searching for hidden or remaining fire.
A. True
B. False

Back 41

41. Overhaul is the practice of searching for hidden or remaining fire.
A. True

Front 42

42. Which of the following is not considered a type of building construction?
A. Type I
B. Type III
C. Type V
D. Type VII

Back 42

42. Which of the following is not considered a type of building construction?
D. Type VII

Front 43

43. Type II construction is also known in some codes as fire-resistive construction.
A. True
B. False

Back 43

43. Type II construction is also known in some codes as fire-resistive construction.
B. False

Front 44

44. A method to spread fire from one point to another utilizing combustible material is called:
A. Set
B. Ignition source
C. Plant
D. Trailer

Back 44

44. A method to spread fire from one point to another utilizing combustible material is called:
D. Trailer

Front 45

45. What is the NFPA Standard for Professional Qualifications for Public Safety Telecommunications?
A. 1061
B. 1001
C. 1500
D. 1901

Back 45

45. What is the NFPA Standard for Professional Qualifications for Public Safety Telecommunications?
A. 1061

Front 46

46. What is the NFPA Standard for Professional Qualifications for Fire Inspector?
A. 1025
B. 1031
C. 1035
D. 1033

Back 46

46. What is the NFPA Standard for Professional Qualifications for Fire Inspector?
B. 1031

Front 47

47. What is the NFPA Standard for Fire Department Safety Officer?
A. 1521
B. 1901
C. 1200
D. 1300

Back 47

47. What is the NFPA Standard for Fire Department Safety Officer?
A. 1521

Front 48

48. Normal Oxygen content in breathing air is:
A. 21%
B. 18%
C. 26%
D. 14%

Back 48

48. Normal Oxygen content in breathing air is:
A. 21%

Front 49

49. A ratio of the mass of a given volume of a liquid, compared with the mass of an equal volume of water, is best described as:
A. the boiling point.
B. the specific gravity.
C. the vapor density.
D. a Calorie.

Back 49

49. A ratio of the mass of a given volume of a liquid, compared with the mass of an equal volume of water, is best described as:
B. the specific gravity.

Front 50

50. Portable lighting usually ranges from ____ to ____ watts of power.
A. 40-100
B. 100-500
C. 200-750
D. 300-1000

Back 50

50. Portable lighting usually ranges from ____ to ____ watts of power.
D. 300-1000

Front 51

51. To relieve a possible “backdraft” situation, you must perform vertical ventilation as soon as possible.
A. True
B. False

Back 51

51. To relieve a possible “backdraft” situation, you must perform vertical ventilation as soon as possible.
A. True

Front 52

52. A process of rapid oxidation is called:
A. backdraft.
B. fire.
C. combustion.
D. flashover.

Back 52

52. A process of rapid oxidation is called:
A. backdraft.

Front 53

53. The NFPA Standard for portable fire extinguishers is:
A. 13.
B. 11.
C. 10.
D. 12.

Back 53

53. The NFPA Standard for portable fire extinguishers is:
C. 10.

Front 54

54. Which of the following extinguishers are recognized as being obsolete?
A. Carbon Dioxide
B. AFFF
C. Soda-Acid
D. None of the above

Back 54

54. Which of the following extinguishers are recognized as being obsolete?
C. Soda-Acid

Front 55

55. Bromochlorodifluoromethane is considered a “clean” extinguishing agent?
A. True
B. False

Back 55

55. Bromochlorodifluoromethane is considered a “clean” extinguishing agent?
B. False

Front 56

56. Class “A” extinguishers are rated from 1A through:
A. 160A.
B. 30A.
C. 320A.
D. 40A

Back 56

56. Class “A” extinguishers are rated from 1A through:
D. 40A

Front 57

57. If upon inspection an extinguisher is found to be deficient in weight by ___ %, it should be removed from service and replaced.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 25

Back 57

57. If upon inspection an extinguisher is found to be deficient in weight by ___ %, it should be removed from service and replaced.
B. 10

Front 58

58. NFPA approved eye protection includes:
A. safety glasses.
B. self-contained breathing apparatus masks.
C. helmet face shields.
D. all of the above.

Back 58

58. NFPA approved eye protection includes:
D. all of the above.

Front 59

59. To meet NFPA 1500 requirements, a P.A.S.S. (Personal Alert Safety System) should activate after approximately ____ of inactivity.
A. 15 seconds
B. 45 seconds
C. 1 minute
D. 30 seconds

Back 59

59. To meet NFPA 1500 requirements, a P.A.S.S. (Personal Alert Safety System) should activate after approximately ____ of inactivity.
D. 30 seconds

Front 60

60. An IDLH environment should not be a concern regarding the use of a breathing apparatus.
A. True
B. False

Back 60

60. An IDLH environment should not be a concern regarding the use of a breathing apparatus.
B. False

Front 61

61. OSHA and NFPA standards prohibit firefighters from wearing contact lenses inside their SCBA masks.
A. True
B. False

Back 61

61. OSHA and NFPA standards prohibit firefighters from wearing contact lenses inside their SCBA masks.
B. False

Front 62

62. The construction of your structural firefighting equipment serves every purpose below except?
A. Resists absorption of corrosive liquids.
B. Insulates the wearer from the heat.
C. Resists direct flame contact.
D. All of the above.

Back 62

62. The construction of your structural firefighting equipment serves every purpose below except?
A. Resists absorption of corrosive liquids.

Front 63

63. Which of the following are types of rope construction?
A. Laid
B. Braided
C. Braid on Braid
D. All of the above

Back 63

63. Which of the following are types of rope construction?
D. All of the above

Front 64

64. Which knot is utilized to join two ropes of unequal diameter?
A. Chimney hitch
B. Clove hitch
C. Half hitch
D. Becket bend

Back 64

64. Which knot is utilized to join two ropes of unequal diameter?
D. Becket bend

Front 65

65. The half hitch is not well suited in hoisting long objects.
A. True
B. False

Back 65

65. The half hitch is not well suited in hoisting long objects.
B. False

Front 66

66. A search line system consists of ____ feet of ____ inch rope?
A. 100, 1/2
B. 150, 1/4
C. 200, 3/8
D. 50, 1/2

Back 66

66. A search line system consists of ____ feet of ____ inch rope?
C. 200, 3/8

Front 67

67. Which of the following is not a type of building collapse?
A. Pocket
B. Pancake
C. Lean-to
D. V-shaped

Back 67

67. Which of the following is not a type of building collapse?
A. Pocket

Front 68

68. On an elevator emergency, it is not necessary to dispatch an elevator mechanic, because fire service personnel can override the elevator controls.
A. True
B. False

Back 68

68. On an elevator emergency, it is not necessary to dispatch an elevator mechanic, because fire service personnel can override the elevator controls.
B. False

Front 69

69. The hydraulic extension ram closing force is one-third that of the opening force.
A. True
B. False

Back 69

69. The hydraulic extension ram closing force is one-third that of the opening force.
B. False

Front 70

70. It is NOT necessary to stabilize a vehicle with it upright and on 4 wheels.
A. True
B. False

Back 70

70. It is NOT necessary to stabilize a vehicle with it upright and on 4 wheels.
B. False

Front 71

71. It is acceptable to place plywood or another rigid material between a lifting bag and the object being lifted.
A. True
B. False

Back 71

71. It is acceptable to place plywood or another rigid material between a lifting bag and the object being lifted.
B. False

Front 72

72. There are certain types of wooden swinging doors. Which one below is not one?
A. Panel
B. Ledge
C. Slab
D. Pocket

Back 72

72. There are certain types of wooden swinging doors. Which one below is not one?
D. Pocket

Front 73

73. If a Bam-bam tool is utilized, it will work on all makes of padlocks.
A. True
B. False

Back 73

73. If a Bam-bam tool is utilized, it will work on all makes of padlocks.
B. False

Front 74

74. The most common listed below product of combustion encountered in structure fires is:
A. Carbon Dioxide
B. Hydrogen Cyanide
C. Carbon Monoxide
D. Sulfur Dioxide

Back 74

74. The most common listed below product of combustion encountered in structure fires is:
C. Carbon Monoxide

Front 75

75. Of the following items, which does not belong in a typical pitched composition roof
assembly?
A. Shingles
B. Sheathing
C. Joists
D. Tarpaper

Back 75

75. Of the following items, which does not belong in a typical pitched composition roof
assembly?
C. Joists

Front 76

76. When performing trench ventilation, the strip must be at least 4 feet wide.
A. True
B. False

Back 76

76. When performing trench ventilation, the strip must be at least 4 feet wide.
A. True

Front 77

77. Which of the following is another term used for ladder locks?
A. Pawls
B. Shims
C. Rails
D. Guides

Back 77

77. Which of the following is another term used for ladder locks?
A. Pawls

Front 78

78. NFPA 1932 requires that ladders be inspected after each use and ________.
A. daily
B. weekly
C. monthly
D. bi-annually

Back 78

78. NFPA 1932 requires that ladders be inspected after each use and ________.
C. monthly

Front 79

79. The forward velocity pressure at a discharge opening while water is flowing can be best described as:
A. residual pressure.
B. flow pressure.
C. normal operating pressure.
D. static pressure.

Back 79

79. The forward velocity pressure at a discharge opening while water is flowing can be best described as:
B. flow pressure.

Front 80

80. A fire hydrant that receives water from only one source is known as a dead-end hydrant.
A. True
B. False

Back 80

80. A fire hydrant that receives water from only one source is known as a dead-end hydrant.
A. True

Front 81

81. The total amount of fuel available for combustion influences total potential heat release is called:
A. Continuity
B. Mass Area
C. Surface to Mass Ratio
D. Fuel Load

Back 81

81. The total amount of fuel available for combustion influences total potential heat release is called:
D. Fuel Load

Front 82

82. The International System of Units measure for heat energy is referred to as a joule.
A. True
B. False

Back 82

82. The International System of Units measure for heat energy is referred to as a joule.
A. True

Front 83

83. Various valve devices control the flow of water. Which of the valves below are not utilized by the fire service?
A. Ball valves
B. Gate valves
C. Cupper valves
D. Butterfly valve

Back 83

83. Various valve devices control the flow of water. Which of the valves below are not utilized by the fire service?
C. Cupper valves

Front 84

84. NFPA 1962 is the standard for hose specifications.
A. True
B. False

Back 84

84. NFPA 1962 is the standard for hose specifications.
B. False

NFPA 1962: Standard for the Inspection, Care, and Use of Fire Hose, Couplings, and Nozzles and the Service Testing of Fire Hose

Front 85

85. Which of the following terms are not related to a wildland fire?
A. Sides
B. Head
C. Finger
D. All of the above are wildland fire related terms

Back 85

85. Which of the following terms are not related to a wildland fire?
A. Sides

Front 86

86. When utilizing water as a cooling agent on a container of flammable liquid or gas, it is recommended that you put the water stream on the bottom of the container.
A. True
B. False

Back 86

86. When utilizing water as a cooling agent on a container of flammable liquid or gas, it is recommended that you put the water stream on the bottom of the container.
B. False

Front 87

87. What is the NFPA Standard for sprinkler installation?
A. 12
B. 11
C. 13
D. 14

Back 87

87. What is the NFPA Standard for sprinkler installation?
C. 13

Front 88

88. A residential sprinkler system utilizes iron piping.
A. True
B. False

Back 88

88. A residential sprinkler system utilizes iron piping.
B. False

Front 89

89. A firefighter can often detect hidden fires by which of the following?
A. Sight, smell, touch, sound
B. Touch, electronic sensors, smell, sight
C. Electronic sensors, sound, sight, smell
D. Sound, touch, sight, electronic sensors

Back 89

89. A firefighter can often detect hidden fires by which of the following?
D. Sound, touch, sight, electronic sensors

Front 90

90. Salvage operations can wait until the fire is extinguished to begin.
A. True
B. False

Back 90

90. Salvage operations can wait until the fire is extinguished to begin.
B. False

Front 91

91. Type IV construction consists of:
A. all non-combustible materials.
B. heavy timber materials.
C. ordinary materials.
D. partially non-combustible materials.

Back 91

91. Type IV construction consists of:
B. heavy timber materials.

Front 92

92. Unreinforced steel beams are anticipated to fail at what temperature?
A. 1,000° Fahrenheit
B. 800° Fahrenheit
C. 1200° Fahrenheit
D. 600° Fahrenheit

Back 92

92. Unreinforced steel beams are anticipated to fail at what temperature?
A. 1,000° Fahrenheit

Front 93

93. Wire-reinforced glass may provide some thermal protection as a separation.
A. True
B. False

Back 93

93. Wire-reinforced glass may provide some thermal protection as a separation.
A. True

Front 94

94. Pyrolysis is the chemical decomposition of a substance through the action of heat.
A. True
B. False

Back 94

94. Pyrolysis is the chemical decomposition of a substance through the action of heat.
A. True

Front 95

95. Which of the following is not a recommended means of securing a fire scene?
A. Fire line tape
B. Advising the police department to watch it
C. Post a firefighter on-scene
D. Any of the above is an acceptable means

Back 95

95. Which of the following is not a recommended means of securing a fire scene?
D. Any of the above is an acceptable means

Front 96

96. It is required to obtain a search warrant before re-entering a dwelling, once you turn the fire scene back over to the owner.
A. True
B. False

Back 96

96. It is required to obtain a search warrant before re-entering a dwelling, once you turn the fire scene back over to the owner.
A. True

Front 97

97. Some City or State Telecommunication Dispatch Centers have E-9-1-1 systems. What type of 9-1-1 system is this considered?
A. Emergency 9-1-1
B. Evolved 9-1-1
C. Extra Data 9-1-1
D. Enhanced 9-1-1

Back 97

97. Some City or State Telecommunication Dispatch Centers have E-9-1-1 systems. What type of 9-1-1 system is this considered?
D. Enhanced 9-1-1

Front 98

98. The terms “dry chemical” and “dry powder,” mean the same thing.
A. True
B. False

Back 98

98. The terms “dry chemical” and “dry powder,” mean the same thing.
B. False

Front 99

99. At 70 degrees F, combustion is supported at Oxygen concentrations as low as:
A. 14%
B. 19%
C. 17%
D. 12%

Back 99

99. At 70 degrees F, combustion is supported at Oxygen concentrations as low as:
A. 14%

Front 100

100. Which of the following is not a type of alarm initiating device?
A. Pre-Action detectors
B. Heat Detectors
C. Smoke detectors
D. Flame detectors

Back 100

100. Which of the following is not a type of alarm initiating device?
A. Pre-Action detectors

Front 101

101. Flame detectors are also called light detectors.
A. True
B. False

Back 101

101. Flame detectors are also called light detectors.
A. True

Front 102

102. During a pre-incident survey, the occupant or a representative should accompany you:
A. when you enter the facility
B. upon entry and during the exit interview
C. only if questions arise
D. at all times

Back 102

102. During a pre-incident survey, the occupant or a representative should accompany you:
D. at all times

Front 103

103. You should keep dry vegetation at least how far from all structures?
A. 25 feet
B. 30 feet
C. 35 feet
D. 40 feet

Back 103

103. You should keep dry vegetation at least how far from all structures?
B. 30 feet

Front 104

104. Firefighters should refer citizens who would like a station tour to fire prevention personnel.
A. True
B. False

Back 104

104. Firefighters should refer citizens who would like a station tour to fire prevention personnel.
B. False

Front 105

105. On a residential fire safety survey, you are not required to have an immediate correction made if a hazard is found.
A. True
B. False

Back 105

105. On a residential fire safety survey, you are not required to have an immediate correction made if a hazard is found.
A. True

Front 106

106. Halon ____ is the agent of choice in most total flooding systems using a halongenated agent.
A. 1110
B. 1301
C. 1412
D. 1211

Back 106

106. Halon ____ is the agent of choice in most total flooding systems using a halongenated agent.
B. 1301

Front 107

107. The extinguishment of a fire in an enclosed space utilizing a Halon flooding system, is an example of extinguishment by:
A. interrupting chemical chain reaction.
B. Oxygen dilution.
C. cooling.
D. fuel removal.

Back 107

107. The extinguishment of a fire in an enclosed space utilizing a Halon flooding system, is an example of extinguishment by:
A. interrupting chemical chain reaction.

Front 108

108. Which type of extinguisher can be used on type A, B, or C fires?
A. Halon extinguishers
B. AFFF extinguishers
C. Either A or B
D. Neither A or B

Back 108

108. Which type of extinguisher can be used on type A, B, or C fires?
A. Halon extinguishers

Front 109

109. What is the NFPA standard for Fire Officer Professional Qualifications?
A. 1003
B. 1001
C. 1021
D. 1006

Back 109

109. What is the NFPA standard for Fire Officer Professional Qualifications?
C. 1021

Front 110

110. Which segment below does not fall into the scheme of the (IMS) Incident Management System?
A. Operations
B. Planning
C. Prevention
D. Logistics

Back 110

110. Which segment below does not fall into the scheme of the (IMS) Incident Management System?
C. Prevention

Front 111

111. If you see an electrical line down and it’s not moving, it is safe to assume that you can cut it?
A. True
B. False

Back 111

111. If you see an electrical line down and it’s not moving, it is safe to assume that you can cut it?
B. False

Front 112

112. An inverter will convert 110 or 220 volt (AC) current to 12 to 24 Volt (DC) current
A. True
B. False

Back 112

112. An inverter will convert 110 or 220 volt (AC) current to 12 to 24 Volt (DC) current
B. False

An inverter is an electrical device that converts direct current (DC) to alternating current (AC)

Front 113

113. Of the three forms of matter, solids are the only form that will burn.
A. True
B. False

Back 113

113. Of the three forms of matter, solids are the only form that will burn.
B. False

Front 114

114. Lightweight metal & wood trusses will fail after ___ to ___ minutes of exposure to fire.
A. 5-10
B. 10-15
C. 15-20
D. 20-30

Back 114

114. Lightweight metal & wood trusses will fail after ___ to ___ minutes of exposure to fire.
A. 5-10

Front 115

115. A burning gas produces a visible luminosity called:
A. Heat
B. Fire gases
C. Light
D. Flame

Back 115

115. A burning gas produces a visible luminosity called:
D. Flame

Front 116

116. A Class “D” extinguisher can be used on what other class of fire?
A. B
B. C
C. A
D. None of the above

Back 116

116. A Class “D” extinguisher can be used on what other class of fire?
D. None of the above

Front 117

117. A class “K” fire involves combustible cooking oils.
A. True
B. False

Back 117

117. A class “K” fire involves combustible cooking oils.
A. True

Front 118

118. Portable fire extinguishers are classified according to their extinguishing agent.
A. True
B. False

Back 118

118. Portable fire extinguishers are classified according to their extinguishing agent.
B. False

Front 119

119. AFFF will not work on polar solvents.
A. True
B. False

Back 119

119. AFFF will not work on polar solvents.
A. True

the foam is ineffective on polar solvents.

Front 120

120. Which of the following hose rolls are not utilized in the fire service?
A. Twin Donut roll
B. Straight roll
C. Donut roll
D. All of the above are utilized

Back 120

120. Which of the following hose rolls are not utilized in the fire service?
D. All of the above are utilized

Front 121

121. A Class “B” fire extinguishers rating is based on the approximate square foot area of a flammable liquid fire that an expert operator can extinguish.
A. True
B. False

Back 121

121. A Class “B” fire extinguishers rating is based on the approximate square foot area of a flammable liquid fire that an expert operator can extinguish.
B. False

Front 122

122. Which knot is also known as the Flemish Bend?
A. Bowline
B. Becket Bend
C. Figure-Eight Bend
D. Sheet bend

Back 122

122. Which knot is also known as the Flemish Bend?
C. Figure-Eight Bend

Front 123

123. If you are trapped in the interior of a building, it is recommended that if you have a flashlight, point it:
A. toward the direction which you came from
B. toward the ceiling
C. toward the direction at which you were proceeding
D. none of the above, as it will be too difficult to see

Back 123

123. If you are trapped in the interior of a building, it is recommended that if you have a flashlight, point it:
B. toward the ceiling

Front 124

124. When performing a search operation on the fire floor, it is best to start closer to the area involved in fire.
A. True
B. False

Back 124

124. When performing a search operation on the fire floor, it is best to start closer to the area involved in fire.
A. True

Front 125

125. Most air chisels operate at pressures between ____ and ____ psi.
A. 100-150
B. 150-160
C. 90-250
D. 120-180

Back 125

125. Most air chisels operate at pressures between ____ and ____ psi.
C. 90-250

Front 126

126. A vehicular SRS (Supplemental Restraint Systems) may reach deployment speeds of _____ mph.
A. 100
B. 150
C. 175
D. 200

Back 126

126. A vehicular SRS (Supplemental Restraint Systems) may reach deployment speeds of _____ mph.
D. 200

Front 127

127. The ”C” post on a vehicle is located:
A. at the rear of the vehicle
B. at the front of the vehicle
C. in the middle of the vehicle on the right side
D. in the middle of the vehicle on the left side

Back 127

127. The ”C” post on a vehicle is located:
A. at the rear of the vehicle

Front 128

128. On a water rescue, what is the correct sequence to rescue a victim in the water?
A. Throw, go, row, reach
B. Reach, throw, row, go
C. Go, throw, reach, row
D. Row, throw, go, reach

Back 128

128. On a water rescue, what is the correct sequence to rescue a victim in the water?
B. Reach, throw, row, go

Front 129

129. There are generally ___ types of wood swinging doors.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. 5

Back 129

129. There are generally ___ types of wood swinging doors.
C. 3

Slab, ledge, panel.

