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325 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

official name for hip bones?

os coxae

what part of the vertebrae is weight bearing?

body

what part of the vertebrae does spinal cord pass thru?

vertebral foramen

bones that contribute to the abdominal wall (and how many of each)

5 lumbar vertebrae
2 hip bones
sacrum

what connects lamina of vertebrae to body?

pedicles

sup articular process articulates with? and what type of joint does it make?

the inferior articular facet of the vertebra above.

makes a synovial facet joint (zygopophyseal joint)

two parts of an intervertebral disc

- annulus fibrosus (tough outer layer)
- nucleus pulposus (soft inner layer)

whats a motion segment?

two articulating vertebrae and the intervertebral disc.

two articulating vertebrae and the intervertebral disc.

where do blood vessels come in and out of the spine?

intervertebral foramen

pectineal line (where)

a ridge on the superior ramus of pubic bone

the pelvic inlet is defined by (7 unique borders):

(os coxae)
pubic symphysis, 
pubic crest and tubercle,
pectineal line of the superior pubic ramus, 
arcuate line, 
(sacrum)
ala, 

promontory

(os coxae)
pubic symphysis,
pubic crest and tubercle,
pectineal line of the superior pubic ramus,
arcuate line,
(sacrum)
ala,


promontory

inguinal ligament goes from ? to ?

asis and pubic tubercle

name of opening for the aorta in the diaphragm? and what is the diaphragm on either side of it called?

aortic hiatus. right crus and left crus

what are the vertebrae levels for opening of IVC, aorta and esophagus into the abdominal cavity?

IVC - T8
Esophagus - T10
Aorta - T12

muscles of the posterior abdominal wall (4)

psoas major (medial)
iliacus (inferior lateral, wraps around iliac crests)
quadratus lumborum (superior lateral, but lower than diaphragm)

diaphragm (superior)

psoas major (medial)

iliacus (inferior lateral, wraps around iliac crests)

quadratus lumborum (superior lateral, but lower than diaphragm)

the sideways lines across rectus abdominus

tendinous intersections

the muscle formed by the joining of the psoas major and iliacus? and what landmarks where it begins?

iliopsoas.

inguinal ligament

how do you know where gall bladder is from surface of the body?

where the linea semilunaris meet the rib margin

the fibres from external oblique that do not reach pubic tubercle but arc downwards to the pectineal line are called _______________

lacunar ligament

where does the rectus sheath take on a different enveloping order? and what are the orders superior and inferior to that line?

the "arcuate line" between umbilicus and public crest.

superior: transversalis fascia, transversus abdominus, internal oblique, rectus, internal oblique, external oblique

inferior: transversalis fascia, rectus, transversus abdominus, internal oblique, external oblique

what innervates quad. lumborum and psoas major?

branches of the anterior primary rami of the upper 3 or 4 lumbar spinal nerves

L1-L4

blood supply to muscles of abdominal wall (3 main ones)

lumbar arteries (branches of the abdominal aorta, usually 4 pairs),

the inferior epigastric artery (both branches of the external iliac)

and the superior epigastric artery (a branch of the internal thoracic)

whats more lateral, deep ring or inferior epigastric artery?

deep ring. marker for deep ring is just superior to the midpoint of the inguinal ligament.

layers of spermatic cord in to out (4)

vas deferens (with blood and nerve supply), internal spermatic fascia, cremaster muscle, external spermatic fascia

describe conjoint tendon (location, function)

the part of the aponeurosis of trans. abdominus and internal oblique just medial to the deep ring.

think of like it as a piece of plywood between deep and superficial inguinal ring. adds stability to a weak spot in abdomen.

nerve supply to spermatic cord is from ________

genital branch of genitofemoral nerve.

whats the clinical risk of a persisting processus vaginalis after development? (ie. what could happen)

indirect inguinal hernia (through the deep ring)

path of sperm from development to ejaculation (7 steps)

seminiferous tubules > rete testis > efferent ductules > epididymus > vas deferens > ejaculatory duct > urethra (prostatic, membranous, spongy)

the testicle's coverings within the scrotum (3)

tunica vaginalis (parietal and visceral), tunica albuginea

blood supply to/from testicle (2) and drainage differences in left vs. right (2)

testicular arteries (branch from L2)

pampniform plexus of veins wraps around artery, helps regulate testicle temperature. leads to testicular vein.

left test. vein > left renal vein
right test. vein > IVC (at L2)

cysterna chyli (what)

the place where lymph from below the diaphragm is collected. it empties to the thoracic duct.

lymphatic drainage of testicle vs. scrotum

testicle: follows testicular arteries to aortic nodes in abdomen.

scrotum: goes to inguinal nodes

derivatives of ventral mesentery (name 2)

falciform ligament, lesser omentum

derivatives of dorsal mesentery (name 6)

Greater omentum,
splenorenal and gastrosplenic ligaments
The mesentery of the small intestine
The transverse mesocolon
The sigmoid mesocolon

Right and left infracolic compartments are separated by ____________?

