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150 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Stable angina is d/t _______ of coronary arteries w/ >____% stenosis.
atherosclerosis; >70%
Stable, unstable and Prinzmetal angina all represent (reversible/irreversible) to myocytes. What does MI represent?
Reversible

MI - irreversible injury
In what conditions does an EKG show ST-segment depression?

What does ST depression represent?
Stable and unstable angina, and initial phase of MI

subendocardial ischemia/infarction
In what conditions does an EKG show ST-segment elevation?

What does ST elevation represent?
Prinzmetal angina and continued or severe ischemia in MI.

transmural ischemia/infarction
If there is chest pain lasting greater than 20 minutes, what type of ischemic heart disease is likely?
MI, because stable angina would be less than 20 minutes (about how long the heart can handle)
T/F

Nitroglycerin can be used to relieve stable angina, unstable angina, Prinzmetal angina, and MI.
False!

Nitroglycerin can be used to relieve symptoms of all but MI.
What is unstable angina due to?
rupture of an atherosclerotic plaque w/ thrombosis and incomplete occlusion of coronary artery
Which type of angina has a high risk of progression to MI?
Unstable angina
a) ______ angina occurs w/ exertion or emotional stress.
b) ______ angina occurs at rest.
c) ______ angina is episodic and unrelated to exertion.
a) Stable
b) Unstable
c) Prinzmetal
Besides nitroglycerin, what else can be used to releive Prinzmetal angina?
Calcium channel blockers
What is MI usually caused by?

What are some less common causes?
rupture of an atherosclerotic plaque w/ thrombosis and complete occlusion of a coronary artery

sometimes:
coronary artery vasospasm (d/t Prinzmetal angina or cocaine use)
Emboli
Vasculitis (ex: Kawasaki dz in children around 5)
A patient presents w/ severe, crushing chest pain that has lasted for the past half hour and radiates to the left jaw. He is sweating profusely and is having trouble breathing. Nitroglycerin is not helping to relieve any symptoms.

What does he likely have?
Most likely is suffering an MI.
What is the most commonly occluded artery (45% of cases) in an MI, and where does it lead to infarction?

What other 2 arteries can be involved?
LAD - anterior wall and anterior septum of the LV

2nd MC - RCA - posterior wall, posterior septum, papillary muscles of LV

left circumflex artery - lateral wall of LV
a) What is the gold standard marker for MI?
b) When does it rise?
c) When does it peak?
d) When does it return to normal?
a) Troponin I
b) 2-4 hrs
c) 24 hrs
d) 7-10 days
a) What is CK-MB useful for?
b) When does it rise?
c) When does it peak?
d) When does it return to normal?
a) detecting reinfarction that occurs days after an initial MI (while troponin I would still be elevated from the first MI)
b) 4-6 hrs
c) 24 hrs
d) 72 hrs
What tx can be given in MI to limit thrombosis?
Aspirin and/or heparin
What tx can be given in MI to minimize ischemia?
Supplemental O2
What tx can be given in MI to vasodilate coronary arteries?
Nitrates

(arteries + veins -> dec preload -> dec stress)
What tx can be given in MI to slow HR? Why does this help?
Beta-blockers

decreases O2 demand and risk for arrhythmia (arrhythmia is a feared complication of MI)
What tx can be given in MI to decreated LV dilation?
ACE inhibitor

(ACE causes increased angiotensin II, which causes arteriole constriction and release of aldosterone -> Na retention -> inc BV)
What tx can be given in MI to open the blocked vessel?

