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77 Cards in this Set
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4. The Acute Phase of rape trauma syndrome is characterized by:
a disbelief b fear c denial d depression |
A. Although coping with sexual assault is influenced by an individual’s personality, support system, the responding professionals’ reactions after the assault and the assault itself, research has shown that there is a set of characteristic reactions, referred to as the Rape Trauma Syndrome, that many sexually assaulted individuals experience. The Acute Distress stage immediately follows the assault and is associated with an acute reaction taking the form of shock, disbelief, and dismay. Two styles of responding to the assault include an Expressive style (crying, sobbing, shaking, restlessness, tenseness), and a Controlled style (appearing calm, subdued, numb). The Outward Adjustment stage is characterized by denial (c.), suppression or rationalization; and the Integration stage, which can overlap the others, is the long-term response of striving to come to terms with the assault.
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2. According to Bass, transformational leadership contains four interrelated components. Which of the following is characterized by high moral and ethical standards?
a intellectual stimulation b inspirational motivation c individualized consideration d idealized influence |
D. Bass (1985) suggested that transformational leadership contains the interrelated components of idealized or charisma influence (attributed or behavioral), inspirational motivation, intellectual stimulation, and individualized consideration. In truly transformational leadership, high morals and ethical standards characterize charismatic or idealized influence. In research by Podsakoff, MacKenzie, Moorman and Fetter (1990), trust was found to be the single most important variable moderating the effects of transformational leadership on the performance, attitudes, and satisfaction of the followers. Inspirational motivation (b.) provides followers with meaning and challenges for engaging in undertakings and shared goals. Intellectual stimulation (a.) helps followers to question assumptions and to generate more creative solutions to problems. Individual consideration (c.) treats each follower as an individual and provides coaching, mentoring and growth opportunities. (See: Bass, B. (1985). Leadership and performance beyond expectations. New York: The Free Press. Bass, B. (1998). Transformational leadership: Industry, military, and educational impact.
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1. Significant evidence of retrograde and anterograde amnesia, restlessness, and fluent aphasia are most characteristic of which stage in Alzheimer's Dementia?
a first b second c third d fourth |
B. Alzheimer's Disease is often categorized into 3 stages. In Stage 1, which lasts 2-4 years, short-term memory loss begins. Patients in this stage frequently complain about forgetting where they placed things. In Stage 2, which lasts 2-10 years, there is further memory impairment (mostly explicit rather than implicit), resulting in retrograde and anterograde amnesia. During this intermediate stage, patients often exhibit restlessness, flat or labile mood, fluent aphasia, and begin having difficulty performing complex tasks, such as balancing a checkbook or going grocery shopping. They may get lost in familiar places and become apathetic. In the final stage -- Stage 3 -- which lasts 1-3 years, there is serious impairment in most areas. During Stage 3, they may lose the ability to speak and become unable to recognize family, friends, or even themselves. They lose all capacity to care for themselves and have difficulty walking, are incontinent, and are ultimately bedridden and often die of an opportunistic respiratory infection.
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6. Decisions made by a group are typically better than those made individually when:
a the group is highly cohesive b the group leader is directive c the task requires a high degree of creativity d members of the group have complementary skills |
D. One of the major obstacles to good group decision-making is groupthink. Groupthink is an intensive tendency to seek agreement among members of the group, which prevents full consideration of alternative decisions, to the point where the decisions reached may become irrational. Some of the factors which contribute to groupthink include: high group cohesiveness, homogeneous backgrounds and values, and a strong, directive leader. A group consisting of members with complementary skills is not homogeneous, and would be less likely to succumb to groupthink. Contrary to Choice C, tasks which require a high degree of creativity tend to be performed better by individuals than groups.
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7. A father brings his 10-year-old son to a psychologist for therapy due to symptoms of depression. The father states that the boy's symptoms began shortly after the parents separated several months ago. The boy is currently living with his father. The father further states that he only wants help for his son and does not want any report or testimony from the psychologist for the divorce proceedings. The psychologist should:
a have both parents sign an agreement that neither will require the psychologist to provide a report or testimony about the child's therapy b contact the parents' attorneys to clarify the psychologist's role c refuse to treat the child unless you can evaluate both parents d provide therapy for the child but do not maintain any records that could be subpoenaed |
B. Ethical Standard 10.02(b) states, "If it becomes apparent that psychologists may be called on to perform potentially conflicting roles (such as family therapist and then witness for one party in divorce proceedings), psychologists take reasonable steps to clarify and modify, or withdraw from, roles appropriately." Although the patient's father has indicated that he does not want a report or testimony from the psychologist, it would be more prudent to clarify the psychologist's role with the attorneys of each of the parents. Having the parents sign an agreement as suggested in "A" does imply a clarification of the psychologist's role, but it may not be legally binding or in the child's best interests and is not as good a choice as "B." Choice "C" is incorrect because although it is necessary to evaluate all members of a family before making recommendations regarding child custody, in this case, it is therapy that is requested, not a custody evaluation. Finally, "D" is incorrect because psychologists must maintain adequate records.