longitudinally by small intestine's mesentery

pouch of morrison aka ___________

hepatorenal recess. (right subhepatic space)

opening between the lesser and greater sac. between back of peritoneal cavity and free edge of lesser omentum

epiploic foramen


regions of the stomach (4)

cardia, fundus, body, pyloris

how is cardiac sphincter closed?

the fibres of the diaphragm surrounding the esophogeal opening

what's the mesentery of first part of the duodenum?

the hepatoduodenal ligament (right side of the lesser omentum)

the bump inside the 2nd part of the duodenum where the hepatopancreatic ampulla empties into the duodenum

major duodenal papilla

plcae circularis are most prominent in what part of the small intestine?

jejunum

how to know where the Jejunum begins?

where the small intestine regains its mesentery

barium contrast x-ray useful for what in the intestine?

you could use to tell difference between jejunum and ileum. because the barium sits in the folds that are more prominent in the jejunum.

where does mesoappendix attach?

attaches appendix to terminal ileum

the turn of the large intestine from ascending to transverse is called

hepatic flexure

taenia coli vs. haustrae

taenia coli is 3 bands of smooth muscle runs the length of the large intestine. imagine a drawstring.

haustrae are the bags that these taenia coli create in the large intestine.

transverse colon's mesentery is called

transverse mesocolon

diverticulosis

abnormal outpatching from the inside of colon wall. feces can get stuck in there leading to problems.

volvulus

when the bowel becomes twisted in on itself. it cuts off blood supply.

what vertebrae level does celiac artery come from?

t12

branches of the celiac trunk (3)

upwards - left gastric artery
left and posterior - splenic artery
right - common hepatic

branches of common hepatic artery (3)


down - gastroduodenal
major branch - hepatic proper
medial - right gastic artery

gastrosplenic ligament carries what arteries (2)?

the left gastroepiploic artery (gastro-omental)

short gastric

do celiac and superior mesenteric arteries anastamose? how (6 steps)?

yes,

sup. mesenteric > inferior pancreaticoduodenal >=< superior pancreaticoduodenal < gastroduodenal < common hepatic < celiac

little vessels that directly supply the jejunum and ileum

vasa recta

branches of sup. mesenteric art. (5)

1) inf. pancreaticoduodenal
2) middle colic
3) right colic
4) ileocolic
5) ilial and jejunal branches

what level does inf. mesentertic artery arise at?

L3

branches of inf. mesenteric artery (3)

1) sigmoidal arteries
2) left colic


3) superior rectal

marginal artery of drummond

a concept to refer to the whole complex of vessels that makes this inner square around colon

a concept to refer to the whole complex of vessels that makes this inner square around colon

portal vein forms where? and from what (2 inputs)?

posterior to neck of pancreas.

1) superior mesenteric vein
2) splenic vein
**inf mesenteric vein can empty into either of the above 2 or portal vein, but always connects eventually.

portal vein > ________ > inf vena cava

hepatic veins (in the liver)

when veins become enlarged they are called _____

varicose

esophageal varices, hemorrhoids, caput medusa (cause for each)

all the result of either portal vein or IVC getting blocked. blood gets shunted through smaller vessels that then swell up.

esophageal varices - esophagus
hemorrhoids - in anal canal
caput medusa - subcutaneous veins

where are lymph nodes for stomach/intestine?
within the mesenteries. follow the arteries back to the aorta. named based on the arteries they are grouped around. (ie. inferior mesenteric nodes)

so stomach = celiac nodes
small intestine = sup mesenteric nodes

what three ligaments connect liver to diaphragm?

coronary,
left triangular
right triangular

left hepatic artery supplies vs. what the right hepatic artery supplies

left lobe
caudate lobe
quadrate lobe

vs.

right lobe

lymphatic drainage of the liver (2)

1) deep -following arteries back to celiac trunk nodes
2) superficial - to nodes around IVC to thorax

function of gall bladder

store bile made in the liver

bile pathway liver to duodenum (5 steps)

right + left hepatic ducts = common hepatic ductcommon hepatic duct + cystic duct = common bile ductcommon bile duct passes posterior to 1st part of duodenum, enters the head of the pancreas.common bile duct + main pancreatic duct = ampulla

right + left hepatic ducts = common hepatic duct

common hepatic duct + cystic duct = common bile duct

common bile duct passes posterior to 1st part of duodenum, enters the head of the pancreas.

common bile duct + main pancreatic duct = ampulla

ampulla empties into liver.

which gall stones mainly cause problems?

small enough to leave gall bladder, big enough to get stuck in bile duct.

uncinate process of pancreas is bordered anteriorally by (2 vessels) and posteriorially by (2 vessels)

anteriorally: SMA and SMV pass infront
posteriorally: Aorta and IVC

sphincter of the common bile duct

choledochal sphincter

sphincter of the hepatopancreatic ampulla

sphincter of Oddi (hepatopancreatic sphincter)

what is the duct formed from the merging of common bile duct and pancreatic duct called?

hepatopancreatic ampulla

pancreatic blood supply (3)

1) Pancreatic branches of the splenic artery




2) Anterior and posterior superior pancreaticoduodenal artery




3)the anterior and posterior inferior pancreaticoduodenal branches

location of spleen is at which ribs?