Front 130

130. IAP stands for Incident Activity Plan.
A. True
B. False

Back 130

130. IAP stands for Incident Activity Plan.
B. False

Incident Action Plan

Front 131

131. What is the NFPA standard for fire service ground ladder use?
A. 1901
B. 1932
C. 1913
D. 1931

Back 131

131. What is the NFPA standard for fire service ground ladder use?
B. 1932

NFPA 1932 Standard on Use, Maintenance, and Service Testing of In-Service Fire Department Ground Ladders

Front 132

132. When breaking glass, you should stand to the windward side.
A. True
B. False

Back 132

132. When breaking glass, you should stand to the windward side.
A. True

Front 133

133. Staypoles are required on all ladders that are ____ feet or more in height.
A. 45
B. 50
C. 39
D. 40

Back 133

133. Staypoles are required on all ladders that are ____ feet or more in height.
D. 40

Front 134

134. A “J” tool is another tool utilized to pull lock assemblies on commercial buildings.
A. True
B. False

Back 134

134. A “J” tool is another tool utilized to pull lock assemblies on commercial buildings.
B. False

Front 135

135. A proper ladder climbing angle is approximately:
A. 75°
B. 60°
C. 45°
D. 90°

Back 135

135. A proper ladder climbing angle is approximately:
A. 75°

Front 136

136. When there are two firefighters at the butt end of a ladder, the firefighter on the left usually gives commands for placement.
A. True
B. False

Back 136

136. When there are two firefighters at the butt end of a ladder, the firefighter on the left usually gives commands for placement.
B. False

Front 137

137. Who determines whether a ladder is placed fly-in or fly-out during a raise?
A. Company Officer
B. Department Standard Operating Procedure
C. Manufacturer
D. The firefighter in charge of the commands

Back 137

137. Who determines whether a ladder is placed fly-in or fly-out during a raise?
C. Manufacturer

Front 138

138. One firefighter can safely shift a single ladder that is 24’ long.
A. True
B. False

Back 138

138. One firefighter can safely shift a single ladder that is 24’ long.
B. False

Front 139

139. A vertical ventilation hole should be made at least:
A. 4’ x 4’
B. 3’ x 3’
C. 5’ x 5’
D. 2’ x 2’

Back 139

139. A vertical ventilation hole should be made at least:
A. 4’ x 4’

Front 140

140. A window screen on the window, will cut the efficiency of a smoke ejector by:
A. 1/3
B. 1/4
C. 3/4
D. 1/2

Back 140

140. A window screen on the window, will cut the efficiency of a smoke ejector by:
D. 1/2

Front 141

141. To ensure sufficient water, ___ or more __________ feeders should be supplied to the industrial or high risk districts.
A. 3, secondary
B. 2, distributor
C. 1, primary
D. 2, primary

Back 141

141. To ensure sufficient water, ___ or more __________ feeders should be supplied to the industrial or high risk districts.
D. 2, primary

Front 142

142. What pressure is described as stored potential energy that is available to force water through mains, valves, and hydrants?
A. Static
B. Flow
C. Residual
D. Normal

Back 142

142. What pressure is described as stored potential energy that is available to force water through mains, valves, and hybrants?
A. Static

Front 143

143. A fire hydrant that flows between 500 gpm to 999 gpm is color coded:
A. Red
B. Blue
C. Green
D. Orange

Back 143

143. A fire hydrant that flows between 500 gpm to 999 gpm is color coded:
D. Orange

Front 144

144. NFPA 1901 requires pumpers to carry ______ feet of 2-1/2” or larger fire hose.
A. 800
B. 1000
C. 1200
D. 1500

Back 144

144. NFPA 1901 requires pumpers to carry ______ feet of 2-1/2” or larger fire hose.
A. 800

Front 145

145. A gated-wye connects two female inlets to one male outlet.
A. True
B. False

Back 145

145. A gated-wye connects two female inlets to one male outlet.
B. False

Front 146

146. The size of the fire hose refers to the ________diameter, and cut and coupled into ____to ____ foot lengths.
A. Outside, 50, 100
B. Outside, 25, 50
C. Inside, 50, 100
D. Inside, 25, 50

Back 146

146. The size of the fire hose refers to the ________diameter, and cut and coupled into ____to ____ foot lengths.
C. Inside, 50, 100

Front 147

147. The hose clamp should be placed at least ___ feet behind the apparatus, and ___ feet from the coupling on the___________ water side.
A. 5, 20, outgoing
B. 10, 5, outgoing
C. 5, 10, incoming
D. 20, 5 incoming

Back 147

147. The hose clamp should be placed at least ___ feet behind the apparatus, and ___ feet from the coupling on the___________ water side.
D. 20, 5 incoming

Front 148

148. When advancing a hoseline into a structure, both firefighters should be on the same side of the hoseline.
A. True
B. False

Back 148

148. When advancing a hoseline into a structure, both firefighters should be on the same side of the hoseline.
A. True

Front 149

149. Of the three pre-connected hoselines, the ____________ load and carry is excellent for use in stairways.
A. Minuteman
B. Flat
C. Triple Layer
D. Wyed

Back 149

149. Of the three pre-connected hoselines, the ____________ load and carry is excellent for use in stairways.
A. Minuteman

Front 150

150. When testing hose, the length of hose lay shall not exceed _____ feet.
A. 200
B. 400
C. 500
D. 300

Back 150

150. When testing hose, the length of hose lay shall not exceed _____ feet.
D. 300

Front 151

151. Synthetic salvage covers are mildew-resistant and can be stored wet.
A. True
B. False

Back 151

151. Synthetic salvage covers are mildew-resistant and can be stored wet.
B. False

Front 152

152. Which of the following would not decrease friction loss?
A. Eliminate sharp bends in hose
B. Keeping adaptor use to a minimum
C. Use shorter hose lines
D. Increase the amount of flow

Back 152

152. Which of the following would not decrease friction loss?
D. Increase the amount of flow

Front 153

153. There are ___ major subdivisions within the ICS structure
A. 3
B. 5
C. 6
D. 4

Back 153

153. There are ___ major subdivisions within the ICS structure
D. 4

Branches, Sectors, Divisions, Groups.

Front 154

154. There are ____ basic organizational principles in the fire service.
A. 3
B. 4
C. 2
D. 5

Back 154

154. There are ____ basic organizational principles in the fire service.
B. 4

Discipline, Division of Labor, Unity of Command, Span of Control

Front 155

155. Having a predetermined plan for nearly every type of emergency is considered a:
A. Policy
B. Standard Operating Procedure
C. Company Officer Directive
D. Fire Service Guideline

Back 155

155. Having a predetermined plan for nearly every type of emergency is considered a:
B. Standard Operating Procedure

Front 156

156. The State of California utilizes the FireScope ICS and is not required to use a NIMS compliant Incident Command System.
A. True
B. False

Back 156

156. The State of California utilizes the FireScope ICS and is not required to use a NIMS compliant Incident Command System.
B. False

Front 157

157. It is permissible to stand inside of a moving apparatus when:
A. You are donning your turnouts enroute to a call
B. Never
C. You are returning from a call with your company officers permission
D. You are donning a Self Contained Breathing Apparatus

Back 157

157. It is permissible to stand inside of a moving apparatus when:
B. Never

Front 158

158. ____________ is simply defined as the capacity to perform work.
A. Energy
B. Pressure
C. Force
D. Inertia

Back 158

158. ____________ is simply defined as the capacity to perform work.
A. Energy

Front 159

159. Energy exists in two states.
A. True
B. False

Back 159

159. Energy exists in two states.
A. True

Front 160

160. Heat moves from __________ objects to those objects that are__________.
A. cooler, warmer
B. cooler, cooler
C. warmer, cooler
D. warmer, warmer

Back 160

160. Heat moves from __________ objects to those objects that are__________.
C. warmer, cooler

Front 161

161. Gases with a vapor density of greater than 1 will:
A. dissipate faster
B. rise
C. sink
D. dissipate slower

Back 161

161. Gases with a vapor density of greater than 1 will:
C. sink

Front 162

162. Nomex® will not burn.
A. True
B. False

Back 162

162. Nomex® will not burn.
B. False

Front 163

163. What is considered the energy component of the fire tetrahedron?
A. Fuel
B. Oxidizing Agent
C. Chemical chain reaction
D. Heat

Back 163

163. What is considered the energy component of the fire tetrahedron?
D. Heat

Front 164

164. What is probably the most common product of combustion encoutered in structure fires?
A. Carbon Dioxide
B. Hydrochloric Acid
C. Sulfur Dioxide
D. Carbon Monoxide

Back 164

164. What is probably the most common product of combustion encoutered in structure fires?
D. Carbon Monoxide

Front 165

165. How many types of building construction are there?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6

Back 165

165. How many types of building construction are there?
C. 5
Type I (fire resistive), Type II (non-combustible), Type III (ordinary), Type IV (heavy timber), Type V (wood frame)

Front 166

166. A party wall is considered a non-load bearing wall.
A. True
B. False

Back 166

166. A party wall is considered a non-load bearing wall.
B. False

Front 167

167. A collapse zone should be equal to:
A. The height of the involved building
B. 1/3 the height of the involved building
C. 2 times the height of the involved building
D. 1-1/2 times the height of the involved building

Back 167

167. A collapse zone should be equal to:
D. 1-1/2 times the height of the involved building

Front 168

168. When fire helmets were first designed, the primary function was what?
A. To protect from impact
B. To provide protection from heat and cold
C. To shed water and prevent hot embers from reaching ears and neck
D. All of the above

Back 168

168. When fire helmets were first designed, the primary function was what?
C. To shed water and prevent hot embers from reaching ears and neck

Front 169

169. Which NFPA Standard covers wildland firefighting clothing?
A. NFPA 1971
B. NFPA 1975
C. NFPA 1977
D. NFPA 1972

Back 169

169. Which NFPA Standard covers wildland firefighting clothing?
C. NFPA 1977

Front 170

170. Carboxyhemoglobin (which is formed in the bloodstream when exposed to Carbon Monoxide), dissipates rapidly from your bloodstream.
A. True
B. False

Back 170

170. Carboxyhemoglobin (which is formed in the bloodstream when exposed to Carbon Monoxide), dissipates rapidly from your bloodstream.
B. False

Front 171

171. There are ____ common respiratory hazards associated with fires and other emergencies.
A. 4
B. 5
C. 3
D. 6

Back 171

171. There are ____ common respiratory hazards associated with fires and other emergencies.
A. 4

Oxygen deficiency, Elevated temperatures, Smoke, Toxic atmospheres

Front 172

172. Etiologic agents are:
A. carcinogens
B. respiratory irritants
C. biological in nature
D. disease causing

Back 172

172. Etiologic agents are:
D. disease causing

Front 173

173. NFPA 1981 requires all open circuit SCBA’s to be equipped with two RIC/UAC connections (one on the shoulder strap and near the bottle connection).
A. True
B. False

Back 173

173. NFPA 1981 requires all open circuit SCBA’s to be equipped with two RIC/UAC connections (one on the shoulder strap and near the bottle connection).
B. False

Front 174

174. The bottle pressure on the Self Contained Breathing Apparatus and the regulator, should read within _____ psi at higher pressures.
A. 50
B. 75
C. 100
D. 10

Back 174

174. The bottle pressure on the Self Contained Breathing Apparatus and the regulator, should read within _____ psi at higher pressures.
C. 100

Front 175

175. Composite Self Contained Breathing Apparatus bottles must be hydrostatically tested every ____ years?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 7

Back 175

175. Composite Self Contained Breathing Apparatus bottles must be hydrostatically tested every ____ years?
A. 3

Front 176

176. NFPA 1901 requires that pumping apparatus have ____ approved portable fire extinguishers with mounting brackets.
A. 1
B. 3
C. 2
D. 0

Back 176

176. NFPA 1901 requires that pumping apparatus have ____ approved portable fire extinguishers with mounting brackets.
C. 2

Front 177

177. ____________ rope is the rope of choice for most rope-rescue incidents.
A. Static
B. Natural fiber
C. Dynamic
D. Utility

Back 177

177. ____________ rope is the rope of choice for most rope-rescue incidents.
A. Static

Front 178

178. When operating handlines with a solid stream nozzle, they should be operated at _____psi nozzle pressure.
A. 100
B. 80
C. 50
D. 70

Back 178

178. When operating handlines with a solid stream nozzle, they should be operated at _____psi nozzle pressure.
C. 50

Front 179

179. The term ___________ is used to describe the mixing of water with foam concentrate to form a foam solution.
A. Inducting
B. Foam mixing
C. Injection
D. Proportioning

Back 179

179. The term ___________ is used to describe the mixing of water with foam concentrate to form a foam solution.
D. Proportioning

Front 180

180. What type of hoseline fire attack is not desirable if victims may be trapped?
A. Direct attack
B. Indirect attack
C. Combination attack
D. Either A or B

Back 180

180. What type of hoseline fire attack is not desirable if victims may be trapped?
B. Indirect attack

Front 181

181. On a flammable bulk container accident on a roadway, you only need to set your flare pattern to allow yourself one lane of roadway for safety.
A. True
B. False

Back 181

181. On a flammable bulk container accident on a roadway, you only need to set your flare pattern to allow yourself one lane of roadway for safety.
B. False

Front 182

182. A 50-foot beam may elongate as much as ___ inches when heated from room temperatures to about ______º F.
A. 6, 2000
B. 3, 1500
C. 2, 2000
D. 4, 1000

Back 182

182. A 50-foot beam may elongate as much as ___ inches when heated from room temperatures to about ______º F.
D. 4, 1000

Front 183

183. There are ___ main influences on wildland fire behavior.
A. 3
B. 4
C. 2
D. 5

Back 183

183. There are ___ main influences on wildland fire behavior.
A. 3

Fuel, weather, topography

Front 184

184. In regards to fire size up and terms of pertinent observations, which of the following is not important?
A. A barricaded entryway
B. People running toward the fire scene
C. Time of day
D. All of the above are equally important

Back 184

184. In regards to fire size up and terms of pertinent observations, which of the following is not important?
B. People running toward the fire scene

Front 185

185. A __________ hazard is viewed as a facility in which there is a greater-than-normal potential likelihood of life or property loss from a fire.
A. Special
B. Common
C. High risk
D. Target

Back 185

185. A __________ hazard is viewed as a facility in which there is a greater-than-normal potential likelihood of life or property loss from a fire.
D. Target

Front 186

186. NFPA 1001 is a minimum Standard and it is acceptable to be exceeded or weakened by local jurisdictions to meet their needs.
A. True
B. False

Back 186

186. NFPA 1001 is a minimum Standard and it is acceptable to be exceeded or weakened by local jurisdictions to meet their needs.
B. False

Front 187

187. The current NFPA 1001 (1997) Standard contains a JPR. What is a JPR?
A. Joint Production Report
B. Job Production Requirement
C. Joint Performance Report
D. Job Performance Requirement

Back 187

187. The current NFPA 1001 (1997) Standard contains a JPR. What is a JPR?
D. Job Performance Requirement

Front 188

188. The 2008 edition of NFPA 1001 dropped the requirements for firefighters to test fire sprinkler systems which are now inspected by water or utility departments.
A. True
B. False

Back 188

188. The 2008 edition of NFPA 1001 dropped the requirements for firefighters to test fire sprinkler systems which are now inspected by water or utility departments.
B. False

Front 189

189. Thomas Jefferson founded the first successful fire insurance company in North America.
A. True
B. False

Back 189

189. Thomas Jefferson founded the first successful fire insurance company in North America.
B. False

Front 190

190. The principle that a person can report to only one supervisor is referred to as span of control.
A. True
B. False

Back 190

190. The principle that a person can report to only one supervisor is referred to as span of control.
B. False

Front 191

191. When you divide large jobs into small job, that is considered unity of command.
A. True
B. False

Back 191

191. When you divide large jobs into small job, that is considered unity of command.
B. False

Front 192

192. An organizations responsibility to provide the direction needed to satisfy the goals and objectives it has identified is considered:
A. Standard Operating Procedures
B. Strategy and Tactics
C. Span of Control
D. Discipline

Back 192

192. An organizations responsibility to provide the direction needed to satisfy the goals and objectives it has identified is considered:
D. Discipline

Front 193

193. A fire department
“company” must have a minimum of ____ personnel.
A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 5

Back 193

193. A fire department
“company” must have a minimum of ____ personnel.
A. 3

Front 194

194. The NFPA standard for Fire Department Vehicle Driver/Operator Professional Qualifications is:
A. 1021
B. 1901
C. 1002
D. 1031

Back 194

194. The NFPA standard for Fire Department Vehicle Driver/Operator Professional Qualifications is:
C. 1002

Front 195

195. NFPA 1021 relates to the Standard for Fire Officer Professional Qualifications.
A. True
B. False

Back 195

195. NFPA 1021 relates to the Standard for Fire Officer Professional Qualifications.
A. True

Front 196

196. A ________ is a guide to decision making within the organization.
A. Procedure
B. Order
C. Policy
D. Directive

Back 196

196. A ________ is a guide to decision making within the organization.
C. Policy

Front 197

197. On the fireground, the first priority is life safety, followed by incident preservation, and, then property conservation.
A. True
B. False

Back 197

197. On the fireground, the first priority is life safety, followed by incident preservation, and, then property conservation.
B. False

Front 198

198. A SOP (Standard Operating Procedure) is usually initiated by the second-in company.
A. True
B. False

Back 198

198. A SOP (Standard Operating Procedure) is usually initiated by the second-in company.
B. False

Front 199

199. It is not necessary to establish an SOP for which of the following incidents?
A. Fire
B. Hazardous Material
C. Emergency Medical Service
D. All of the above should have SOP’s on them

Back 199

199. It is not necessary to establish an SOP for which of the following incidents?
D. All of the above should have SOP’s on them

Front 200

200. The NIMS (National Incident Management System) is a major part of a National Response Plan under a Homeland Security Presidential Directive established in 2002.
A. True
B. False

Back 200

200. The NIMS (National Incident Management System) is a major part of a National Response Plan under a Homeland Security Presidential Directive established in 2002.
B. False

Front 201

201. Which subdivision of the ICS is responsible for collection of information concerning the development of the incident?
A. Logistics
B. Operations
C. Finance/Administration
D. Planning

Back 201

201. Which subdivision of the ICS is responsible for collection of information concerning the development of the incident?
D. Planning

Front 202

202. Who provides the facilities, services, and materials necessary to support the incident?
A. Finance
B. Logistics
C. Finance/Administration
D. Planning

Back 202

202. Who provides the facilities, services, and materials necessary to support the incident?
B. Logistics

Front 203

203. A ___________ is considered a functional designation (e.g. salvage, forcible entry, etc.).
A. Division
B. Group
C. Sector
D. Resource

Back 203

203. A ___________ is considered a functional designation (e.g. salvage, forcible entry, etc.).
B. Group

Front 204

204. NFPA 1500 deals with:
A. Firefighter training
B. Firefighter recruitment
C. Firefighter qualifications
D. Firefighter safety

Back 204

204. NFPA 1500 deals with:
D. Firefighter safety

Front 205

205. Fire department administrators have access to Employee Assistance Programs records regarding employee visits and results.
A. True
B. False

Back 205

205. Fire department administrators have access to Employee Assistance Programs records regarding employee visits and results.
B. False

Front 206

206. Fire department personnel should participate in a full Critical Incident Stress Debriefing process within _____ hours of completing their work on an incident.
A. 24
B. 36
C. 48
D. 72

Back 206

206. Fire department personnel should participate in a full Critical Incident Stress Debriefing process within _____ hours of completing their work on an incident.
D. 72

Front 207

207. Hearing protection should be worn when the siren or noise level exceeds ____ decibels.
A. 90
B. 80
C. 70
D. 100

Back 207

207. Hearing protection should be worn when the siren or noise level exceeds ____ decibels.
A. 90

Front 208

208. Back injuries have been statistically proven to be the most expensive single type of accident in terms of worker’s compensation.
A. True
B. False

Back 208

208. Back injuries have been statistically proven to be the most expensive single type of accident in terms of worker’s compensation.
A. True

Front 209

209. The simultaneous ignition of room contents is considered a:
A. Backdraft
B. Black out
C. Flashover
D. Rollover

Back 209

209. The simultaneous ignition of room contents is considered a:
C. Flashover

Front 210

210. Which of the following is not considered a source of heat energy?
A. Chemical
B. Conduction
C. Mechanical
D. Electrical

Back 210

210. Which of the following is not considered a source of heat energy?
B. Conduction

Front 211

211. Energy possessed by moving objects is:
A. Potential
B. Gravitational
C. Centrifugal
D. Kinetic

Back 211

211. Energy possessed by moving objects is:
D. Kinetic

Front 212

212. ____________ is the measurement of kinetic energy.
A. Joule
B. Temperature
C. Heat
D. British Thermal Unit

Back 212

212. ____________ is the measurement of kinetic energy.
B. Temperature

Front 213

213. Pyrolysis is the physical decomposition of a substance through the action of heat?
A. True
B. False

Back 213

213. Pyrolysis is the physical decomposition of a substance through the action of heat?
B. False

Front 214

214. Heat can be transferred from one body to another by _____ mechanisms.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

Back 214

214. Heat can be transferred from one body to another by _____ mechanisms.
B. 3

Conduction, Convection, Radiation

Front 215

215. ___________ is the point to point transmission of heat energy
A. Convection
B. Conduction
C. Radiation
D. Direct flame contact

Back 215

215. ___________ is the point to point transmission of heat energy
B. Conduction

Front 216

216. The sun’s heat is an example of heat transfer by convection.
A. True
B. False

Back 216

216. The sun’s heat is an example of heat transfer by convection.
B. False

Front 217

217. The reaction that gives off energy as they occur are exothermic reactions.
A. True
B. False

Back 217

217. The reaction that gives off energy as they occur are exothermic reactions.
A. True

Front 218

218. Oxidation is an example of a ________________ reaction
A. Endothermic
B. Extrinsic
C. Exothermic
D. Either B or C is correct

Back 218

218. Oxidation is an example of a ________________ reaction
C. Exothermic

Front 219

219. Normal air consists of ______ % Oxygen.
A. 19
B. 20
C. 21
D. 25

Back 219

219. Normal air consists of ______ % Oxygen.
C. 21

Front 220

220. SCBA bottles feel warm due to the heat of _____________.
A. Compression
B. Friction
C. Transfer
D. None of the above

Back 220

220. SCBA bottles feel warm due to the heat of _____________.
A. Compression

Front 221

221. A solid fuel’s fire spread will be more rapid in a __________ position.
A. Inverted
B. Horizontal
C. Vertical
D. All of the above positions will burn at the same rate.

