Reading...
Play button
Play button
Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
131 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
How is the term contamination defined when used in connection with a communicable disease?
a. Infection of an individual or animal with pathogenic organisms b. Presence of pathogenic agents on a surface, article, or substance. c. Transfer of a vector, regardless of time or the nature ofthe host. d. Contact between two or more sources of infection. |
b. Presence of pathogenic agents on a surface, article or substance
|
|
|
What is the most common contributing factor to foodborne illness?
a. insect and rodent infestations b. dirty equipment c. incorrect labeling of containers d. improper holding temperatures |
d. Improper holding temperatures
|
|
|
Why are some foods classified as potentially hazardous?
a. They have a pH below 4.6. b. They have a water activity below 0.85. c. They support rapid growth of pathogenic microorganisms. d. They require rapid and thorough cooking. |
c. They support rapid growth of pathogenic microorganisims
|
|
|
Which food does not require refrigeration at 41F(5C)?
a. open container of garlic in oil b. tofu c. sliced/cut cantaloupe d. ultra-pasteurized creamers |
d. Ultra pasteurized creamers
|
|
|
What is the best means of inhibiting the growth of microogranisms in fresh meat?
a. topical use of approved hypochlorite solutions b. exposure to ultraviolet light for 30 minutes c. chemical preservatives d. adequate refrigeration and cleanliness |
d. Adequate refrigeration and cleanliness
|
|
|
What is the maximum accumlated time that potentially hazardous foods can safely be exposed to the temperature danger zone?
a. 2 hours b. 4 hours c. 6 hours d. 8 hours |
c. 6 hours
|
|
|
If time is used as a public health control, the maximum period of time recommended by the FDA for potentially hazardous food to be held is:
a. 2 hours b. 4 hours if the warmest part of the food item does not exceed 120F c. 6 hours if the warmest part of the food item does not exceed 70F d. This public health control is never permitted |
c. 6 hours if the warmest part of the food item does not exceed 70F
|
|
|
What is the minimum period of time that the FDA recommends employees wash their hands and arms up to the elbow?
a. 10 seconds b. 20 seconds c. 30 seconds d. 40 seconds |
b. 20 seconds
|
|
|
Unpasteurized eggs not intended for immediate service should be cooked to:
a. 165F for 15 seconds b. 155F for 15 seconds c. 145F for 15 seconds d. 140F for one minute |
b. 155F for 15 seconds
|
|
|
What is the usual mode of infection from Salmonella?
a. ingestion of contminated food b. ingestion of contaminated water c. contact with an active case d. contact with fomites |
a. Ingestion of contaminated food
|
|
|
What is the source of scromboid poisoning?
a. histamines in the muscle of fish b. sprouted green potatoesd c. undercooked pork d. rice contaminated with rodent feces |
a. Histamines in the muscle of fish
|
|
|
All of the following are signs of spoiled fish except:
a. strong odor b. elastic flesh c. gray gills d. sunken eyes |
b. Elastic flesh
|
|
|
Which of the following shellfish are most likely to cause illness?
a. oysters b. crabs c. shrimp d. scallops |
a. Oysters
|
|
|
The laboratory reports positive coliform test that exceeds permissible limits on a bottle of pasteurized milk. What does this indicate?
a. Improper bactericidal treatment of the equipment. b. Improper virucidal treatment of the equipment. c. A contaminated water supply. d. A contaminated food supply. |
a. Improper bactericidal treatment of the equipment
|
|
|
What is the most effective practice for preventing trichinosis in people?
a. Be certain that ground meat is freshly ground at the time of purchase. b. Be sure that fresh pork is thoroughly cooked. c. Avoid the consumption of ground meat products. d. Cook steak until well done. |
b. Be sure that fresh pork is thoroughly cooked
|
|
|
A HACCP plan is not required when:
a. smoking foods as a method of preservation. b. cooling and reheating potentially hazardous foods in bulk. c. performing reduced oxygen packaging. d. using food additives or adding other coomponents to preserve food or render it non-potentially hazardous. |
b. Cooling and reheating potentially hazardous foods in bulk
|
|
|
What should not be done with food samples collected during a foodborne illness investigation?
