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161 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Define the following:

Ascarid
phasmid nematodes of the Ascaridoidea which includes the genera Ascaris, Parascaris, Toxocara and Toxascaris.
Define the following:

Bots
maggots of the bot fly, eggs are called nits
Define the following:

Cestode
flat worm called tapeworm
Define the following:

Ectoparasite
External parasites such as fleas, ticks, mites, mange
Define the following:

Endoparasite
Internal parasites such as tapeworms, roundworms, hook worms
Define the following:

Helminths
Another term for parasitic worms
Define the following:

IGRs
insect growth regulators
Define the following:

nematodes cestodes
roundworms
Define the following:

Organophosphates
Group of human made chemicals used as pesticides.
Define the following:

Protozoan
Unicellular eukaryotes
Define the following:

Symbiosis
Close ecological relationship between two different species
Define the following:

Trematode
Flukes – they have an intermediary host.
What is an anthelmintic?
A wormer.
How can the use of an anthelmintic help the patient?
Prevents or treats internal parasites that can shorten a patient’s life or decrease its quality of life.
True or False. Benzimidazoles are formulated primarily for large animals.
True.
List examples of Benzimidazoles as described in your textbook
Thiabendazole, oxibendazole, mebendazole, albendazole, parabendazole, fenbendazole, cambendazole, oxfendazole.
Benzimidazoles are effective against which gastrointestinal parasites?
Stongyles, pinworms, ascarids, roundworms, liver flukes, (roundworms, hookworms whipworms in small animals.)
True or False. Fenbendazole is a Benzimidazole effective against tapeworms
False
What precautions should be taken with the use of organophosphates to make sure the patient does not receive a toxic level of organophosphates?
Care should be taken so that the patient is not exposed to other organophosphates, cholinesterase inhibitors, pesticides, or muscle relaxants such as succinylcholine until a few days after treatment.
List the signs and symptoms of organophosphate poisoning
Miosis, salivation, breathing difficulties, vomiting, defecation, and muscle fasciculation.
List examples of Tetrahydropyrimidines discussed in your textbook
Pyrantel and moantel.
Pyrantel pamoate is a tetrahydropyrimidine effective against which internal parasite?
Horses – ascarids, strongyles and pinworms. Dogs – hookworms and ascarids.
Ivermectin is an Avermectin that is effective against what types of parasites.
Cattle, swine, sheep, and goats – roundworms, lung worms, cattle grubs (cattle only), sucking lice and mites, large and small strongyles, pinworms, bots and other equine infestations and for treatment of ascariditasis. Used in cats and dogs for heartworm prevention and in higher doses for treatment of canine scabes
Ivermectin is available in what forms for administration?
Injectable, paste and oral liquid, oral pill and chewable.
Which breed of dog has an increased sensitivity to Ivermectin?
Collies.
In dogs that have been tested and are positive for heartworms, what must occur before they are placed on prevention?
After treatment dogs must be found free of adult heartworms and micofilariae.
Where is melarsomine dihydrochloride administered?
Deep intramuscular injection into the epaxial muscle.
What would be considered side effects or an adverse reaction of melarsomine dihydrochloride?
Abdominal hemorrhage and pain; discolored urine, hematuria,tachypenea, disorientation, restlessness, and icterus.
List the drugs used for heartworm prevention. How often are each of these administered?
Diethylcarbamazine (DEC) – daily at beginning of mosquito season and continued for 2 months after the season is over, ivermectin and milbemycin– 1 month of the initial exposure and then monthly thereafter with the final dose within 30 days of the last exposure, and moxidectin – injectable that provides 6 months of coverage.
Anticestodal drugs are used to kill or remove what parasite?
Taoeworms
What are the 2 most effective anticestodal drugs?
Praziquantel and epsiprantel.
Organophosphates are used for the treatment of which type of parasites?
External parasites
What precautions should be taken when applying or using organophosphates or chlorinated hydrocarbons?
Avoid getting them in eyes or on skin. Use disposable gloves and eye protection.
Compare and contrast Lufenuron, Imidacloprid, Fipronil, and Selamectin. How are they similar? How are they different?
Similar – they are all flea control products. Different – Lufenuron breaks life cycle at the egg stage, Imidacloprid is a topical that kills adults within 1 day of treatment, Fipronil – topical that kills adult fleas and ticks, Selamectin – monthly treatment that kills adult fleas and prevents flea eggs from hatching, prevents heartworm disease, treats/controls ear mites, sarcoptic mange, ticks in dogs and intestinal hookworms and roundworms in cats.
Define the following:

Bactericidal
destroy bacteria
Define the following:

Bacteriostatic
inhibit bacteria growth
Define the following:

Spectrum
The various species that are affected by an antibiotic
Define the following:

Broad-spectrum
Effective against a wide range of microorganisms including both gram positive and gram negative.
Define the following:

Gram-positive
Bacteria that has a tendency to absorb dye (gentian violet) into their cell (dark blue cell walls).
Define the following:

Gram-negative
Bacteria that do not absorb the stain (gentian violet) into their cell (light pink cell walls).
Define the following:

Antimicrobial
Substances produced by microorganisms or through chemical synthesis that destroy of limit other microorganisms.
Define the following:

Antibiotic
another name for antimicrobial.
Substances produced by microorganisms or through chemical synthesis that destroy of limit other microorganisms.
Define the following:

Nosocomial infection
Infection originating in the hospital.
Define the following:

Antifungal
Agents used to treat fungal infections
Define the following:

Fungicidal
Agents that kill fungal infections
Define the following:

Fungistatic
Agents that inhibit fungal growth.
Define the following:

Sporicidal
Agents that kill fungal spores.
What must occur for an antibiotic to be effective?
It must be able to reach the site of the infection in sufficient concentration to exert its effect on the microorganism.
What factors may affect the length of antibiotic therapy?
The site of the infection, the microorganism, and the duration of the infection.
What can occur if a microorganism or bacteria is treated with subtherapeutic levels of an antibiotic?
A resistance to that particular antibiotic may develop. This resistance can also be passed on to other bacteria.
How is the appropriate antibiotic chosen to treat a condition in a patient?
A sample from the site of infection is collected for culture and antibiotic sensitivity testing to determine the causative organism and the effective antibiotic.
True or False. Administering antibiotics that are not effective against an organism may worsen the condition of the patient by killing the “good” bacteria and allowing a second pathogen to reproduce.
True.
Gram-positive bacteria will stain which color?
Dark blue
Gram-negative bacteria will stain which color?
Light pink
What is the difference between Penicillin G and Procaine penicillin G?
Penicillin G is effective when administered orally and Procaine penicillin G is not. Procaine is used as an injectable
What are the clinical uses of penicillins in veterinary medicine?
Effective against most gram positive bacteria.
What are the signs and symptoms or adverse side effects of penicillins?
Skin rashes, fever, urticaria, salivation, cutaneous edema.
Cephalosporins are chemically similar to which class of antimicrobials?
Penicillins.
Cephalosporins are effective against which organisms?
Effective against most gram positive and several gram negative organisms.
Cephalosporins are used to treat what types of conditions in veterinary medicine?
Strep, Staph, clostridial species, some pseudomonas.
Aminoglycosides are effective against which type of organism?
Primarily used against gram negative organisms.
All aminoglycosides are potentially ___________, __________, and may cause ____________ blockage. What does this statement mean?
Ototoxic, nephrotoxic, neuromuscular. These agents can affect hearing and balance, cause renal toxicity, apnea, and progressive paralysis of skeletal muscle.
How are Quinolones used in veterinary medicine?
Urinary, skin, respiratory, and bone infections.
List examples of Quinolones discussed in your weekly lesson and textbook
Enrofloxacin,
Why is the use of Enrofloxacin contraindicated in young puppies and adult horses?
It can induce abnormal cartilage formation leading to weakness or lameness.
Why should those handling CHPC handle it with caution? How are chloramphenicols used in veterinary medicine?
Because of a rare but potentially fatal occurrence of irreversible aplastic anemia. Used in equine patients as a broad spectrum bacteriostatic.
What adverse side effects may occur with Chloramphenicols?
Blood dyscrasias, anorexia, vominting, diarrhea, depression.
How are tetracyclines used in veterinary medicine?
Bacteriostatic agents that affect the vital protein synthesis of the microorganism. Given orally, injectable or IV.
Why should teteracyclines not be used in patients after the expiration date?
They form nephrotoxic products.
Why should tetracyclines not be used in pregnant or young animals?
They form complexes in developing bones and teeth.
List examples of tetracyclines discussed in your textbook and the weekly lesson.
Doxycycline, Oxytetracycline.
What are some of the uses and adverse side effects of the Macrolide antibiotics discussed in your textbook? How are these used in veterinary medicine?
Spectrum activity is similar to that of penicillin and used against penicillinase-producing microbes.
What are some of the uses and adverse side effects of the Lincosamide antibiotics discussed in your textbook? How are these used in veterinary medicine?