Back 221

221. A solid fuel’s fire spread will be more rapid in a __________ position.
C. Vertical

Front 222

222. Of all the fuel matters, which is the most dangerous?
A. Solid
B. Liquid
C. Gas
D. All are equally dangerous

Back 222

222. Of all the fuel matters, which is the most dangerous?
C. Gas

Front 223

223. Chemical heat is the most common source of heat in the combustion reaction.
A. True
B. False

Back 223

223. Chemical heat is the most common source of heat in the combustion reaction.
A. True

Front 224

224. The rate at which most chemical reactions occur double with every ____° increase in temperature of the reacting material.
A. 16
B. 17
C. 18
D. 19

Back 224

224. The rate at which most chemical reactions occur double with every ____° increase in temperature of the reacting material.
C. 18

Front 225

225. A diesel engine is an example of chemical heat energy.
A. True
B. False

Back 225

225. A diesel engine is an example of chemical heat energy.
B. False

Front 226

226. There are _____ stages or phases of compartment (enclosed room or space within a building) fires.
A. 5
B. 4
C. 6
D. 3

Back 226

226. There are _____ stages or phases of compartment (enclosed room or space within a building) fires.
B. 4

Front 227

227. Which of the following is not an indicator of a possible backdraft?
A. Smoke stained windows
B. Smoke puffing from building
C. High flame output
D. Confinement and excessive heat

Back 227

227. Which of the following is not an indicator of a possible backdraft?
C. High flame output

Front 228

228. Halongenated agents are highly recommended for smoldering fires.
A. True
B. False

Back 228

228. Halongenated agents are highly recommended for smoldering fires.
B. False

Front 229

229. There are ____ classifications of fire.
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6

Back 229

229. There are ____
classifications of fire.
C. 5

Front 230

230. Heavy timber is considered what type of construction?
A. III
B. II
C. IV
D. V

Back 230

230. Heavy timber is considered what type of construction?
C. IV

Front 231

231. Exterior walls and structural members constructed of non-combustible or limited combustible material and the interior structure members, walls floor, etc. are constructed of wood is considered what type of construction?
A. II
B. III
C. IV
D. V

Back 231

231. Exterior walls and structural members constructed of non-combustible or limited combustible material and the interior structure members, walls floor, etc. are constructed of wood is considered what type of construction?
B. III

Front 232

232. Cast Iron, when utilized, is commonly seen as being a:
A. Veneer wall
B. Party wall
C. Partition wall
D. Cast Iron has never been utilized in building construction

Back 232

232. Cast Iron, when utilized, is commonly seen as being a:
A. Veneer wall

Front 233

233. Unprotected steel, when used as a building material can be anticipated to fail at temperatures near or above:
A. 800° F
B. 900° F
C. 1000° F
D. 1500° F

Back 233

233. Unprotected steel, when used as a building material can be anticipated to fail at temperatures near or above:
C. 1000° F

Front 234

234. Gypsum is an organic product from which plaster and plasterboard is constructed.
A. True
B. False

Back 234

234. Gypsum is an organic product from which plaster and plasterboard is constructed.
B. False

Front 235

235. When the fire building has wood trusses that have been exposed to fire for ___ to ___minutes, they should not be entered.
A. 5, 10
B. 10, 15
C. 15, 20
D. 20, 25

Back 235

235. When the fire building has wood trusses that have been exposed to fire for ___ to ___minutes, they should not be entered.
A. 5, 10

Front 236

236. All of the below items are not covered in NFPA Standard 1971 EXCEPT?
A. Eye protection
B. Hearing Protection
C. PASS (Personal Alert Safety Systems)
D. Protective hoods

Back 236

236. All of the below items are not covered in NFPA Standard 1971 EXCEPT?
D. Protective hoods

Front 237

237. NFPA requires all helmets to have ear covers or ear flaps.
A. True
B. False

Back 237

237. NFPA requires all helmets to have ear covers or ear flaps.
A. True

Front 238

238. The wearing of hearing protection during structural firefighting operations is recommended.
A. True
B. False

Back 238

238. The wearing of hearing protection during structural firefighting operations is recommended.
B. False

Front 239

239. It is permissible to remove your liner from your turnout coat during the summer months to reduce the chance of experiencing heat related disorders.
A. True
B. False

Back 239

239. It is permissible to remove your liner from your turnout coat during the summer months to reduce the chance of experiencing heat related disorders.
B. False

Front 240

240. According to NFPA Standard _______, your personal protective clothing should be cleaned and dried every ____ months.
A. 1500, 3
B. 1575, 12
C. 1581, 6
D. 1555, 12

Back 240

240. According to NFPA Standard _______, your personal protective clothing should be cleaned and dried every ____ months.
C. 1581, 6

Front 241

241. Which NFPA Standard covers station or work uniforms?
A. 1971
B. 1975
C. 1977
D. 1974

Back 241

241. Which NFPA Standard covers station or work uniforms?
B. 1975

Front 242

242. When Oxygen concentrations are below ___ %, the body responds by increasing the respiratory rate.
A. 21
B. 18
C. 16
D. 14

Back 242

242. When Oxygen concentrations are below ___ %, the body responds by increasing the respiratory rate.
B. 18

Front 243

243. What toxic gas forms Hydrochloric Acid in the victims lungs due to moisture?
A. Phosgene
B. Carbon Monoxide
C. Hydrogen Cyanide
D. Nitrogen Dioxide

Back 243

243. What toxic gas forms Hydrochloric Acid in the victims lungs due to moisture?
A. Phosgene

Front 244

244. What does IDLH stand for?
A. Imminently Damaging to Lungs & Heart
B. Immediately Dangerous to Life & Health
C. Imminently Dangerous to Life & Health
D. Immediately Damaging to Lungs & Heart

Back 244

244. What does IDLH stand for?
B. Immediately Dangerous to Life & Health

Front 245

245. Carbon Monoxide is colorless, but has a distinct odor.
A. True
B. False

Back 245

245. Carbon Monoxide is colorless, but has a distinct odor.
B. False

Front 246

246. Carbon Monoxide binds with hemoglobin about ____ times more readily than Oxygen.
A. 100
B. 300
C. 200
D. 400

Back 246

246. Carbon Monoxide binds with hemoglobin about ____ times more readily than Oxygen.
C. 200

Front 247

247. Which of the below is used as a refrigerant?
A. Sulfur Monoxide
B. Hydrogen Sulfide
C. Ammonia
D. Calcium Chloride

Back 247

247. Which of the below is used as a refrigerant?
C. Ammonia

Front 248

248. When Sulfur Dioxide is mixed with water, it makes Hydrochloric Acid.
A. True
B. False

Back 248

248. When Sulfur Dioxide is mixed with water, it makes Hydrochloric Acid.
B. False

Front 249

249. NFPA regulations allow firefighters to wear contact lenses while wearing an Self Contained Breathing Apparatus, if the firefighter has demonstrated successful long-term usage. The time period usually being _____ of use without problems.
A. 6 months
B. 3 months
C. 1 year
D. 1 month

Back 249

249. NFPA regulations allow firefighters to wear contact lenses while wearing an Self Contained Breathing Apparatus, if the firefighter has demonstrated successful long-term usage. The time period usually being _____ of use without problems.
A. 6 months

Front 250

250. There are 3 types of Self Contained Breathing Apparatus used in the fire service.
A. True
B. False

Back 250

250. There are 3 types of Self Contained Breathing Apparatus used in the fire service.
B. False

Front 251

251. Closed circuit Self Contained Breathing Apparatus are the most commonly used in the fire service today.
A. True
B. False

Back 251

251. Closed circuit Self Contained Breathing Apparatus are the most commonly used in the fire service today.
B. False

Front 252

252. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health & Mine Safety Health Administration certify which of the following parts of the Self Contained Breathing Apparatus?
A. Cylinder
B. Regulator
C. Back pack/harness assembly
D. All of the above, including the face piece assembly

Back 252

252. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health & Mine Safety Health Administration certify which of the following parts of the Self Contained Breathing Apparatus?
D. All of the above, including the face piece assembly

Front 253

253. An audible warning device should activate when the pressure in your Self Contained Breathing Apparatus reaches:
A. 1/3 of your air supply is left
B. 600 psi
C. 1/4 of your air supply is left
D. 500 psi

Back 253

253. An audible warning device should activate when the pressure in your Self Contained Breathing Apparatus reaches:
C. 1/4 of your air supply is left

Front 254

254. A P.A.S.S. (Personal Alert Safety System) will activate after __________ of inactivity.
A. 20 seconds
B. 1 minute
C. 45 seconds
D. 30 seconds

Back 254

254. A P.A.S.S. (Personal Alert Safety System) will activate after __________ of inactivity.
D. 30 seconds

Front 255

255. When attempting to exit a building under smoky conditions and find a hoseline, the male coupling indicates the direction to the exit.
A. True
B. False

Back 255

255. When attempting to exit a building under smoky conditions and find a hoseline, the male coupling indicates the direction to the exit.
A. True

Front 256

256. What is the NFPA Standard for portable fire extinguishers?
A. 13
B. 11
C. 10
D. 15

Back 256

256. What is the NFPA Standard for portable fire extinguishers?
C. 10

Front 257

257. The stream reach on a pressurized water extinguisher is ____ to ____ feet.
A. 30, 40
B. 20, 30
C. 25, 35
D. 40, 50

Back 257

257. The stream reach on a pressurized water extinguisher is ____ to ____ feet.
A. 30, 40

Front 258

258. Halongenated agents, due to their Ozone depleting potential are supposed to be phased out by the year 2001.
A. True
B. False

Back 258

258. Halongenated agents, due to their Ozone depleting potential are supposed to be phased out by the year 2001.
B. False

Front 259

259. There are 2 common halongenated compounds used as fire extinguishing agents.
A. True
B. False

Back 259

259. There are 2 common halongenated compounds used as fire extinguishing agents.
A. True

Halon 1211 and Halon 1301

Front 260

260. Halon 1211 is the agent of choice for a total flooding system.
A. True
B. False

Back 260

260. Halon 1211 is the agent of choice for a total flooding system.
B. False

Front 261

261. CO2 extinguishers require freeze protection.
A. True
B. False

Back 261

261. CO2 extinguishers require freeze protection.
B. False

Front 262

262. A handheld stored pressure dry chemical extinguisher is charged to _____ psi.
A. 100
B. 120
C. 150
D. 200

Back 262

262. A handheld stored pressure dry chemical extinguisher is charged to _____ psi.
D. 200

Front 263

263. A circle designates what class of fuel involved?
A. Wood, paper
B. Electrical
C. Petroleum based product
D. Combustible metals

Back 263

263. A circle designates what class of fuel involved?
B. Electrical

Front 264

264. A Class “A” extinguisher is rated from 1-A to 40-A.
A. True
B. False

Back 264

264. A Class “A” extinguisher is rated from 1-A to 40-A.
A. True

Front 265

265. A standard 2-1/2 gallon water extinguisher is rated at:
A. 1-A
B. 2-A
C. 3-A
D. Not rated

Back 265

265. A standard 2-1/2 gallon water extinguisher is rated at:
B. 2-A

Front 266

266. A Class “D” extinguisher can only be used on:
A. Wood and paper product fires
B. Electrical fires
C. Combustible metal fires
D. Petroleum based fires

Back 266

266. A Class “D” extinguisher can only be used on:
C. Combustible metal fires

Front 267

267. Fire service rope falls into ____ classifications.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

Back 267

267. Fire service rope falls into ____ classifications.
A. 2

Front 268

268. Once a life safety rope has been “impact loaded”, it must never be used as a life safety rope again.
A. True
B. False

Back 268

268. Once a life safety rope has been “impact loaded”, it must never be used as a life safety rope again.
A. True

Front 269

269. Synthetic rope is used primarily for life safety purposes.
A. True
B. False

Back 269

269. Synthetic rope is used primarily for life safety purposes.
A. True

Front 270

270. What is not an acceptable way to dry rope?
A. Utilizing a hose rack
B. Utilizing a hose dryer
C. Utilizing a clothes dryer
D. Utilizing a hose tower

Back 270

270. What is not an acceptable way to dry rope?
C. Utilizing a clothes dryer

Front 271

271. The working end of the rope is used for everything EXCEPT:
A. Knots
B. Raising
C. Lowering
D. Stabilizing object

Back 271

271. The working end of the rope is used for everything EXCEPT:
A. Knots

Front 272

272. What knot is utilized to tie two ropes of unequal diameter together?
A. Figure “8” follow through
B. Chimney hitch
C. Bowline
D. Becket bend

Back 272

272. What knot is utilized to tie two ropes of unequal diameter together?
D. Becket bend

Front 273

273. The Becket bend is utilized in life safety applications of rope usage.
A. True
B. False

Back 273

273. The Becket bend is utilized in life safety applications of rope usage.
B. False

Figure-eight bend is used primarily for life safety.

Front 274

274. According to the IFSTA Essentials manual, rescue and extrication mean the same thing.
A. True
B. False

Back 274

274. According to the IFSTA Essentials manual, rescue and extrication mean the same thing.
B. False

Front 275

275. When descending stairs during a building search, it is recommended to proceed:
A. head first
B. feet first
C. any way, as long as the task is completed
D. hands first

Back 275

275. When descending stairs during a building search, it is recommended to proceed:
B. feet first

Front 276

276. A secondary search is conducted:
A. while firefighting is in progress, if qualified personnel are available
B. after overhaul is complete
C. after firefighting and ventilation operations are complete
D. not necessary, if primary search is all clear

Back 276

276. A secondary search is conducted:
C. after firefighting and ventilation operations are complete

Front 277

277. Immobilization of a victim on a long backboard, who is suspected of having a spinal injury, requires ____ rescuers.
A. 3
B. 4
C. 2
D. 5

Back 277

277. Immobilization of a victim on a long backboard, who is suspected of having a spinal injury, requires ____ rescuers.
B. 4

Front 278

278. An Inverter converts 12v-24v Direct Current into 110v-120v Alternating Current.
A. True
B. False

Back 278

278. An Inverter converts 12v-24v Direct Current into 110v-120v Alternating Current.
A. True

Front 279

279. There are 2 types of screw jacks used in search and rescue operations.
A. True
B. False

Back 279

279. There are 2 types of screw jacks used in search and rescue operations.
A. True

plain/keyed, rotating

Front 280

280. There are two basic types of lifting bags, high pressure and low pressure.
A. True
B. False

Back 280

280. There are two basic types of lifting bags, high pressure and low pressure.
B. False

Front 281

281. A high pressure bag will lift an object higher than a low pressure bag.
A. True
B. False

Back 281

281. A high pressure bag will lift an object higher than a low pressure bag.
B. False

Front 282

282. Rescue air bags should not stacked more than ___ high.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 1
D. There is no limit as long as the item being lifted is properly stabilized as you proceed

Back 282

282. Rescue air bags should not stacked more than ___ high.
A. 2

Front 283

283. If you are stacking bags, which should be inflated first?
A. The top one
B. The bottom one
C. It doesn’t matter
D. Both of the bags equally at the same time

Back 283

283. If you are stacking bags, which should be inflated first?
B. The bottom one

Front 284

284. A vehicular air bag (SRS) can still be deployed even if the source of power is disconnected.
A. True
B. False

Back 284

284. A vehicular air bag (SRS) can still be deployed even if the source of power is disconnected.
A. True

Front 285

285. Tempered glass is the same as safety glass.
A. True
B. False

Back 285

285. Tempered glass is the same as safety glass.
B. False

Front 286

286. There are ___ most common types of structural collapse.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

Back 286

286. There are ___ most common types of structural collapse.
C. 4

Front 287

287. A _____________ collapse occurs when one wall of a multi-story building collapses, leaving the floors attached to, and supported by the remaining walls.
A. Lean-to
B. Cantilever
C. Pancake
D. V-shaped

Back 287

287. A _____________ collapse occurs when one wall of a multi-story building collapses, leaving the floors attached to, and supported by the remaining walls.
B. Cantilever

Front 288

288. An exit ladder from a trench should extend at least ___ feet above the top of the trench.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. 5

Back 288

288. An exit ladder from a trench should extend at least ___ feet above the top of the trench.
C. 3

Front 289

289. On a rescue involving energized power lines, it is recommended to stay away from downed wires a distance equal to ______ span between poles or point of attachment, until power has been shut off.
A. 1/3 of the
B. 1/2 of the
C. 2 times, the
D. 1 times, the

Back 289

289. On a rescue involving energized power lines, it is recommended to stay away from downed wires a distance equal to ______ span between poles or point of attachment, until power has been shut off.
D. 1 times, the

Front 290

290. It is allowable for firefighting personnel to make adjustments to the mechanical system of an elevator under the directions of the elevator mechanic during an elevator rescue.
A. True
B. False

Back 290

290. It is allowable for firefighting personnel to make adjustments to the mechanical system of an elevator under the directions of the elevator mechanic during an elevator rescue.
B. False

Front 291

291. Forcible entry tools can be divided into ___ categories.
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 5

Back 291

291. Forcible entry tools can be divided into ___ categories.
A. 4

Cutting, Prying, Pushing/Pulling, Striking

Front 292

292. The chain saw is the most common type of cutting tool available in the fire service.
A. True
B. False

Back 292

292. The chain saw is the most common type of cutting tool available in the fire service.
B. False

Front 293

293. When carrying an axe, you should:
A. place it over your shoulder
B. carry it with the blade next to your body
C. carry it with the blade away from your body
D. there are no recommendations

Back 293

293. When carrying an axe, you should:
C. carry it with the blade away from your body

Front 294

294. It is permissible to paint the head of an axe.
A. True
B. False

Back 294

294. It is permissible to paint the head of an axe.
B. False

Front 295

295. A door stop type of jamb is easier to open than a rabbited jamb.
A. True
B. False

Back 295

295. A door stop type of jamb is easier to open than a rabbited jamb.
A. True

Front 296

296. A batten door is also referred to as a _________ door.
A. slab
B. panel
C. solid core
D. ledge

Back 296

296. A batten door is also referred to as a _________ door.
D. ledge

Front 297

297. It is more effective to force through a swinging door than a locked revolving door.
A. True
B. False

Back 297

297. It is more effective to force through a swinging door than a locked revolving door.
A. True

Front 298

298. Awning doors are also referred to as:
A. tilt-slab doors
B. sectional doors
C. rolling steel doors
D. folding doors

Back 298

298. Awning doors are also referred to as:
A. tilt-slab doors

Front 299

299. On a steel roll-up door, they are best accessed by cutting a square hole in the door.
A. True
B. False

Back 299

299. On a steel roll-up door, they are best accessed by cutting a square hole in the door.
B. False

Front 300

300. Locking devices can be divided into ___ basic types.
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6

Back 300

300. Locking devices can be divided into ___ basic types.
B. 4

Mortise, Cylindrical, Rim, Padlock

Front 301

301. The “K” tool causes less damage than an “A” tool when pulling a lock cylinder.
A. True
B. False

Back 301

301. The “K” tool causes less damage than an “A” tool when pulling a lock cylinder.
A. True

Front 302

302. Checkrail windows are also known as ___________ windows
A. Casement
B. Jalousie
C. Awning
D. Double-hung

Back 302

302. Checkrail windows are also known as ___________ windows
D. Double-hung

Front 303

303. Which window has the most difficult locking mechanism and should be avoided, if possible?
A. Double hung
B. Casement
C. Jalousie
D. Awning

Back 303

303. Which window has the most difficult locking mechanism and should be avoided, if possible?
B. Casement

Front 304

304. Lexan is a thermoplastic that is _____ times stronger than safety glass.
A. 250
B. 100
C. 500
D. 10

Back 304

304. Lexan is a thermoplastic that is _____ times stronger than safety glass.
A. 250

Front 305

305. Wooden I-Beams are generally spaced _____ inches apart.
A. 8
B. 12
C. 16
D. 24

Back 305

305. Wooden I-Beams are generally spaced _____inches apart.
D. 24

Front 306

306. The fly section is the widest section of an extension ladder.
A. True
B. False

Back 306

306. The fly section is the widest section of an extension ladder.
B. False

Bed section is the widest section of an extension ladder.