a. refrigerate b. freeze c. seal d. label |
b. Freeze
|
|
|
What is the primary requirement in designing a food service facility?
a. durability b. cleanability c. appearance d. convenience |
b. Cleanability
|
|
|
What is the most important rule of food storage?
a. Follow the "first in, first out" rule. b. Store products in order of "pull by" date. c. Repackage dry foods into metal containers. d. Store canned goods under refrigeration. |
a. Follow "first in first out" rule
|
|
|
Insecticides/pesticides may be stored in all ways except:
a. in a metal locked cabinet. b. on the lowest shelf in the storage room. c. above the dishwashing sinks. d. in the basement separate from food and other chemicals. |
c. Above dishwashing sinks
|
|
|
The annual cost attributable to food borne illnesses in the United States is estimated to be
a. $1.2 million to $5 million per year b. $5 trillion per year c. $10 million to $15 million per year d. $1 billion to $10 billion per year |
d. $1 billion to $10 billion per year
|
|
|
An interior food service facility wall surface should not be constructed of
a. wallboard b. marble c. concrete d. clay tile |
a. wallboard
|
|
|
In food processing plants, dairy plants, kitchens, toilet rooms, and similar places, a trapped floor drain is needed for every __________ of floor area
a. 600 square yards b. 400 square yards c. 400 square feet d. 600 square feet |
c. 400 square feet
|
|
|
Floors in food processing plants, dairy plants, kitchens, and similar places should be sloped __________ toward each drain
a. 1/32 to 1/16 inch per foot b. 1/8 to 1/4 inch per foot c. 1/2 to 1 inch per foot d. 3/4 to 1 1/2 inch per foot |
b. 1/8 to 1/4 inch per foot
|
|
|
If properly installed, one of the best floorings for kitchens, dairies, bakeries, and similar places is
a. cork b. linoleum c. ceramic tile d. concrete |
c. ceramic tile
|
|
|
In order to simplify cleanliness, window sills should be sloped toward the room and down at an angle of __________ degrees.
a. 30 b. 20 c. 80 d. 40 |
a. 30
|
|
|
Which would be the least effective method of controlling condensation of moisture in food preparation areas?
a. increase air temperature b. decrease humidity of air c. increase temperature of cold surfaces d. cool the air |
a. increase air temperature
|
|
|
Vegetative forms of Clostridium botulinum spores are killed in
a. 10 to 15 minutes at 176 degrees F b. 10 to 15 minutes at 80 degrees F c. 1 minute at 250 degrees F d. 10 to 15 minutes at 230 degrees F |
a. 10 to 15 minutes at 176 degrees F
|
|
|
Thawing a 16 pound turkey at 40 degrees F will take a period of __________ ?
a. 6 hours b. 12 hours c. about 3 days d. 24 hours |
c. about 3 days
|
|
|
The FDA action level for aflatoxins in milk shipped in interstate commerce is
a. 0.5 ppb b. 0.7 ppb c. 0.1 ppb d. 1.0 ppb |
a. 0.5 ppb
|
|
|
Which of the following is not a sign of bad fish?
a. off-odor b. elastic flesh c. gray or greenish gills d. sunken eyes |
b. elastic flesh
|
|
|
Beef usually spoils first
a. near the bone b. in the inner portions c. on the surface d. near the edges |
c. on the surface
|
|
|
Which bacteria in large numbers can survive extended storage in Cheddar cheese?
a. Salmonella b. Brucella sp. c. Shigella d. Clostridium perfringens |
a. Salmonella
|
|
|
A solution of malachite mixed with ground meat will turn __________ if sodium sulfite has been added to preserve or mask decomposition of the meat
a. pale green b. bright red c. bright yellow d. dark brown |
b. bright red
|
|
|
Adequate light is essential for proper operation, maintenance, and sanitation. A minimum of __________ is recommended on work surfaces.