What are 2 possible complications of doing this?
Angioplasty or fibrinolysis

1. Contaction band necrosis - Ca2+ influx in irreversibly damaged cells, leading to hypercontraction of myofibrils
2. Reperfusion injury - O2 and inflammatory cells return and can generate free radicals, further damaging myocytes
At <4 hours after an MI, what are the:

a) Gross changes?
b) Microscopic changes?
c) Complications?
a) none
b) none
c) Cardiogenic shock (massive infarction; inability to maintain systemic BP -> dec blood to vital organs), CHF, and arrhythmia (if you've damaged the conduction system will likely see it within the 1st 24 hrs)
At 4-24 hrs after an MI, what are the:

a) Gross changes?
b) Microscopic changes?
c) Complications?
a) Dark discoloration
b) coagulative necrosis (pyknosis, karyorrhexis, karyolysis)
c) arrhythmia (if you've damaged the conduction system will likely see it within the 1st 24 hrs)
At 1-3 days after an MI, what are the:

a) Gross changes?
b) Microscopic changes?
c) Complications?
a) yellow pallor (same as 4-7 days)
b) neutrophils
c) fibrinous pericarditis (only w/ transmural necrosis); presents as chest pain w/ friction rub
At 4-7 days after an MI, what are the:

a) Gross changes?
b) Microscopic changes?
c) Complications?
a) yellow pallor (same as 1-3 days)
b) macrophages
c) rupture of ventricular free wall (leads to cardiac tamponade!), interventricular septum (leads to shunt), or papillary muscle (leads to mitral insufficiency, blood regurgitates during systole; only occurs with RCA occulsion).
Rupture is d/t macrophages eating necrotic debris, weakening the wall
At 1-3 weeks after an MI, what are the:

a) Gross changes?
b) Microscopic changes?
c) Complications?
a) Red border emerges as granulation tissue enters from edge of infarct
b) Granulation tissue w/ plump fibroblasts, collagen, and blood vessels
c) none listed
At months after an MI, what are the:

a) Gross changes?
b) Microscopic changes?
c) Complications?
a) White scar (weaker than myocardium)
b) fibrosis
c) aneurysm, mural thrombus (can be d/t stasis from aneurysm), or Dressler syndrome (rare, inflam in pericardium can form Abs against own pericardium. occurs 6-8 weeks after MI and is an autoimmune pericarditis)
What is the MC type of arrythmia with sudden cardiac death?
Fatal ventricular arrhythmia

occurs w/o symptoms or <1 hr after symptoms arise
What is the MC etiology of sudden cardiac death? 90% of patients have preexisting what?

What are some less common causes?
Acute ischemia; 90% w/ preexisting severe atherosclerosis

Sometimes - mitral valve prolapse, cardiomyopathy, or cocaine abuse
Chronic ischemic heart disease is poor myocardial function d/t _______ (w/ or w/o ______). It progresses to ________.
chronic ischemic damage (w/ or w/o infarction)

progresses to CHF
What are 5 causes of left-sided heart failure?
1. ischemia
2. HTN (LV hypertrophy, becomes hard to oxygenate)
3. dilated cardiomyopathy
4. MI
5. restrictive cardiomyopathy (can't fill heart appropriately)
Left-sided heart failure can cause what clinical features d/t pulm congestion or decreased forward perfusion?
dyspnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, orthopnea, and crackles

decreased flow to kidneys
What are "heart failure" cells?
Hemosiderin-laden macrophages
If small, congested capillaries burst in left-sided heart failure, intra-alveolar hemorrhage can occur, marked by what?
"heart failure" cells (hemosiderin-laden macrophages)
What is the mainstay of treatment for left-sided heart failure?
ACE inhibitor
Besides the MC cause of right-sided heart failure (left-sided heart failure), what are some other causes?
left-to-right shunt
chronic lung disease (cor pulmonale)
What are some clinical features of right-sided heart failure, d/t congestion?
1. jugular venous distention
2. painful hepatosplenomegaly w/ "nutmeg" liver; may lead to cardiac cirrhosis
3. dependent pitting edema (d/t inc hydrostatic pressure)
"nutmeg" liver a/w what?
painful hepatosplenomegaly in right-sided heart failure
During what weeks of embryogenesis do congenital heart defects usually arise?
weeks 3 through 8