9, 10 , 11

how many spinal nerves in PNS?
how many crainial nerves?

31
12

what are the 5 categories spinal nerves breakdown into and how many nerves in each?

8 cervical
12 thoracic
5 lumbar
5 sacral
1 coccygeal

dorsal root vs. ventral roots ( carry what type of fibres?)

sensory vs. motor

somatic nervous system:

sensory neurons vs. motor neurons (where are cell bodies?)

DRG vs. ventral horns of grey matter in spinal cord

what happens to the dorsal and ventral roots leaving the spinal cord?
the sensory and motor neurons come together and the branch to either posterior primary ramus or anterior primary ramus. posterior is smaller cause it goes to the skin/muscles overlaying vertebral column only.

the sensory and motor roots come together and they branch to either posterior primary ramus or anterior primary ramus. in these rami the sensory/motor fibres are mixed.




posterior is smaller cause it goes to the skin/muscles overlaying vertebral column only.

a general name for an area where nerves from more than one spinal nerve will branch and combine w/ each other. the outputs are now mixed between dermatomes.

nerve plexus

what nerves innervate the external and internal obliques, transversus abdominis, and rectus abdominis? (8)

lower 7 intercostal nerves (from T6-T12 spinal nerve ant. ramii)

and L1 fibres

nerve from which plexus innervate the quadratus lumborum, psoas major and iliacus muscles? (1)

lumbar plexus

what motor nerve innervates diaphragm?

phrenic nerve

where does phrenic nerve get input from (3 spinal nerves)

C3 C4 C5. descends all the way from neck and thorax.

sensory innervation of diaphragm (2)

central part phrenic nervemargins, intercostal nerve

central part phrenic nerve

margins, intercostal nerve


where is pain in central diaphragm referred to and why?

to the shoulder, because there is no diaphragm on sensory homonculus and the phrenic nerve takes inputs from cervical nerves, so its referred to one of those dermatomes

where are preganglionic cell bodies for sympathetic vs. parasympathetic systems?

sympathetic: in ventral horn of the spinal cord

para: cranial nuclei 3,7,9,10 or grey matter in s234

first three prevertebral plexuses from abdomen to pelvis (3)

celiac plexus
aortic plexus
sup hypogastic plexus

where could post gang sympathetic cell bodies be? (2)

sympathetic chain or ganglia of the prevertebral plexus

levels that sympathetic system arises from (14)

T1-L2

levels that parasym system arises from (7)

cranial 3,7,9,10 & sacral 234

the branch of the anterior primary rami that Preganglionic nerves go through to get to the sympathetic chain

ramus communicans

describe symp innervation to organs of neck and thorax (4 impt points)

1. enter symp chain and ascend

2. synapse at the destination level in the symp chain

3. postganglionic go through cardiac nerves

4. go to target organs, passing through plexuses (cardiac, pulmonary, esophageal) but NOT synapsing

describe symp innervation to organs of abdomen and pelvis (4 impt points)

1. descend symp chain

2. exit at level of organ WITHOUT synapsing through the splanchnic nerves

3. synapse at a plexus (aortic plexus, hypogastric, etc)

4. postganglionic cells go to organ following blood vessels

sympathetic splanchic nerves of the abdomen and pelvis and their origin vertebrae (5)

greater (t5-t9)

lesser (t10 - t11)

least (t12)

lumbar (lumbar part of symp trunk)

sacral (sacral part of symp trunk)

splanchnic nerves full of ______-ganglionic ANS fibres? (pre/post/pre and post both)

preganglionic only

greater, lesser and least splanchnic nerves each run through which plexuses? (4)

celiac, aortic

aortic

aortic

cranial nerve X supplies parasympathetic innervation to ???? organs (3 main categories)

neck organs

thorax organs

abdomen organs (up to SMA supply, ie. liver, pancreas, spleen, kidneys, gall bladder, small intestine, ascending and transverse colon)

parasymp innervation of organs in thorax (3 possible paths)

vagus nerve > CARDIAC branches > cardiac and pulmonary plexuses > target organ > synapse near target organ and postgang have their effect.




or




vagus nerve > THORACIC branches > cardiac and pulmonary plexuses > target organ > synapse near target organ and postgang have their effect




or




vagus > esophageal plexus > target organ > synapse near target organ and postgang have their effect.

afferents in parasympathetic fibres are typically for sensing:

special senses such as blood pressure and sensation for reflex control.

afferents in sympathetic fibres are typically for sensing:

pain/discomfort sensation. sensation referred to dermatome of body surface served by the vertebrae they enter at.

sensory nerves from internal organs typically travel in which type of nerve fibres?

autonomic (either sympathetic or parasympathetic)

parasymp innervation of stomach (3 steps)

1) vagus nerve intermingles left and right in esophageal plexus

2) anterior and posterior trunks go down to abdomen

3) anterior and some of posterior trunk innervate stomach and synapse on surface

parasymp innervation of transverse colon (4 steps)