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8. Psychodiagnostic tests such as the WAIS-III are commonly utilized to assist in the diagnosis of traumatic brain injury (TBI). Which of the following WAIS-III factor indices is most likely to be impacted by traumatic brain injury?
a Perceptual Organization b Processing Speed c Verbal Comprehension d Working Memory |
B. Processing Speed
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11. Which of the Big Five personality traits is least stable over time?
a Conscientiousness b Extraversion c Agreeableness d Neuroticism |
D. Neuroticism
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13. When the local public library removes a book from its shelves because of the book's shocking sexual content, sales of the book in the local bookstores rise sharply. This is an example of
a the rebound phenomenon. b reactance. c reaction formation. d reactivity. |
B. The tendency to react in a way that is opposite of what is requested or desired is referred to as psychological reactance. Reactance is most likely to occur when the individual feels that his/her personal freedom is being restricted, which would probably be the case in the situation described in the question
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14. The strongest bond among Hispanic-American families is typically between:
a parent and child b husband and wife c siblings d godparent and godchild |
A. Parent and child
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16. Employees are provided with a training program designed to improve the quality of their work. At the conclusion of the training program a supervisor administers a test to the employees. Three months later the same supervisor evaluates the employees on their job performance and correlates the two scores. The correlation between the scores is 0.70. The results are most likely biased due to:
a a contrast effect b a restricted range of scores c criterion contamination d demand characteristics |
C. Criterion contamination occurs when a rater knows how a ratee did on a predictor test, and this knowledge affects the rating. For example, if an employee obtained a very high score on the post-training test and the supervisor knows this, the supervisor's ratings of the employee's on-the-job performance might be biased upward. To prevent criterion contamination, the rater should have no knowledge of the ratees' predictor scores. Contrast effect (A) refers to the tendency to give ratings on the basis of comparisons to other ratees. There is no indication that there is a restricted range of scores (B), and if there was, that would reduce the correlation between the predictor and criterion scores. Demand characteristics (D) are cues in the environment that inform research participants what behaviors are expected of them.
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17. Which of the following variables is most strongly related to positive outcome after exposure to a highly stressful situation?
a perceived social support b actual social support c accessible social support d quality of social support |
A. Perceived social support
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18. If someone achieves a score of 30 on a standardized test with a standard error of measurement of 5 points, what is the approximate probability that the person's true score is between 20 and 40?
a 2/3 b 4/5 c 9/10 d 19/20 |
D. The range given in the question encompasses the obtained score plus and minus two standard errors of measurement. That is, the standard error of measurement is 5, and the range is 10 points (2 X 5) below the obtained score to 10 points above the obtained score. One thing you should memorize is that there is about a 95% probability that a person's true score lies within two standard errors of measurement of the obtained score. But even if you knew that, you might have had trouble with this question, since the choices are given as fractions, not percentages. To answer it correctly, you needed to figure out that 19/20 is the fractional equivalent of 95%.
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26. A person whose corpus callosum has been severed will be able to do all of the following except
a name an object he cannot see but has felt with his left hand. b say "spoon" when a picture of a spoon is flashed to his right visual field at the same time that a picture of a plate is flashed to his left visual field. c use his left hand to find and match an object that appears in his left visual field. d repeat a sentence that has been whispered into his right ear. |
A. Remember, the left side of the brain controls the functions of the right side of the body and, in most people, language. Keeping this in mind would have helped you pick the right answer to this question.
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27. According to Prochaska and DiClemente's Stages of Change Model, which stage best applies to a man who is aware of his drinking problem, recognizes the benefits of getting sober, and plans to quit drinking on his birthday in three months?
a Minimization b Precontemplation c Contemplation d Preparation |
C. Prochaska and DiClemente described five Stages of Change in their model – which applies to many types of behaviors – not just substance abuse. The first stage is "Precontemplation," characterized by denial, resistance, and no plans to change. In the second stage, "Contemplation," a person begins to recognize the benefits of change and, although somewhat ambivalent, plans to change within the next 6 months. This best describes the person in this question. In the third stage, "Preparation," a person has decided to take action within the next 30 days and may have already begun to take small steps towards change. In the next stage, "Action," the person is actively engaged in making changes or acquiring new behaviors. The final stage is the "Maintenance" stage, in which the person has maintained action for at least 6 months and is actively working to prevent a relapse.
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28. Personal reality and common reality were defined by:
a Ginzberg’s Stages of Career Development b Super’s Career and Life Development c Miller-Tiedeman and Tiedeman’s Decision Making Model d Gottfredson’s Theory of Career Development |
C. Miller-Tiedeman and Tiedeman defined personal authoritative reality as what feels right to the individual and common reality as what the individual is told they should do. This was an expansion on Tiedeman and O’Hare’s Decision Making Model. The other responses also represent stage theories of career choice. Ginzberg’s theory contains three periods (fantasy, tentative, and realistic) with sub-stages corresponding to ages preteen through the early 20’s. (See: Ginzberg, E., Ginzberg, S.W., Axelrad, S., & Herman, J.L. (1951). Occupational Choice: an approach to a general theory. New York: Columbia University Press; Ginzberg, E. (1972). Toward a theory of occupational choice: A restatement. Vocational Guidance Quarterly, 20, 169-176.) Super’s stages continue across the life-span. In Gottfredson’s theory, there are four stages of cognitive development: orientation to size and power; orientation to sex roles; influence of social class; introspection and perceptiveness. The first stage typically begins around age 3 and the last in mid-adolescence. The theory addresses how gender and prestige influence and limit career choice.
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29. The validity coefficient of a new job selection test is 0.25. This test would most likely be useful when:
a the percentage of correct hiring decisions without the new test is very low b the percentage of correct hiring decisions without the new test is very high c there are many applicants for few job openings d there are few applicants for many job openings |
This question is referring to a test's incremental validity. Incremental validity is the increase in decision-making accuracy resulting from the use of a particular predictor. Three factors influence the incremental validity of a test: 1) the base rate, or the percentage of correct hiring decisions made when the test is not used; 2) the test's validity coefficient; and 3) the selection ratio, or the ratio of job openings to total applicants (for instance, if 100 people are applying for 5 positions, the selection ratio is 5/100, or .05).