(seen in 1% of live births)
What is the MC congenital heart defect?
VSD
What is VSD a/w?
fetal alcohol syndrome
Which congenital heart defects result in a left-to-right shunt?
VSD, ASD, and PDA (unless progressed to Eisenmenger syndrome)
Which congenital heart defects result in a right-to-left shunt, and therefore cyanosis?
PDA (if progressed to Eisenmenger syndrome; pulm HTN leads to reversal of L->R shunt), Tetralogy of fallot, tricuspid atresia (when a/w ASD)
What is the presentation/tx of VSD that are
a) small?
b) large?
a) often asymptomatic and may close on their own

b) can lead to Eisenmenger syndrome, tx involves surgical closure
What is the MC type of ASD?
ostium secundum (90% of cases)
The ostium primum type of ASD is a/w what disorder?
Down syndrome
On auscultation, which congenital heart defect is a/w a split S2?
ASD

increased blood in right heart delays closure of pulmonary valve
Paradoxical emboli are an important complication of what type of congenital heart defect?
ASD

embolus from right side can lodge on the left side
What disease is PDA a/w?
Congenital rubella
On auscultation, a holosystolic "machine-like" murmur is a/w what congenital heart defect?
PDA
What is the tx for PDA?
Indomethacin, which decreased PGE resulting in PDA closure (PGE maintains patency of ductus arteriosus)
What are the 4 characteristics of tetralogy of Fallot?
1. stenosis of right ventricular outflow tract
2. RV hypertrophy
3. VSD
4. aorta that overrides VSD
What 2 congenital heart defects can progress to Eisenmenger syndrome?
VSD and PDA
LE cyanosis is a/w what congenital heart defects?
PDA and infantile form of coarctation of the aorta
"boot-shaped" heart on xray a/w what congenital defect?
tetralogy of fallot
What do patients w/ tetralogy of fallot learn to do in response to a cyanotic spell?
Squat. it increases arterial resistance, decreasing shunting and allowing more blood to reach the lungs
What is transposition of the great vessels a/w?
Maternal diabetes
Which congenital heart defects present w/ early cyanosis?
Tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of the great vessels, truncus arteriosus, tricuspid atresia
What is the tx for transposition of the great vessels?
A shunt must be created after birth for survival, PGE can be given to maintain a PDA until definitive surgical repair can be performed
Transposition of the great vessels results in hypertrophy of the ____ and atrophy of the ____.
RV; LV
_______ is characterized by a single large vessel arising from both ventricles.
Truncus arteriosus
In tricuspid atresia, the _______ fails to devlop, and the ______ is hypoplastic (b/c blood doesn't go to it).
tricuspid valve orifice; RV
Tricuspid atresia is often a/w what other congenital heart defect?
ASD
The infantile form of coarctation of the aorta is a/w what genetic disorder?
Turner syndrome
The infantile form of coarctation of the aorta is a/w what other congenital heart defect?
PDA (coarctation lies after aortic arch but before the PDA)
How does the adult form of coarctation of the aorta classically present?
HTN in the UE and hypotension w/ weak pulses in the LE
"notching" of ribs on xray is a/w what?

Why does this occur?
adult form of coarctation of the aorta

b/c collateral circulation develops across the intercostal arteries, and the engorged arteries cause the notching
The adult form of coarctation of the aorta is a/w what valve defect?
Bicuspid aortic valve
A systemic complication affecting children 2-3 weeks after strep throat is what?
Acute rheumatic fever
Molecular mimicry causes what disease?
Acute rheumatic fever

the group A strep's M protein resembles proteins in human tissue
In diagnosing acute rheumatic fever, what are the major criteria of Jones criteria?
JONES

J - joint (migratory polyarthritis - swelling&pain in large joint that resolves w/i days and migrates to another large joint)
O - <3 (heart) - Pancarditis! Endocarditis involves mitral valve MC than aortic valve, w/ small vegetations along lines of closure that lead to regurgitation. Myocarditis w/ Aschoff bodies are characterized by foci of chronic inflammation, Anitschkow cells, giant cells, and fibrinoid material (degenerated collagen) and is MC cause of death in acute phase.
N - nodules in skin (subQ)
E - erythema marginatum (annular, nonpruritic w/ erythematous borders, commonly on trunk and limbs)
S - sydenham chorea (rapid, involuntary muscle movements)
What is the hallmark of myocarditis in acute rheumatic fever?
Aschoff bodies