Front 307

307. What is a wood or metal piece that prevents the fly section(s) from being extended too far?
A. Dawgs
B. Locks
C. Stops
D. Guides

Back 307

307. What is a wood or metal piece that prevents the fly section(s) from being extended too far?
C. Stops

Front 308

308. Extension ladders generally range in length of ___ to ___ feet.
A. 20, 40
B. 16, 35
C. 12, 39
D. 16, 50

Back 308

308. Extension ladders generally range in length of ___ to ___ feet.
C. 12, 39

Front 309

309. What type of ladder is used to climb from floor to floor via exterior windows?
A. Combination
B. “A” frame
C. Pompier
D. Single

Back 309

309. What type of ladder is used to climb from floor to floor via exterior windows?
C. Pompier

Front 310

310. NFPA 1901 requires that Type 1 pumpers carry a minimum of ____ ladders.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. There are no specifications regarding the amount of ladders required

Back 310

310. NFPA 1901 requires that Type 1 pumpers carry a minimum of ____ ladders.
C. 3

Front 311

311. A residential “story” averages ____ feet in height.
A. 9
B. 12
C. 10
D. 15

Back 311

311. A residential “story” averages ____ feet in height.
C. 10

Front 312

312. A ladder should preferably extend ____ to ____ rungs beyond the roof edge for proper egressing of the ladder.
A. 3, 4
B. 2, 3
C. 3, 5
D. 2, 4

Back 312

312. A ladder should preferably extend ____ to ____ rungs beyond the roof edge for proper egressing of the ladder.
C. 3, 5

Front 313

313. The firefighter at the butt end of the ladder gives the commands during a ladder carry and raise.
A. True
B. False

Back 313

313. The firefighter at the butt end of the ladder gives the commands during a ladder carry and raise.
A. True

Front 314

314. If a ladder is to be placed for rescue, the ladder should be ________ the sill.
A. above
B. even with
C. below
D. whatever it takes to facilitate the rescue

Back 314

314. If a ladder is to be placed for rescue, the ladder should be ________ the sill.
C. below

Front 315

315. According to NFPA 1931 the extensions ladders maximum length may be as much as ___ inches less that the designated length.
A. 6
B. 4
C. 5
D. 3

Back 315

315. According to NFPA 1931 the extensions ladders maximum length may be as much as ___ inches less that the designated length.
A. 6

Front 316

316. The IFSTA Essentials manual recommends that all ladders maintain a minimum
distance of ____ feet from all energized electrical lines or equipment.
A. 5
B. 15
C. 20
D. 10

Back 316

316. The IFSTA Essentials manual recommends that all ladders maintain a minimum
distance of ____ feet from all energized electrical lines or equipment.
D. 10

Front 317

317. When smoke and heat are trapped at ceiling level, and it begins to bank down and spread laterally, it is called “mushrooming”.
A. True
B. False

Back 317

317. When smoke and heat are trapped at ceiling level, and it begins to bank down and spread laterally, it is called “mushrooming”.
A. True

Front 318

318. What type of ventilation is required to eliminate the possibility of a backdraft situation?
A. Horizontal
B. Positive pressure
C. Vertical
D. Mechanical

Back 318

318. What type of ventilation is required to eliminate the possibility of a backdraft situation?
C. Vertical

Front 319

319. Firefighters are concerned with ____ prevalent types of roof shapes.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 3

Back 319

319. Firefighters are concerned with ____ prevalent types of roof shapes.
C. 5

Front 320

320. A trench ventilation cut is used to stop the spread of fire in a long narrow structure.
A. True
B. False

Back 320

320. A trench ventilation cut is used to stop the spread of fire in a long narrow structure.
A. True

Front 321

321. When utilizing a fire stream to cool a thermal column from a ventilation hole, it is advisable to direct the stream into the vent hole to facilitate faster cooling.
A. True
B. False

Back 321

321. When utilizing a fire stream to cool a thermal column from a ventilation hole, it is advisable to direct the stream into the vent hole to facilitate faster cooling.
B. False

Front 322

322. When performing horizontal ventilation, it is important to open the ________ side
opening first.
A. Windward
B. Leeward
C. Vertical
D. Opposite

Back 322

322. When performing horizontal ventilation, it is important to open the ________ side
opening first.
B. Leeward

Front 323

323. To properly perform hydraulic ventilation, the nozzle tip should be at least ____ feet from the opening.
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 2

Back 323

323. To properly perform hydraulic ventilation, the nozzle tip should be at least ____ feet from the opening.
D. 2

Front 324

324. A system that uses one or more pumps that take water from the primary source and discharge through filtration and treatment processes is called a:
A. gravity system
B. direct-pumping system
C. combination system
D. Either A or C is correct

Back 324

324. A system that uses one or more pumps that take water from the primary source and discharge through filtration and treatment processes is called a:
B. direct-pumping system

Front 325

325. When a fire hydrant receives water from only one source, it is known as a nonlooping hydrant.
A. True
B. False

Back 325

325. When a fire hydrant receives water from only one source, it is known as a nonlooping hydrant.
B. False

Dead-end hydrant

Front 326

326. The recommended size of water mains in a residential area is at least 6 inches in
diameter.
A. True
B. False

Back 326

326. The recommended size of water mains in a residential area is at least 6 inches in
diameter.
A. True

Front 327

327. Water main valves should be operated at least ______, to keep them in good condition.
A. annually
B. semi-annually
C. monthly
D. every two years

Back 327

327. Water main valves should be operated at least ______, to keep them in good condition.
A. annually

Front 328

328. An Outside Screw and Yoke (OS&Y) valve is an example of a non-indicating valve.
A. True
B. False

Back 328

328. An Outside Screw and Yoke (OS&Y) valve is an example of a non-indicating valve.
A. True

Front 329

329. A wet barrel hydrant has individual discharge flow control devices.
A. True
B. False

Back 329

329. A wet barrel hydrant has individual discharge flow control devices.
A. True

Front 330

330. A hydrant that flows greater than 1500 gpm is color coded:
A. Blue
B. Orange
C. Green
D. Red

Back 330

330. A hydrant that flows greater than 1500 gpm is color coded:
A. Blue

Front 331

331. In general, hydrants should not be spaced more than _____ feet apart in high value district.
A. 200
B. 300
C. 400
D. 500

Back 331

331. In general, hydrants should not be spaced more than _____ feet apart in high value district.
B. 300

Front 332

332. A pitot tube is used to measure the flow pressure coming from a discharge opening.
A. True
B. False

Back 332

332. A pitot tube is used to measure the flow pressure coming from a discharge opening.
A. True

Front 333

333. When drafting, there should be a minimum of ____ inches of water around the strainer of the hard suction hose.
A. 12
B. 18
C. 24
D. 36

Back 333

333. When drafting, there should be a minimum of ____ inches of water around the strainer of the hard suction hose.
C. 24

Front 334

334. Water tenders are required to be capable of dumping or filling at rates of at least _____gpm on level ground.
A. 500
B. 750
C. 1000
D. 1250

Back 334

334. Water tenders are required to be capable of dumping or filling at rates of at least _____gpm on level ground.
C. 1000

Front 335

335. What is the force called that is created by the rapid deceleration of water?
A. Nozzle reaction
B. Flow pressure
C. Velocity
D. Water hammer

Back 335

335. What is the force called that is created by the rapid deceleration of water?
D. Water hammer

Front 336

336. The damage inflicted by mold and mildew on fire hose is considered organic damage.
A. True
B. False

Back 336

336. The damage inflicted by mold and mildew on fire hose is considered organic damage.
A. True

Front 337

337. The Higbee cut is designed to:
A. prevent the use of the Dutchman in hose loads
B. help prevent hose from being caught on obstructions
C. prevent cross threading
D. make it easier to wrap a hydrant

Back 337

337. The Higbee cut is designed to:
C. prevent cross threading

Front 338

338. The flow of water is controlled by ____ types of valves.
A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 5

Back 338

338. The flow of water is controlled by ____ types of valves.
C. 4

Ball, butterfly, choke, check

Front 339

339. A water thief is a variation of the siamese appliance.
A. True
B. False

Back 339

339. A water thief is a variation of the siamese appliance.
B. False

Front 340

340. A “4-way” valve is utilized on a:
A. Reverse hose lay
B. Wildland hose lay
C. Forward hose lay
D. Any of the above

Back 340

340. A “4-way” valve is utilized on a:
C. Forward hose lay

Front 341

341. Hose tools are utilized to direct the flow of water.
A. True
B. False

Back 341

341. Hose tools are utilized to direct the flow of water.
B. False

Front 342

342. The primary purpose of a spanner wrench is:
A. shutting off a residential gas main
B. small prying jobs
C. opening hydrants
D. loosening/tightening hose couplings

Back 342

342. The primary purpose of a spanner wrench is:
D. loosening/tightening hose couplings

Front 343

343. A straight roll with the male coupling exposed means the hose is damaged and should be out of service.
A. True
B. False

Back 343

343. A straight roll with the male coupling exposed means the hose is damaged and should be out of service.
A. True

Front 344

344. There are ____ common hose loads for supply line.
A. 3
B. 4
C. 2
D. 5

Back 344

344. There are ____ common hose loads for supply line.
A. 3

Accordion, Horseshoe, Flat

Front 345

345. Which hose load is the easiest to accomplish?
A. Horseshoe
B. Accordion
C. Flat
D. Straight

Back 345

345. Which hose load is the easiest to accomplish?
C. Flat

Front 346

346. When performing a forward lay, you must do an “equipment strip”.
A. True
B. False

Back 346

346. When performing a forward lay, you must do an “equipment strip”.
B. False

Front 347

347. There are basically 3 types of pre-connected hoseline loads.
A. True
B. False

Back 347

347. There are basically 3 types of pre-connected hoseline loads.
A. True

Front 348

348. To prevent overloading a ladder while advancing an uncharged hose up the ladder, what is the maximum amount of personnel allowed on a 35’ ladder?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

Back 348

348. To prevent overloading a ladder while advancing an uncharged hose up the ladder, what is the maximum amount of personnel allowed on a 35’ ladder?
B. 3

Front 349

349. How many sections of hose are used to replace a burst hoseline?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 0, the line is shut down and not utilized

Back 349

349. How many sections of hose are used to replace a burst hoseline?
B. 2

Front 350

350. When operating a large diameter hoseline with two firefighters, the second firefighter should be approximately ____ feet behind the nozzle operator.
A. 1
B. 3
C. 2
D. 4

Back 350

350. When operating a large diameter hoseline with two firefighters, the second firefighter should be approximately ____ feet behind the nozzle operator.
B. 3

Front 351

351. At 212° F, water expands 1500 times it’s original volume.
A. True
B. False

Back 351

351. At 212° F, water expands 1500 times it’s original volume.
B. False

Front 352

352. Water changing into steam requires a relatively large amount of heat?
A. True
B. False

Back 352

352. Water changing into steam requires a relatively large amount of heat?
A. True

Front 353

353. If a nozzle is operating above the pump panel, then the pump pressure must be reduced to alleviate the pressure increase.
A. True
B. False

Back 353

353. If a nozzle is operating above the pump panel, then the pump pressure must be reduced to alleviate the pressure increase.
B. False

Front 354

354. There are ____ major types of fire streams.
A. 5
B. 3
C. 2
D. 4

Back 354

354. There are ____ major types of fire streams.
B. 3

Front 355

355. Utilizing a solid fire stream, there is an increased chance of firefighters getting steam burns.
A. True
B. False

Back 355

355. Utilizing a solid fire stream, there is an increased chance of firefighters getting steam burns.
B. False

Front 356

356. Solid stream nozzles cannot be utilized in foam operations.
A. True
B. False

Back 356

356. Solid stream nozzles cannot be utilized in foam operations.
B. False

Front 357

357. Which type of nozzle control valve also controls the discharge pattern?
A. Ball
B. Slide
C. Rotary
D. Either A or B is correct

Back 357

357. Which type of nozzle control valve also controls the discharge pattern?
C. Rotary

Front 358

358. High expansion foam rate is anywhere between 200:1 to _____: 1.
A. 1000
B. 500
C. 5000
D. 10,000

Back 358

358. High expansion foam rate is anywhere between 200:1 to _____: 1.
A. 1000

Front 359

359. Class “B” foam is utilized in 1% to 6% mixtures.
A. True
B. False

Back 359

359. Class “B” foam is utilized in 1% to 6% mixtures.
A. True

Front 360

360. Of the 4 methods of proportioning foam, which is considered the easiest?
A. Injection
B. Batch mixing
C. Induction
D. Premixing

Back 360

360. Of the 4 methods of proportioning foam, which is considered the easiest?
B. Batch mixing

Front 361

361. A handline stream is any stream that is supplied by ___” to ___” hose with flows less than ____ gpm.
A. 1, 2-1/2, 300
B. 2, 3, 350
C. 1-3/4, 2-1/2, 300
D. 1-1/2, 3, 350

Back 361

361. A handline stream is any stream that is supplied by ___” to ___” hose with flows less than ____ gpm.
D. 1-1/2, 3, 350

Front 362

362. There are three types of foam application techniques.
A. True
B. False

Back 362

362. There are three types of foam application techniques.
A. True

Roll-on, Bank-down, Rain-down methods.

Front 363

363. It is not necessary for the firefighter team on a hoseline to have a forcible entry tool available when attacking a structure fire.
A. True, they are there only for fire attack
B. False

Back 363

363. It is not necessary for the firefighter team on a hoseline to have a forcible entry tool available when attacking a structure fire.
B. False

Front 364

364. To keep from upsetting the thermal balance, it is recommended to use a ___________until ventilation has been accomplished.
A. broken stream
B. “Z” pattern motion
C. narrow fog pattern
D. straight stream

Back 364

364. To keep from upsetting the thermal balance, it is recommended to use a ___________until ventilation has been accomplished.
D. straight stream

Front 365

365. A master stream device is expected to flow a minimum of _____ gpm.
A. 400
B. 500
C. 350
D. 750

Back 365

365. A master stream device is expected to flow a minimum of _____ gpm.
C. 350

Front 366

366. A flammable liquid has a flash point of less than 100° F.
A. True
B. False

Back 366

366. A flammable liquid has a flash point of less than 100° F.
A. True

Front 367

367. When attacking a vessel containing flammable liquids, it is best to apply the water:
A. at the base of the flames
B. at the bottom of the involved vessel
C. at the top of the involved vessel
D. Either A or B is correct

Back 367

367. When attacking a vessel containing flammable liquids, it is best to apply the water:
C. at the top of the involved vessel

Front 368

368. Natural gas is lighter than air.
A. True
B. False

Back 368

368. Natural gas is lighter than air.
A. True

Front 369

369. Propane gas is lighter than air.
A. True
B. False

Back 369

369. Propane gas is lighter than air.
B. False

Front 370

370. If you must put water on a Class “C” fire, you must do it with a solid stream from a distance greater than 50’ away from the fire.
A. True
B. False

Back 370

370. If you must put water on a Class “C” fire, you must do it with a solid stream from a distance greater than 50’ away from the fire.
B. False

Front 371

371. To control an underground vault Class “C” fire, the firefighter should discharge CO2 or Dry Chemical into the vault and replace the cover.
A. True
B. False

Back 371

371. To control an underground vault Class “C” fire, the firefighter should discharge CO2 or Dry Chemical into the vault and replace the cover.
A. True

Front 372

372. A RIC should be established on every fire. What does RIC stand for?
A. Ready Intervention Company
B. Rapid Intervention Company
C. Rescue Intervention Crew
D. Rapid Intervention Crew

Back 372

372. A RIC should be established on every fire. What does RIC stand for?
D. Rapid Intervention Crew

Front 373

373. On a fire in a multi-story occupancy, staging is usually located ____ floors below the fire floor.
A. 2
B. 1
C. 3
D. None of the above, it is established in the lobby of the involved building

Back 373

373. On a fire in a multi-story occupancy, staging is usually located ____ floors below the fire floor.
A. 2

Front 374

374. On a wildland fire, the green is the area that has not been burned.
A. True
B. False

Back 374

374. On a wildland fire, the green is the area that has not been burned.
A. True

Front 375

375. On a wildland incident, there are ____ standard firefighting orders.
A. 8
B. 18
C. 10
D. 5

Back 375

375. On a wildland incident, there are ____ standard firefighting orders.
C. 10

Front 376

376. A rate of rise detector will activate when the rise in temperature exceeds ____ ° F per minute.
A. 10-12
B. 12-15
C. 15-20
D. 20-25

Back 376

376. A rate of rise detector will activate when the rise in temperature exceeds ____ ° F per minute.
B. 12-15

Front 377

377. A _____________ alarm system is used to protect large commercial and industrial buildings.
A. Remote Station
B. Auxiliary
C. Shunt
D. Proprietary

Back 377

377. A _____________ alarm system is used to protect large commercial and industrial buildings.
D. Proprietary

Front 378

378. What is the NFPA Standard for residential sprinkler installations?
A. 12
B. 13
C. 13D
D. None of the above

Back 378

378. What is the NFPA Standard for residential sprinkler installations?
C. 13D

Front 379

379. A sprinkler head rated for activation at 135° F to 170° F is what color?
A. White
B. Blue
C. Black
D. Green

Back 379

379. A sprinkler head rated for activation at 135° F to 170° F is what color?
C. Black

Front 380

380. Sprinklers have ____ release mechanisms.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 3

Back 380

380. Sprinklers have ____ release mechanisms.
D. 3

Fusible links, frangible bulbs, chemical pellets.

Front 381

381. What is the most common type of sprinkler head?
A. Upright
B. Pendant
C. Sidewall
D. Deluge

Back 381

381. What is the most common type of sprinkler head?
B. Pendant

Front 382

382. NFPA requires a storage cabinet with a minimum of ____ extra sprinkler heads and a sprinkler wrench be readily available.
A. 3
B. 4
C. 10
D. 6

Back 382

382. NFPA requires a storage cabinet with a minimum of ____ extra sprinkler heads and a sprinkler wrench be readily available.
D. 6

Front 383

383. A pre-action sprinkler system is a wet system that incorporates detection devices to prevent accidental activation.
A. True
B. False

Back 383

383. A pre-action sprinkler system is a wet system that incorporates detection devices to prevent accidental activation.
B. False

Pre-action sprinkler system is a DRY system.

Front 384

384. Salvage operations cannot be initiated until after the fire attack is complete.
A. True
B. False

Back 384

384. Salvage operations cannot be initiated until after the fire attack is complete.
B. False

Front 385

385. The backpack type of water vacuums will hold ____ to ____ gallons of liquid.
A. 3-4
B. 5-6
C. 5-10
D. 4-5

Back 385

385. The backpack type of water vacuums will hold ____ to ____ gallons of liquid.
D. 4-5

Front 386

386. It is not necessary to wear respiratory protection during overhaul operations.
A. True
B. False

Back 386

386. It is not necessary to wear respiratory protection during overhaul operations.
B. False

Front 387

387. Who has the legal responsibility within most jurisdictions for determining the cause of a fire?
A. The Fire Marshal
B. The Fire Investigator
C. The City Council
D. The Fire Chief

Back 387

387. Who has the legal responsibility within most jurisdictions for determining the cause of a fire?
D. The Fire Chief

Front 388

388. If all of the fire department personnel leave the scene of a fire and you require admittance back to the premises, you must have a search warrant or the owners approval.
A. True
B. False

Back 388

388. If all of the fire department personnel leave the scene of a fire and you require admittance back to the premises, you must have a search warrant or the owners approval.
A. True

Front 389

389. Who is allowed to enter the fire scene without the investigators approval?
A. The owner
B. The occupant
C. A neighbor that the occupant can trust
D. None of the above

Back 389

389. Who is allowed to enter the fire scene without the investigators approval?
D. None of the above

Front 390

390. A home monitoring system is recommended as an alerting system to notify a volunteer firefighter of an incoming incident.
A. True
B. False

Back 390

390. A home monitoring system is recommended as an alerting system to notify a volunteer firefighter of an incoming incident.
B. False

Front 391

391. On a pre-incident survey, after completion of the exterior, the next step is to start the survey:
A. On the roof
B. In the main occupancy
C. In the basement
D. Either A or C is correct

Back 391

391. On a pre-incident survey, after completion of the exterior, the next step is to start the survey:
D. Either A or C is correct

Front 392

392. When doing a residential fire safety survey, you may order the resident to correct a hazard that is found.
A. True
B. False

Back 392

392. When doing a residential fire safety survey, you may order the resident to correct a hazard that is found.
B. False

Front 393

393. Dry vegetation should be kept at least ____ feet from all structures.
A. 25
B. 50
C. 30
D. 100

Back 393

393. Dry vegetation should be kept at least ____ feet from all structures.
C. 30

Front 394

394. E.D.I.T.H. is a moniker for:
A. Putting out grease fires in the kitchen
B. Schedule for checking smoke detectors
C. Practicing stop, drop and roll
D. Practicing escape routes from your home

Back 394

394. E.D.I.T.H. is a moniker for:
D. Practicing escape routes from your home

Front 395

395. An important category in EMT-1/B training is the recognition of a life threatening injury. Which of the below might be considered a life threatening injury?
A. Coping with psychological stress
B. Splinting injured extremities
C. Dressing and bandaging superficial wounds
D. Providing adequate ventilation

Back 395

395. An important category in EMT-1/B training is the recognition of a life threatening injury. Which of the below might be considered a life threatening injury?
D. Providing adequate ventilation

Front 396

396. Which of the following is not a responsibility of an EMT-1/B?
A. Understanding medicolegal and ethical problems
B. Interpreting cardiac rhythms
C. Developing verbal and written communications skills
D. Delivering a baby

Back 396

396. Which of the following is not a responsibility of an EMT-1/B?
B. Interpreting cardiac rhythms

Front 397

397. What term best describes emergency medical technician?
A. An individual who provides emergency care in the field
B. The first medically trained person to arrive at the scene of a sudden illness or injury
C. A person who authorizes or delegates authority to perform medical care in the field
D. A person trained to deal with the emotional letdown stage following a serious or stressful situation

Back 397

397. What term best describes emergency medical technician?
A. An individual who provides emergency care in the field

Front 398

398. In 1990, what legislation was enacted to protect individuals from discrimination?
A. Allies against Discrimination Act
B. Access for Disabled Americans
C. Americans with Disabilities Act
D. Americans against Discrimination Act

Back 398

398. In 1990, what legislation was enacted to protect individuals from discrimination?
C. Americans with Disabilities Act

Front 399

399. As an EMT-1/B what is your first responsibility when your arrive on the scene of a incident?
A. Maintaining the airway of a unconscious patient
B. Your safety and the safety of others
C. Performing triage on the patients
D. Extrication of trapped patients

Back 399

399. As an EMT-1/B what is your first responsibility when your arrive on the scene of a incident?
B. Your safety and the safety of others

Front 400

400. Medical direction that is given off-line and on-line is best described as:
A. Medical orders
B. Medical control
C. Quality improvement
D. Quality control

Back 400

400. Medical direction that is given off-line and on-line is best described as:
B. Medical control

Front 401

401. The Medical Director and other staff reviewing patient care reports is an example of:
A. Medical direction
B. Checks and balances
C. Quality control
D. Written protocols

Back 401

401. The Medical Director and other staff reviewing patient care reports is an example of:
C. Quality control

Front 402

402. Which of the following would be expected to handle an incident that has downed power lines?
A. The incident commander
B. A firefighter in full turnout equipment
C. A power company employee
D. A telephone company employee

Back 402

402. Which of the following would be expected to handle an incident that has downed power lines?
C. A power company employee

Front 403

403. One of your responsibilities as an EMT-1/B is:
A. Decontamination of patients
B. Extrication of trapped victims
C. Knowing a patient’s complete medical background
D. Providing prompt, efficient patient care based on your findings after assessment