1) vagus nerve intermingles left and right in esophageal plexus

2) anterior and posterior trunks go down to abdomen

3) some of the posterior trunk goes to aortic plexus

4) nerves follow arteries from aortic plexus

SAME FOR OTHER ORGANS IN ABDOMEN SUPPLIED BY CELIAC TRUNK OR SMA EXCEPT STOMACH

parasymp innervation of sigmoid colon (5 steps)

1) nerves leave spinal cord through sacral spinal nerves 234

2) branch into pelvic splanchnic nerves

3) pass through hypogastric plexus




4) ascend to IMA and follow IMA to the target organs

5) synapse within organ to postgang effectors

SAME FOR OTHER ORGANS SUPPLIED BY IMA

where is hypogastric plexus?

medial, near the level where aorta splits into common iliac arteries

referred pain from the abdominal viscera goes to one of which three regions in midline of body (3). which organs refer pain to which areas (3 groups)?

epigastric (all organs supplied by celiac trunk)

umbilical (all organs supplied by SMA)

hypogastric (all organs supplied by IMA)

which kidney is lower right or left and why?

right, because its pushed down by the liver during development

what separates paranephric fat from perinephric fat?

renal fascia

renal fascia

nephroptosis

when you dont perinephric fat, the kidney can get displaced (sliding kidney)

what is the concave "doorway" of the kidney called?

renal hilum

what is the fat filled space around the renal pelvis called?

renal sinus

what are the main structures in the kidney? (5) (include the outside, tubes and medulla)

outside part1) cortexmedulla2) renal pyramids (have the nephrons in them)3) renal column (between the renal pyramids)4) renal papillae (the tip of the pyramids)tubes5) minor calyx drains > major calyx > pelvis

outside part
1) cortex


medulla
2) renal pyramids (have the nephrons in them)

3) renal column (between the renal pyramids)

4) renal papillae (the tip of the pyramids)


tubes
5) minor calyx drains > major calyx drains > renal pelvis

blood supply to kidneys (3 levels of arteries/veins)

1) renal arteries arise from aorta at L2 > divide into end arteries > interlobar arteries (run in renal columns)

2) same for veins, renal veins drain to IVC

most of the ureter lies on which muscle?

psoas major

blood supply to ureter mentioned in lecture? (in abdomen (2) vs. in pelvis (2))

gonadal and renal arteries

vs.

iliac and vesical arteries

sensory innervation to ureter comes from (4 vertebrae levels)

from t11 to L2

at what landmark does the ureter cross into the pelvis?

bifurcation of each of the common iliac arteries

bifurcation of each of the common iliac arteries

3 potential sites for kidney stones to get stuck

1) ureteropelvic juction

2) where ureters make bend over iliac vessels into the pelvis

3) at the wall of the bladder

what separates adrenal gland from kidney?

perinephric fat

blood supply to adrenal glands (3)

1) branches of inferior phrenic arteries




2) suprarenal arteries (from aorta directly)




3) branches of renal arteries




RICHHH blood supply

innervation of adrenal gland (3 steps in pathway)

symp chain > pre aortic plexus (synapse) > adrenal MEDULLA

venous drainage of left vs. right adrenal gland

left:
suprarenal vein > renal vein > IVC

right:
suprarenal vein >IVC

adrenal cortex vs. medulla (what they secrete)

cortex
1) steroids&hormones: mineralcorticoids, glucocorticoids and weakandrogens




medulla
2) NTs: epinephrine (adrenaline) and norephinephrine (noradrenaline)

what is the plexus lying within the psoas major?

lumbar plexus, this reorganizes all lumbar anterior rami into all the nerves you can see in the dissected posterior abdominal wall

what specific nerves contribute to anterolateral abdominal wall muscle innervation?

1) subcostal

2) iliohypogastric/ileoinguinal

nerves of posterior wall of abdomen from top to bottom (7)

subcostal (at the bottom of the rib)

iliohypogastric

ilioinguinal

lateral cutaneous of the thigh (could be many)

genitofemoral (on psoa)

femoral (huge)

obtruator (back wall of pelvis)

what are the paired branches off the abdominal aorta? (5 types, then what it turns into)

inferior phrenic, suprarenal, renal (L2), gonadal (L2), lumbar,common iliac

where does the common iliac bifurcate into internal and external?

at sacroiliac joint

external iliac vs. femoral artery

same artery, name changes once it passes posterior to the inguinal ligament

in abdomen, venous drainage for paired organs is done by ________ , for unpaired organs done by __________

IVC, portal vein

lymphatic drainage of abdominal paired organs is to ________ nodes, for unpaired organs to ________ nodes

paraaortic, preaortic (it makes sense that unpaired ones would be on the midline and paired ones lateral)

what is the weight bearing part of the os coxae?