a. 5 foot candles b. 10 foot candles c. 20 foot candles d. 30 foot candles |
d. 30 foot candles
|
|
|
Poor health in a food handler exposes food to unacceptable risks of contamination. Therefore, a physical exam should be required
a. every 3 years b. every 2 years c. every year d. none of the above |
d. none of the above
|
|
|
A primary responsibility of food service management is
a. trust and delegation of responsibilities b. recognition of sanitary inspections c. approval and provisions for legal responsibilities d. education and supervision of employees |
d. education and supervision of employees
|
|
|
For custard-filled pies to be considered safe, they should be heated to
a. 190 degrees F for ten minutes b. 170 degrees F for ten minutes c. 180 degrees F for ten minutes d. 200 degrees F for ten minutes |
a. 190 degrees F for ten minutes
|
|
|
Which food has the highest acceptable plate count of E. coli?
a. cheese b. unfrozen beef c. chicken d. fish |
a. cheese
|
|
|
Dry stored goods should be stored off the floor at least __________ to prevent their contamination.
a. 2 inches b. 6 inches c. 12 inches d. 24 inches |
c. 12 inches
|
|
|
Contamination in a block of ice can be identified by __________ in the geometric center.
a. air bubbles b. discoloration c. crystallization d. separation of the core section |
b. discoloration
|
|
|
Practically all foods, whether canned, pickled, cured, or dried
a. perish and become part of the phosphorous cycle b. are no longer sanitary after six months on the shelf c. will become unsanitary after eighteen months of storage d. deteriorate upon storage |
d. deteriorate upon storage
|
|
|
In a dry food storage room, the artificial lighting should provide a minimum of
a. 10 foot candies b. 50 foot candies c. 100 foot candles d. 3 foot candles |
a. 10 foot candies
|
|
|
Which minerals and chemicals cause problems in ice manufacturing?
a. calcium and silica b. iron and magnesium carbonates c. aluminum oxide and manganese d. all the above |
d. all the above
|
|
|
Celery, a major source of salad contamination, has proven to be acceptable when
a. bathed with the juice of citrus fruits such as grapefruits, oranges, lemons or limes. b. blanched for a few seconds in water at a rolling boil c. placed in a vinegar solution for three hours prior to use d. immersed in boiling water for thirty seconds, then chilled under running tap water |
d. immersed in boiling water for thirty seconds, then chilled under running tap water
|
|
|
Which of the following is best to use when sanitizing food contact equipment?
a. phenols b. copper c. zinc d. none of the above |
d. none of the above
|
|
|
A healthy milk herd is expected to be free of which disease(s)?
a. mastitis b. brucellosis c. tuberculosis d. all of the above |
d. all of the above
|
|
|
The quality of milk reaching the ultimate consumer is largely determined
a. at the plant, where processing and handling occurs b. at the farm, where the milk is produced c. by the USDA through stringent testing and laboratory analysis d. by the FDA in accordance with Federal regulations |
b. at the farm, where the milk is produced
|
|
|
Dairy equipment can be disinfected with a chlorine solution of
a. 20 mg/l b. 2 mg/l c. 200 mg/l d. 220 mg/l |
c. 200 mg/l
|
|
|
When disinfecting rubber valves and other parts of milking equipment with hot water, the water temperature should be __________ or a strong chlorine solution of __________ strength can be used instead.
a. 180 to 190 degrees F, 200 mg/l b. 180 to 190 degrees F, 190 mg/l c. 190 to 200 degrees F, 200 mg/l d. 190 to 200 degrees F, 190 mg/l |
a. 180 to 190 degrees F, 200 mg/l
|
|
|
In case of emergency, raw milk may be rendered safe for drinking if __________ and then immediately cooled.
a. heated in a water bath to a temperature of 165 degrees F b. heated after bottling to a temperature of 165 degrees F c. heated to 145 degrees F before bottling d. heated to 145 degrees F after bottling |
a. heated in a water bath to a temperature of 165 degrees F
|
|
|
As milk leaves the cow, it is approximately 96 to 100 degrees F. Prechilling of the milk helps:
a. to ensure rapid bulk cooling within the refrigerated bulk tank to the desired temperature of less than 40 degrees F b. to locate toxic chemicals which precipitate upon cooling before they enter the bulk tank c. to detect infected or feverish heifers since cooling sensor readily spot overheated milk d. to mellow the flavor of the final product |
a. to ensure rapid bulk cooling within the refrigerated bulk tank to the desired temperature of less than 40 degrees F
|
|
|
At what time and temperature specifications does a sweetened milk product have to be pasteurized?