Back 403

403. One of your responsibilities as an EMT-1/B is:
D. Providing prompt, efficient patient care based on your findings after assessment

Front 404

404. Orders given directly to the EMT-1 in person, by telephone, or by two-way radio are known as:
A. General medical direction
B. On-line medical direction
C. Off-line medical direction
D. Specific medical orders

Back 404

404. Orders given directly to the EMT-1 in person, by telephone, or by two-way radio are known as:
B. On-line medical direction

Front 405

405. EMS as we know it today had its origins in:
A. 1976
B. 1968
C. 1963
D. 1966

Back 405

405. EMS as we know it today had its origins in:
D. 1966

Front 406

406. What are the minimum standards to protect yourself from blood or body fluids?
A. Full turnouts with an SCBA
B. An Oxygen mask
C. Three protective layers of clothing
D. Gloves and eye protection

Back 406

406. What are the minimum standards to protect yourself from blood or body fluids?
D. Gloves and eye protection

Front 407

407. What gas has the tendency to attach itself to hemoglobin approximately 200 times more than Oxygen?
A. Carbon Monoxide
B. Carbon Dioxide
C. Hydrogen Cyanide
D. Hydrogen Chloride

Back 407

407. What gas has the tendency to attach itself to hemoglobin approximately 200 times more than Oxygen?
A. Carbon Monoxide

Front 408

408. Which of the following gases below is responsible for more fire deaths each year?
A. Carbon Dioxide
B. Hydrogen Cyanide
C. Carbon Monoxide
D. Hydrogen Chloride

Back 408

408. Which of the following gases below is responsible for more fire deaths each year?
C. Carbon Monoxide

Front 409

409. What is the purpose of a CISD (Critical Incident Stress Debriefing) program?
A. To assist law enforcement officials interview a victim of a crime
B. To assist families with the sudden death of a loved one
C. To assist law enforcement officials interview witnesses of a crime
D. To assist emergency medical personnel to cope with personal or group anxiety or stress

Back 409

409. What is the purpose of a CISD (Critical Incident Stress Debriefing) program?
D. To assist emergency medical personnel to cope with personal or group anxiety or stress

Front 410

410. What is a sign of adequate hydration?
A. Frequent urination
B. Excessive sweating
C. Thirst
D. Deep yellow urine

Back 410

410. What is a sign of adequate hydration?
A. Frequent urination

Front 411

411. A simple effective means of controlling disease transmission is by:
A. Hand washing
B. Covering your nose while sneezing
C. Placing a HEPA mask on your patient
D. Wearing goggles, gloves, gown, and HEPA mask

Back 411

411. A simple effective means of controlling disease transmission is by:
A. Hand washing

Front 412

412. At the scene of an accident with a vehicle on it’s side, what should NOT be done?
A. Park the ambulance a safe distance from the vehicle
B. Rock or push the vehicle to see if it will move
C. Check the stability of the vehicle
D. Place warning devices near the scene of the accident

Back 412

412. At the scene of an accident with a vehicle on it’s side, what should NOT be done?
B. Rock or push the vehicle to see if it will move

Front 413

413. Which of the following statements about a HazMat incident is false?
A. If an object is marked with a safety placard, it is safe to approach it
B. Upon arrival, first try to read the labels or ID numbers
C. Do not enter the scene if a HazMat team is en route
D. You should not begin caring for patients until they have been moved away from the scene

Back 413

413. Which of the following statements about a HazMat incident is false?
A. If an object is marked with a safety placard, it is safe to approach it

Front 414

414. You respond to an incident where a stabbing has occurred following a domestic disturbance, you should:
A. Enter the apartment and attempt to grab the knife from the suspect
B. Enter the apartment and begin treatment on the victim
C. Remain outside, survey the scene and call for law enforcement assistance
D. Put on your body armor before entering the apartment

Back 414

414. You respond to an incident where a stabbing has occurred following a domestic disturbance, you should:
C. Remain outside, survey the scene and call for law enforcement assistance

Front 415

415. A 8-year old child has been severely injured, but you cannot contact the parents. What do you do next?
A. Take the child to the Emergency room without treating
B. Telephone the Emergency department physician and request permission to treat
C. Assume the parents would give consent to treat
D. Ask law enforcement for permission to treat

Back 415

415. A 8-year old child has been severely injured, but you cannot contact the parents. What do you do next?
C. Assume the parents would give consent to treat

Front 416

416. If a patients’ judgment is impaired, your treatment would be based on the legal doctrine of:
A. Implied consent
B. Informed consent
C. Applied consent
D. Expressed consent

Back 416

416. If a patients’ judgment is impaired, your treatment would be based on the legal doctrine of:
A. Implied consent

Front 417

417. A patient who is conscious, alert and oriented complaining of abdominal pain refuses to be transported. The patient’s spouse requests that you transport the patient anyway. What is the most appropriate course of action?
A. Transport the patient per the spouse’s wish
B. Transport the patient because the condition warrants it
C. Respect what the patient wants
D. Explain to the spouse that the complaint is not serious enough to be transported

Back 417

417. A patient who is conscious, alert and oriented complaining of abdominal pain refuses to be transported. The patient’s spouse requests that you transport the patient anyway. What is the most appropriate course of action?
C. Respect what the patient wants

Front 418

418. The unauthorized touching or treating a patient without consent is called:
A. Refusal risk
B. Technical liability
C. Assault
D. Battery

Back 418

418. The unauthorized touching or treating a patient without consent is called:
D. Battery

Front 419

419. If you leave the scene of an accident after rendering care, but before arrival of other help, what is this considered?
A. Negligence
B. Malpractice
C. Abandonment
D. Refusal

Back 419

419. If you leave the scene of an accident after rendering care, but before arrival of other help, what is this considered?
C. Abandonment

Front 420

420. Which of the following statements about documentation is false?
A. A complete, accurate report is an important safeguard against legal problems
B. Legally, if it wasn’t documented, it wasn’t done
C. You can rely on the dispatcher and the hospital staff to complete and maintain your records and reports
D. An incomplete or untidy report is evidence of incomplete or inexpert medical care

Back 420

420. Which of the following statements about documentation is false?
C. You can rely on the dispatcher and the hospital staff to complete and maintain your records and reports

Front 421

421. You arrive at the scene of an accident where there is a patient with a mortal injury who is a possible organ donor. After notifying medical control, what is your priority?
A. Call the coroner for pronouncement of death
B. Try to save the patient’s life
C. Immediately transport the patient for organ harvesting
D. Pack the body in ice and transport rapidly

Back 421

421. You arrive at the scene of an accident where there is a patient with a mortal injury who is a possible organ donor. After notifying medical control, what is your priority?
B. Try to save the patient’s life

Front 422

422. What is considered an advanced directive?
A. A written document that outlines specific medical treatment should a competent patient become unable to make decisions
B. A formal list that defines whether a patient is competent
C. Oral instructions given to you by a dying patient’s family regarding whether treatment should be continued
D. A set of specific guidelines determining the different types of consent

Back 422

422. What is considered an advanced directive?
A. A written document that outlines specific medical treatment should a competent patient become unable to make decisions

Front 423

423. What type of directive allows emergency services personnel the right to not administer resuscitation efforts?
A. Standing Orders
B. DNR orders
C. Competence instructions
D. Department protocol

Back 423

423. What type of directive allows emergency services personnel the right to not administer resuscitation efforts?
B. DNR orders

Front 424

424. What is the definition of assault?
A. Touching a patient or providing care without consent
B. Discontinuing care before transferring the patient to a provider with equal or higher level of training
C. Unlawfully placing a patient in fear of bodily harm
D. Causing injury to a patient even though he or she has given permission to treat

Back 424

424. What is the definition of assault?
C. Unlawfully placing a patient in fear of bodily harm

Front 425

425. If you arrive at an accident site while off-duty, you may have:
A. A duty to call in the report to the local fire department and go on your way
B. A legal obligation to stop and assist the patient
C. A moral obligation to stop or you may be accused of battery
D. A moral and ethical duty to act because of your expertise

Back 425

425. If you arrive at an accident site while off-duty, you may have:
B. A legal obligation to stop and assist the patient

Front 426

426. In terms of the anatomy, superior means nearer to the:
A. Head
B. Back
C. Hand
D. Feet

Back 426

426. In terms of the anatomy, superior means nearer to the:
A. Head

Front 427

427. The first structure encountered in the lower airway is the:
A. Pharynx
B. Oropharynx
C. Epiglottis
D. Larynx

Back 427

427. The first structure encountered in the lower airway is the:
D. Larynx

Front 428

428. The medial aspect of a bone lies:
A. Nearer to the back
B. Away from the midline of the body
C. Closer to the midline of the body
D. Nearer to the feet

Back 428

428. The medial aspect of a bone lies:
C. Closer to the midline of the body

Front 429

429. The term distal describes body parts that are:
A. Nearer to the trunk
B. Toward the midline of the body
C. On the front surface
D. Nearer the free end of the extremity

Back 429

429. The term distal describes body parts that are:
D. Nearer the free end of the extremity

Front 430

430. What is the largest organ in the body?
A. Skin
B. Brain
C. Heart
D. Liver

Back 430

430. What is the largest organ in the body?
A. Skin

Front 431

431. To prove negligence, there must be four elements. They are:
A. Standard of care, duty, abandonment, injury
B. Duty, breach of duty, damages, cause
C. Standard of care, lack of consent, duty, cause
D. Duty, abandonment, lack of consent, injury

Back 431

431. To prove negligence, there must be four elements. They are:
B. Duty, breach of duty, damages, cause

Front 432

432. Something the patient experiences and tells you about is called a:
A. S.A.M.P.L.E. history
B. Mechanism of injury
C. Symptom
D. Sign

Back 432

432. Something the patient experiences and tells you about is called a:
C. Symptom

Front 433

433. After transport has begun, a stable patient’s vitals should be reassessed every:
A. 5 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 20 minutes

Back 433

433. After transport has begun, a stable patient’s vitals should be reassessed every:
C. 15 minutes

Front 434

434. Most VHF mobile radios operate on how many watts of power?
A. 20
B. 3
C. 40
D. 100

Back 434

434. Most VHF mobile radios operate on how many watts of power?
D. 100

Front 435

435. What bone forms the lower jaw?
A. Craniun
B. Mandible
C. Maxilla
D. Mastoid

Back 435

435. What bone forms the lower jaw?
B. Mandible

Front 436

436. Which is the most appropriate technique for a lone rescuer, to remove a patient from a hazardous environment?
A. Seat lift and carry
B. Extremity lift and carry
C. Logroll
D. Emergency clothes drag

Back 436

436. Which is the most appropriate technique for a lone rescuer, to remove a patient from a hazardous environment?
D. Emergency clothes drag

Front 437

437. Oxygen and Carbon Dioxide pass rapidly across the walls of the alveoli through the process of:
A. Secretion
B. Osmosis
C. Excretion
D. Diffusion

Back 437

437. Oxygen and Carbon Dioxide pass rapidly across the walls of the alveoli through the process of:
D. Diffusion

Front 438

438. A medical control order should be:
A. followed immediately as stated.
B. repeated back word for word and confirmed.
C. automatically questioned.
D. discussed with your partner to ascertain its accuracy.

Back 438

438. A medical control order should be:
B. repeated back word for word and confirmed.

Front 439

439. What best describes the “Golden Hour”?
A. Period of time during which EMS must arrive at the scene of an injury or illness to begin lifesaving care
B. Maximum amount of ambulance transport time allowed before air medical transport should be considered
C. Period of time immediately after injury in which the ABCD should be checked every 5 minutes
D. Time of injury to time of definitive care

Back 439

439. What best describes the “Golden Hour”?
D. Time of injury to time of definitive care

Front 440

440. During your head to toe assessment, what is the last area checked?
A. Back
B. Chest
C. Extremities
D. Head

Back 440

440. During your head to toe assessment, what is the last area checked?
A. Back

Front 441

441. Where does the transfer of care officially occur?
A. Once your radio report is completed en route to the hospital
B. Once you arrive at the emergency room doors
C. As soon as you leave the scene and made contact with the receiving hospital
D. During your oral report at the hospital

Back 441

441. Where does the transfer of care officially occur?
D. During your oral report at the hospital

Front 442

442. A sterile airtight dressing is most commonly used on a:
A. Sucking chest wound
B. Puncture wound
C. Closed fracture
D. Laceration

Back 442

442. A sterile airtight dressing is most commonly used on a:
A. Sucking chest wound

Front 443

443. Which of the following statements about the heart is true?
A. The right side of the heart receives Oxygen rich blood from the lungs
B. It is under control of the autonomic nervous system
C. The heart is divided down the middle into two sides by a wall called the ventricle
D. It can tolerate an interruption of its blood supply for long period of time

Back 443

443. Which of the following statements about the heart is true?
B. It is under control of the autonomic nervous system

Front 444

444. The esophagus lies:
A. Posterior to the cervical vertebrae
B. Anterior to the thoracic vertebrae
C. Within the Cricoid cartilage
D. Anterior to the trachea

Back 444

444. The esophagus lies:
B. Anterior to the thoracic vertebrae

Front 445

445. What is the flap of skin called that covers the tracheal opening?
A. Epiglottis
B. Trachea
C. Larynx
D. Bronchus

Back 445

445. What is the flap of skin called that covers the tracheal opening?
A. Epiglottis

Front 446

446. Which bone is found in the foot?
A. Olecranon
B. Patella
C. Calcaneus
D. Acromion

Back 446

446. Which bone is found in the foot?
C. Calcaneus

Front 447

447. Which one of the following statements about the prehospital care report is true?
A. It is only for the prehospital care providers’ information
B. It cannot be used for patient billing
C. It helps ensure efficient continuity of patient care
D. It is only valuable as a legal document

Back 447

447. Which one of the following statements about the prehospital care report is true?
C. It helps ensure efficient continuity of patient care

Front 448

448. The term “dyspnea” can be defined as:
A. Noisy breathing
B. Absence of breathing
C. Rapid breathing
D. Difficulty breathing

Back 448

448. The term “dyspnea” can be defined as:
D. Difficulty breathing

Front 449

449. What is a sign that is commonly encountered in a patient with a diabetic emergency?
A. Decreased respiratory rate
B. Slow pulse
C. Pale, clammy skin
D. Extremely elevated blood pressure

Back 449

449. What is a sign that is commonly encountered in a patient with a diabetic emergency?
C. Pale, clammy skin

Front 450

450. What is not a route for medication administration?
A. Intravenous
B. Sublingual
C. Submandibular
D. Intramuscular

Back 450

450. What is not a route for medication administration?
C. Submandibular

Front 451

451. What directly attaches muscle tissue to the bone?
A. Cartilage
B. Tendon
C. Arteries
D. Ligaments

Back 451

451. What directly attaches muscle tissue to the bone?
B. Tendon

Front 452

452. What is the definition of “chief complaint”?
A. An informal scale upon which the patient rates their pain.
B. The detailed description of each part of the PQRST scale.
C. Answers to a series of specific questions that you ask the patient as part of the exam.
D. The patients’ response to the general question, “what happened?”

Back 452

452. What is the definition of “chief complaint”?
D. The patients’ response to the general question, “what happened?”

Front 453

453. The pelvic bone is formed by the fusion of what three bones?
A. Femur, Pubis Symphysis, Pubis
B. Ischial tuberosity, Greater Trochanter, Acetabulum
C. Ilium, Ischium, Pubis
D. Femur, Iliac crest, Pubis

Back 453

453. The pelvic bone is formed by the fusion of what three bones?
C. Ilium, Ischium, Pubis

Front 454

454. Which of the following, functions with less blood when at rest?
A. Heart
B. Intestines
C. Kidneys
D. Brain

Back 454

454. Which of the following, functions with less blood when at rest?
B. Intestines

Front 455

455. What major artery supplies the arms with blood?
A. Brachial
B. Carotid
C. Subclavian
D. Femoral

Back 455

455. What major artery supplies the arms with blood?
A. Brachial

Front 456

456. The pulmonary circulation is responsible for carrying:
A. Oxygen rich blood from the right ventricle through the body
B. Oxygen poor blood from the right ventricle through the lungs
C. Oxygen rich blood from the left ventricle through the body
D. Oxygen poor blood from the left ventricle through the lungs

Back 456

456. The pulmonary circulation is responsible for carrying:
B. Oxygen poor blood from the right ventricle through the lungs

Front 457

457. Which of the following statement about red blood cells is false?
A. They help fight infection
B. They give color to the blood
C. They carry Oxygen
D. They contain iron

Back 457

457. Which of the following statement about red blood cells is false?
A. They help fight infection

Front 458

458. You would check a patient’s skin temperature with:
A. Your index and middle fingers
B. The palm of your hand
C. The tips of your fingers
D. The back of your hand

Back 458

458. You would check a patient’s skin temperature with:
D. The back of your hand

Front 459

459. Deep pigmented skin patients skin color changes are best observed by checking the:
A. Knuckles
B. Earlobes
C. Fingernail beds
D. Abdomen

Back 459

459. Deep pigmented skin patients skin color changes are best observed by checking the:
C. Fingernail beds

Front 460

460. When taking a blood pressure by auscultation, the systolic pressure is a point on the gauge when:
A. You first hear a strong tap or thump
B. The needle stops moving
C. The sound disappears or changes in quality
D. The needle starts moving

Back 460

460. When taking a blood pressure by auscultation, the systolic pressure is a point on the gauge when:
A. You first hear a strong tap or thump

Front 461

461. When should you take a pulse using the Carotid artery?
A. If the patient has a head injury
B. In a responsive patient greater than 1 year old
C. If the patient has a traumatic chest injury
D. In a unresponsive patient greater than 1 year old

Back 461

461. When should you take a pulse using the Carotid artery?
D. In a unresponsive patient greater than 1 year old

Front 462

462. When using the SAMPLE means of obtaining history, what does the “A” represent?
A. Apgar score
B. Allergies
C. AVPU scale
D. Auscultation

Back 462

462. When using the SAMPLE means of obtaining history, what does the “A” represent?
B. Allergies

Front 463

463. When obtaining a blood pressure by palpation, as the cuff is deflating, the systolic pressure is denoted by:
A. The pulse returning
B. The pulse cannot be felt any longer
C. The needle begins to move
D. The cuff being halfway deflated

Back 463

463. When obtaining a blood pressure by palpation, as the cuff is deflating, the systolic pressure is denoted by:
A. The pulse returning

Front 464

464. A patient’s pupil diameter and reactivity to light is an indicator of:
A. Retinal pressure
B. Arterial blood pressure
C. Perfusion
D. Arterial blockage

Back 464

464. A patient’s pupil diameter and reactivity to light is an indicator of:
C. Perfusion

Front 465

465. The normal pulse rate for an adult is approximately what?
A. 100 to 120 beats per minute
B. 80 to 90 beats per minute
C. 60 to 100 beats per minute
D. 100 plus the patient’s age

Back 465

465. The normal pulse rate for an adult is approximately what?
C. 60 to 100 beats per minute

Front 466

466. A bluish discoloration of the skin or mucous membranes is indicative of:
A. High blood pressure
B. Poor Oxygenation of the circulating blood
C. Liver disease
D. Shock

Back 466

466. A bluish discoloration of the skin or mucous membranes is indicative of:
B. Poor Oxygenation of the circulating blood

Front 467

467. A patient carried on a backboard should be carried:
A. Head first
B. Feet elevated
C. Feet first
D. Head elevated

Back 467

467. A patient carried on a backboard should be carried:
C. Feet first

Front 468

468. A backboard is also called all of the below except:
A. Spine board
B. Extrication board
C. Trauma board
D. Long board

Back 468

468. A backboard is also called all of the below except:
B. Extrication board

Front 469

469. Which equipment listed below is best for standard spinal immobilization?
A. Ambulance gurney
B. Long Backboard
C. Scoop stretcher
D. Stair chair

Back 469

469. Which equipment listed below is best for standard spinal immobilization?
B. Long Backboard

Front 470

470. When a patient is in danger of a building collapse, and needs to be moved quickly and safely, they should be:
A. Loaded onto a knockdown stretcher
B. Moved using a one-person walking assist
C. Secured to a backboard
D. Pulled along the long axis of the body

Back 470

470. When a patient is in danger of a building collapse, and needs to be moved quickly and safely, they should be:
D. Pulled along the long axis of the body

Front 471

471. When lifting a patient to avoid injury, what is the safest way to accomplish it?
A. Twist toward your dominant side
B. Lift using your back
C. Use one hand only
D. Lift using your legs

Back 471

471. When lifting a patient to avoid injury, what is the safest way to accomplish it?
D. Lift using your legs

Front 472

472. The Rapid Extrication technique should be utilized under numerous circumstances. One, when the scene is unsafe, another being:
A. There is not enough personnel to remove the patient the traditional way
B. There is no suspected spinal injury and the patient is found supine on the ground
C. The scene is located in hilly and rough terrain and removal is difficult
D. The patient immediate intervention that requires a supine position

Back 472

472. The Rapid Extrication technique should be utilized under numerous circumstances. One, when the scene is unsafe, another being:
D. The patient immediate intervention that requires a supine position

Front 473

473. Which of the following one-rescuer techniques are utilized in a life threatening situation?
A. Direct ground lift
B. Extremity lift
C. Firefighters’ drag
D. Supine transfer

Back 473

473. Which of the following one-rescuer techniques are utilized in a life threatening situation?
C. Firefighters’ drag

Front 474

474. What type of stretcher may be folded or rolled, but is rigid when wrapped around the patient?
A. Basket stretcher
B. Stokes stretcher
C. Flexible stretcher
D. Scoop stretcher

Back 474

474. What type of stretcher may be folded or rolled, but is rigid when wrapped around the patient?
C. Flexible stretcher

Front 475

475. What should be done to place a patient into the shock position?
A. Elevating the head 8 to 12 inches
B. Raising the arms above the head
C. Elevating the legs 6 to 12 inches
D. Placing the patient on their side

