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211 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Hemoglobins
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Hemoglobins are globular proteins that are in high concentration in red blood cells. Transport O2 to tissues & CO2 back.
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NO is a ______ is carried by ______
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vasodilator; Hemoglobin
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Hemoglobin is composed of 2 different polypeptide chains (____ & ____). __(#)__ of each makes up one hemoglobin molecule. Each chain contains a _________.
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alpha & beta, 2, heme prosthetic group
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High levels of _________ is a diagnostic for muscular dystrophy.
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creatine kinase
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What is the importance of enzymes?
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- Catalyze all rxns in body
- Targets of many drugs (poisons too) - Inherited diseases are normally defects in genes that produce enzymes. - Analysis of enzymes important for diagnosis. |
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Active Site
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site on enzyme where chemical change occurs
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Substrate
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molecule that enzyme modifies
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Product
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molecule that enzyme produces
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Cofactor
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a small molecule required for activity
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prosthetic group
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A cofactor that is very tightly bound to the enzyme
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Active site
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region of the enzyme where chemical reaction occurs
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Allosteric
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area "other" than the active site.
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Electron transfer enzymes
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NADH: a cofactor that reversibly binds to the enzyme
FAD and FMN: cofactors that usually stay tightly bound to the enzyme |
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Apoenzyme
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An enzyme minus its prosthetic group (inactive)
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Holoenzyme
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The enzyme containing its prosthetic group (active)
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Oxidoreductase Enzyme Classification
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Oxidation-reduction reaction produced by enzyme
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Transferase Enzyme Classification
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an enzyme that transfers a group, e.g., PO4.
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Hydrolase Enzyme Classification
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enzyme that cleaves via addition of water
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Lyase Enzyme Classification
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enzyme that cleaves by elimination
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Isomerase Enzyme Classification
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enzyme that causes isomerization.
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Ligase Enzyme Classification
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enzyme that couples two molecules Ex: ATP hydrolysis.
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Half life is important in drug reactions because it tells you...
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how often you have to dose.
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Most drug reactions are __(#)__ order and __(#)__ order
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zero and first order.
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Zero Order:
Rate Law Integrated Rate Law Units Half Life |
-dA/dt = k
A=Ao-kt M/s t1/2= Ao/2k |
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First Order:
Rate Law Integrated Rate Law Units Half Life |
-dA/dt=kA
A=Aoe^-kt 1/s t1/2=ln(2)/k |
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The Michaelis-Menten equation
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v0 = ( vmax + [S] ) / ( Km + [S] )
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What is the Lineweaver-Burk plot used for and what are the important parts of it?
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It is used for the analysis of kinetic data.
Intercept of 1/Vmax is important Slope is Km/Vmax. |
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What is an example of Acid/Base catalysis?
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ribonuclease A
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What is an example of Covalent catalysis?
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Serine esterases
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______ ___ is a type of catalysis that ions that are tightly bound to the enzyme. Na+, K+, Ca++ and Mg++ are NOT some of these ions. Instead these ions can be complexed to a _______.
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Metal Ion; substrate
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Proximity & Orientation Catalysis
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a type of catalysis that properly orients and brings substrates close together so that they can react.
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Preferential Transition State Binding Catalysis ***
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-Binding of substrates to the active site promotes straining so that the transition state is formed.
-Transition states generally bind more tightly to enzymes than do substrates. -Transition state analogs often make good therapeutic agents |
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Electrostatic Effects Catalysis
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The distribution of charges in an active site influences:
-The stability of the transition state -The pKa values of amino acid side chains Enzyme Activity -Depends on pH -Temperature -Ionic Strength |
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Reversible Enzyme Inhibitor
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Inhibitor binds reversibly to enzyme (binding may be tight and seem irreversible under physiological conditions)
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Irreversible Enzyme Inhibitor
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Inhibitor reacts covalently with the enzyme.