Particularly effective against staph and strep strains that are resistant or when hypersensitivities to other antibiotics exist.
How are Sulfonamides used in veterinary medicine?
Used for infections of the respiratory system, urinary tract, bacterial diarrhea, foot rot and coccidial infections.
It is important that animals receiving Sulfonamides have adequate water available. Why?
So that crytaluria does not occur.
List examples of Sulfonamides discussed in your textbook and weekly lesson.
Sulfamethazine, sulfadiazine, sulfadymethoxine.
Describe the purpose of Nitrofurans in veterinary medicine? When should they not be used? Why?
Synthetic broad spectrum agents. Use of food producing animals is prohibited due to carcinogenic properties.
Thyroid hormones are responsible for the metabolism of which substances?
Carbohydrates, hormones, and fats.
According to your textbook what types of medications are used to treat hypothyroidism?
Sodium levothyroxine, sodium thyronine.
Insulin is normally produced in which organ of the body.
Pancreas.
What role does insulin play in the body?
Facilitates the use of food by the body, especially sugar.
What is hyperglycemia?
Abnormally high blood glucose levels.
What types of insulin are used in veterinary medicine?
Iletin, isophane insulin suspension, protamine zinc insulin.
Oxytocin is a hormone normally released when?
At the end of pregnancy.
How is oxytocin used in veterinary medicine?
Beneficial during delayed parturition, aiding milk let down, and treatment of postpartum retained placenta and metritis.
Prostaglandins are responsible for what types of actions in the body? Why are prostaglandins used in veterinary medicine?
Regulate heat cycles in herds, abort feedlot heifers, in mares restore normal heat cycles.
List examples of prostaglandins used in veterinary medicine.
Dinoprost, cloprostenol.
What are some of the adverse side effects of prostaglandins?
PG are abortifacients and cause bronchospasms.
Which species do not have a vomiting reflex?
Horses, rabbits, and rodents.
The vomiting reflex may be stimulated in what 4 ways?
Chemical substances in the blood, motion sickness, symptom of a disease state, drug induced emisis (cancer chemotherapy).
True or False. Antihistamines may also be used as an antiemetic.
True.
How can phenothiazine tranquilizers also act as an antiemetic?
Control vomiting by blocking the CTZ at low doses and the emetic center at higher doses.
What effects will Metoclopramide have on the GI tract?
It increase gut motility.
List examples of emetics used in veterinary medicine. How are they administered? What are some of the adverse side effects?
Apomorphine – administered orally, IM, IV or conjunctival sac of the eye;side effects – causes extreme excitement in cats. Xylazine – administered IV used to induce vomiting in cats. Ipecac – administered via stomach tube; adverse – toxic effects, death in cats.
True or False. Diarrhea in a patient may only be a symptom of an underlying problem and in order to properly treat the patient it is important to identify the specific problem and correct it.
True.
How do anticholinergics work as antidiarrheals?
They reduce peristalsis
List examples of anticholinergics that may be used as antidiarrheals.
Atropine, homatropine, scopolamine.
How can opioids be used as antidiarrheals?
They increase rhythmic contraction which resists intestinal flow and decreases peristalsis. Also, they increase the tone of various sphincters and valves in the GI tract which further delays movement of contents.
List examples of opioids that may be used as antidiarrheals.
Dipehnoxolate hydrochloride with atropine sulfate.
When should antidiarrheal opioids not be used, or should be used with caution?
With cats, head injuries, increased intercranial pressure, acute abdominal conditions such as colic, hepatic disease,CNS symptoms of hepatic encephapathy and with bacterial induce diarrhea.
What can be the result of using opioids in patients with acute, bacterially-induced, diarrhea?
Bacterial proliferation may be enhanced, delay disappearance of the microbe from the feces, and prolong febrile state.
What could be the result of an acute overdose of opioid antidiarrheals?
Central nervous system, cardiovascular or respiratory system toxicity.
List the 2 over-the-counter antidiarrheals commonly used in veterinary medicine.
Loperamide, bismuth subsalicylate.
When may cathartics be used in veterinary medicine?
Treating food animals and horses suffering with over ingestion of concentrated carbohydrates such as grain; after bowel or anal surgery, older animals with constipation, hair balls in cats, before GI radiography examination, procotoscopy, or elective surgery.
How do cathartics work and what effects do they produce in the gastrointestinal system?
Increase motility of the bowel by directly stimulating the smooth muscle or indirectly activating the receptors through increased bulk.
List 4 reasons why gastric ulcers may occur in animals.
Certain medical disorders, high doses of corticosteroids, NSAIDS,
List the anti-ulcer medications described in your weekly lesson and textbook.
Sulcrafate, omeprazole, cimitidine.
List the drug class for each of the following drugs.