Incremental validity is greatest when the base rate is moderate, the validity coefficient is high, and the selection ratio is low. The Taylor-Russell tables can be used to determine a test's incremental validity, given specific values for the base rate, validity coefficient, and selection ratio. We can eliminate Choices A and B because a moderate base rate maximizes the usefulness of a selection test more than a low or high base rate does. Contrary to Choice D, a low selection ratio (many applicants for few job openings) is better than a high selection ratio. |
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31. Which of the following is one of the first signs of AIDS-related dementia?
a loss of abstract thinking functions b mild memory loss for recent events c seizures d apathy |
B. AIDS dementia complex occurs in about 2/3 of all AIDS patients. Usually, one of the first cognitive signs of dementia (both in AIDS and non-AIDS patients) is a loss of concentration and a mild memory loss, especially for recent events.
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33. By the time an individual diagnosed with __________________ reaches middle age, particularly the fourth decade of life, the symptoms often become less evident or remit to no longer meeting all the diagnostic criteria.
a Histrionic Personality Disorder b Avoidant Personality Disorder c Antisocial Personality Disorder d Schizotypal Personality Disorder |
C. The symptoms of Antisocial Personality Disorder (APD), particularly criminal behaviors, often become less evident as an individual grows older (DSM-TR-IV, p. 704). APD has a chronic course and while some symptoms like criminal behaviors may decrease, other symptoms such as difficulties with interpersonal relationships may persist.
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37. While studying the use of journaling in the treatment of depression, a researcher finds only individuals with good writing ability benefit from journaling. Writing ability is a(n):
a outcome variable b mediating variable c moderator variable d feedback variable |
C. The strength of the relationship between the independent and dependent variables is affected by a moderator variable. Writing ability is moderating the effects of journaling on the treatment of depression. Outcome variable (a.) is another term for dependent variable. A mediating variable (c.) is affected by the independent variable and affects the dependent. It is responsible for an observed relationship between an independent variable and a dependent (outcome) variable. A feedback variable (d.) is an unrelated term.
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38. If a student scored between 1 and 2 standard deviations above the mean in a normal distribution of scores, you could conclude that the student's
a T-score is greater than 70 b z-score is greater than 2 c percentile rank is between 68 and 95 d percentile rank is between 84 and 98 |
D. Remember that 50% of all scores in a normal distribution fall below the mean and 50% fall above the mean. And 68% of scores fall within +/- 1 SD of the mean. If you divide 68% by 2, you get 34% (the percentage of scores that fall between 0 and +1 SD). If you then add that 34% to the 50% that fall below the mean, you get a percentile rank of 84. Thus, the 84 percentile score is equivalent to 1 SD above the mean. The same calculation is used for determining the percentile rank at 2 standard deviations. Since 95% of all scores fall within +/- 2 SD, we divide 95% by 2 which equals 47.5 and add that to the 50% which falls below the mean, which totals 97.5 (rounded off = 98). Thus, the percentile rank is between 84 and 98.
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40. Of the following groups, which one would probably have better metacognition skills?
a mentally retarded children b children of average intelligence c children who have an IQ score of one standard deviation above the mean d gifted children |
D. gifted children
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46. Which of the following factors are considered most important for competent multicultural counseling?
a commitment, sensitivity, and technique b sensitivity, instillation of hope, and acceptance c acceptance, awareness, and flexibility d awareness, knowledge, and skills |
D. awareness, knowledge, skills
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49. The prevalence of mental disorders in people over 65 is:
a higher than any other age group b lower than any other age group c higher, and includes cognitive impairment d The same as the under 65 population |
B. Contrary to what may be expected, the prevalence of mental disorders in people 65 and older is lower than any other age group; only cognitive impairment shows a definite age-associated increase in incidence.
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50. Which of the following statements best reflects the cross-cultural findings on emotions?
a Most researchers have only found fear, anger, and sadness to be universal emotions. b Most researchers agree on the existence of 12 basic emotions. c Most researchers have disputed the existence of universal basic emotions. d Most researchers have agreed on the existence of at least 6 basic emotions, but have disagreed on the inclusion of several other emotions as basic. |
D.
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51. One of the highest correlations with smoking cessation outcome is related to
a gender. b level of dependence. c age. d duration of smoking |
B.
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53. The condition describing a side-effect of antipsychotic medication that is incorrectly matched with its symptoms is:
a akathisia — inability to sit, constantly pacing, restlessness b dysarthia — imperfect articulation of speech c akinesia — appears to be slow moving, indifferent to stimuli, emotionally constricted d opisthotonus — spasms in the lower extremities |
D. All four terms describe possible short-term side effects of antipsychotic medications, especially the older antipsychotics associated with extrapyramidal syndrome (EPS) which include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, dyskinesia and akathisia. Opisthotonus (d.) refers to whole body spasm, oculogyric crisis refers to rapid eye movements and dysarthia (b.) refers to imperfect articulation of speech. These are some of the symptoms of dystonia and dyskinesia. Akathisia (a.) is most common after about a week of treatment and characterized by constant pacing or an inability to sit still. Akinesia (c.) is one of the side effects associated with Parkinsonism, a neurologic side effect of typical antipsychotic medication
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55. Which of the following best describes the purpose of reframing in family therapy?
a It is a paradoxical technique designed to harness the family's resistance in the service of positive behavioral change. b It is designed to increase the family's compliance with the therapist's directives and the treatment plan in general. c It is designed to restore the family's homeostasis, or "balance." d It is designed to increase the family's ability to differentiate intellectual from emotional functioning. |
B.Reframing is a technique of family therapy, especially structural and strategic family therapy. It involves relabeling or redefining a problem behavior in order to get the family to see it in a new light. For example, a therapist might tell a family that a child who frequently "talks back" is expressing insecurity and the need for love, rather than anger and disrespect. The purpose of reframing is usually to increase the family's compliance with treatment. In the example given, reframing might increase the family members' willingness to make changes in their own behavior, rather than focusing only on the identified patient.