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In Reversible Inhibition, _______ inhibitors bind to the active site. While ______ inhibitors can bind to the active site or create a transition state. Uncompetitive inhibitors only bind to create _______ _____. All inhibitors change the _____ while only some change the Vmax.
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Competitive; Non-competitive; Transition State; Km.
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Competitive Inhibitors compete with the substrate for binding to the enzyme and causes and increase in apparent _____. Often resembles the ______.
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Km; substrate.
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Cytochromes P450 play a major role in:
a. progesterone synthesis b. estrogen synthesis c. prostaglandin degradation d. prostaglandin synthesis |
B. Estrogen Synthesis
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CYP450 contains a _____ group. Cholesterol, steroid hormones and fatty acids constitute the _______ substrates for this enzyme. Drugs, food additives, pesticides, components of cigarette smoke constitute the _________ substrates.
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prosthetic heme; endogenous, exogenous
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Some biological functions of CYP450 include: activation/inactivation of ________ ________. Converts _____ to highly reactive molecules. Produces _________ such as estrogens, androgens, vitamin D, & progestins. Metabolizes _____ _____, prostaglandins, leukotrienes and retinoids.
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theraputic agents; chemicals; steroid hormones; fatty acids
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Cytochrome P450 Uses a ______ as an Intermediate for Accepting Electrons
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Flavoenzyme (FAD or FMN)
Helps the the 2e- transfer simultaneously. |
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T/F FAD or FMN can only exist in the 2e- state.
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False! A Flavoenzyme can exist in a fully oxidized or 1 electron or 2 electron state.
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All of the following are correct about a molecule designated as a cytochrome P450 except:
a. it contains a heme as a prosthetic group b. it catalyzes the hydroxylation of a hydrophobic substrate c. it may accept electrons from a substance such as NADPH d. it undergoes a change in the heme iron upon binding a substrate e. it comes from the same gene family as all other cytochromes P450 |
e. it comes from the same gene family as all other cytochromes P450
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Multiple alleles have been demonstrated for approximately ____% of human P450 genes.
a. 60 b. 70 c. 20 d. 40 |
d. 40
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CYP450 that is located in the ER membrane has ____ as the electron entry site whereas ____ is the electron exit site.
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FAD; FMN
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Cytochrome b5
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A small heme protein can be involved in the e- transfer during CYP450 reactions. Only found in ER.
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CYP450 that is located in the mitochondrial membrane does not contain _____, therefore ____ is the entrance & exit site for e-.
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FMN ; FAD
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Adrenodoxin
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two Fe-S clusters only found in mitochondrial CYP450.
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Example of a food that Alters P450 metabolism & absorption.
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Grapefruit
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Most P450 is found in the ______.
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Liver
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Terfenadine
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was used to treat seasonal allergies.
Converted to fexofenadine by CYP3A4 inhibits it and causes high concentrations of K+ causing rare tachycardia. Replaced by Allegra. |
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Cisapride
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used to treat nighttime heartburn.
When CYP3A4 is inhibited, it causes an accumulation of cisapride and results in heart rhythm abnormalities. Pulled from market. |
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CYP2E1 has a distinct role in:
a. acetaminophen induced renal toxicity b. aspirin induced renal toxicity c. vaprosyn induced liver toxicity d. acetaminophen induced liver toxicity. |
d. acetaminophen induced liver toxicity.
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An FDA approved drug to treat nighttime heartburn was:
a. terfenadine b. vassopressor c. Viagra d. cisapride |
d. cisapride
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In NOS (nitric oxide synthease), Flow of electrons from FMN to the Heme is controlled by _______, a Ca+2 binding protein. e- flow requires ____ Ca+2 for nNOS and eNOS.
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calmodulin ; high
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NOS (nitric oxide synthease):
a. contains iron b. is only found in neurons c. produces a peptide that is used as a neurotransmitter d. requires Mn+2 for activity |
a. contains iron
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iNOS is essential for tumoricidal and _____ functions of macrophage. Implicated in _____ induced circulatory shock.