(characterized by foci of chronic inflammation, Anitschkow cells, giant cells, and fibrinoid material)
What are Anitschkow cells?
reactive histiocytes w/ slender, wavy nuclei
Jones criteria for acute rheumatic fever requires what (very generally)?
evidence of prior group A strep infection (elevated ASO or anti-DNAse B titers) w/ presence of major and minor criteria
Minor Jones criteria are what?
nonspecific, such as fever and elevated ESR
Acute attacks of rheumatic fever usually resolve, but may progress to chronic rheumatic heart disease, especially when what happens?
repeat exposure to group A strep, resulting in relapse of acute phase
"fish-mouth" appearance is a/w what?
stenosis in chronic rheumatic heart disease
a) Chronic rheumatic heart disease stenosis almost always involves which valve? Leading to thickening of what?

b) It sometimes involves what valve, leading to what?

Other valves are less common.
a) Mitral valve; thickening of chordae tendinae and cusps

b) Aortic valve; fusion of the commissures
What is a complication of chronic rheumatic heart disease?
Infectious endocarditis
How can you distinguish "wear and tear" aortic stenosis from aortic stenosis that is d/t chronic rheumatic valve disease?
If it is d/t chronic rheumatic valve disease, it will usually have coexisting mitral stenosis and fusion of the aortic valve commissures (instead of just unfused, damage to the cusps)
When does aortic stenosis typically present?
late adulthood (>60) d/t fibrosis/calcification from wear and tear
What condition increases risk of and hastens the onset of aortic stenosis?
bicuspid aortic valve
What are the hallmarks of cardiac compensation in aortic stenosis?
prolonged asymptomatic stage w/ a systolic ejection click followed by a crescendo-decrescendo murmur
What are 3 possible complications of aortic stenosis?
1. concentric LV hypertrophy (may progress to cardiac failure)
2. Angina and syncope w/ exercise (dec perfusion of myocardium and brain)
3. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (RBCs damaged, producing schistocytes, while crossing calcified valve)
When would you replace the valve in aortic stenosis?
After the onset of complications
Aortic regurgitation occurs during ______ while mitral regurgitation occurs during ________.
Diastole

Systole
What can cause aortic regurgitation?
aortic root dilation (syphilitic aneurysm and aortic dissection)

valve damage (infectious endocarditis)

*MC cause is isolated root dilation
Aortic regurgitation has what type of murmur?
early, blowing diastolic murmur
Why is there hyperdynamic circulation (d/t increased pulse pressure) with aortic regurgitation?
diastolic pressure decreases d/t regurgitation
systolic pressure increases d/t increased stroke volume
A bounding pulse (water-hammer pulse), pulsating nail bed (Quincke pulse) and head bobbing are characteristic of what?
Hyperdynamic circulation

(seen in aortic regurgitation)
When does aortic stenosis typically present?
late adulthood (>60) d/t fibrosis/calcification from wear and tear
What condition increases risk of and hastens the onset of aortic stenosis?
bicuspid aortic valve
What are the hallmarks of cardiac compensation in aortic stenosis?
prolonged asymptomatic stage w/ a systolic ejection click followed by a crescendo-decrescendo murmur
What are 3 possible complications of aortic stenosis?
1. concentric LV hypertrophy (may progress to cardiac failure)
2. Angina and syncope w/ exercise (dec perfusion of myocardium and brain)
3. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (RBCs damaged, producing schistocytes, while crossing calcified valve)
When would you replace the valve in aortic stenosis?
After the onset of complications
Aortic regurgitation occurs during ______ while mitral regurgitation occurs during ________.
Diastole