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56. The parents of a child with Mental Retardation are most likely to say that, during infancy, one of the earliest signs that something "was wrong" was
a the child's failure to cuddle. b the child's lack of eye contact. c the child's lack of interest in the environment. d the persistence of primitive reflexes. |
C. Answers A and B are more characteristic of Autistic Disorder, and answer D is more likely in cerebral palsy or other serious motor disorder. Lack of age-appropriate interest in the environment is one of the earliest signs of retardation.
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57. According to the theory underlying Gestalt therapy, introjection involves:
a viewing other people's emotions as one's own b failing to develop a healthy "social interest" c blaming oneself for the problems of others d interpreting the values of the larger society as one's own |
D.
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58. Children of divorced parents not only have to adjust to their parents' separation but often have to eventually adapt to the remarriage of one or both of their parents. Investigators looking as the impact of stepparents have found that
a stepmothers discipline their stepchildren more than the children's biological mothers. b stepmothers have more difficulty with stepsons than with stepdaughters. c stepfathers provide less support, less control, and less punishment than biological fathers. d stepfathers get along better with stepdaughters than with stepsons. |
C. They are more likely to be uninvolved
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62. Behavioral assessments are useful for determining behavioral:
a contingencies b consequences c constraints d interventions |
A. contingencies (same as antecedents and consequences maintaining the behavior)
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69. Which of the following statements is not true regarding concurrent validity?
a It is used to establish criterion-related validity. b It is appropriate for tests designed to assess a person's future status on a criterion. c It is obtained by collecting predictor and criterion scores at about the same time. d It indicates the extent to which a test yields the same results as other measures of the same phenomenon. |
B. There are two ways to establish the criterion-related validity of a test: concurrent validation and predictive validation. In concurrent validation, predictor and criterion scores are collected at about the same time; by contrast, in predictive validation, predictor scores are collected first and criterion data are collected at some future point. Concurrent validity indicates the extent to which a test yields the same results as other measures of the same phenomenon. For example, if you developed a new test for depression, you might administer it along with the BDI and measure the concurrent validity of the two tests.
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72. Negative reinforcement is essential to:
a escape conditioning. b punishment. c aversion conditioning. d phobias. |
A. The concept of negative reinforcement involves increasing the likelihood of a behavior through the elimination of an aversive stimulus (the negative part). As you might recall, this is exactly what the dog does by learning to escape the electric shock by jumping to the other side of the cage. This is the classic example of escape conditioning. Jumping to the other side is reinforced by the elimination of the aversive stimulus. You may have chosen punishment, but this is the common error of confusing negative reinforcement with punishment. To avoid this error, keep in mind that reinforcement (whether negative or not) and punishment are antithetical.
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74. Minuchin, the founder of structural family therapy, defines "triangulation" as occurring when
a the child and one parent "gang up" on the other parent. b the parents either consistently attack or protect the child. c each parent demands that the child side with him/her. d two members of the family consistently challenge the therapist's authority. |
C. Minuchin defines three types of "rigid triangles" that involve chronic boundary disturbances – triangulation (answer C); detouring (answer B); and a stable coalition (answer A).
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76. Slot machines provide reinforcement on a(n) ________ schedule.
a variable interval b variable ratio c fixed interval d fixed ratio |
B. When playing the slot machines, reinforcement depends on the number of times you play, with that number varying from reinforcement to reinforcement. Sometimes you "win" after 8 plays, sometimes after 12, and so on. This is a variable ratio schedule.
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80. In the classical conditioning paradigm, backward conditioning has been found to be:
a ineffective. b moderately effective. c more effective than simultaneous conditioning. d more effective than delayed conditioning. |
A. Backward conditioning occurs when the UCS precedes the CS. Think of it as giving Spot the food and then sounding the buzzer.
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conventional antipsychotic drugs is that it is
a significantly more effective for the negative symptoms of Schizophrenia. b less likely to produce anticholinergic effects. c less likely to cause agranulocytosis. d often effective for those who don't respond to conventional drugs. |
D. The atypical antipsychotic clozapine affects different neurotransmitters than conventional antipsychotics and, to some degree, has different side effects. For example, although it doesn't produce tardive dyskinesia, it does cause agranulocytosis, a potentially fatal blood disease. An important advantage of clozapine is that it's often effective when conventional antipsychotic drugs aren't.
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89. According to equity theory, individuals are most likely to feel content and maintain their level of performance when:
a they perceive a balance between their contributions and the benefits they receive b they perceive their input-output ratio as equal to others c they accept the goals, even if the goals were assigned by their supervisor d there is no adverse impact |
B. Equity theory holds that, in any work situation we assess both our input (how much effort we are contributing to a work situation) and our output (how much we get out of it). We then compare our input/output ratio to what we perceive are the ratios of our co-workers. A state of balance exists when we perceive that our input/output ratios are equal to those of our co-workers. If our input/output ratio is not equal to the ratios of others, a state of inequity exists and we will be motivated to create equity. Choice A does not address the comparison to others. Choice C is related to Goal-setting theory. Adverse impact (D) is an important concept, but is not related to equity theory.