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NOS induced expression in macrophage.
bacterial; septic |
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eNOS has a critical role in maintaining ______ ______ tone especially in the arterioles. Overproduction can result in _____, thrombosis, artherosclerosis.
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(endothelial form of NOS)
blood vessel; hypertension |
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nNOS: elimination of this gene in mice causes _______ via resistance to ischemic injury. Removing this gene also causes loss of control of the ____ ____.
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(neuronal form of NOS)
vascular stroke; intestinal muscles |
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All fatty acids have a carboxylic acid at ____. Usually have a(n) ____ number of carbons between __-__. Double bonds are usually cis at ____ for unsaturated.
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C1 ; even; 14-20; C9
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Saturated Fatty Acids
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No Double Bonds
Have high MP |
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Unsaturated Fatty Acids
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Have at least one Double Bond
Low MP |
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Polyunsaturated Fatty Acids
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are usually unconjugated
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Fatty acids occurring in humans most commonly:
a. are limited to 16 or fewer carbon atoms b. are highly branched structures c. must be supplied entirely by the diet d. contain an even number of carbon atoms |
d. contain an even number of carbon atoms
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What does the cell membrane do?
a. produces ribosomes b. controls the kinds and amounts of substances that move in and out of a cell c. store toxins and other waste materials d. catabolizes ribosomes |
b. controls the kinds and amounts of substances that move in and out of a cell
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GlycoSphingolipids are ______ molecules located on the _______ membrane.
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neutral; extracellular;
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Sphingolipids
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N acyl fatty acids. NOT glycosphingolipids
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Cerebrosides
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GlycoSphingolipids that have 1 sugar.
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Gangliosides
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GlycoSphingolipids that have oligosaccharides and of chain of 3 or more sugars (at least one is sialic acid) used for recognition in cholera toxin.
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The glycerolphospholipids and sphingolipids of membranes:
a. all contain phosphorous b. are present in membranes in equal quantity c. all contain one or more monosaccharides d. all are amphipathic |
d. all are amphipathic
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Glycerophospholipids
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triacegylerol ex: phosphatidic acid
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Plasmalogens
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Have an a, b unsaturated ether in place of the ester at C1 in a glycerophospholipid
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Which of these is a characteristic of the cell membrane
a. contains proteins b. contains phospholipids c. is a bilayer d. all of the above |
d. all of the above
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All of the following are ways in which peripheral proteins bind to membranes except:
a. binding to an integral protein b. electrostatic binding between phospholipids and positive groups on the protein c. by a short hydrophobic group at one end of the protein d. attached by the charged carboxyl group at the carboxyl terminus of the protein e. binding noncovalently to membrane phosphatidylinositol |
d. attached by the charged carboxyl group at the carboxyl terminus of the protein
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______ temperature of the plasma membrane leads to increased fluidity.
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Increased
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Peripheral (extrinsic proteins)
Released by... |
Salt solutions of different ionic strengths, or extremes of pH
(e.g, enzymes water soluble proteins) |
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Integral Proteins (disruption ) released by...
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Released by detergents or organic solvents
Hydrophobic amino acids |
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Membrane lipids are _______ which means that they contain both hydrophobic and hydrophillic regions.
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amphiphatic
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Lipsome
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Spherical vesicles of phospholipid bilayer
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Fluid Mosaic Model states that phase changes of the membrane are dependent upon _____ composition. With increased temperature the membrane goes from a ______ state to a _____ state.
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lipid ; ordered ; disordered (fluid)
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Tm is the _____ _____. The longer, more saturated fatty acid chains interact more ________ and therefore have a ____ Tm. Unsaturated chains _____ Tm.
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Transition Temperature; strongly; higher; decrease
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Cholesterol modifies _____ of membranes. At temp below Tm, stops interaction of tails and _____ fluidity. At temps above Tm, rigid tails decrease fluidity and increase the ____. When cholesterol:phospholipid ratio is high, Tm is _____.