ischeal tuberosity

these 3 bones fuse to make os coxae in development

ileum, pubic bone, ischium

sacrospinous vs. sacrotuberous ligament

sacrospinous ligament attaches to sacrum and ischeal spine

sacrotuberous ligament attaches to sacrum and ischeal tuberosity. is a part of the broder of pelvic outlet

border of the greater sciatic foramen (3)

sacrospinous ligament, ilium, sacrum

sacrospinous ligament, ilium, sacrum

border of the lesser sciatic foramen (3)

sacrospinal ligament, sacrotubular ligament, ischium,

pelvic outlet separates _____ from ______

pelvis from perineum

muscle that closes most of the obturator foramen, is kind of the inner lining of the real pelvis. (lies mainly on the body of the ischium). it makes sharp turn around the ischium to leave pelvis through lesser sciatic notch to attach to the femur

obturator internus

the muscle that attaches the sacrum to the femur by going through the greater sciatic foramen

piriformis

a band of thickened fascia going from superior public ramus to ischeal spine overthe obturator internus muscle

tendinous arch

makes the dome floor of the pelvis (part of the pelvic diaphragm)

levator ani

a raphe/ligament posterior to the rectum but anterior to the coccyx

anococcygeal ligament

coccygeus muscle (location, purpose)

goes from ischeal spine to the coccyx (posterior to the levator ani)




a relic from when we used to move our tail. mainly ligamental now

how does sciatic nerve leave the pelvis

greater sciatic foramen

part of the levator ani that controls the anus at the anorectal junction. maintains the angle too to stop the poo.

puborectalis

anterior gap between the two levator ani muscles is called

urogenital hiatus

urogenital diaphragm vs. pelvic diaphragm (location, composition)

urogenital diaphragm
- inferior to the pelvic diaphragm
- made of some fascias (perineal membranes)

pelvic diaphragm


- superior to urogenital diaphragm


- made of muscles (levator ani and coccygeus)

internal iliac blood vessel branching categories (4) and where the branches fit in those categories (10)

1) to the buttock and perineum that leave the pelvis through the greater sciaticforamen (ie. sup./inf. gluteal vessels, internal pudendal)

2) branch to the medial thigh through the obturator canal (ie. obturator)

3) to pelvic wall (ie. iliolumbar, lateral sacral)




4) branches to pelvic viscera (ie. umbilical, uterine, middle rectal, vaginal)

venous drainage in pelvis.

the pelvis venous plexuses drain back following artery path, but also anastamose with the ___________

vertebral venous plexus in vertebral canal

part of the umbilical artery that went to the bellybutton becomes _____________. the artery then redirects its blood flow to _____________.

medial umbilical ligamentthe bladder

medial umbilical ligament

the bladder

lumbosacral trunk nerve is where?

behind the psoas major

describe nerves from L3 L4 L5 to where they innervate (3 major parts to pathways)

1) makes a plexus (lumbosacral nerve plexus)

2) when coming out of plexus split into sciatic nerve, sup gluteal nerve, inf gluteal nerve, pudendal nerve, posterior cuteaneous nerve of thigh, etc. etc.

3) these all go through the pelvis and out the greater sciatic foramen to the places they innervate

in sympathetic innervation of pelvis, where do the pregang neruons synpase?

ganglia located in the hypogastric plexus

name 5 nerves that go through the greater sciatic foramen

Sciatic nerve


Pudendal nerve


Superior gluteal nerve


Inferior gluteal nerve


Posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh

shelves in the rectum that support fecal matter

valves of houston

anal columns are connected at the bottom end by anal valves, and form little pockets called _________

anal sinuses

where does inferior rectal artery come from? (3 steps upstream)

inferior rectal artery < internal pudendal < internal iliac < common iliac

stages to opening of internal rectal sphincter (3)

1) tonic inhibition of internal sphincter by SYMP fibres

2) distention from poo in the rectum causes the levator ani (puborectalis) muscle to straighten out.

3) it opens


where does the femur head connect in the os coxae?

acetebulum

how to identify the superior gluteal?

look for piriformis. its near the top of the piriformis as it leaves the pelvis

apex of the bladder connects to the __________

median umbilical ligament

lymphatic drainage of upper anal canal vs. lower canal

internal iliac and inferior mesentertic vs.

superficial inguinal nodes

urethral ext. sphincter and rectal ext. sphincter are both controlled by branches of the _________

pudendal nerve

what fascia separates rectum from prostate?

rectovesical fascia

what ligaments anchor the prostate?

puboprostatic ligaments

what structure is found posterior to the prostate?

seminal vesicles

remnant of the vagina in men

prostatic utricle

which part of urethra does ejaculatory duct empty into?

prostatic urethra, on the urethral crest

deepest point in male peritoneum (inferiorly)

rectovesical pouch

what part of the urethra does the prostate empty its contents into? (be specific)

openings of the prostatic ducts into the prostatic sinuses of the prostatic urethra

glandular tissue is on the _________ portion of the prostate

posterior

3 layers of the uterine wall

endometrium
myometrium
perimetrium

the angle formed between the vagina and the cervix is called

anteversion

the angle formed between the uterus and the cervix is called

anteflexion

the name for the area connecting the body of the uterus to the cervix

internal os

what structure in the cervix makes mucus?

cervical crypts

what three ligaments are responsible for keeping the uterus in place?

transverse cervical, uterosacral ligament, pubocervical
transverse cervical,
uterosacral ligament,
pubocervical

what is the deepest fornix in the vagina

posterior fornix

what vertebral level do the gonadal (testicular or ovarian) arteries arise at?

L2

what ligament carries the ovarian arteries to the ovary?

suspensory ligament.