a. 150 degrees F for 10 minutes b. 65 degrees F for 30 minutes c. 75 degrees F for 15 seconds d. 100 degrees F for 0.001 seconds |
a. 150 degrees F for 10 minutes
|
|
|
Common refrigerants include which of the following?
a. freon b. ammonia c. carbon dioxide d. all of the above |
d. all of the above
|
|
|
Pasteurization of milk product does not eliminate which of the following?
a. toxins b. anthrax spores c. pesticides d. all of the above |
d. all of the above
|
|
|
If the fat content of milk increases by ten percent or more, the pasteurizer temperature must be increased by
a. 15 degrees F b. 25 degrees F c. 5 degrees F d. 10 degrees F |
c. 5 degrees F
|
|
|
The pipeline milker
a. was first introduced in 1854 and is still used today b. is vastly inferior to Branigien's Quadra-Path Sterilizer c. was a welcome improvement to Branigien's so called "sterilizer” d. requires special attention to ensure its sanitary condition |
d. requires special attention to ensure its sanitary condition
|
|
|
After milk is pasteurized, it should be rapidly cooled to below __________ so that
a. 45 degrees F, any remaining bacteria will be killed by rapid temperature change b. 40 degrees F, molecular activity in any remaining organisms will be stopped c. 40 degrees F, lactic acid bacteria will be slowed in reproduction d. 45 degrees F, the remaining bacteria will not materially increase |
d. 45 degrees F, the remaining bacteria will not materially increase
|
|
|
Hot water for the sanitizing of assembled equipment is not to be cooler than __________ at the end of the system.
a. 170 degrees F for 5 minutes b. 180 degrees F for 5 minutes c. 185 degrees F for 5 minutes d. 187 degrees F for 5 minutes |
a. 170 degrees F for 5 minutes
|
|
|
Food inspection programs of the future will focus increasingly on
a. hazard analysis and critical control point evaluations b. more frequent inspections c. more rigid enforcement of all rules d. increased food handler exams |
a. hazard analysis and critical control point evaluations
|
|
|
The appropriate procedure used for bottle washing in large plants is
a. wash, rinse, air-dry b. pre-soaking, wash, rinse, and sanitizing rinse c. steam-cleaning at a pressure of 170 degrees F d. wash, rinse, and sanitizing rinse |
d. wash, rinse, and sanitizing rinse
|
|
|
Milk is considered Ultra-High Temperature pasteurized if it reaches
a. 145 degrees F (6 degrees C) for 30 minutes b. 194 degrees F (90 degrees C) for 0.5 seconds c. 212 degrees F (100 degrees C) for 1 second d. None of the above |
c. 212 degrees F (100 degrees C) for 1 second
|
|
|
Which of the following is not a common refrigerant?
a. carbon dioxide b. methyl chloride c. sulfur dioxide d. nitrogen oxide |
d. nitrogen oxide
|
|
|
Quality control of milk includes which of the following?
a. transportation, herd health b. milk handling, processing c. distribution, refrigeration d. all of the above |
d. all of the above
|
|
|
A yellow to brownish black stain taken during the sediment test
a. is a simple visual indication of the amount of dirt and abnormal substances in the milk b. encourages straining of the milk at the farm rather than cleaning milking procedures c. is an indication of high sediment content from the cow's udder d. reveals unsanitary practices during the milking process |
a. is a simple visual indication of the amount of dirt and abnormal substances in the milk
|
|
|
The __________ test shows the amount of extraneous material in milk but will not show dissolved material.
a. appearance b. microscopic count c. thermoduric d. sediment |
d. sediment
|
|
|
Pasteurized milk quality is indicated by
a. direct microscopic count, coliform test, standard plate count b. appearance, thermoduric, determination c. phosphatase test, taste and odor tests d. a and c above |
d. a and c above
|
|
|
The contamination of milk with sediment is typically the result of which of the following?