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fluidity; decreases; Tm; abolished.
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T/F Biological membranes are homogeneous.
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FALSE.
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Lipid rafts
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–discrete regions enriched in glycolipids and cholesterol; more rigid and thicker than surrounding membrane
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Lipid rafts are discrete regions enriched in ___________ and ___________
a. glycolipids, cholesterol b. glycolipids, carbohydrates c. amino acids, carbon dioxide d. inorganic phosphates, cholesterol |
a. glycolipids, cholesterol
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Which of the following molecules would diffuse across a plasma membrane most easily assuming there is no active transport or facilitated diffusion?
a. amino acid b. RNA c. protein d. glycerol |
d. glycerol
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Facilitated Membrane Transporters and Active Membrane Transporters have 3 things in common:
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1. saturation kinetics
2. specific 3. can be inhibited. |
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T/F Facilitated Membrane Transporters differ with Active Membrane Transporters in that they use energy and go down the concentration gradient.
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False. They do not use energy but do go down the concentration gradient.
AMT go against the concentration gradient and use ATP (energy). |
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Characteristics of a mediated transport system include:
a. nonspecific binding of solute to transporter b. release of the transporter from the membrane following transport c. a rate of transport directly proportional to the concentration of solute d. release of the solute only if the concentration on the new side is lower than that on the original side e. a mechanism for translocating the solute from one side of the membrane to the other. |
e. a mechanism for translocating the solute from one side of the membrane to the other.
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________ transport reaches a maximum rate with a large concentration gradient across the membrane whereas _______ transport
rate increases linearly with gradient |
facilitated ; passive
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Aquaporins
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alpha type channels that transport water.
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Beta barrel channels are in the outer membrane of the _______, not as useful as the alpha type channels.
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mitochondria
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____ cannot pass through AQP1 (Aquaporin 1) due to electrostatic repulsion.
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H+
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Electrogentic
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protein causes a charge as a result of transportation of solute
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Electroneutral
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protein causes no change in charge as a result of transport.
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Glucose Transporters are not readily reversible because: _____ is constantly being metabolized and rapid ____ prevents leakage out.
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glucose; phosphorylation
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Catabolism is
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Conversion of complex
molecules into smaller molecules that produces energy (ATP). |
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Anabolism is
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Chemical reactions leading to the formation of large, complex macromolecules from smaller precursors
REQUIRES ATP |
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Catabolism
a. produces energy b. synthesizes macromolecules c. is thermogenic d. requires ATP |
a. produces energy
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Anabolism
a. produces ADP+Pi b. produces NAD+ c. produces NADP+ d. all of the above |
d. all of the above
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Anabolism requires expenditure of energy in the form of
a. ATP b. ADP c. NAP+ d. protein |
a. ATP
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The first law of thermodynamics states:
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the total energy of a system and its surroundings are constant.
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The second law of thermodynamics states:
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A process can occur spontaneously only if the sum of the entropies of the systems and its surroundings increases.
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A bond may be “high energy” for any of the following reasons except:
a. products of its cleavage are more resonance stabilized than the original compound b. the bond is unusually stable, requiring a large energy input to cleave it c. electrostatic repulsion is relieved when the bond is cleaved d. a cleavage product may be unstable, tautomerizing to a more stable form e. the bond may be strained |
b. the bond is unusually stable, requiring a large energy input to cleave it
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T/F A reaction can occur spontaneously if /\G is positive
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FALSE. /\G must be negative.
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T/F When /\G=0 a system is at equilibrium and no net change can take place.
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TRUE.
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T/F /\G provides no information on the rate of the reaction.
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TRUE.
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T/F The DG depends only on the free energy of the products (final state) – the reactants (initial state) and on the path of transformation.
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FALSE. It does not rely on the path of transformation. Only on the free energy of the products & reactants.
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What results from Mitochondrial ATP Synthesis?