2 covers of the ovary (not ligaments)

germinal epithelium, tunica albuginea

what muscles make the pelvic diaphragm? (2)

coccygeous and levator ani

what are 3 things the perineal body attaches to?

the urogenital diaphragm
levator ani
external anal sphincter

whats the space lateral to the anal canal filled with? and what its purpose

ischiorectal fossa
- to be able to be squished when poo distends the anal canal

what does the pudendal canal run through?

ischeorectal fossa

ischeorectal fossa

the pudendal canal is __________ the pelvis (where, relative to)

inside

branches of the pudendal nerve in males (4)

** bonus: what type of fibres does it carry

1) the dorsal nerve of the penis
2) deep perinal
3) superficial perineal
4) inferior rectal

**somatic/sympathetic

what muscles does the deep pouch in males contain? (2 but only really need to know #1)

1) external urethral sphincter
2) deep transverse perineal muscles

nerves and vessels in the female deep pouch (2)

1) dorsal nerves and vessels of clitoris
2) deep branch of the perineal nerve

external urethral sphincter in females is made up of many parts, including (2)

- compressor urethra
-sphincter urethrovaginalis

what are the borders of the superficial perineal pouch? (3)

perineal membrane (superior) and Colles' fascia (inferior & anterior) and urogenital diaphragm free edge (posterior)

Colles’ fascia in the superficial pouch iscontinuous with __________ in the ____________

scarpa's fascia in the abdomen.

scarpa's fascia in the abdomen.

OR

fascia lata in the upper leg

contents of superficial pouch in male, not including vessels or nerves (5)

bulb of the penis
bulb of corpus cavernosa (an crura)
bulb of corpus spongiosum
ischocavernosis
bulbospongiosis

what limits the distention of the penis during erection?

connective tissue around the corpus cavernosum called the tunica albuginea

what are the parasymp nerves that emerge from the hypogastric plexus to go to the penis

cavernous nerves

point and shoot is an analogy for.... (1)

which systems are involved (3)

what do the systems do (5 actions total)

nerve control of male sexual function.

PARASYMPATHETIC
"POINT"
1. erection is initiated by parasymapthetic system. through instructing tissues to vasodialate after getting stimulation

SYMPATHETIC
"SHOOT" emission
2. contraction of smooth muscle in epidydymis vas deferens and ejac ducts,
3. secretion of the bulbourethral glands and seminal vesicles, seminal glands
4. contraction of internal urethral sphincter

SOMATIC ejaculation
5. contracts bulbospongiosus and ischiocavernosus rhythmically

clitoris is mainly made up of ________ tissue

corpus cavernosum

analagous structure to scrotum in females is _______

labia

sympathetic activity causes the glans of the vagina to _________

secrete lubricant, simialr to how the secretions are done in men.

bulb of the vestible is analogous to _________

bulb of the penis. it has erectile tissue.

mucus secreting glands that open up into the vagina

greater vestibular gland

concave vs. convex curve of back (what are they called)

lordosis, kyphosis

what is the space between the inferior articular process and the body of the same vertebrae called?

inferior notch

name 3 features of a cervical vertebrae spinous process

short, oblique angle to each other, can be bifid

a raised body lip on the lateral part of the body of cervical vertebrae

uncus

what does the vertebral artery travel through?

transverse foramen

name of joints between the anterior aspect of the cervical vertebrae bodies

uncovertebral joints

what part of the spinal cord provides support to the tubercle of the rib?

transverse costal facet

the facets on the posterior side of cervical vertebrae bodies

demifacets

ischiofemoral ligament limits what movement?

hyperextension of the hip joint

the bony bridge at the back of the atlas vertebra

posterior arch

which vertebrae have no body (2)? what do they have instead (2)?

axis

a bony process called the dens which extends superiorly

atlas.

anterior arch in the middle, connects two lateral masses

does the atlas have a transverse foramen?

yes

what facets connect the axis to the atlas? (2)

1) superior articular facets (large and anterior)

2) facet for atlas on the dens

atlanto occipital vs. atlantoaxial joints. (location, movements permitted)

atlanto-occipital joints are from the atlas (lateral masses) to the occipital condyle on the base of skull. permit nodding "yes"

atlanto-axial joint is from the articulation of the dens to anterior arch of atlas. permit shakign head "no"

what attachment completes the hole for the dens in the atlas?

the transverse ligament (attaches the sides of the anterior arch posteriorly behind the dens)

what action does the posterior longitudinal ligament resist?




anterior longitudinal ligament?

transverse ligament (not the transverse ligament in atlas, the other one)?

hyperflexion of spine,

hyperextension of spine

spinal side flexion

what ligament resists spinal neck flexion?

nuchal ligament

what is the vertebral level of PSIS dimples on the surface of the back?