a. improper cleaning of milking apparatus b. improper cleaning of the cow c. improper handling of the milk d. improper vaccination for brucellosis |
b. improper cleaning of the cow
|
|
|
Salty flavors in milk may be due to the use of milk from cows infected with
a. tuberculosis b. mastitis c. brucellosis d. hepatitis |
b. mastitis
|
|
|
When it is not possible to collect and examine a large number of samples for bacteria examinations, an indication of the sanitary condition of the milk can be obtained by
a. methylene blue reduction test b. resazurin test c. both a and b above d. none of the above |
c. both a and b above
|
|
|
Escherichia coli 0157:H7 was first identified as a pathogen during the investigation of two outbreaks in what two states?
a. Washington and Illinois b. Minnesota and Kentucky c. Texas and Iowa d. Oregon and Michigan |
d. Oregon and Michigan
|
|
|
Escherichia coli 0157:H7 has become
a. less of a problem due to antibiotics b. a particular problem for producers and users of ground beef c. a minor threat to children d. not a threat to the elderly |
b. a particular problem for producers and users of ground beef
|
|
|
Escherichia coli 0157:H7 can be found thriving in the
a. intestines of man and animals b. water c. soil d. air |
a. intestines of man and animals
|
|
|
Escherichia coli 0157:H7 is a bacteria that currently
a. tends to cause disease in all who come in contact with it b. is difficult to test for c. is responsible for numerous diseases of the skin d. none of the above |
b. is difficult to test for
|
|
|
The bacteria is often spread by
a. direct contact b. under cooked food c. a and b d. none of the above |
c. a and b
|
|
|
Listeriosis is a
a. skin irritation caused by contact with cold products b. serious infection caused by food contaminated with Listeria monocytogenes c. disease caused by exposure to lysolic agents d. disease that attacks people in their early 20s |
b. serious infection caused by food contaminated with Listeria monocytogenes
|
|
|
People at increase risk for listeriosis are
a. pregnant women b. newborns c. a and b d. none of the above |
c. a and b
|
|
|
Which of the following foods are not at high risk for transmitting listeriosis?
a. soft cheese b. hot dogs c. raw vegetables d. potato chips |
d. potato chips
|
|
|
Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome is caused by
a. mental stress b. a virus c. by infection with Escherichia coli 0157:H7 d. listeriosis |
c. by infection with Escherichia coli 0157:H7
|
|
|
Which group of the following bacteria typically contains most of the pathogenic bacteria?
a. mesoduric b. thermophilic c. mesophilic d. thermoduric |
c. mesophilic
|
|
|
Thermoduric bacteria grow best at a temperature range of
a. 40 to 58 degrees F b. 60 to 72 degrees F c. 70 to 98 degrees F d. 46 to 118 degrees F |
c. 70 to 98 degrees F
|
|
|
A certified industry inspection is an inspection
a. conducted by a certified local governmental unit b. conducted by a certified state official c. conducted by a certified member of the industry d. conducted by a federal agency |
c. conducted by a certified member of the industry
|
|
|
The voluntary federal-state program is commonly referred to as the
a. IMS b. FDAVP c. PHSVFSP d. VFS |
a. IMS
|
|
|
The __________ was a system which encouraged dairy farmers to maintain large enough herds to meet drinking milk needs during seasons of lowest production
a. Milk Marketing Agreement Act b. Agricultural Milk Agreement Act c. Agricultural Management Agreement Act d. Agricultural Marketing Agreement Act |
d. Agricultural Marketing Agreement Act
|
|
|
Deaths of newborns caused by milk-induced diarrhea has been mainly attributed to the bacteria:
a. Shigella b. Pseudomonas c. Escherichia coli d. Enterobacter aerogenes |
c. Escherichia coli
|
|
|
The major reason for the regulation of food establishments is
a. to prevent food borne illnesses b. to ensure restaurant safety c. to reduce liability d. to increase consumer confidence |
a. to prevent food borne illnesses
|
|
|
Routine and frequent inspections of food-processing and food-service establishments alone do not ensure that adequate levels of sanitation will be met. Inspections must be supplemented with
a. quality control b. education c. management supervision d. all of the above |
d. all of the above
|
|
|
Inspection report forms are primarily tools used to
a. enforce regulations b. assure complete investigations and compliance with uniform policy c. assure complete compliance d. motivate management supervision |
b. assure complete investigations and compliance with uniform policy
|
|
|
Oysters, soft-shell and hard-shell clams, mussels, lobsters, crabs, and shrimp fall under what group?