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2 CO2
1 GTP 3 NADH 1 FADH2 9 ATP |
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The substrate of the TCA cycle (citric acid cycle or Krebs Cycle) is the two carbon unit of ___ ___.
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Acetyl CoA
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The initial step of the citric acid cycle is catalyzed by
a. isocitrate synthase b. succinyl CoA c. aconitase d. citrate synthase |
d. citrate synthase
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The diagnosis of pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency is usually made by assaying the enzyme cultures of:
a. heart muscle b. skin fibroblasts c. urine d. pancreatic fibroblasts |
b. skin fibroblasts
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First step of the Citric Acid Cycle
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Oxaloacetate + Acetyl Coa ---> Citrate
by Citrate Synthase CAIASSFM |
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2nd step of the Citric Acid Cycle
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Citrate ----> Isocitrate
by Aconitase CAIASSFM |
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3rd step of the Citric Acid Cycle
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Isocitrate -----> Alpha ketogluterate
by Isocitrate dehydrogenase CAIASSFM |
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4th step of the Citric Acid Cycle
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Alpha ketogluterate ---> Succinyl CoA
by a-Ketoglutarate Dehydrogenase CAIASSFM |
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5th step of the Citric Acid Cycle
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Succinyl CoA ----> Succinate
by Succinyl CoA Synthase CAIASSFM |
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6th step of the Citric Acid Cycle
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Succinate ---> Fumarate
by Succinate Dehydrogenase CAIASSFM |
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7th step of the Citric Acid Cycle
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Fumarate <----> L-Malate
FREELY REVERSIBLE (likes TRANS) by Fumarase CAIASSFM |
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8th step of the Citric Acid Cycle
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L-Malate ----> Oxaloacetate
by Malate Dehydrogenase rxn is pulled fwd by citrate synthase who removes oxaloacetate. |
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In TCA cycle ____ carbon moieties are synthesized completely to CO2 and H2O. ____ reducing equivalents are produced: ____ NADH, + H+ + ______. ____ GTP is(are) made.
TOTAL ATP = _____ |
2 ; 4 ; 3 ; FADH2; 1; 10
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Each NADH + H+ = _____ ATPs
Each FADH2 = _____ ATPs In one turn of the TCA cycle: TOTAL ATP = ____ |
2.5 ; 1.5; 10
(10 because 3 NADH, 1 FADH2 and 1 ATP from the GTP made) |
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Where do the reactions for the citric acid cycle occur?
a. cytosol b. mitochondria c. urea d. none of the above |
b. mitochondria
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anaplerotic reactions
most important of these rxns? |
Reactions that supply 4 and 5 carbon acids for TCA cycle.
pyruvate carboxylase. |
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TCA intermediates serve as _____ for amino acid, fatty acid and glucose synthesis. _____ of these impacts other biosynthetic pathways.
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precursors; depletion
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Mitochondria:
a. translate mRNA b. transcribe their own DNA c. are not self-replicating organelles d. all of the above |
d. all of the above
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Outer membrane of Mitochondria is 30-40% ____ and 60-70% _____. ____ is also located on the outer membrane. The outer membrane is rich in _____.
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lipid ; protein; MAO; Porin
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Cristae
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folds of inner membrane of the mitochondria that increase surface area.
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The inner membrane of the mitochondria is very rich in _________ fatty acids such as _________ and is 80% ________.
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unsaturated; Cardiolipin; protein
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All the enzymes of the Citric Acid Cycle are located in the membrane except for ____. _______ is bound to the outer membrane, enzymes for fatty acid oxidation not there, urea synthesis is not present either.
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4 ; Succinate dehydrogenase
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Mitochondria:
a. translate mRNA b. transcribe their own DNA c. are not self-replicating organelles d. all of the above |
d. all of the above
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LEO
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Lose Electron Oxidation.
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GER
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Gain Electron Reduction
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Electrochemical Half Cell
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oxidized plus the reduced form of each chemical species
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T/F Coupled half cell reactions can drive energetically unfavorable reactions in the same way that thermodynamically coupled reactions do.