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96. Which of the following aspects of the Type A behavior pattern, is, according to research, most strongly connected to increased risk for coronary heart disease?
a job involvement b anger and hostility c need for achievement c impatience |
B. Anger and hostility
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97. Kohlberg's theory of moral development is based on the assumption that progress through his hypothesized stages is related to
a changes in social perspective. b changes in self-concept. c socioemotional development. d identity development. |
A. Changes in social perspective. Kohlberg believed that the three levels of moral reasoning reflect different levels of cognitive development, which encompasses changes in social perspective-taking. At the conventional level, the person views an individual as a member of society and bases his/her moral judgments on that conceptualization.
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99. You have developed and administered a reading enrichment program for gifted children. A friend of yours, who happens to be a newspaper reporter, asks you if his 7-year old daughter can enroll in the program. Would it be ethical for you to agree to enroll her?
a Yes, as long as the reporter doesn't give you any publicity for the program in exchange. b Yes, as long as the friend pays the same amount for the program as everybody else and his daughter meets the requirements for enrollment in the program. c No, because, if you did, you'd be involved in a dual relationship. d No, because the reporter may feel pressured into giving your program free publicity. |
C. Standard 3.05(a) of the Ethics Code applies here. It states in part that “A psychologist refrains from entering into a multiple relationship if the multiple relationship could reasonably be expected to impair the psychologist's objectivity, competence, or effectiveness in performing his or her functions as a psychologist, or otherwise risks exploitation or harm to the person with whom the professional relationship exists.” Here, the risk for such harm is present. For instance, your objectivity might be impaired because of your friendship with the reporter.
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105. According to Piaget, the concrete operations stage occurs during:
a 2 to 5 years b 5 to 7 years c 7 to 11 years d 11 to 16 years |
C. 7-11 years
sensorimotor: Birth - 2years preoperational: 2 - 7 years concrete operational: 7 - 11 years formal operational: 11 - 16 years |
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111. A member of which of the following groups is most likely to be admitted to an inpatient mental health facility?
a never married men b divorced/separated men c married men d never married women |
A. Never married men
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114. Erikson's final developmental stage is:
a generativity vs. stagnation. b contentment vs. despondency. c intimacy vs. isolation. d ego integrity vs. despair. |
D. Ego integrity vs. despair
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116. As opposed to industrial psychology, the approach of engineering psychology is to fit the
a job to the worker. b worker to the job. c job to the organization. d worker to the organization. |
A. Job to the worker. The engineering psychologist tends to examine the factors making up the job and how these impact the worker. The job elements, from such things as the illumination in the plant to the work rate, are manipulated to maximize the productive work of the employee. Fitting the worker to the job (e.g., hiring better people) is a function of personnel psychology. By contrast, the engineering psychologist works with the job elements and designs the most productive environment for the worker hired.
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117. A person taking an MAO inhibitor must always avoid consuming all of the following, except:
a beer and wine. b cottage cheese. c packaged soup. d aged cheese. |
B. Individuals taking MAO inhibitors (a class of anti-depressants) must avoid foods that are high in the amino acid tyramine; otherwise, they may experience a life-threatening hypertensive reaction. Foods that these individuals must always avoid include beer and wine, aged cheese, beef or chicken liver, orange pulp, pickled or smoked meats, packaged soups, and yeast vitamin supplements. Cottage cheese is considered safe.
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120. According to Piaget, a child in the autonomous stage of development believes that
a rules are absolute b rules are useless c rules are arbitrary and alterable d punishment should be based on the damage caused by a behavior |
C. Piaget distinguished two stages of moral development: heteronomous and autonomous. Heteronomous morality is characteristic of children 4-7 years old. The heteronomous child views rules as absolute (Choice "A") and unchangeable and believes that punishment should fit the consequences of the behavior (regardless of the intentions of the actor) (Choice "D"). By age 7 or 8 children begin to exhibit autonomous morality, in which they realize that rules are determined, and agreed to, by individuals and are, therefore, alterable. They also consider the intention of the actor to be most important in determining punishment.
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122. Vygotsky's work has most influenced which of the following teaching strategies?
a computer-adaptive testing b reciprocal teaching c Montessori method d cognitive constructivism |
B. Vygotsky's theory of cognitive development emphasized the role of social and cultural factors. He believed that learning occurs best through social interaction. His approach has influenced a teaching method known as "reciprocal teaching" in which the teacher and students take turns leading a dialogue. This approach encourages students to stretch beyond the role of simply answering questions. Computer-adaptive testing (A) refers to a computer-administered exam which adapts the level of difficulty of subsequent test items based on the examinee's performance on previous items. The Montessori method (C) emphasizes "hands-on" learning and has been criticized for lacking enough cooperative learning and small-group opportunities. Cognitive constructivism (D) is based on Piaget's work which proposed that humans construct knowledge through their experiences with the world. Vygotsky's approach is similar to Piaget's, but because of his emphasis on the social context of learning, Vygotsky's theory is classified as social constructivism.
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129. Kluver-Bucy Syndrome is associated with damage to the:
a hippocampus b amygdala c septum d thalamus |
B. Kluver-Bucy Syndrome is associated with lesions in the amygdala and characterized by reduced fear and aggression, increased acquiescence, and hypersexuality. Damage to the amygdala, which normally attaches emotional significance to information received from the senses, can also produce a lack of emotional response to stimuli. You may have considered response “C” since the septum inhibits emotionality; however, animal research on this structure indicates lesions produce hyper-emotionality and vicious behavior, known as “septal-rage syndrome.” The hippocampus is associated more with memory than emotion and the thalamus functions as the central relay for all sensory information to and from the cortex except olfaction.