Systole
What can cause aortic regurgitation?
aortic root dilation (syphilitic aneurysm and aortic dissection)

valve damage (infectious endocarditis)

*MC cause is isolated root dilation
Aortic regurgitation has what type of murmur?
early, blowing diastolic murmur
Why is there hyperdynamic circulation (d/t increased pulse pressure) with aortic regurgitation?
diastolic pressure decreases d/t regurgitation
systolic pressure increases d/t increased stroke volume
A bounding pulse (water-hammer pulse), pulsating nail bed (Quincke pulse) and head bobbing are characteristic of what?
Hyperdynamic circulation

(seen in aortic regurgitation)
Aortic regurgitation results in LV dilation and ________ hypertrophy d/t volume overload.
Eccentric
When would you replace the valve in aortic regurgitation?
once LV dysfx develops
Myxoid degeneration (accumulation of ground substance) of the mitral valve causes what?
Mitral valve prolapse, by making it floppy
The etiology of mitral valve prolapse is unknown, but it may be seen in what disorders?
Marfan syndrome and Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
A patient comes in for a regular check-up and on exam, you find a mid-systolic click followed by a regurgitation murmur near the mitral valve. She reports that she has not had any symptoms.

What do you suspect she has?

To test your theory, you ask your patient to do something that should make the click and murmur become louder. What is it?
Mitral valve prolapse (click is d/t parachute snapping shut, regurg murmur usually present)

Squat! increased systemic resistance decreases LV emptying
What are some RARE complications of mitral valve prolapse?
infectious endocarditis
arrhythmia
severe mitral regurgitation
What is the MC cause of mitral regurgitation?

other causes?
complication of mitral valve prolapse

sometimes - LV dilation (left-sided heart failure), infective endocarditis (weakens valve leaflets), acute rheumatic heart disease, and papillary muscle rupture (keeps it closed in systole normally) after an MI
A patient presents w/ a holosystolic "blowing" murmur that gets louder with squatting and with expiration.

What do you suspect she has?
What can this result in?
Mitral regurgitation (squatting increases systemic resistance/decreases LV emptying; expiration increases return to LA)

results in volume overload and left-sided heart failure
Mitral stenosis is usually d/t what?
chronic rheumatic valve disease
A patient presents w/ an opening snap followed by a diastolic rumble. This is characteristic of what?

This can lead to what 3 things?
Mitral stenosis

Volume overload leads to:
1. pulm congestion w/ edema and alveolar hemorrhage
2. pulm HTN and eventual right-sided heart failure
3. atrial fib w/ risk for mural thrombi (d/t stasis)
Endocarditis is inflammation of endocarduyn that lines the surface of __________.
cardiac valves
____________ is the MC cause of endocarditis, and it is a low-virulence organism that infects previously damaged valves (ex: chronic rheumatic heart disease, mitral prolapse).
streptococcus viridans
_______ endocarditis results in small vegetations that don't destroy the valve (subacute), while _______ endocarditis leads to large vegetations that do destroy valve (acute).
strep viridans

staph aureus
Damaged endocardial surface develops thrombotic vegetations composed of ____ and ____.

Then, transient bacteremia leads to trapping of bacteria in the vegetations. What can be given prophylactically to decrease the risk of endocarditis?
platelets and fibrin