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True!
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The terminal electron acceptor in the electron transport chain is ____
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oxygen.
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Complex I of the ETC contains _____ dehydrogenase and goes to the ______ pool.
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NADH; UQ/UQH2
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Complex II of the ETC contains ______ dehydrogenase and goes to the ______ pool.
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Succinate; UQ/UQH2
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Complex III of the ETC contains _____ and goes to ________
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cytochrome bc1 ; cytochrome C
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Complex IV of the ETC contains _____ and converts _____ into _____.
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cytochrome aa3 ; 1/2 O2 into H2O.
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Ubiquinone can accept and transfer one and two electrons due to the _________.
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semiquinone (i believe this is part of Complex III of the ETC)
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First step in ETC
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NADH ---> NAD+ (oxidized) and goes to FMN.
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In complex I, electrons in clusters are transferred to coenzyme ____ aka ______ to form ubiquinol. At the end of complex I in the ETC, ____ protons are pumped out of the matrix and into the intermembrane space for each molecule of NADH which is oxidized.
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Q; ubiquinone; 4
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In the ETC complex II, ________ turns into fumarate with succinate dehydrogenase. The e- are passed through an Fe-S center before being passed to _________ in the mitochondrial membrane.
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succinate; ubiquinone
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T/F Cytochrome C is mobile
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True
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1st half of the ETC in Complex 3 depends on migration of _______ to the Qp site of cytochrome c reductase.
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ubiquinol
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__ _____ is a transfer of electrons through complex 3.
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Q cycle
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_____ in cytochrome c are similar to that of Hb but they undergo oxidation reduction.
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Hemes
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Inhalation of hydrogen cyanide gas or ingestion of potassium capsule cause a rapid inhibition of the mitochondrial electron transport chain at the:
a. cytochrome c oxidase step b. ketone body oxidase step c. pyruvate step d. iron-heme linkage |
a. cytochrome c oxidase step
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Complex III _____ cytochrome C.
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reduces
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Complex IV ______ cytochrome C
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oxidizes
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Cytochrome c is __________ by complex III and ________ by complex IV
a. reduced, oxidized b. oxidized, reduced c. hydrated, dehydrated d. none of the above |
a. reduced, oxidized.
fOur = oxidized thRee = reduced |
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ATP synthase (also known as Complex V) consists of two domains, F1 and F0:
a. F1 and F0 are both integral membrane protein complexes of the outer membrane b. F1 domain provides a channel for translocation of protons across the membrane c. F1 binds ATP but not ADP d. F1 domain catalyzes the synthesis of ATP e. only the F0 domain contains more than one subunit. |
d. F1 domain catalyzes the synthesis of ATP
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ATP synthase is also known as complex __. It is composed of an integral protein, ___, and a peripherial protein, ___. F0 makes the membrane permeable to ____ ions.
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V (5) ; F0; F1; H+
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Proton motive force
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energy stored in the proton gradient
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Chemiosis
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moving protons down the gradient
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T/F All mitochondrial diseases are passed from the mother.
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True
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T/F Mitochondria contains its own genome (circular, single stranded DNA) which contains the structural genes for 13 proteins of the electron transport chain.
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FALSE.
DOUBLE STRANDED DNA. |
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The severity of mitochondrial diseases depends on the amount of _______present in any given cell
a. RNA mutations b. golgi apparatus c. mutated mt DNA d. mitochondria |
c. mutated mt DNA
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Leber’s Hereditary Optic Neuropathy's mutated gene is _________. Affects the _____ and causes sudden blindness.
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NADH-Ubiquinone Oxidoreductase; CNS
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Myoclonic Epilepsy and Ragged Red Fibers (MERRF)'s mutated gene is _______. Causes myoclonus, ataxia, seizures, stroke like activity.
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t-RNA gene mutations with Lysine and Leucine.