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133. Which of the following types of headaches is most likely to be exacerbated by jarring motions, bending forward, and lifting?
a tension b cluster c sinus d migraine |
D. Migraine
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138. Research has found that Mexican-American children begin to accurately apply ethnic labels to themselves and others between:
a 3 and 4 years b 5 and 9 years c 7 and 12 years d 10 and 15 years |
B. Children's ethnic perspective-taking ability (EPTA) has been evaluated and described in several stages. In the first stage, which develops between 3 and 4 years, children can begin to describe ethnicity in terms of physical traits (e.g. skin color, clothes, physical features); however, it is not until the next stage, which occurs between 5 and 9 years, can they accurately apply ethnic labels to themselves and others. In the following stage, from 7-12 years, children express a social perspective of ethnicity, including prejudice. And between 10 and 15 years they begin to immerse themselves into their ethnic group.
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141. Research utilizing functional brain imaging techniques has shown a biological basis for Attention Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) and has linked it to abnormalities in the following brain structures:
a parietal lobe, hypothalamus, and corpus callosum b parietal lobe, striatum, and amygdala c frontal lobe, thalamus, and amygdala d frontal lobe, striatum, and cerebellum |
D. Recent research has established a biological basis for Attention Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) with abnormalities in the right frontal lobe, striatum, and cerebellum most consistently implicated in this disorder. Other areas of the brain, including certain regions of the parietal lobe, have been linked to ADHD to a lesser extent. Using the core symptoms of ADHD and functions of the major brain structures, you may have determined the frontal lobes (mediates higher-order functions), the striatum (part of the basal ganglia and composed of the caudate nucleus and the putamen) and cerebellum (involved in motor activity) are the areas linked to this disorder.
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144. When working with African-American families, Nancy Boyd-Franklin recommends:
a An ecostructural approach b A multisystems approach c A matrilineal approach d Both a and b |
D. Boyd-Franklin (1989) recommends the use of a multisystems (ecostructural) approach when working with African-American families. During both the assessment and treatment processes this approach targets the individual, the immediate and extended family, nonblood relations and friends, church and other community services.
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145. Which of the following is not a proposed axis for further study according to the DSM-IV-TR?
a Social and Occupational Functioning Assessment Scale b Sickness Impact Profile c Defensive Functioning Scale d Global Assessment of Relational Functioning Scale |
B. The Sickness Impact Profile (SIP) is a quality of life measure used to assess the impact of disease on both physical and emotional functioning. The self, or interviewer, administered items address activities of daily living with the score indicating the level of dysfunction. The higher the score, the greater the level of dysfunction. The Social and Occupational Functioning Assessment Scale, or SOFAS, focuses exclusively on an individual’s level of social and occupational functioning, typically the functioning for the current time period. The Defensive Functioning Scale, or DFS, reflects the defenses or coping styles exhibited by an individual at the time of evaluation. The Global Assessment of Relational Functioning Scale, or GARFS, uses a hypothetical continuum, ranging from optimal to dysfunctional, to rate the overall functioning of a family or relationship. It is similar to the DSM-IV Axis V – Global Assessment of Functioning Scale.
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148. Solomon, Pyszczynski, and Greenberg’s terror management theory proposes anxiety or “terror” results from the conscious awareness that human beings have of the inevitability of their death and is best dealt with by:
a religious faith b consensual validation c mortality salience d self-esteem and a cultural worldview |
D. According to terror management theory (TMT), individuals utilize two things to manage the terror associated with the fear of death: a cultural worldview and self-esteem. Consensual validation (b.), or others’ agreement with one’s own worldviews and self-concept, is critical for the effectiveness of cultural worldviews and self-esteem. An outside group, person or differing ideas that clash may threaten the validation system (religion, political ideology) that provides a sense of security. Studies have found increased mortality salience (c.), encountering or recently thinking about death, results in people strongly connecting to their worldview elements like religious beliefs or national pride and increased emergence of prejudices against an outside group in addition to creating a longing for structure, order, acceptance of quick, easy answers to problems and foregoing careful consideration of all options.
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152. A supervisee begins to unconsciously act toward her supervisor in similar ways as her own client acts towards her. This is an example of:
a Projective identification b Parallel process c Transference d Identification. |
B.Parallel process is a phenomenon in clinical supervision where the therapist in training behaves toward the supervising therapist in ways that mirror how the client is behaving toward the therapist in training.
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154. You have been treating a client for six months, and the original problem the client sought treatment for is in remission. The client tells you that he wants to terminate. You, however, are reluctant to terminate because you believe that the client can benefit from further psychotherapy. In this situation, you should:
a terminate in line with the client's wishes, since the client's presenting problem is solved. b seek consultation. c discuss the client's reasons for wanting to terminate. d discuss the reasons why you feel he shouldn't terminate, and, if he still wants to terminate, allow him to do so. |
D.
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157. The third and fourth stages of sleep, sometimes referred to as deep sleep is characterized by delta brain waves; however, the first stage of sleep is characterized by:
a alpha waves b beta waves c K-complexes d sleep spindles |
A. Stage 1 of the sleep cycle is characterized by alpha waves which then give way to the slower theta waves. Stage 2 consists primarily of theta waves and intermittent sleep spindles and K-complexes. The 5th stage is REM sleep, which is also known as paradoxical sleep since the EEG pattern is characteristic of alertness (beta waves) but the sleeper's responsiveness to the environment is low.
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159. According to Fiedler's contingency model, a task-oriented leader is most effective when
a the task is very structured or very unstructured. b the task is moderately structured. c the employees are either very high or very low in ability. d the employees are moderate in terms of ability level. |
A. To answer this question, you need to know that Fiedler referred to task-oriented leaders as "low-LPC" leaders and that he proposed that low-LPC leaders are most effective in very favorable and very unfavorable situations. The favorability of the situation is determined by several factors, including the structure of the task (but not the ability of the employees).