Back 475

475. What should be done to place a patient into the shock position?
C. Elevating the legs 6 to 12 inches

Front 476

476. What happens to the pressure inside the chest at the onset of exhalation?
A. It is always equal to atmospheric pressure
B. It increases
C. It decreases
D. It remains the same

Back 476

476. What happens to the pressure inside the chest at the onset of exhalation?
B. It increases

Front 477

477. What is included in the upper airway?
A. Bronchi, trachea, and lungs
B. Trachea, bronchi, and lungs
C. Nose, mouth and throat
D. Throat, trachea and bronchi

Back 477

477. What is included in the upper airway?
C. Nose, mouth and throat

Front 478

478. The main muscles used in respirations are:
A. Diaphragm and chest wall muscles
B. Neck and chest wall muscles
C. Diaphragm and abdominal muscles
D. Neck and abdominal muscles

Back 478

478. The main muscles used in respirations are:
A. Diaphragm and chest wall muscles

Front 479

479. Which of the below are not located in the mediastinum?
A. Trachea
B. Heart
C. Esophagus
D. Lungs

Back 479

479. Which of the below are not located in the mediastinum?
D. Lungs

Front 480

480. What is the most common gas present in the air we breathe?
A. Oxygen
B. Hydrogen
C. Nitrogen
D. Carbon Dioxide

Back 480

480. What is the most common gas present in the air we breathe?
C. Nitrogen

Front 481

481. Oxygen moves into the cells through the process of:
A. Secretion
B. Concentration
C. Excretion
D. Diffusion

Back 481

481. Oxygen moves into the cells through the process of:
D. Diffusion

Front 482

482. Which gas is the most important in controlling respirations?
A. Carbon Dioxide
B. Nitrogen
C. Oxygen
D. Hydrogen

Back 482

482. Which gas is the most important in controlling respirations?
A. Carbon Dioxide

Front 483

483. The nose, mouth and throat are called what?
A. Oropharynx
B. Larynx
C. Thoracic cage
D. Pharynx

Back 483

483. The nose, mouth and throat are called what?
D. Pharynx

Front 484

484. Which of the following statements about agonal respirations is FALSE?
A. They may occur after the heart has stopped
B. They are adequate to support the patient
C. They may be slow and shallow respirations
D. They may appear as gasping respirations

Back 484

484. Which of the following statements about agonal respirations is FALSE?
B. They are adequate to support the patient

Front 485

485. Which area of the body controls respirations?
A. Carotid artery
B. Brain stem
C. Spinal cord
D. Lungs

Back 485

485. Which area of the body controls respirations?
B. Brain stem

Front 486

486. Which of the following is the best method for delivering artificial ventilation with
increased Oxygen concentration?
A. One-person bag-valve-mask
B. Mouth to mask ventilation
C. Oxygen powered manually triggered breathing device
D. Two person bag-valve-mask

Back 486

486. Which of the following is the best method for delivering artificial ventilation with increased Oxygen concentration?
D. Two person bag-valve-mask

Front 487

487. On your initial assessment, what is the least important procedure?
A. Assess blood pressure
B. Assess airway
C. Assess circulation
D. Assess breathing

Back 487

487. On your initial assessment, what is the least important procedure?
A. Assess blood pressure

Front 488

488. You are providing inadequate ventilations to an adult during mouth to mouth
resuscitation if you:
A. Feel and hear air escape as the patient exhales
B. Heart rate does not return to normal range
C. See the patient’s chest rise and fall
D. Feel resistance of the patient’s lungs as they expand

Back 488

488. You are providing inadequate ventilations to an adult during mouth to mouth
resuscitation if you:
B. Heart rate does not return to normal range

Front 489

489. When using a Bag-Valve mask device on a patient without spinal injuries, you notice the patient’s stomach distending, what should you reposition?
A. The mask
B. Your fingers
C. The patient’s head
D. The patient’s jaw

Back 489

489. When using a Bag-Valve mask device on a patient without spinal injuries, you notice the patient’s stomach distending, what should you reposition?
C. The patient’s head

Front 490

490. When you must provide ventilations for a patient with a stoma, you should:
A. Seal the patient’s mouth and nose with one hand
B. Use the jaw-thrust maneuver
C. Use the modified jaw-thrust maneuver
D. Use the head-tilt/chin-lift maneuver

Back 490

490. When you must provide ventilations for a patient with a stoma, you should:
A. Seal the patient’s mouth and nose with one hand

Front 491

491. What other gas besides Oxygen passess through the walls of the Alveoli and Capillaries?
A. Nitrogen
B. Hydrogen
C. Carbon Dioxide
D. Carbon Monoxide

Back 491

491. What other gas besides Oxygen passess through the walls of the Alveoli and Capillaries?
C. Carbon Dioxide

Front 492

492. When an airway obstruction occurs by the tongue and throat muscles relaxing, the EMT should:
A. Perform a finger sweep of the patient’s mouth
B. Logroll the patient onto their side
C. Perform the Heimlich maneuver
D. Perform the head-tilt/chin-lift maneuver

Back 492

492. When an airway obstruction occurs by the tongue and throat muscles relaxing, the EMT should:
D. Perform the head-tilt/chin-lift maneuver

Front 493

493. When using a bag-valve-mask for ventilating a patient, you should squeeze it until:
A. The patient’s chest rises
B. It is empty
C. The patient has spontaneous respirations
D. 100% Oxygen is delivered

Back 493

493. When using a bag-valve-mask for ventilating a patient, you should squeeze it until:
A. The patient’s chest rises

Front 494

494. A tonsil tip is used for suctioning the:
A. Nasal air passages
B. Esophagus
C. Oropharynx
D. Trachea

Back 494

494. A tonsil tip is used for suctioning the:
C. Oropharynx

Front 495

495. You are called for a patient in respiratory distress. He is breathing noisily and
coughing. What you think the patient’s problem is?
A. A mild airway obstruction
B. Gastric distention
C. A complete airway obstruction
D. A cyanotic episode

Back 495

495. You are called for a patient in respiratory distress. He is breathing noisily and
coughing. What you think the patient’s problem is?
A. A mild airway obstruction

Front 496

496. An Oropharyngeal airway should not be used when the patient has:
A. Abnormal respirations
B. A significant head injury
C. A intact gag reflex
D. Hypoxia

Back 496

496. An Oropharyngeal airway should not be used when the patient has:
C. A intact gag reflex

Front 497

497. What are the two advantages of an oropharyngeal airway?
A. Prevents airway obstruction and tachycardia
B. Prevents airway injury and eases suctioning
C. Prevents aspiration and airway obstruction
D. Prevents airway obstruction and eases suctioning

Back 497

497. What are the two advantages of an oropharyngeal airway?
D. Prevents airway obstruction and eases suctioning

Front 498

498. What method is used to determine the proper size of oropharyngeal airway?
A. Measure from the nose to the forehead
B. Be the same size as the little finger
C. Measure from the earlobe to the corner of the mouth
D. Measure from the lips to the epiglottis

Back 498

498. What method is used to determine the proper size of oropharyngeal airway?
C. Measure from the earlobe to the corner of the mouth

Front 499

499. What is the main purpose of an nasopharyngeal airway?
A. Support the airway when there is oral trauma
B. Prevent aspiration
C. Protect the airway in an unconscious patient
D. Maintain the airway in a conscious patient with a gag reflex

Back 499

499. What is the main purpose of an nasopharyngeal airway?
D. Maintain the airway in a conscious patient with a gag reflex

Front 500

500. Oxygen delivered through a nasal cannula will not benefit a patient with:
A. Chronic lung disease
B. Abdominal injuries
C. Nasal blockage
D. Myocardial infarction

Back 500

500. Oxygen delivered through a nasal cannula will not benefit a patient with:
C. Nasal blockage

Front 501

501. Which means delivers the highest concentration of Oxygen?
A. Nonrebreathing mask
B. Nasal cannula
C. Venturi mask
D. Simple face mask

Back 501

501. Which means delivers the highest concentration of Oxygen?
A. Nonrebreathing mask

Front 502

502. The gas Oxygen is considered a hazard because:
A. It will support combustion
B. It will explode
C. It will burn
D. Spontaneously ignite

Back 502

502. The gas Oxygen is considered a hazard because:
A. It will support combustion

Front 503

503. What is the flow rate of Oxygen for a Nonrebreathing mask?
A. Set at 5 Liters per minute
B. Determined by dividing the respiratory rate by 2
C. Set at 10 Liters per minute
D. Adjusted to prevent the bag from collapsing on inhalation

Back 503

503. What is the flow rate of Oxygen for a Nonrebreathing mask?
D. Adjusted to prevent the bag from collapsing on inhalation

Front 504

504. Humidification of Oxygen is important when administered through a nasal cannula because Oxygen is very dry and will:
A. Damage the flow meter at high-flow rates
B. Dry the patient’s mucous membranes
C. Evaporate as soon as it comes in contact with the atmosphere
D. Be too Oxygen rich, and may poison the patient

Back 504

504. Humidification of Oxygen is important when administered through a nasal cannula because Oxygen is very dry and will:
B. Dry the patient’s mucous membranes

Front 505

505. When approaching a trauma patient, an important part of the size-up is to try and
determine:
A. Mechanism of injury
B. Nature of the illness
C. Seriousness of the incident
D. Mechanism of illness

Back 505

505. When approaching a trauma patient, an important part of the size-up is to try and
determine:
A. Mechanism of injury

Front 506

506. What is the proper sequence in an initial patient assessment?
A. Airway, mental status, breathing, circulation
B. Circulation, mental status, airway, breathing
C. Breathing, circulation, mental status, airway
D. Mental status, Airway, breathing, circulation

Back 506

506. What is the proper sequence in an initial patient assessment?
D. Mental status, Airway, breathing, circulation

Front 507

507. What should be the first question you ask yourself when you arrive at a possible MCI (Multiple Casualty Incident)?
A. “How severe are the patient’s injuries?
B. “How many patients are there?”
C. “What caused the crash?”
D. “Who will do the triage?”

Back 507

507. What should be the first question you ask yourself when you arrive at a possible MCI (Multiple Casualty Incident)?
B. “How many patients are there?”

Front 508

508. When utilizing AVPU for determination of a patient’s level of consciousness, the letter “V” represents what?
A. Responds verbally
B. Vocalizes name and chief complaint
C. Responsive to verbal stimulus
D. Alert with vision

Back 508

508. When utilizing AVPU for determination of a patient’s level of consciousness, the letter “V” represents what?
C. Responsive to verbal stimulus

Front 509

509. When utilizing AVPU for determination of a patient’s level of consciousness, the letter “U” represents what?
A. Unresponsive
B. Unconscious
C. Unusual behavior
D. Underlying cause

Back 509

509. When utilizing AVPU for determination of a patient’s level of consciousness, the letter “U” represents what?
A. Unresponsive

Front 510

510. A MCI (Mass Casualty Incident) is described as when:
A. There is as many patients as there are EMT-1’s
B. The patient needs are greater than the available resources
C. The incident occurs on a weekend or holiday
D. There is more than one patient

Back 510

510. A MCI (Mass Casualty Incident) is described as when:
B. The patient needs are greater than the available resources

Front 511

511. How should you assess the airway in a responsive patient?
A. Feeling for air movement from the mouth and nose.
B. Looking for the chest to rise
C. Listening for air movement from the mouth and nose
D. Listening to the patient speak

Back 511

511. How should you assess the airway in a responsive patient?
D. Listening to the patient speak

Front 512

512. If you found an airway obstruction during assessment, you should:
A. Give priority to obtaining a patent airway
B. Assess the patient’s circulation next
C. Abandon the assessment and transport the patient immediately
D. Note it and continue the assessment

Back 512

512. If you found an airway obstruction during assessment, you should:
A. Give priority to obtaining a patent airway

Front 513

513. When a patient with an abdominal injury tenses his abdomen upon palpation, this is called:
A. Gastric distention
B. Guarding
C. Paradoxical motion
D. Rebound tenderness

Back 513

513. When a patient with an abdominal injury tenses his abdomen upon palpation, this is called:
B. Guarding

Front 514

514. A patient fell down a flight of stairs. The patient does not respond to questions. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
A. Treat for Diabetic problem
B. Treat for extremity fracture
C. Treat for a reaction to medication
D. Treat for a spinal injury

Back 514

514. A patient fell down a flight of stairs. The patient does not respond to questions. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
D. Treat for a spinal injury

Front 515

515. In a trauma injury, what do you utilize to describe the event?
A. Mechanism of injury
B. Mode of injury
C. Mechanism of incident
D. Trauma score

Back 515

515. In a trauma injury, what do you utilize to describe the event?
A. Mechanism of injury

Front 516

516. Which of the below statements about air bags is true?
A. Air bags do not have to be used with seat belts to be effective
B. An SCBA should be worn if there is a lot of dust present from a deployed air bag
C. If the air bag is deployed, the patient has not been hurt
D. Even if the air bag is deployed, the patient may still have hit the steering wheel and sustained possible injuries

Back 516

516. Which of the below statements about air bags is true?
D. Even if the air bag is deployed, the patient may still have hit the steering wheel and sustained possible injuries

Front 517

517. Listening with a stethoscope is called:
A. Inspection
B. Immobilization
C. Palpation
D. Auscultation

Back 517

517. Listening with a stethoscope is called:
D. Auscultation

Front 518

518. Which of the following is the highest priority and must be constantly monitored during assessment?
A. Vital signs
B. Mental status
C. External bleeding
D. Ventilation rate

Back 518

518. Which of the following is the highest priority and must be constantly monitored during assessment?
B. Mental status

Front 519

519. Most VHF portable radios operate on how many watts of power?
A. 10-20
B. 5-10
C. 1-5
D. 25-30

Back 519

519. Most VHF portable radios operate on how many watts of power?
C. 1-5

Front 520

520. Communications that can talk and listen simultaneously are considered?
A. Simplex
B. Duplex
C. Repeater
D. Complex

Back 520

520. Communications that can talk and listen simultaneously are considered?
B. Duplex

Front 521

521. Which agency regulates radio communications?
A. FAA
B. FDA
C. EPA
D. FCC

Back 521

521. Which agency regulates radio communications?
D. FCC

Front 522

522. An order that may seem inappropriate or unclear should be:
A. Followed immediately
B. Questioned
C. Ignored
D. Discussed with your partner before completing

Back 522

522. An order that may seem inappropriate or unclear should be:
B. Questioned

Front 523

523. The involvement and communication from physicians that is an integral part of any EMS system is called:
A. Preceptorship
B. Base hospital communications
C. Medical control
D. Protocols

Back 523

523. The involvement and communication from physicians that is an integral part of any EMS system is called:
C. Medical control

Front 524

524. Regular radio equipment maintenance should be done at least once every:
A. Year
B. Month
C. 6 months
D. 2 years

Back 524

524. Regular radio equipment maintenance should be done at least once every:
A. Year

Front 525

525. The information that you gather during an incident becomes part of the:
A. Medical direction report
B. Medical control report
C. Minimum data set
D. Billing information

Back 525

525. The information that you gather during an incident becomes part of the:
C. Minimum data set

Front 526

526. What findings are indicative for a patient with low blood glucose?
A. Agitation, mood swings and cardiac abnormalities
B. Decreased mental status and seizures
C. Salivation, sweating and diarrhea
D. Nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain

Back 526

526. What findings are indicative for a patient with low blood glucose?
B. Decreased mental status and seizures

Front 527

527. Pale skin is usually an indicator of what underlying problem?
A. Liver abnormalities
B. Poor Oxygenation
C. Heat Cramps
D. Inadequate circulation

Back 527

527. Pale skin is usually an indicator of what underlying problem?
D. Inadequate circulation

Front 528

528. The term “asthma” can be defined as a disease that:
A. Is associated with dyspnea and heart attacks
B. Causes the lungs to fill with fluid
C. Involves muscle spasms and mucous production in the small air passages
D. Causes airway obstruction and gastric distention

Back 528

528. The term “asthma” can be defined as a disease that:
C. Involves muscle spasms and mucous production in the small air passages

Front 529

529. Why do patients in respiratory distress often prefer to sit up?
A. Lying down generally cause severe muscle spasms
B. In this position they are more comfortable
C. Lying down could cause extreme abdominal pain
D. Lying down causes a shortage of Oxygen to their brain

Back 529

529. Why do patients in respiratory distress often prefer to sit up?
B. In this position they are more comfortable

Front 530

530. Nitroglycerin has all of the following effects except?
A. Venous dilation
B. Increased blood pressure
C. Less blood returned to heart
D. Mild headache

Back 530

530. Nitroglycerin has all of the following effects except?
B. Increased blood pressure

Front 531

531. What is a common sign of croup?
A. Pursed lips
B. Stridor
C. Bleeding from the mouth
D. Wheezing

Back 531

531. What is a common sign of croup?
B. Stridor

Front 532

532. Which of the following will NOT cause pulmonary edema?
A. Smoke Inhalation
B. Crush injury to the chest
C. Dehydration
D. Heart Attack

Back 532

532. Which of the following will NOT cause pulmonary edema?
C. Dehydration

Front 533

533. Breathing difficulties after a sting or a bite may progress to:
A. Anaphylaxis
B. Asthma
C. COPD
D. Sepsis

Back 533

533. Breathing difficulties after a sting or a bite may progress to:
A. Anaphylaxis

Front 534

534. What is the first step in treatment of a patient with an airway obstruction with spinal injury?
A. Activate the emergency medical services system
B. Apply a cervical collar
C. Open the airway using the jaw-thrust manuever
D. Perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation and give supplemental Oxygen

Back 534

534. What is the first step in treatment of a patient with an airway obstruction with spinal injury?
C. Open the airway using the jaw-thrust manuever

Front 535

535. Which of the following statements about epiglottitis is true?
A. Suctioning a child may cause death
B. It is more common in adults
C. It is usually a viral infection in children
D. Fluid collect in the lungs and cause respiratory depression

Back 535

535. Which of the following statements about epiglottitis is true?
A. Suctioning a child may cause death

Front 536

536. COPD is most commonly caused by:
A. Chest trauma
B. Asthma
C. Smoking
D. Heart attacks

Back 536

536. COPD is most commonly caused by:
C. Smoking

Front 537

537. Which veins carry Oxygen rich blood?
A. Inferior vena cava
B. Superior vena cava
C. Jugular
D. Pulmonary

Back 537

537. Which veins carry Oxygen rich blood?
D. Pulmonary

Front 538

538. Which of the following statements about the heart is true?
A. It does not have arteries
B. It cannot tolerate being without Oxygen
C. It does not have veins
D. The right side is more muscular than the left

Back 538

538. Which of the following statements about the heart is true?
B. It cannot tolerate being without Oxygen

Front 539

539. What portion of the heart is responsible for supplying blood to the lungs?
A. Left ventricle
B. Left atrium
C. Right atrium
D. Right ventricle

Back 539

539. What portion of the heart is responsible for supplying blood to the lungs?
D. Right ventricle

The right ventricle pumps blood from your heart to your lungs

Front 540

540. You arrive on the scene of an incident with a patient having a heart attack. What is the most important first step?
A. Showing support and a caring attitude
B. Initiating Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation
C. Performing defibrillation
D. Starting an IV.