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Exercise Intolerance's gene mutation is on ______. Characterized by progressive exercise intolerance and proximal muscle weakness.
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Cytochrome b-guanine
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Glucose is transported into the red blood cell by
a. glycolysis b. GLUT 3 c. glucose transporter isoform 1 d. glucose transporter isoform 2 |
c. glucose transporter isoform 1
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The Overall Reaction of Glycolysis:
C6H12O6 + __Pi + __ADP ------> __CH3CHOHCOOH + __ATP + __H2O CH3CHOHCOOH is named _________ |
2; 2 ;2 ;2; 2; Lactic Acid
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Glycogen is the polymer form of ______ which is stored in the _____ to maintain blood-_____ levels.
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Glucose; Liver; Glucose
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_____ is the major form by which carbohydrates are absorbed in the intestines; Some specialized cells only use this carbohydrate as fuel for example: the brain cells.
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Glucose;
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Liver has highest levels of glucagon and _______.
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Insulin
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There are no ____ in Red Blood Cells so the end product of glycolysis in RBC is ____.
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mitochondria; lactate
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Glucose is transported into a red blood cell via _______. When glucose becomes phosphorylated it gains a ______ becoming trapped within the Red Blood Cell.
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GLUT1; charge
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Glycolysis is a metabolic pathway where one molecule of glucose is converted to 2 molecules of pyruvate with a a net production of ________ and _______
a. no ATP, 2 NADH b. 2 ATP; 2NADH c. 1 ATP, 1 NADH d. 1 ADP, 1 NAD+ |
b. 2 ATP; 2NADH
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In the brain, glucose is transported into the cell via _____. Glycolysis in the cell creates 2 pyruvate that will then go into the ____ cycle
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GLUT3; TCA (CAC) Krebs;
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In fat tissue, the muscles and heart glucose is transported into the cell via _____. After pyruvate is made from glycolysis, pyruvate is ________ to make acetyl CoA. In fat cells, a process called ______ turns Acetyl CoA to Fat molecules.
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GLUT4; decarboxylated; lipogenesis
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In the liver, glucose is transported into the cell via _____. Glucose can be converted to ______ and pentose phosphates. ______ occurs in the liver to produce 2 pyruvate. Then the pyruvates can be converted to fat or ATP/CO2 in the _____ cycle.
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GLUT 2; Glucoronides; Glycolysis; TCA/CAC/Krebs
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The most important regulatory enzyme of the glycolytic pathway is:
a. hexokinase b. phosphoglucose isomerase c. phosphofructose-1-kinase d. alcohol dehydrogenase |
c. phosphofructose-1-kinase
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Epinephrine:
a. inhibits glycogenolysis in the liver b. results in neural control in skeletal muscle c. inhibits glycogenolysis in heart muscle d. stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver |
d. stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver
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What is the commitment step in Glycolysis? (If this step goes on, there's no turning back)
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Step 3:
Fructose-6-Pi +ATP ---> Fructose-1,6 + diPi+ADP+H+ Phosphofructokinase (enzyme) |
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The first three steps of glycolysis _____ the glucose. Steps 4-6 split the ______ intermediate Steps 7-10 produce ____ via an oxidation/reduction reaction.
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priming; phosphorylated; ATP
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What is step 1 in glycolysis?
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Glucose + ATP ---> Glucose-6-Pi +ADP+H+
Hexokinase (enzyme) |
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What is the final step in glycolysis?
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Phosphoenolpyruvate + ADP + H+ ---->Pyruvate + ATP
Pyruvate Kinase (enzyme |
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The reason why step 2 is not a commitment step in glycolysis is because ______ can be inhibited by glucose 6 phosphate.
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Hexokinase
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Highly regulated enzymes may be:
a. both allosteric inhibitor and activator sites b. only allosteric inhibitor sites c. only allosteric activator sites d. usually neither inhibitor nor activator sites |
a. both allosteric inhibitor and activator sites
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In a highly specialized (rare) case of enzyme regulation activator and inhibitor sites overlap. Whats an example of this?