S2

what's the most prominnent spinous process when flexing neck?

c7

Vertebral column is innervated by ____________ branch of ___________

recurrent meningeal branch of primary ramus.

it comes off the primary ramus and innervates the body side of the vertebrae

Zygapophyseal Joints are innervated by _________ of ________________

articular branch of posterior ramus

blood supply of cervical spine (2)

Vertebral branches from aorta

ascending cervical arteries

blood supply of thoracic spine (1)

Posterior intercostal arteries

blood supply of lumbar spine (2)

Lumbar branches from aorta
subcostal arteries

blood supply of sacral spine (2)

Iliolumbar branches from aorta


sacral arteries

veins inside the vertebral canal form a plexus called?




there's another one outside the vertebral canal called?

internal vertebral plexus

external vertebral plexus

muscles of erector spinae medial to lateral (3)

spinalis
longissimus
ileocaustalis

muscles of transversospinalis group (3, longest to shortest)

semispinalis 
multifidus
rotatores

semispinalis


multifidus


rotatores

what is the divot in the head of femur referred to as?

fovea

bony prominence on medial surface of inferior end of femur

adductor tubercle

what does fossa mean? give two examples of fossas.

a depression or hollow.

two examples: ischorectal fossa, intercondular fossa, iliac fossa, popliteal fossa

what bridges the acetabular notch created by the space between the U shaped articular cartilage in the acetabulum?

the transverse acetabular ligament

what deepens the hip socket?

acetabular labrum

what is the feature at the superior end of the linea aspira?

gluteal tubercle

what is the feature at the inferior end of the linea aspira where it widens?

popliteal surface

a vertical line thats lateral to the psis and piis on the posterior surface of ilium

posterior gluteal line

posterior side of the ilium where the fossa would be on the front, this feature runs laterally

anterior gluteal line

a line on posterior hip bone running horizontally and separates ilium from ischium

inferior gluteal line

name of the articular cartilagenous surface on the acetabulum

lunate surface

coxa vara vs. coxa valga

decreased angle between neck and shaft of femur (called inclination) (short leg)




vs.




increased angle of inclination (long leg)

iliofemoral ligament limits what movement? where does the ligament run?

hyperextension of the hip joint




from AIIS to intertrochanteric line

what are the lines under your butt cheeks called (Surface anat?)

gluteal folds

gluteus maximus acts on hip joint (2 ways)

lateral rotation
extension




because it attaches from posterior ileum and sacrum to IT tract and femur.

whast is the nerve supply for glut max?

inferior gluteal nerve

glut med and glut min ______ the hip and _________ . (mnemonic for actions)

abduct, rotate in

what 6 deep muscles laterally rotate the hip joint

piriformis
gemmellus superior inferior
obturator internus externus


quadratus femoris

ACL attaches on the tibia (at the back or at the front)?

at the front

PCL attaches to tibia (at back/at front)?

at back.

a prominence on distal medial femur

adductor tubercle

what side of the patella is long and flat (ie. it will land on when placed on table)

lateral

adductor brevis and longus blood supply (2)

femoral artery and obturator artery

hamstrings blood supply (1)

deep femoral artery

what joint do the hamstrings act on? (hip/knee/both) action(s)?

both.

hip extensor, knee flexor

nerve supply of hamstring

sciatic nerve

what vertebral levels do sciatic nerve and tibial nerve come from? (5)

L4 to S3

which one of the quadriceps is a hip flexor?

rectus femoris

nerve and blood supply for quadriceps + sartorious? (2)

femoral nerve, femoral artery

what action do quadriceps do best?

knee extension

the actions of sartorious (4)

HIP
lateral rotator, hip abductor, hip flexor

KNEE
knee flexor

pectineus nerve supply, blood supply, actions (4)

femoral nerve, oburator artery,

flex hip, adduct hip

ileopsoas innervation, blood supply, actions (3)

femoral nerve, medial femoral circumflex artery, flex hip (strong)

what encloses the femoral artery and vein in the femoral triangle?

femoral sheath

what is purpose of femoral canal? drawback?

allows femoral vein to expand

weak spot for femoral hernias

nerve and blood supply to adductor brevis and longus (3)

obturator nerve,

obturator artery, femoral artery

what does the hamstring portion of adductor magnus do? what nerve it supplied by?

extend hip, sciatic

what muscles are the floor of adductor canal? (2)

adductor longus and adductor magnus

lateral circumflex artery supplies:

anterior part of gluteal region

what position is ankle joint most stable in?

dorsiflexion

transverse tarsal joints (2)

calcaneocuboid joint, taleocalcaneonavicular joint

3 joints that allow for inversion/eversion

subtalar, taleocalcaneonavicular joint, calcaneocuboid joint

what do tarsometatarsal joints allow for?

your foot to wrap to the shape of the ground

which tarsal connects with metatarsal 3?

cuniform 3

which tarsal conencts with metatarsal 4?

cuboid

lateral ligaments of ankle joint (3) and movement that stresses them (3)

1) anterior taleofibular ligament (inversion when foor is plantarflexed)

2) posterior taleofibular ligament (inversion when foot is dorsiflexed)

3) calcaneofibular ligament (inversion when foot is in neutral position)

what ligament prevents hypereversion of the foot?