antibiotics
________ is the MC cause of endocarditis in IV drug abusers, and it is a high-virulence organism that infects normal valves, most commonly the _______ valve.
staph aureus; tricuspid
What organism is a/w endocarditis of prosthetic valves?
staph epidermidis
What organism is a/w endocarditis in patients w/ underling colorectal carcinoma?
strep bovis
What organisms are a/w endocarditis in negative blood cultures?
HACEK organisms (haemophilus, actinobacillus, cardiobacterium, eikenella, kingella)
What clinical feature of bacterial endocarditis is d/t bacteremia?
Fever
What clinical feature of bacterial endocarditis is d/t vegetations on the heart valve?
Murmur
What clinical features of bacterial endocarditis is d/t embolization of septic vegetations?
Janeway lesions (erythematous nontender lesions on palms and soles)
Osler nodes ("Ouch" erythematous tender lesions on fingers and toes)
Splinter hemorrhages in nail bed
What clinical feature of bacterial endocarditis is d/t chronic inflammation?
Anemia of chronic disease
What are some lab findings of endocarditis?
Positive blood cultures
Anemia of chronic disease (decreased Hb, MCV, TIBC, serum iron and % saturation; increased ferritin)
Transesophageal echocardiogram is useful for detecting lesions on valves
What are 2 forms of endocarditis that are caused by sterile vegetations on the mitral valve, resulting in mitral regurgitation?
Nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis and Libman-Sacks endocarditis
What type of endocarditis is a/w a hypercoagulable state or underlying adenocarcinoma?
Nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis
Vegetations in nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis arise where on the mitral valve?
along lines of closure
Vegetations in Libman-Sacks endocarditis arise where on the mitral valve?
surfance AND undersurface... both sides!
What type of endocarditis is a/w SLE?
Libman-Sacks endocarditis
What is the MC form of cardiomyopathy?
Dilated cardiomyopathy, which is dilation of all 4 chambers
Dilated cardiomyopathy results in (systolic/diastolic) dysfx, leading to what?
Systolic (ventricles can't pump); biventricular CHF

This stretches the valves and conduction system, possibly causing mitral/tricuspid regurgitation and arrhythmia.
While most cases of dilated cardiomyopathy are idiopathic, what are 5 possible causes?
1. Genetic mutation (usually AD)
2. Myocarditis (usually d/t coxsackie A or B; characterized by lymphocytic infiltrate in myocardium resulting in chest pain, arrhythmia w/ sudden death, or heart failure. dilated cardiomyopathy is a late complication)
3. Alcohol abuse
4. Drugs (ex: doxorubicin and cocaine)
5. Pregnancy (late pregnancy or soon (wks-mos) after childbirth)
What is the tx for dilated cardiomyopathy?
Heart transplant
Myocyte disarray (myofiber hypertrophy w/ disarray) is a classic biopsy finding in what?
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is massive hypertrophy of the ____ and leads to (systolic/diastolic) dysfx.
LV

diastolic dysfx, b/c ventricle can't fill
What disorder is d/t genetic mutations in sarcomere (usually AD)?
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Common cause of sudden death in young athletes?
ventricular arrhythmias d/t Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy
Syncope w/ exercise, a/w hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, is d/t what?
subaortic hypertrophy of the ventricular septum, resulting in functional aortic stenosis
Restrictive cardiomyopathy is decreased compliance of the ventricular endomyocardium that restricts filling during (systole/diastole).
Diastole
What are possible causes of restrictive cardiomyopathy?
Amyloidosis
Sarcoidosis
Hemochromatosis
Endocardial fibroelastosis (children)
Loeffler syndrome (endomyocardial fibrosis w/ eosinophilic infiltrate and eosinophilia)
What cardiomyopathy presents as CHF?
Restrictive cardiomyopathy
The classic finding of what condition is low-voltage EKG w/ diminished QRS amplitude?
Restrictive cardiomyopathy
A benign mesenchymal tumor w/ gelatinous appearance and abundant ground substance is called what?
Myxoma
What is the MC primary cardiac tumor in adults?
Myxoma
What is the MC primary cardiac tumor in children?
Rhabdomyoma
What condition typically forms a pedunculated mass in the LA that causes syncope d/t obstruction of mitral valve?
Myxoma
A rhabdomyoma is a ____________ of cardiac muscle.
benign hemartoma
Rhabdomyoma usually arises where?
In the ventricle
What condition is rhabdomyoma a/w?
Tuberous sclerosis
T/F

Primary tumors are more common in the heart than metastatic tumors.
False!

Metastatic are more common.
Common metastases to the heart come from where?

What part of the heart do they most commonly affect?
breast and lung carcinoma, melanoma, lymphoma

pericardium -> pericardial effusion