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160. A psychologist wants to study the effectiveness of a new treatment she developed to reduce self-mutilative behaviors in patients with Borderline Personality Disorder. She plans to use a single-subject design but, if effective, she does not want to withdraw the treatment due to the potential harm that could result. She should, therefore, use which of the following research designs:
a ABAB b multiple baseline c reversal d latin square |
B. A multiple baseline design is a single-subject design in which an independent variable is sequentially administered across two or more subjects, behaviors, or settings (i.e., across "baselines"). The multiple baseline design has the advantage of not having to withdraw the treatment once it has been applied to a baseline. Reversal designs, on the other hand, such as the ABA or ABAB designs have a second baseline (the second "A"), during which the treatment is withdrawn. The latin square design is not a single-subject design. Rather, it uses many subjects who are all administered all levels of an independent variable, but the order of administration varies between subjects or subgroups of subjects.
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163. Panic Disorder with Agoraphobia is considered a more severe disorder than Panic Disorder without Agoraphobia and is associated with higher rates of comorbidity. A client receiving a primary diagnosis of Panic Disorder with Agoraphobia is least likely to receive a co-diagnosis for which of the following Anxiety Disorders:
a Generalized Anxiety Disorder b Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder c Social Phobia d Specific Phobia |
B. Of the Anxiety Disorders listed, PTSD has been found to have the lowest comorbidity with a primary diagnosis of Panic Disorder with Agoraphobia. In contrast, GAD has been identified as the disorder most likely to co-occur with a primary diagnosis of Panic Disorder with Agoraphobia. In fact, some studies contend that Panic Disorder and GAD are not distinct disorders. Social and Specific Phobia also co-exist at a fairly high rate with a primary diagnosis of Panic Disorder with Agoraphobia.
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164. A Caucasian comes to a stage where he does not want to have racist views. According to Helms, which stage of identity development is this person in?
a Reintegration b Pseudo-independence c Immersion-Emersion d Autonomy |
C. C. Janet Helms (1984) originally developed her White and People of Color Racial Identity Model to try and help resolve interracial tension in cross cultural psychotherapy. She developed a white racial identity model that reflects abandonment of racism and the development of a nonracist white identity. At the Immersion-Emersion level of identity development, people embrace their whiteness without rejecting members of minority groups and attempt to determine how they can feel proud of their own race without being racist. In "A" Reintegration, people resolve their conflicts by adopting the position that whites are superior. In Pseudo-Independence, "B", people become dissatisfied with reintegration and re-examine their beliefs about racial inequalities. In "D", Autonomy, Whites internalize a nonracist white identity and seek out cross-racial interactions.
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166. The item difficulty ("p") index yields information about the difficulty of test items in terms of a(n) _________ scale of measurement.
a nominal b ordinal c interval d ratio |
B. An item difficulty index indicates the percentage of individuals who answer a particular item correctly. For example, if an item has a difficulty index of .80, it means that 80% of test-takers answered the item correctly. Although it appears that the item difficulty index is a ratio scale of measurement, according to Anastasi (1982) it is actually an ordinal scale because it does not necessarily indicate equivalent differences in difficulty.
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170. Which of the following statements best exemplifies the Premack Principle?
a "If you're a good boy, you'll get candy." b "If you don't get home before midnight, you'll be grounded." c "Eat your spinach before you go out to play." d "I have no idea what those socks are doing on the chandelier." |
C. The Premack Principle refers to using a frequently occurring behavior to reinforce an infrequently occurring one. Choice C is an example -- if the child eats his spinach (presumably, something he does not do very often on his or her own), he will be allowed to play (presumably, something he does quite often on his own).
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174. Psychoanalytic theory and ethology both emphasize
a critical periods. b psychic determinism. c the oedipal complex. d imprinting. |
A. A critical period is a discrete time period during which an organism is particularly sensitive to environmental events that could influence its development one way or the other. Both ethology (the study of animals in their natural habitat) and psychoanalytic developmental theory emphasize critical periods. For example, Lorenz's research found that the critical period for imprinting in geese is 2-3 days after they are born. And in Freud's theory of development, the different stages (e.g., oral, anal) represent critical periods for successful or unsuccessful resolution of specific psychosexual conflicts.
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177. Lesions in the prefrontal association cortex result in:
a impaired spatial orientation and facial recognition b impaired “executive functions” c hallucinations, delusions, and mood disturbances d loss of depth perception and visual agnosia |
B. Lesions in this area of the frontal lobe disrupt the control and regulation of cognition and planning. Impaired spatial orientation is associated with lesions in the parietal lobe. Damage to the temporal lobe may cause hallucinations, delusions, and mood disturbances. Loss of depth perception and visual agnosia is associated with damage to the occipital lobe which contains the visual cortex.
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178. An intervention targeting Bronfenbrenner's microsystem will focus on
a family members. b family members and/or classmates. c school and church. d parents' work and friends. |
B. Bronfenbrenner's ecological model distinguishes between four interacting environmental levels that range from the most proximal to the most global. The microsystem is the individual's immediate environment and includes parents, siblings, caregivers, classmates, and teachers.
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179. The difference between the General Guidelines for Providers of Psychological Services and the Ethical Principles of Psychologists is that the former:
a deals with delivery of services to consumers, and the latter with ethics in general. b deals with clinical practice, and the latter with ethics in general. c deals with consumers, and the latter with providers of psychological services. d is a case analysis of the latter. |
A. This is a fundamental distinction. The Ethical Principles and Code of Conduct covers the actions and responsibilities of all APA members in teaching, research, clinical work, testing, private practice, administration, government, industry, etc. It's the basic standard of ethics for all of us. The General Guidelines, and the spin off known as Specialty Guidelines, apply only to those psychologists who work in clinical, counseling, school, and industrial psychology. Note that these guidelines apply to the work, not to the person. Hence a research social psychologist who finds herself working as the director of a mental health center now finds her work falling under the province of the General Guidelines.