DELTOID

actions of gastrocnemius (2)

knee flexion (weak), plantarflexion

tibialis posterior runs ____ to the ____ malleolus

posterior to the medial

mnemonic for the posterior side of the leg TENDONSSSSS and artery/nerve (5)

TOM - tibilis anterior
DICK - extensor digitorum longus


AND - posterior tibular artery
NOT - deep filbular nerve
HARRY - extensor hallicus longus

anterior tibeal will become??? as it goes into the foot

dorsal pedis

after anterior tibeal goes to the front of the leg what arteries is left at the back? (2)

posterior tibeal

fibular!!!!!!!!!!!!

which two muscles have tendons posterior to lateral maleolus?

fibularis longus, fibularis brevis (deep to fibularis longus)

which is the most lateral of the muscle tendons that passes anterior to the lateral malleolus?

fibularis tertius

what are the nerve and artery supply for lateral compartment of lower leg?

nerve: superficial fibular nerve, artery: fibular artery

what is the nerve and artery supply for fibularis teritius?

deep fibular nerve, anterior tibial artery

what is the action of lumbricals? (2)

make a tent (flex MTPjoint, extend proximal interphalangeal joint)

do deep or superficial veins guide the lymph drainage in the leg?

superficial

deep fibular nerve has what dermatome on the surface of foot?

space between the big toe and the 2nd toe (dorsal)

what nerves are the two relevant dermatomes on the bottom of the foot foot coming from?

where is the line on plantar surface of foot where the dermatomes switch?

medial plantar nerve, lateral plantar nerve

down the middle of the 4th toe (ring toe)

the dermatome on the majority of the dorsal surface of the foot correlates with which nerve?

superficial tibular nerve

name two muscles involved in inversion of the foot

tibilus anterior, tibialis posterior

lateral longitudinal arch vs. medial longitudinal arch vs. transverse arch (the bones that make them)

calcaneous, cuboid, metatarsals 4 and 5

vs.

calcaneous, navicular, cuniforms, metatarsals 1-3

vs.

cuboid, cuniforms, metatarsals

(spring) ligament does what.

where does it connect?
maintains the arch in foot.

maintains the arch in foot.

calcaneous and navicular

the ligament that wraps around the tendons passing from leg to foot medially.

it creates the ____________ tunnel

flexor retinaculum.

it creates the tarsal tunnel

ligaments of sole of foot (3)

plantar calcaneonavicular ligament (spring)

tendon of fibularis longus

long plantar ligament

what nerve and artery supply the quadratus plantus?

lateral plantar nerve and artery

ligament that connects the lamina of adjacent vertebrae

ligamentum flavum

the end of the spinal cord where there's no nerves and only pia mater

filum terminale

sutures in the skull are an example of what type of joint?

fibrous

which type of joint permits growth of long bones?

what material connects the articulating bones?

primary cartilaginous joints

hyaline cartilage connects the articulating bones

what type of cartilage connects two bones in a secondary cartilaginous joint?

fibrous cartilage

the pubic symphysis is an example of what type of joint?

2ndary cartilaginous joint, connected by fibrous cartilage

layers to a synovial joint capsule (2)

1) synovial membrane (produces synovial fluid)2) fibrous layer

1) synovial membrane (produces synovial fluid)

2) fibrous layer

extrinsic vs. intrinsic ligaments

extrinsic ligaments reinforce the joint by connecting neighboring bones

intrinsic ligamnets reinforce the joint by connecting between the two bones involved in the joint directly.

membranous sacs lined by synovial layer, containing egg-white consistency fluid

bursae

the name of the cartilage on acetabulum that provides depth for the femur head

labrum

name the 3 axis and the corresponding planes that would spin around them (like a pencil stuck in a wheel)

longitudinal axis, transverse plane

saggital axis, coronal plane

coronal axis, saggital plane

abduction occurs around a ______ axis in the _______ plane

saggital axis in the coronal plane

flexion occurs around a ______ axis in the _______ plane

coronal axis in the saggital plane

internal rotation occurs around a _______ axis in the ______ plane

longitudinal axis in the transverse plane

name two uniaxial synovial joint types

hinge joint (taleocrural joint)

pivot joint (medial atlantoaxial joint)

name two biaxial joint types

condyloid jointsaddle joint

condyloid joint

saddle joint

name two multiaxial joint types

plane joint ball and socket joint (hip joint)

plane joint

ball and socket joint (hip joint)

fat that hangs off large intestine

epiploic appendages

vaginal mucus. name the two types, what they do, and how they get converted in between (6)

1) G type mucus
- inhibits the sperm from passing through
gets converted to E type mucus by Estrogen

2) E type mucus
- allows the sperm to pass through
gets converted to G type mucus by Progesterone

lumbosacral trunk comes from which levels of vertebrae? and join with what to make sciatic nerve?

L4 L5joins with S1 S2 and S3 to make sciatic nerve

L4 L5

joins with S1 S2 and S3 to make sciatic nerve

drop foot is most often the result of damage to __________

common fibular nerve

the pointy things in the middle of back of sacrum are called

median sacral crest

upside down parabola shape at bottom of sacrum

sacral hiatus

PSIS dimples on skin are at what vertebral level?

L5

trendelenburg sign: if left hip drops when walking that means ________________ (muscles) are not working

RIGHT glut med and minimus