Back 540

540. You arrive on the scene of an incident with a patient having a heart attack. What is the most important first step?
A. Showing support and a caring attitude

Front 541

541. The smallest blood vessels are called:
A. Capillaries
B. Arterioles
C. Venules
D. Alveoli

Back 541

541. The smallest blood vessels are called:
A. Capillaries

Front 542

542. Initial treatment of a patient with a cardiac condition should include:
A. Starting an IV
B. Performing defibrillation
C. Giving supplemental Oxygen
D. Starting CPR

Back 542

542. Initial treatment of a patient with a cardiac condition should include:
C. Giving supplemental Oxygen

Front 543

543. How is Nitroglycerin administered?
A. Intramuscular
B. Intravenously
C. Rectally
D. Sublingually

Back 543

543. How is Nitroglycerin administered?
D. Sublingually

Front 544

544. Most patients who are having a heart attack will experience:
A. No ill feelings once EMS arrives
B. Unconsciousness
C. A feeling of impending doom
D. Intermittent periods of unconsciousness

Back 544

544. Most patients who are having a heart attack will experience:
C. A feeling of impending doom

Front 545

545. What is the most common finding associated with CHF?
A. Low blood pressure
B. Bradycardia
C. Chest Pain
D. Fluid in the lungs

Back 545

545. What is the most common finding associated with CHF?
D. Fluid in the lungs

Front 546

546. When administering oral glucose to a patient who is either unconscious or has an
inability to swallow, what is this considered?
A. Action
B. Contraindication
C. An indication
D. A side effect

Back 546

546. When administering oral glucose to a patient who is either unconscious or has an
inability to swallow, what is this considered?
B. Contraindication

Front 547

547. You arrive on scene to find a patient with an altered level of consciousness
relating to a diabetic emergency. What is your first step in treating this patient?
A. Place the patient on their side
B. Begin suctioning the patient’s mouth
C. Provide Oxygen with a Nonrebreathing mask
D. Make sure that the airway is patent

Back 547

547. You arrive on scene to find a patient with an altered level of consciousness
relating to a diabetic emergency. What is your first step in treating this patient?
D. Make sure that the airway is patent

Front 548

548. Where should oral glucose be placed?
A. Between the cheek and gum of a conscious patient
B. On the tongue of a conscious patient
C. On the tongue of an unconscious patient
D. Between the cheek and gum of an unconscious patient

Back 548

548. Where should oral glucose be placed?
A. Between the cheek and gum of a conscious patient

Front 549

549. The definition of polydipsia is frequent:
A. Bouts of depression
B. Large volume urination
C. Seizure activity
D. Drinking to satisfy continuous thirst

Back 549

549. The definition of polydipsia is frequent:
D. Drinking to satisfy continuous thirst

Front 550

550. What are the possible complications if an unconscious patient is administered oral glucose?
A. Aspiration
B. Shock
C. Hypotension
D. Hyperglycemia

Back 550

550. What are the possible complications if an unconscious patient is administered oral glucose?
A. Aspiration

Front 551

551. The term “glucose” can be defined as:
A. An essential hormone
B. A basic sugar
C. A fight or flight hormone
D. A metabolic disorder

Back 551

551. The term “glucose” can be defined as:
B. A basic sugar

Front 552

552. What is Diabetes caused from?
A. Lack of ability to metabolize Insulin
B. Lack of ability to metabolize glucose
C. Lack of ability to metabolize Aspartame
D. Lack of ability to metabolize Saccharin

Back 552

552. What is Diabetes caused from?
B. Lack of ability to metabolize glucose

Front 553

553. The term “polyuria” can be defined as frequent:
A. Bouts of depression
B. Seizure activity
C. Large volume urination
D. Drinking to satisfy continuous thirst

Back 553

553. The term “polyuria” can be defined as frequent:
C. Large volume urination

Front 554

554. What are the waste products that are formed when fat is used for energy?
A. Ketones and fatty acids
B. Glucose and fatty acids
C. Pancreatic acids
D. Glucose and carbon dioxide

Back 554

554. What are the waste products that are formed when fat is used for energy?
A. Ketones and fatty acids

Front 555

555. Allergic reactions most often occur in responses to insect bites and stings,
medications, food and:
A. Cleansers
B. Dogs
C. Cosmetics
D. Plants

Back 555

555. Allergic reactions most often occur in responses to insect bites and stings,
medications, food and:
D. Plants

Front 556

556. When a patient experiences generalized itching and burning and there are raised reddened areas on their skin, this is indicative of:
A. Urticaria
B. Sunburn
C. Stridor
D. Heatstroke

Back 556

556. When a patient experiences generalized itching and burning and there are raised reddened areas on their skin, this is indicative of:
A. Urticaria

Front 557

557. What sound is heard that results from a blockage of smaller air passages in a patient having an anaphylactic reaction?
A. Exhalation
B. Stridor
C. Wheezing
D. Anaphylaxis

Back 557

557. What sound is heard that results from a blockage of smaller air passages in a patient having an anaphylactic reaction?
C. Wheezing

Front 558

558. You arrive on the scene of a patient who has consumed an unknown quantity of pills, what should be your first consideration in treating this patient?
A. Try and dilute the poison
B. Induce vomiting and contact poison control
C. Treat the patient for shock
D. Administer activated charcoal after contacting medical control

Back 558

558. You arrive on the scene of a patient who has consumed an unknown quantity of pills, what should be your first consideration in treating this patient?
D. Administer activated charcoal after contacting medical control

Front 559

559. A patient spilled some liquid fertilizer on his arms and hands and is now complaining of itching and burning. What is the best initial treatment for this patient?
A. Give Oxygen and begin transport
B. Irrigate the affected area for at least 20 minutes
C. Try to chemically neutralize the substance
D. Give the patient activated charcoal

Back 559

559. A patient spilled some liquid fertilizer on his arms and hands and is now complaining of itching and burning. What is the best initial treatment for this patient?
B. Irrigate the affected area for at least 20 minutes

Front 560

560. Which of the following findings will commonly appear in a patient who is having an allergic reaction?
A. Urticaria
B. Severe nausea
C. Hypertension
D. Chills

Back 560

560. Which of the following findings will commonly appear in a patient who is having an allergic reaction?
A. Urticaria

Front 561

561. When treating a patient who has inhaled a poison, you should:
A. Place a surgical mask on the patient
B. Find out if the patient has a headache
C. Move the patient into the fresh air
D. Encourage the patient to cough

Back 561

561. When treating a patient who has inhaled a poison, you should:
C. Move the patient into the fresh air

Front 562

562. If the area around the site of a toxic injection starts to swell, you should:
A. Remove all jewelry
B. Apply hot compresses
C. Squeeze the area to remove the toxic substance
D. Apply a roller bandage over the injection site

Back 562

562. If the area around the site of a toxic injection starts to swell, you should:
A. Remove all jewelry

Front 563

563. When dealing with absorbed poisons, you should not irrigate the contact area with water when the poison is:
A. Petroleum
B. Acid
C. Alkali
D. Phosphorus or elemental sodium

Back 563

563. When dealing with absorbed poisons, you should not irrigate the contact area with water when the poison is:
D. Phosphorus or elemental sodium

Front 564

564. You have just assessed a hiker who was bitten by a rattlesnake. As you continue care, you should not:
A. Keep the patient supine
B. Splint the extremity
C. Apply a cold pack to the bite
D. Try to keep the patient quiet

Back 564

564. You have just assessed a hiker who was bitten by a rattlesnake. As you continue care, you should not:
C. Apply a cold pack to the bite

Front 565

565. If a hypothermic patient is shivering, what does that indicate?
A. The nerve endings are damaged,causing loss of muscle control
B. The circulatory system is impaired and the body cannot maintain its temperature
C. The muscular system is damaged
D. The body is trying to generate more heat through muscular activity

Back 565

565. If a hypothermic patient is shivering, what does that indicate?
D. The body is trying to generate more heat through muscular activity

Front 566

566. The loss of body heat through perspiration is called:
A. Evaporation
B. Hypothermia
C. Conduction
D. Radiation

Back 566

566. The loss of body heat through perspiration is called:
A. Evaporation

Front 567

567. An elderly patient found lying on the cold, wet ground is losing body heat through:
A. Convection
B. Evaporation
C. Conduction
D. Radiation

Back 567

567. An elderly patient found lying on the cold, wet ground is losing body heat through:
C. Conduction

Front 568

568. The treatment for hypothermia in the field should include:
A. Giving the patient hot coffee to drink
B. Preventing blood loss
C. Stabilizing the vital signs and preventing further heat loss
D. Massaging the patient’s extremities

Back 568

568. The treatment for hypothermia in the field should include:
C. Stabilizing the vital signs and preventing further heat loss

Front 569

569. The term “radiation” is defined as the loss of body heat:
A. By touching a cold object
B. Through muscular activity
C. As a result of being in a colder environment
D. As a result of water changing from a liquid to a gas

Back 569

569. The term “radiation” is defined as the loss of body heat:
C. As a result of being in a colder environment

Front 570

570. A young patient is successfully revived at the scene of a near drowning, what
should you do next?
A. Advise him to visit his own doctor as soon as possible
B. Provide transport to the patient’s doctor
C. Take the patient home
D. Provide transport to the hospital

Back 570

570. A young patient is successfully revived at the scene of a near drowning, what
should you do next?
D. Provide transport to the hospital

Front 571

571. Which of the following may develop as a result of severe hypothermia?
A. Cardiac arrhythmia
B. CHF
C. CVA
D. Jaundice

Back 571

571. Which of the following may develop as a result of severe hypothermia?
A. Cardiac arrhythmia

Front 572

572. The principal goal in heat-related emergencies is to:
A. Provide rapid transport
B. Reduce the patient’s temperature
C. Make the patient comfortable
D. Replace lost fluids with salt water

Back 572

572. The principal goal in heat-related emergencies is to:
B. Reduce the patient’s temperature

Front 573

573. A person submerged in cold water will develop:
A. Hyperthermia
B. Jaundice
C. Hypothermia
D. Blisters

Back 573

573. A person submerged in cold water will develop:
C. Hypothermia

Front 574

574. When encountering a frightened patient, the best way to gain the confidence and effectively communicate with this patient is to:
A. Use medical terminology
B. Make and keep eye contact
C. Shout
D. Let them have some time to themselves

Back 574

574. When encountering a frightened patient, the best way to gain the confidence and effectively communicate with this patient is to:
B. Make and keep eye contact

Front 575

575. Which statement below concerning restraint of a patient is FALSE?
A. You should talk to the patient throughout the process
B. There should be two law enforcement officers present
C. Soft, wide leather restraints should be used
D. Use the minimum force necessary to restrain the patient

Back 575

575. Which statement below concerning restraint of a patient is FALSE?
B. There should be two law enforcement officers present

Front 576

576. When trying to manage a disruptive patient, you should:
A. Attempt to disarm the patient yourself if the patient has a weapon
B. Leave the patient alone for awhile
C. Keep your eyes on the patient at all times and be alert for aggressiveness
D. Turn your back on the patient to show that you are not a threat

Back 576

576. When trying to manage a disruptive patient, you should:
C. Keep your eyes on the patient at all times and be alert for aggressiveness

Front 577

577. A baby who weighs less than 5 pounds at birth is considered:
A. Full-term
B. Immature
C. Normal
D. Premature

Back 577

577. A baby who weighs less than 5 pounds at birth is considered:
D. Premature

Front 578

578. During the first stage of labor, you should usually:
A. Have time to transport the patient to the hospital
B. Help the patient walk around during contractions
C. Prepare for an emergency delivery at home
D. Hold the patient’s legs together to slow delivery

Back 578

578. During the first stage of labor, you should usually:
A. Have time to transport the patient to the hospital

Front 579

579. A patient in labor states that she feels that she has to have a bowel movement. This is the patient’s third child. What is the most appropriate action to take?
A. Ask her if she is about to deliver, if she states “no”, provide prompt transportation
B. Provide prompt transport because there is still plenty of time to get to the hospital
C. Provide immediate transport because it is always safer to deliver at the hospital
D. Prepare for delivery at the scene

Back 579

579. A patient in labor states that she feels that she has to have a bowel movement. This is the patient’s third child. What is the most appropriate action to take?
D. Prepare for delivery at the scene

Front 580

580. Where does the fetus develop?
A. Placenta
B. Uterus
C. Fundus
D. Umbilicus

Back 580

580. Where does the fetus develop?
B. Uterus

Front 581

581. What is the name of the fluid filled membrane where the fetus grows?
A. Placental sac
B. Perineal sac
C. Amniotic sac
D. Uterine sac

Back 581

581. What is the name of the fluid filled membrane where the fetus grows?
C. Amniotic sac

Front 582

582. Why is a prolapsed cord dangerous?
A. Baby’s head may compress the cord cutting off all circulation
B. Cord may be wrapped around the baby’s head causing strangulation
C. Cord may pull the placenta free during delivery
D. Baby’s head may tear the cord, causing hemorrhage

Back 582

582. Why is a prolapsed cord dangerous?
A. Baby’s head may compress the cord cutting off all circulation

Front 583

583. If a woman is having her first child, labor will probably:
A. Be longer than for a woman who has had other children
B. Last about 7 hours
C. Last several days
D. Be shorter than for a woman who has had other children

Back 583

583. If a woman is having her first child, labor will probably:
A. Be longer than for a woman who has had other children

Front 584

584. Immediately after delivery of the head, you must:
A. Suction the baby’s nose and mouth
B. Check the woman for bleeding
C. Check the position of the umbilical cord
D. Apply gentle pressure over the women’s abdomen

Back 584

584. Immediately after delivery of the head, you must:
A. Suction the baby’s nose and mouth

Front 585

585. During a breech delivery, prolapsed cords are more common.
A. True
B. False

Back 585

585. During a breech delivery, prolapsed cords are more common.
A. True

Front 586

586. A normal delivery when the infant is born head first is called a?
A. Cervix presentation
B. Occipital presentation
C. Breech presentation
D. Vertex presentation

Back 586

586. A normal delivery when the infant is born head first is called a?
D. Vertex presentation

Front 587

587. During what stage of labor would you assist with the delivery of the placenta?
A. Second
B. Fourth
C. First
D. Third

Back 587

587. During what stage of labor would you assist with the delivery of the placenta?
D. Third

Front 588

588. A conscious person in shock should be given:
A. Water
B. Nothing by mouth
C. Clear liquids
D. Coffee or tea

Back 588

588. A conscious person in shock should be given:
B. Nothing by mouth

Front 589

589. What part of the heart does Oxygen-rich blood go to?
A. Left side
B. Coronary arteries
C. Right Side
D. Alveoli

Back 589

589. What part of the heart does Oxygen-rich blood go to?
A. Left side

Front 590

590. What causes psychogenic shock?
A. Damage to the spinal column
B. Loss of blood or body fluid
C. Temporary, generalized vascular dilation
D. An allergic reaction to an insect bite

Back 590

590. What causes psychogenic shock?
C. Temporary, generalized vascular dilation

Front 591

591. Arterial bleeding is characterized by:
A. Dark red blood spurting from the wound
B. Bright red blood oozing from the wound
C. Dark red blood oozing from the wound
D. Bright red blood spurting from the wound

Back 591

591. Arterial bleeding is characterized by:
D. Bright red blood spurting from the wound

Front 592

592. What type of shock may be present if an average sized person lost 1 liter of blood?
A. Septic
B. Cardiogenic
C. Hypovolemic
D. Metabolic

Back 592

592. What type of shock may be present if an average sized person lost 1 liter of blood?
C. Hypovolemic

Front 593

593. What is a characteristic of venous bleeding?
A. Dark red blood spurting from the wound
B. Bright red blood spurting from the wound
C. Dark red blood flowing from the wound
D. Bright red blood flowing from the wound

Back 593

593. What is a characteristic of venous bleeding?
C. Dark red blood flowing from the wound

Front 594

594. Bleeding from the extremity is best controlled by:
A. Tourniquet and elevation
B. Pressure on arterial point
C. Direct pressure and elevation
D. Bandaging

Back 594

594. Bleeding from the extremity is best controlled by:
C. Direct pressure and elevation

Front 595

595. Late signs of internal bleeding include:
A. Reduced pulse and dilated pupils
B. Increased pulse and clammy skin
C. Reduced pulse and a soft abdomen
D. Increased pulse and warm skin

Back 595

595. Late signs of internal bleeding include:
B. Increased pulse and clammy skin

Front 596

596. Which part of the body deteriorates the fastest without constant perfusion?
A. Kidneys
B. Heart
C. Liver
D. Brain

Back 596

596. Which part of the body deteriorates the fastest without constant perfusion?
B. Heart

Front 597

597. Which of the following is an alternative method of applying a tourniquet?
A. BP Cuff
B. Rope
C. Belt
D. Narrow strip of bandage

Back 597

597. Which of the following is an alternative method of applying a tourniquet?
A. BP Cuff

Front 598

598. What type of shock results from an injury to the central nervous system?
A. Hemorrhagic
B. Psychogenic
C. Neurogenic
D. Anaphylactic

Back 598

598. What type of shock results from an injury to the central nervous system?
C. Neurogenic

Front 599

599. The use of Oxygen in the treatment of shock is considered to be:
A. A routine part of treatment
B. As a last measure if all other treatment fails
C. Useful only if the patient has difficulty breathing
D. Of no particular benefit to the patient

Back 599

599. The use of Oxygen in the treatment of shock is considered to be:
A. A routine part of treatment

Front 600

600. Which is not a characteristic of a contusion?
A. Swelling and pain
B. Severe blood loss
C. Unbroken skin
D. Discoloration

Back 600

600. Which is not a characteristic of a contusion?
B. Severe blood loss

Front 601

601. An occlusive dressing is most commonly used on a:
A. Sucking chest wound
B. Puncture wound
C. Closed fracture
D. Laceration

Back 601

601. An occlusive dressing is most commonly used on a:
A. Sucking chest wound

Front 602

602. What item listed below would you use to stabilize an impaled object?
A. Absorbent cotton
B. Occlusive dressing
C. Elastic bandage
D. Bulky dressing

Back 602

602. What item listed below would you use to stabilize an impaled object?
D. Bulky dressing

Front 603

603. Which of the below injuries is considered a closed injury?
A. Puncture
B. Laceration
C. Contusion
D. Avulsion

Back 603

603. Which of the below injuries is considered a closed injury?
C. Contusion

Front 604

604. Being struck by a blunt object causes what type of injury?
A. Abrasion
B. Concussion
C. Avulsion
D. Contusion

Back 604

604. Being struck by a blunt object causes what type of injury?
D. Contusion

Front 605

605. An open wound with capillary bleeding is called:
A. A contusion
B. An abrasion
C. A laceration
D. An avulsion

Back 605

605. An open wound with capillary bleeding is called:
B. An abrasion

Front 606

606. A patient has an impaled object projecting from their abdomen. What is the appropriate course of treatment?
A. Remove it and apply a pressure dressing
B. Leave it because removing it may cause profuse bleeding
C. Remove it to keep it from going deeper
D. Remove it to prevent infection

Back 606

606. A patient has an impaled object projecting from their abdomen. What is the appropriate course of treatment?
B. Leave it because removing it may cause profuse bleeding

Front 607

607. After bandaging a wound below the elbow, where should you recheck for impaired circulation?
A. Shoulder
B. Elbow
C. Fingers
D. Neck

Back 607

607. After bandaging a wound below the elbow, where should you recheck for impaired circulation?
C. Fingers

Front 608

608. A collection of blood in the tissues resulting from injury or a broken blood vessel is called:
A. A abrasion
B. A incision
C. A avulsion
D. A hematoma

Back 608

608. A collection of blood in the tissues resulting from injury or a broken blood vessel is called:
D. A hematoma

Front 609

609. To estimate the total body surface area burned, you would utilize the Rule of:
A. Ones
B. Tens
C. Nines
D. Fives

Back 609

609. To estimate the total body surface area burned, you would utilize the Rule of:
C. Nines

Front 610

610. The biceps are composed of what type of muscle?
A. Involuntary
B. Smooth
C. Cardiac
D. Voluntary

Back 610

610. The biceps are composed of what type of muscle?
D. Voluntary

Front 611

611. What is the name of the bone in the thigh that connects with the tibia at the knee?
A. Talus
B. Radius
C. Femur
D. Fibula

Back 611

611. What is the name of the bone in the thigh that connects with the tibia at the knee?
C. Femur

Front 612

612. What is the name of the flat, bony structure that attaches to the ribs in the front of the chest?
A. Sternum
B. Scapula
C. Clavicle
D. Humerus

Back 612

612. What is the name of the flat, bony structure that attaches to the ribs in the front of the chest?
A. Sternum

Front 613

613. What are the names of the two bones that make up the lower leg?
A. Tibia and femur
B. Patella and femur
C. Tibia and fibula
D. Fibula and femur

Back 613

613. What are the names of the two bones that make up the lower leg?
C. Tibia and fibula

Front 614

614. Which of the following bones are most commonly fractured?
A. Scapula
B. Clavicle
C. Phalanges
D. Metacarpals

Back 614

614. Which of the following bones are most commonly fractured?
B. Clavicle

Front 615

615. Which sign would be the most reliable in determining a possible fracture?
A. Point tenderness
B. Decrease in sensation
C. Bruising
D. Swelling

Back 615

615. Which sign would be the most reliable in determining a possible fracture?
A. Point tenderness

Front 616

616. Approximately how many bones are there in the human skeleton?
A. 206
B. 155
C. 251
D. 278

Back 616

616. Approximately how many bones are there in the human skeleton?
A. 206

Front 617

617. How would you typically splint a femur fracture?
A. A ladder splint
B. An air splint
C. A traction splint
D. A long spine board

Back 617

617. How would you typically splint a femur fracture?
C. A traction splint

Front 618

618. The principal purpose of splinting a fracture is to:
A. Prevent motion of any bony fragments
B. Immobilize only the most serious fractures
C. Force the tiny bone fragments back into anatomic alignment
D. Reduce the fracture, if possible

Back 618

618. The principal purpose of splinting a fracture is to:
A. Prevent motion of any bony fragments

Front 619

619. Your patient has a closed tibia fracture. The main reason for splinting is to prevent:
A. Infection
B. Shock
C. Hemorrhage
D. A closed fracture from becoming an open fracture

Back 619

619. Your patient has a closed tibia fracture. The main reason for splinting is to prevent:
D. A closed fracture from becoming an open fracture

Front 620

620. Which of the following assessments require the patient be alert and cooperative?
A. Assessing false motion
B. Monitoring the distal pulses
C. Assessing sensation and motor function
D. Monitoring capillary refill

Back 620

620. Which of the following assessments require the patient be alert and cooperative?
C. Assessing sensation and motor function

Front 621

621. When applying a traction splint, you should apply longitudinal pull until the:
A. Bone ends realign
B. Limb has completely straightened
C. Fracture is reduced
D. Limb fits into the splint

Back 621

621. When applying a traction splint, you should apply longitudinal pull until the:
D. Limb fits into the splint

Front 622

622. The cervical spine has how many vertebrae?
A. 12
B. 7
C. 5
D. 4

Back 622

622. The cervical spine has how many vertebrae?
B. 7

Front 623

623. The spinal cord is divided into how many sections?
A. 4
B. 3
C. 6
D. 5

Back 623

623. The spinal cord is divided into how many sections?
D. 5

Cervical, Thoracic, Lumbar, Sacral, Coccygeal

Front 624

624. Bruising around the eyes of a patient as a result of head injury is called:
A. Cerebral edema
B. Battle’s sign
C. Epidural hematoma
D. Raccoon eyes

Back 624

624. Bruising around the eyes of a patient as a result of head injury is called:
D. Raccoon eyes

Front 625

625. What is the first consideration on a patient with a head injury, after stabilization of the cervical spine?
A. Immobilize the patient’s head
B. Control bleeding
C. Establish and maintain an airway
D. Check for and stabilize any cervical spine injuries

Back 625

625. What is the first consideration on a patient with a head injury, after stabilization of the cervical spine?
C. Establish and maintain an airway

Front 626

626. On a patient who has experienced a head injury, you would expect their pupils to be:
A. Unequal
B. Equal and reactive
C. Paradoxical
D. Constricted

Back 626

626. On a patient who has experienced a head injury, you would expect their pupils to be:
A. Unequal

Front 627

627. Which of the following signs would NOT indicate an underlying head injury?
A. Fractured left femur
B. Blood or fluid leaking from the ears
C. Contusions or lacerations to the scalp
D. Bruising around the eyes

Back 627

627. Which of the following signs would NOT indicate an underlying head injury?
A. Fractured left femur

Front 628

628. One of the principal functions of an intervertebral disk is to:
A. Allow the spine some motion
B. Carry blood to the vertebrae
C. Serve as the point of attachment between the spine and muscle in the back
D. Provide for nerve function in the vertebrae