Now if you go back to the question you'll see why A is a better answer than B or C. The General Guidelines refer to all the work of applied psychology and this is subsumed best under alternative A. Choice B mentions only clinical practice, which is only part of what is covered by the Guidelines. And C mentions only consumers, which again isn't quite right: the General Guidelines deal also with agencies, private concerns in industrial areas, third-party payers such as insurance companies, etc. |
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180. The tension-reduction hypothesis proposes that alcohol abuse is due to the effects of:
a tolerance b withdrawal c habituation d conditioning |
D. Conger's (1956) tension-reduction hypothesis proposed that alcohol consumption reduces stress, which reinforces alcohol use, resulting in a greater likelihood of alcohol consumption in times of stress. Thus, the basis of the theory is operant conditioning [J. Conger, Reinforcement theory and the dynamics of alcoholism, Quarterly Journal of Studies on Alcohol, 1956, 17, 296-305]. Subsequent research findings on Conger's theory have been mixed, leading some researchers to conclude that the theory is overly simplistic.
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181. Which of the following statements regarding children with Oppositional Defiant Disorder is most true?
a Symptoms of the disorder are usually present in all settings and with all people. b Symptoms of the disorder are more likely to be present when the child is with people he or she doesn't know very well than when the child is around familiar people. c Symptoms of the disorder are more likely to be present when the child is around familiar people than when the child is with people he or she doesn't know that well. d The disorder is characterized by unexpected and unpredictable symptoms, so, although symptoms of the disorder occur infrequently, they are just as likely to occur with familiar people as with strangers. |
C. According to DSM-IV, manifestations of Oppositional Defiant Disorder are almost invariably present in the home setting and in interactions with adults or peers whom the individual knows well. They may not be apparent in school or community settings or in interactions with people the individual does not know that well. For this reason, symptoms of the disorder are often not present during the initial clinical examination.
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183. The research has shown that the extent and severity of the long-term problems associated with ADHD are strongly related to whether or not the child also had:
a symptoms of depression. b a learning disability. c conduct problems. d a "difficult" temperament. |
C. The studies have consistently shown that the combination of hyperactivity and conduct problems is most associated with antisocial behavior and other serious problems in adulthood.
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188. Manual-guided treatment is to used to:
a reduce “treatment errors” and legal liability of practitioners b ensure validity of procedures used to evaluate effectiveness of treatment c improve treatment outcomes for diverse populations and diagnoses d ascertain treatment effects in research by standardizing treatment delivery |
D.
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192. Componential, experiential, and practical are the three aspects of which intelligence model?
a Gardner b Cattell and Horn c Sternberg d Perkins |
C. Robert Sternberg’s triarchic model of intelligence consists of three interacting components: the componential, or analytical, aspect includes the methods used to process and analyze information; the experiential, or creative, aspect refers to how unfamiliar circumstances and tasks are dealt with; and the practical, or contextual, component refers to how people respond to their environment. Howard Gardner (a.) developed the theory of multiple intelligences which currently lists eight intelligences: linguistic, logical-mathematical, musical intelligence, bodily-kinesthetic, spatial, interpersonal, intrapersonal and naturalist. Raymond Cattell and John Horn (b.) identified the dimensions fluid intelligence, crystallized intelligence, and visual-spatial reasoning. David Perkins identified three dimensions to intelligence: the neural, the experiential, and the reflective that are considered contrasting causal factors that all contribute to intelligence
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193. African-American families use an authority structure that can be best characterized as:
a matriarchal b patriarchal c egalitarian d too diverse to generalize |
C. Although African-American families were previously believed to most often have a matriarchal authority structure, more recent authors have concluded that they are typically egalitarian. That is, the husband and wife equally share authority in the family.
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194. A rat is placed in a Skinner box which has two levers. Pressing Lever #1 delivers a food pellet on a variable interval schedule on an average of every 30 seconds. Lever # 2 also delivers a food pellet on a variable interval schedule, but on an average of every 2 minutes. We would expect the rat to press Lever # 1 in what proportion of the total lever presses?
a 0.4 b 0.6 c 0.8 d 1.0 |
C. You may have been able to intuitively guess the correct answer. The proportion of lever presses would match the relative frequency of the reinforcement schedule. Since the reinforcement schedule of Lever # 1 compared to Lever # 2 is 4:1, Lever # 1 would receive four-fifths (or 80%) of the total number of presses.
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197. When using the method of loci, you:
a sort objects you want to remember into meaningful categories. b retrieve information by remembering where you were at the time you learned it. c pair images of objects you want to remember with places you are familiar with. d make sure that the recall environment is similar to the learning environment. |
C. The word "loci" should have helped you pick the right answer. When using this mnemonic device, you visualize names or objects to be remembered in familiar locations. For example, you might visualize the objects on different pieces of furniture in the living room of your house. When it's time to recall the objects, you visually "walk through" the living room.
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200. Which of the following is not true about members of self-directed work teams?
a Each member of a self-directed team has unique, specialized works skills to contribute to the group product. b Members plan the group's work processes and set the group's work goals. c Members may be authorized to hire their own replacements. d Members of self-directed work teams tend to be absent more than members of traditional work groups. |
A. Self-directed work teams are self-directed; i.e., they determine their own goals, plan their own work processes, and may even hire their own replacements. A distinguishing characteristic of self-directed work teams is that members are generalists (versus specialists), and each member has (or learns) a broad range of skills. A possible downside of self-directed work teams is that they are associated with higher absenteeism than more traditional work groups.
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