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Phosphofructokinase-1
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When referring to enzymes:
In the absence of the allosteric inhibitor, activity is ____. In the presence of allosteric inhibitor, activity is ____; substrate can accumulate. |
high; low
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T/F In enzyme-limited steps the substrate accumulates.
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True!
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T/F In substrate-limited steps, the substrate accumulates
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False! In substrate-limited reactions the substrate is quickly metabolized so it does not accumulate
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_____ limited reactions are far from equilibrium while _____ limited reactions are close to equilibrium.
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Enzyme; Substrate
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Glucose stored as glycogen because:
a. fat can’t be metabolized quickly b. fat can’t be used as energy source in the absence of oxygen c. fat can’t be converted to glucose to maintain blood glucose levels as needed by brain d. All of the above. |
d. All of the Above
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Glycogenesis
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synthesis of glycogen
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Glycogenolysis
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the breakdown of glycogen
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In muscle, glycogen is also stored and can be used by the muscle fibers differently: Red muscle fibers tend to have a lot of _____ which can oxidize glucose to CO2 and H2O. White muscle fibers tend to have less _____ and fewer _____ therefore anerobic processes dominate such as glycolysis to produce lactic acid.
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myoglobin; myoglobin; mitochondria.
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(glucose)n +3ADP+3Pi+H+ ------>
(glucose)n-1+3ATP + 2H2O is a combination of: |
glycogenolysis and glycolysis
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An example of glycogenic amino acid is:
a. glycine b. leucine c. lysine d. all of the above |
a. glycine
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In order to branch glycogen, the main chain must be atleast ___ units long. A new branch must be at least ___ units away from an existing branch. The enzymes capable of de-branching include: __________
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11; 4; oligo-1,4 or 1,6 glucantransferase
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Lack of _____ leads to glycogen storage diseases
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glucose-6-phosphatate
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UDP
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uradine Di phosphate.
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Glycogen storage diseases include all except:
a. Cori’s Disease b. McArdle’s Disease c. Pompe’s Disease d. Von Smithson’s Disease |
d. Von Smithson’s Disease
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Glucose 6-phosphatase, which is deficient in Von Gierke’s disease is necessary for the production of blood glucose from:
a. liver glycogen b. fructose c. amino acid carbon chains d. all of the above. |
d. all of the above.
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Glycogen synthase has to be ____ for glycogenesis & _____ for glycogenolysis.
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active; inactive
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Each cAMP molecule activates a:
a. a protein phosphatase b. a phosphoprotein phosphatase c. an epinephrine molecule d. none of the above |
d. none of the above
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cAMP is controlled by _____ synthase.
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glycogen
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Activation of adenylyl cyclase by one molecule of ______ causes formation of many molecules of cAMP. Each cAMP molecule activates a ______ molecule which in turn activates many molecules of phosphorylase kinase and inhibits many molecules of phosphoprotein phosphatase.
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epinephrine; protein kinase A
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The translocation of Ca2+ across a mmbrane may be regulated by the binding of Ca2+ ________ complex to the transporter.
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calmodulin
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The glycerophospholipids and sphingolipids of membranes are all _______.
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amphipathic
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Ionophore (DO NOT/DO) require the input of metabolic energy for mediated transport of an ion.
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DO NOT
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Aquaporins (AQP) form channels through which _____ flows.
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water
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The translocation of Ca2+ across a mmbrane may be regulated by the binding of Ca2+ ________ complex to the transporter.
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calmodulin
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Cell membranes typically have both integral and ______ proteins.
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peripheral
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The glycerophospholipids and sphingolipids of membranes are all _______.
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amphipathic
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Ionophore (DO NOT/DO) require the input of metabolic energy for mediated transport of an ion.
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DO NOT
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Aquaporins (AQP) form channels through which _____ flows.
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water
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Cell membranes typically have both integral and ______ proteins.
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peripheral
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