Cimetidine
antiulcer
List the drug class for each of the following drugs.

Emodin
cathartic
List the drug class for each of the following drugs.

Bismuth subsalicylate
antidiarrheal
List the drug class for each of the following drugs.

Omeprazole
antiulcer
List the drug class for each of the following drugs.

Apomorphine
emetic
List the drug class for each of the following drugs.

Sucralfate
antiulcer
List the drug class for each of the following drugs.

Atropine
antidiarrheal
List the drug class for each of the following drugs.

Sodium-phosphate salts
cathartic
List the drug class for each of the following drugs.

Ipecac
emetic
List the drug class for each of the following drugs.

Metamucil
cathartic
List the drug class for each of the following drugs.

Centrine
emitic
List the drug class for each of the following drugs.

Metoclopramide
antiemitic
List the drug class for each of the following drugs.

Diphenoxylate
antidiarrheal
List the drug class for each of the following drugs.

Apomorphine
emetic
List the drug class for each of the following drugs.

Chlorpromazine
antiemtic
List the drug class for each of the following drugs.

Mineral Oil
cathartic
List the drug class for each of the following drugs.

Loperamide
antidiarrheal
List the drug class for each of the following drugs.

Haloperidol
antiemitic
Doxycycline has been chosen as a treatment for a 1 kg Amazon parrot. The rate of administration is 25 mg/kg, bid, for 7 days. The tablets on hand are 50 mg (scored). How many tablets will be given for each treatment?
0.5
Melarsomine dihydrochloride is administered by a deep IM injection into the:
Epaxial muscle (lumbar region)
All aminoglycosides are potentially ___________, ____________, and may cause _________ blockage
ototoxic, nephrotoxic, neuromuscular
The veterinarian orders 15 mg of Vitamin K. The vial is labeled 10 mg/ml. How many milliliters will be administered?
1.5 ml
When administering antiparasitics to food-producing animals:
Read the labels carefully regarding the use in food-producing animals and withdrawal times
An anthelmintic is used for the treatment and removal of external parasites.
False
Match the medication with the appropriate drug class

Epsiprantel
Anticestodal
Match the medication with the appropriate drug class

Dichlorvos
Organophosphate
Match the medication with the appropriate drug class

Albendazole
Benzamidazole
Match the medication with the appropriate drug class

Moxidectin
Milbemycin
The veterinarian orders phenylbutazone to be administered to a 1500 lb horse at a dose of 5 mg/kg IV. The vial is labeled 200 mg/ml. How many milliliters will be administered?
17 ml
The term IGR is an abbreviation for:
Insect Growth Regulator
Piperazine is an older antiparasitic effective against:
Roundworms.
Define the following terms:

Active immunity
Arises when an animal receives an antigen that activates B- and T-lymphocytes, creates a memory
Define the following terms:

Passive immunity
when an animal receives antibodies from another animal
Define the following terms:

Antibody
any immunity acquired during normal biological experiences.
d) Antigen A substance that when introduced to the body stimulations the production of an antibody.
Define the following terms:

Vaccine
A suspension of a weakened, live, or killed microorganisms administered to prevent improve or treat an infectious disease.
Define the following terms:

Inactivated (killed) vaccine
Made from microbes, microbe parts, or microbe by-products that have been chemically treated or heated to kill the microbe.
Define the following terms:

Live vaccine
Made from microorganisms that may be fully virulent.
Define the following terms:

Adjuvant
a substance added to a vaccine to improve the immune response so that less vaccine is needed.
Define the following terms:

Bacterin
Vaccine where the bacteria are inactivated.
Define the following terms:

Attenuated (modified-live) vaccine
Microorganisms go through a process to lose their virulence, but must be able to replicate within the patient to provide immunity.
Define the following terms:

Toxoid
used against a toxin that has been deactivated by heat or chemicals, but is still able to stimulate antibody production
Define the following terms:

Antitoxins
substances that contain antibodies obtained from an animal that has been hypersensitized to neutralize toxins
What is the purpose of colustrum? What does it contain and why is it important to newborns?
The mother’s first milk that contains antibodies that mothers passively pass onto their offspring. Provides disease resistance for a few days and provides variable antibody levels for up to 9 weeks.
Compare and contrast inactivated, modified-live, and live vaccines
Inactivated – advantages – safe, stable, unlikely to cause disease; disadvantages – need repeated doses, possible reactions. Modified-live: advantages – immunity last longer, has better efficacy and quicker stimulation of cell-mediated immunity than killed vaccines; disadvantages – possible abortion, can produce mild forms of the disease, can shed into the environment, proper handling/storage is critical. Live: advantages – few doses needed, immunity lasts longer, inexpensive, adjuvants not needed; disadvantages – residual virulence that requires careful handling.
Compare and contrast toxoids and antitoxins (such as Tetanus toxoid or Tetanus antitoxin).
Toxoids used against a toxin that has been deactivated by heat or chemicals, but is still able to stimulate antibody production; Advantages – provides protection against toxin; disadvantage – shorter duration of effectiveness and products may contain adjuvants. Antitoxins: substances that contain antibodies obtained from an animal that has been hypersensitized to neutralize toxins; advantages – quick protection against toxin; disadvantages – short-lived reaction; may contain preservative that can cause reactions.
What are the signs and symptoms of a typical vaccine reaction?
Reaction at the injection site (welts), fever, vomiting, lethargy. Salivation and possible difficulty breathing, hives, vaccine-related sarcomas in cats, autoimmune hemolytic anemia in dogs
List and describe the ways a vaccine may be inactivated due to improper handling, care, and storage techniques.
Modified live vaccines are sensitive to sunlight, heat, and freezing. Vaccines should be bought from a reputable company and shipped in cold packs. Upon arrival they should immediately be removed and placed in the refrigerator. For reconstituted vaccines use only the diluents provided by the manufacturer; mix as near to the time of administration as possible.
Why is using the proper route of administration of a vaccine important?
The level of immune protection can only be insured only when given by the proper route. Route is especially important in food producing animals.
Why should vaccines be administered subcutaneously rather than intramuscularly in food producing animals?
IM injections leave a permanent scar which must be cut out after slaughter which cuts down on meat production. Most of the time in food producing animals the vaccine is administered SQ.
Why should vaccines not packaged together not be mixed in the same syringe? (i.e. separate vaccines from separate manufacturers)
One vaccine component can interfere with another component and effect the efficacy of one of the vaccines.
List and describe some of the patient considerations and factors that could alter the effectiveness of the vaccine.
Patients on large doses of corticosteroids, pregnant or nursing should not receive modified live vaccines as the animal may not be able to mount an adequate immune response; considerations of other medications. Age, freedom from disease, cancers, environment, nutritional status.
Why should tetracyclines not be used in pregnant or young animals?
A) Form complexes with calcium and may affect bone and teeth development.
B) Due to rapidly dividing cells, they are infeffective.
C) May cause tooth discoloration and dental caries.
D) May induce abnormal cartilage formation.
E) Both A and C
F) All of the above.
E)
Why is enrofloxacin contraindicated for use in young puppies and adult horses?
Induce abnormal cartilage formation
The veterinarian prescribes Albon for Coccidia. Your patient is a puppy weighing 8 lbs. The loading dose for Albon is 25 mg/lb and the drug is supplied in a concentration of 250 mg/5 ml. How many milliliters will be given to the puppy?
4 ml