Back 628

628. One of the principal functions of an intervertebral disk is to:
A. Allow the spine some motion

Front 629

629. The Sacral spine has how many vertebrae?
A. 7
B. 5
C. 12
D. 4

Back 629

629. The Sacral spine has how many vertebrae?
B. 5

Front 630

630. The layers of tissue surrounding the brain and spinal cord are called:
A. Mesenteries
B. Parietal pleura
C. Meninges
D. Pleura

Back 630

630. The layers of tissue surrounding the brain and spinal cord are called:
C. Meninges

Front 631

631. When you find bleeding from the carotid artery, what is the best way to stop it?
A. Pressure dressings
B. Tourniquet
C. Direct manual pressure
D. Multi-trauma dressing

Back 631

631. When you find bleeding from the carotid artery, what is the best way to stop it?
C. Direct manual pressure

Front 632

632. The first 30 days after birth a child is considered:
A. A young child
B. A Infant
C. A neonate
D. A fetus

Back 632

632. The first 30 days after birth a child is considered:
C. A neonate

Front 633

633. A seizure that is associated with high fever, usually is of short duration, and doesn’t require any special treatment besides airway control is called:
A. An epileptic seizure
B. A focal motor seizure
C. A grand mal seizure
D. A febrile seizure

Back 633

633. A seizure that is associated with high fever, usually is of short duration, and doesn’t require any special treatment besides airway control is called:
D. A febrile seizure

Front 634

634. Which of the following is a bacterial infection that causes swelling of the flap of tissue covering the trachea?
A. Epiglottitis
B. Crepitus
C. Meningitis
D. Croup

Back 634

634. Which of the following is a bacterial infection that causes swelling of the flap of tissue covering the trachea?
A. Epiglottitis

Front 635

635. What is inflammation of the membranes of the brain and spinal cord called?
A. Diphtheria
B. Meningitis
C. Rubeola
D. Rubella

Back 635

635. What is inflammation of the membranes of the brain and spinal cord called?
B. Meningitis

Front 636

636. You arrive on scene to find a child in full arrest. Which of the adjuncts below provide the best ventilatory support?
A. HEPA mask
B. Nonrebreathing mask with a reservoir
C. Bag-valve-mask
D. Nasal cannula

Back 636

636. You arrive on scene to find a child in full arrest. Which of the adjuncts below provide the best ventilatory support?
C. Bag-valve-mask

Front 637

637. A child’s tongue is relatively __________ and more _________ in the mouth?
A. Larger, anterior
B. Smaller, posterior
C. Smaller, anterior
D. Larger, posterior

Back 637

637. A child’s tongue is relatively __________ and more _________ in the mouth?
A. Larger, anterior

Front 638

638. It is not recommended to use a nasopharyngeal airway on a child.
A. True
B. False

Back 638

638. It is not recommended to use a nasopharyngeal airway on a child.
B. False

Front 639

639. If a newborn infants heart rate is less _______, it is considered bradycardia.
A. 40
B. 100
C. 60
D. 80

Back 639

639. If a newborn infants heart rate is less _______, it is considered bradycardia.
B. 100

Front 640

640. The blood pressure may remain normal in a child in shock.
A. True
B. False

Back 640

640. The blood pressure may remain normal in a child in shock.
A. True

Front 641

641. What is the rate of compressions when performing CPR on a child?
A. 80
B. 90
C. 100
D. 120

Back 641

641. What is the rate of compressions when performing CPR on a child?
C. 100

Front 642

642. A blood loss of greater than ____% significally increases the risk of shock in children.
A. 20
B. 25
C. 30
D. 35

Back 642

642. A blood loss of greater than ____% significally increases the risk of shock in children.
B. 25

Front 643

643. You respond to an incident where you suspect SIDS. The most appropriate course of action would be to:
A. Begin BLS measures and transport the infant
B. Immobilize the infant to a spine board and transport
C. Call law enforcement in case of foul play
D. Ignore the parents until they are able to calm down

Back 643

643. You respond to an incident where you suspect SIDS. The most appropriate course of action would be to:
A. Begin BLS measures and transport the infant

Front 644

644. An important responsibility of the ambulance driver is to:
A. Get the patient to the hospital in a safe and efficient manner
B. Clear traffic using flashing lights and sirens
C. Get the patient to the hospital as quick as possible
D. Act as a chauffeur so the patient can be treated in the hospital

Back 644

644. An important responsibility of the ambulance driver is to:
A. Get the patient to the hospital in a safe and efficient manner

Front 645

645. When driving an ambulance with lights and siren, you must stop for a school bus which has its red lights flashing.
A. True
B. False

Back 645

645. When driving an ambulance with lights and siren, you must stop for a school bus which has its red lights flashing.
A. True

Front 646

646. What is an inherent hazard for an ambulance driving through an intersection where a green light is about to turn red is the chance that:
A. The ambulance may hydroplane on the pavement if it doesn’t slow down
B. The ambulance may not corner efficiently if it does not slow down
C. Your right of way privilege may be abused
D. Another motorist may be timing the red light to avoid stopping and will proceed into the intersection

Back 646

646. What is an inherent hazard for an ambulance driving through an intersection where a green light is about to turn red is the chance that:
D. Another motorist may be timing the red light to avoid stopping and will proceed into the intersection

Front 647

647. Where does the most common hazard occur when driving an ambulance?
A. Loss of braking ability
B. Hydroplaning incident
C. Intersection accident
D. Rollover accident

Back 647

647. Where does the most common hazard occur when driving an ambulance?
C. Intersection accident

Front 648

648. What type of aircraft is a helicopter considered?
A. Hinged wing
B. Fixed wing
C. Specialty wing
D. Rotary wing

Back 648

648. What type of aircraft is a helicopter considered?
D. Rotary wing

Front 649

649. What is the most important piece of safety equipment on the ambulance?
A. Turnout gear
B. SCBA
C. Seat belts
D. Debris gloves

Back 649

649. What is the most important piece of safety equipment on the ambulance?
C. Seat belts

Front 650

650. Simple access requires:
A. The use of small tools, such as screwdrivers
B. No equipment
C. That only one EMT-1 be present
D. Power tools, but only those carried on the ambulance

Back 650

650. Simple access requires:
B. No equipment

Front 651

651. When triaging, what would be considered the highest priority?
A. A 26-year old female with multiple lacerations, no pulse and no respirations
B. A 35-year old male who is unconscious and has a significant head laceration
C. A 24-year old male with a deformed lumbar spine and paralyzed legs
D. A 32-year old female with bilateral deformed femurs and no signs of shock

Back 651

651. When triaging, what would be considered the highest priority?
B. A 35-year old male who is unconscious and has a significant head laceration

Front 652

652. What cargo is placarded with red hazardous material placards?
A. Poisoning
B. Flammable
C. Explosive
D. Corrosive

Back 652

652. What cargo is placarded with red hazardous material placards?
B. Flammable

Front 653

653. What does the three-bladed “propeller” hazardous material placard indicate?
A. Nonflammable
B. Chlorine
C. Radioactive
D. Oxidized

Back 653

653. What does the three-bladed “propeller” hazardous material placard indicate?
C. Radioactive

Front 654

654. You arrive on the scene of an MCI, you, being the senior EMT on-scene are assigned Triage Officer. You determine you have one critical patient and other severely injured patients. What do you do when the next ambulance arrives?
A. Immediately transport the critical patient and transfer triage duties to the officer on the second ambulance.
B. Assign the critical patient to the second ambulance; once the critical patient is removed, you can eliminate the role of Triage Officer
C. Assign the critical patient to the second ambulance and accompany them on the transport
D. Assign the critical patient to the second ambulance, keep any extra personnel at the scene to help and continue as Triage Officer

Back 654

654. You arrive on the scene of an MCI, you, being the senior EMT on-scene are assigned Triage Officer. You determine you have one critical patient and other severely injured patients. What do you do when the next ambulance arrives?
D. Assign the critical patient to the second ambulance, keep any extra personnel at the scene to help and continue as Triage Officer

Front 655

655. Before you remove an injured patient from a vehicle involved in an accident, you must first:
A. Correct all life threatening injuries or problems
B. Initiate and maintain cervical spine stabilization
C. Immobilize the entire spine completely and securely
D. Select the proper immobilization device

Back 655

655. Before you remove an injured patient from a vehicle involved in an accident, you must first:
B. Initiate and maintain cervical spine stabilization

Front 656

656. What type of materials are transported with orange hazardous materials warning placards?
A. Poisonous
B. Flammable
C. Corrosive
D. Explosive

Back 656

656. What type of materials are transported with orange hazardous materials warning placards?
D. Explosive

Front 657

657. What is your principal concern when dealing with a HazMat situation?
A. Extrication
B. Cleanup
C. Safety
D. Scene control

Back 657

657. What is your principal concern when dealing with a HazMat situation?
C. Safety

Front 658

658. How many routes of medication delivery are there?
A. 5
B. 7
C. 9
D. 8

Back 658

658. How many routes of medication delivery are there?
C. 9

Front 659

659. Activated Charcoal is an example of a “solution” medication.
A. True
B. False

Back 659

659. Activated Charcoal is an example of a “solution” medication.
B. False

Front 660

660. Adsorption means to bind or stick to a surface
A. True
B. False

Back 660

660. Adsorption means to bind or stick to a surface
A. True

Front 661

661. Epinephrine, generally will:
A. Increase heart rate, decrease blood pressure
B. Increase the muscle tone of the bronchiole tree
C. Increase heart rate, increase blood pressure
D. Both A & B are correct

Back 661

661. Epinephrine, generally will:
C. Increase heart rate, increase blood pressure

Front 662

662. Intraosseous injections are administered into the:
A. Bone
B. Vein
C. Muscle
D. Skin

Back 662

662. Intraosseous injections are administered into the:
A. Bone

Front 663

663. The larynx is considered part of the upper airway.
A. True
B. False

Back 663

663. The larynx is considered part of the upper airway.
B. False

Front 664

664. The usual length of an adult Endotracheal tube is:
A. 25cm
B. 27cm
C. 42cm
D. 33cm

Back 664

664. The usual length of an adult Endotracheal tube is:
D. 33cm

Front 665

665. Another method of sizing endotracheal tubes in childeren is to select a tube that roughly equals the size of the diameter of the patient’s:
A. little finger
B. index finger
C. ring finger
D. middle finger

Back 665

665. Another method of sizing endotracheal tubes in childeren is to select a tube that roughly equals the size of the diameter of the patient’s:
A. little finger

Front 666

666. An EMT-B can utilize a multi-lumen airway, when indicated.
A. True, at any time
B. False
C. True, if trained and allowed by the Medical Director
D. True, after a base order

Back 666

666. An EMT-B can utilize a multi-lumen airway, when indicated.
C. True, if trained and allowed by the Medical Director

Front 667

667. Endotracheal intubation should take no longer than:
A. 20 seconds
B. 25 seconds
C. 30 seconds
D. 35 seconds

Back 667

667. Endotracheal intubation should take no longer than:
C. 30 seconds

Front 668

668. The body is composed of over ____% water.
A. 60
B. 65
C. 70
D. 75

Back 668

668. The body is composed of over ____% water.
C. 70

Front 669

669. What is another name for white blood cells?
A. Erythrocytes
B. Luekocytes
C. Mitocondria
D. Platelets

Back 669

669. What is another name for white blood cells?
B. Luekocytes

Front 670

670. The GEMS Diamond is designed to help you in assessing a geriatric patient. It recommends that you check the patients smoke detector.
A. True
B. False

Back 670

670. The GEMS Diamond is designed to help you in assessing a geriatric patient. It recommends that you check the patients smoke detector.
A. True

Front 671

671. The GEMS Diamond is designed to help you in assessing a geriatric patient. What does the “E” stand for?
A. Energy level
B. Enthusiasm
C. Environment
D. None of the above

Back 671

671. The GEMS Diamond is designed to help you in assessing a geriatric patient. What does the “E” stand for?
C. Environment

Front 672

672. The GEMS Diamond is designed to help you in assessing a geriatric patient. The “S” stands for social standing.
A. True
B. False

Back 672

672. The GEMS Diamond is designed to help you in assessing a geriatric patient. The “S” stands for social standing.
B. False

Front 673

673. If a patient takes multiple medications that can interact, what is that called?
A. Contraindication
B. Polyprescriptions
C. Indication
D. Polypharmacy

Back 673

673. If a patient takes multiple medications that can interact, what is that called?
D. Polypharmacy

Front 674

674. Pancreatitis can be caused by gall stones.
A. True
B. False

Back 674

674. Pancreatitis can be caused by gall stones.
A. True

Front 675

675. Ulcers are erosions of the stomach or:
A. Esophagus
B. Jejunum
C. Peritoneum
D. Duodenum

Back 675

675. Ulcers are erosions of the stomach or:
D. Duodenum

Front 676

676. Peritonitis typically causes:
A. Emesis
B. Ileus
C. Diverticulitis
D. Appendicitis

Back 676

676. Peritonitis typically causes:
B. Ileus

Front 677

677. It is recommended to elevate the patients legs if they are complaining of abdominal pain.
A. True
B. False

Back 677

677. It is recommended to elevate the patients legs if they are complaining of abdominal pain.
A. True

Front 678

678. MOI stands for:
A. Mode of Injury
B. Method of Injury
C. Mechanism of Injury
D. Modality of Injury

Back 678

678. MOI stands for:
C. Mechanism of Injury

Front 679

679. The energy of a moving object is called potential energy.
A. True
B. False

Back 679

679. The energy of a moving object is called potential energy.
B. False

Front 680

680. Newton’s _______ Law states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Fourth

Back 680

680. Newton’s _______ Law states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.
C. Third

Front 681

681. A coup-contrecuop brain injury occurs in the ______ phase in a frontal impact collision.
A. Third
B. Fourth
C. First
D. Second

Back 681

681. A coup-contrecuop brain injury occurs in the ______ phase in a frontal impact collision.
A. Third

Front 682

682. If the patient incurs a penetrating eye injury and a clear fluid called aqueous humor leaks out, it cannot be replaced.
A. True
B. False

Back 682

682. If the patient incurs a penetrating eye injury and a clear fluid called aqueous humor leaks out, it cannot be replaced.
B. False

Front 683

683. If a small foreign object is lying on the surface of the patient’s eyes, is it acceptable to flush the eye with a normal saline solution?
A. Yes, if regular water is not available
B. No, it should only be removed by Emergency Room personnel
C. Yes, if done gently
D. No, you must cover both eyes and transport as soon as possible

Back 683

683. If a small foreign object is lying on the surface of the patient’s eyes, is it acceptable to flush the eye with a normal saline solution?
C. Yes, if done gently

Front 684

684. If a patient suffers from chemical burns of the eye, you can only flush the eyes with normal saline, because it is pH balanced.
A. True
B. False

Back 684

684. If a patient suffers from chemical burns of the eye, you can only flush the eyes with normal saline, because it is pH balanced.
B. False

Front 685

685. If a patient has a penetrating injury to their eye, you may apply pressure to globe to control bleeding.
A. Yes, but gently
B. No
C. Yes, to manipulate it to cover it with a moist, sterile dressing
D. Either A or C is correct

Back 685

685. If a patient has a penetrating injury to their eye, you may apply pressure to globe to control bleeding.
B. No

Front 686

686. Hyphema is bleeding into the posterior chamber of the eye.
A. True
B. False

Back 686

686. Hyphema is bleeding into the posterior chamber of the eye.
B. False

Hint 686

hyphema is hemorrhage in the ANTERIOR chamber of the eye

Front 687

687. There are ___ major bones of the face
A. 4
B. 5
C. 3
D. 6

Back 687

687. There are ___ major bones of the face
D. 6

Front 688

688. If avulsed skin is still attached, place it back to a position as close to normal and hold it in place with a moist, sterile dressing.
A. True
B. False

Back 688

688. If avulsed skin is still attached, place it back to a position as close to normal and hold it in place with a moist, sterile dressing.
B. False

Front 689

689. Within each nasal chamber, there are ___ layers of bones called turbinates
A. 3
B. 4
C. 2
D. 6

Back 689

689. Within each nasal chamber, there are ___ layers of bones called turbinates
A. 3

Front 690

690. Epitaxis is uncontrolled bleeding from the?
A. Scalp
B. Ears
C. Nose
D. Mouth

Back 690

690. Epitaxis is uncontrolled bleeding from the?
C. Nose

Front 691

691. It is not necessary to recover any of the patients teeth as they cannot be repaired.
A. True
B. False

Back 691

691. It is not necessary to recover any of the patients teeth as they cannot be repaired.
B. False

Front 692

692. The right lung has ___ lobes and the left lung has ___ lobes
A. 4, 3
B. 2, 4
C. 2, 3
D. 3, 2

Back 692

692. The right lung has ___ lobes and the left lung has ___ lobes
D. 3, 2

Front 693

693. If a patient has tachypnea, they have a?
A. Rapid pulse
B. Slow respiration rate
C. Rapid respiration rate
D. Slow pulse

Back 693

693. If a patient has tachypnea, they have a?
C. Rapid respiration rate

Front 694

694. If a patient has bleeding into the plueral space, it is called a?
A. Hemothorax
B. Pneumothorax
C. Flail chest
D. hemopneumothorax

Back 694

694. If a patient has bleeding into the plueral space, it is called a?
A. Hemothorax

Front 695

695. What is it called when blood or other fluid collects in the fibrous sac around the heart?
A. Myocardial Contusion
B. Pericardial Tamponade
C. Myocardial Hematoma
D. Pericardial Centesis

Back 695

695. What is it called when blood or other fluid collects in the fibrous sac around the heart?
B. Pericardial Tamponade

Front 696

696. The spleen is located in which quandrant?
A. Lower Left
B. Upper Right
C. Upper Left
D. Lower Right

Back 696

696. The spleen is located in which quandrant?
C. Upper Left

Front 697

697. The appendix is located in which quandrant?
A. Lower Left
B. Upper Right
C. Upper Left
D. Lower Right

Back 697

697. The appendix is located in which quandrant?
D. Lower Right

Front 698

698. It is allowable to replace an organ that has been eviscerated.
A. True
B. False

Back 698

698. It is allowable to replace an organ that has been eviscerated.
B. False

Front 699

699. A Vesicant is a _______ agent.
A. Nerve
B. Choking
C. Blistering
D. Blood

Back 699

699. A Vesicant is a _______ agent.
C. Blistering

Front 700

700. Which Federal Agency deals with Security Advisory System
A. Department of Health and Safety (DHS)
B. Federal Bureau of Investigations (FBI)
C. Central Intelligence Agency (CIA)
D. Department of Homeland Security (DHS)

Back 700

700. Which Federal Agency deals with Security Advisory System
D. Department of Homeland Security (DHS)

Front 701

701. Which nerve agent is five times as lethal as Sarin?
A. Soman
B. Tabun
C. G agents
D. V agent

Back 701

701. Which nerve agent is five times as lethal as Sarin?
A. Soman

Front 702

702. V agent (VX) is the most toxic chemical ever produced.
A. True
B. False

Back 702

702. V agent (VX) is the most toxic chemical ever produced.
A. True

Front 703

703. On the mnemonic SLUDGEM, what does “L” stand for?
A. Lactating
B. Lethargic
C. Lacrimating
D. None of the above

Back 703

703. On the mnemonic SLUDGEM, what does “L” stand for?
C. Lacrimating

Front 704

704. There are ___ types of radiation.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. 5

Back 704

704. There are ___ types of radiation.
B. 4

Front 705

705. A procedure to reduce vomiting and possible aspiration during intubation is referred to as what?
A. Newman Manuever
B. Redford Manuever
C. Hudson Manuever
D. Sellick Manuever

Back 705

705. A procedure to reduce vomiting and possible aspiration during intubation is referred to as what?
D. Sellick Manuever

Front 706

706. A curved laryngoscope blade is called a Miller blade.
A. True
B. False

Back 706

706. A curved laryngoscope blade is called a Miller blade.
B. False

Front 707

707. The vallecula is the space between the base of the tongue and the epiglottis?
A. True
B. False

Back 707

707. The vallecula is the space between the base of the tongue and the epiglottis?
A. True

Front 708

708. A good rule of thumb is to always have a ___mm ET tube on hand as this size will fit most men and women.
A. 8.0
B. 7.5
C. 7.0
D. 6.5

Back 708

708. A good rule of thumb is to always have a ___mm ET tube on hand as this size will fit most men and women.
B. 7.5

Front 709

709. An endotracheal intubation should take no longer than ____ ?
A. 20 seconds
B. 25 seconds
C. 30 seconds
D. 1 minute

Back 709

709. An endotracheal intubation should take no longer than ____ ?
C. 30 seconds

Front 710

710. When it comes to Intravenous catheters, a large diameter catheter corresponds to a smaller guage.
A. True
B. False

Back 710

710. When it comes to Intravenous catheters, a large diameter catheter corresponds to a smaller guage.
A. True

Front 711

711. The escape of fluid into the surrounding tissue during an intravenous canulation is called what?
A. Occlusion
B. Fluid hematoma
C. Inflitration
D. Phlebitis

Back 711

711. The escape of fluid into the surrounding tissue during an intravenous canulation is called what?
C. Inflitration

Front 712

712. There are ___ basic types of arrhythmias
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6

Back 712

712. There are ___ basic types of arrhythmias
C. 5

Front 713

713. When placing a patient on a 4 lead ECG, the black lead should be placed on the patients?
A. Left shoulder
B. Right shoulder
C. Left leg
D. Right leg

Back 713

713. When placing a patient on a 4 lead ECG, the black lead should be placed on the patients?
A. Left shoulder

Front 714

714. Geriatric patients generally do not experience “crushing” chest pain when they are having an Myocardial Infarction.
A. True
B. False

Back 714

714. Geriatric patients generally do not experience “crushing” chest pain when they are having an Myocardial Infarction.
A. True

Front 715

715. Nearly ____% of geriatric patients will die within the first 12 months following a fracture of the ______?
A. 10, leg
B. 20, hip
C. 25, arm
D. 20, ribs

Back 715

715. Nearly ____% of geriatric patients will die within the first 12 months following a fracture of the ______?
B. 20, hip