a. molluscan shellfish b. shellfish c. fomites d. crustacea |
b. shellfish
|
|
|
Mussels from __________ contain a chemical poison during certain times of the year which is not destroyed during cooking.
a. the Pacific Coast b. England c. Europe d. all of the above |
d. all of the above
|
|
|
Strong emphasis is placed on the control of shellfish because
a. shellfish can transmit a number of infectious diseases such as dysentery, infectious hepatitis, cholera, and typhoid fever b. seafood is in popular demand c. the shellfish population is decreasing due to water pollution d. a great number of shellfish are bought and sold illegally |
a. shellfish can transmit a number of infectious diseases such as dysentery, infectious hepatitis, cholera, and typhoid fever
|
|
|
According to the text, which state has a quarantine on mussels from June to September? (Please note that the quarantine has been changed to May 1 to October 1)
a. Florida b. California c. Louisiana d. New York |
b. California
|
|
|
Of the shellfish listed below, the ones most likely to cause illness are
a. oysters b. crabs c. shrimp d. lobsters |
a. oysters
|
|
|
Which of the following agencies is responsible for protecting our waterways from contamination?
a. OSHA b. FDA c. EPA d. PHS |
c. EPA
|
|
|
Outbreaks of __________ traced to contaminated shellfish between 1900 and 1925 led to the PHS Certification of dealers involved in interstate shipment.
a. cholera b. gastroenteritis c. typhoid fever d. dysentery |
c. typhoid fever
|
|
|
Shellfish spawning takes place between the months of
a. June and September b. May and July c. May and August d. April and August |
c. May and August
|
|
|
Dealers involved in interstate shipment and control of shellfish must have
a. a certification b. PHS certification c. USEPA certification d. NRCD approval |
a. a certification
|
|
|
Oysters grow best in water with a salinity of
a. 0.42 to 0.72 b. 0.24 to 0.27 c. 2.5 percent d. greater than O.31 |
b. 0.24 to 0.27
|
|
|
Oysters grow best at what pH and temperature?
a. 6.2 to 6.4 and 37 degrees F b. 6.2 to 6.8 and 41 degrees F c. 6.4 to 7.0 and 45 degrees F d. 6.0 to 6.8 and 32 degrees F |
b. 6.2 to 6.8 and 41 degrees
|
|
|
Oyster-shell stock or shucked oysters sampled at the source should not have MPNB of __________ or more fecal coliform per 100 grams of shellfish.
a. 240 b. 230 c. 235 d. 250 |
b. 230
|
|
|
Many states’ rules require the refrigeration of shucked shellfish at or below __________ but above 32 degrees F.
a. 45 degrees F b. 42 degrees F c. 47 degrees F d. 32 degrees F |
a. 45 degrees F
|
|
|
When direct consumption of shellfish might be hazardous due to radionuclide or industrial wastes pollution, the median coliform MPN of the water does not exceed 700 per 100 ml and not more than 10 percent of samples exceed MPN of 2300 per 100 ml, an area is designated
a. prohibited b. provisionally restricted c. restricted d. unprohibited |
c. restricted
|
|
|
Oysters free themselves of contaminating viruses and bacteria within __________ of exposure in purified seawater.
a. 12 to 24 hours b. 6 to 12 hours c. 12 to 2 days d. 18 to 24 hours |
a. 12 to 24 hours
|
|
|
Proper facility lighting is essential for
a. cleanliness b. accident prevention c. fatigue reduction d. all of the above |
d. all of the above
|
|
|
An ideal floor covering for a kitchen is
a. carpet b. linoleum c. quarry tile d. asphalt tile |
c. quarry tile
|
|
|
In order to protect against salmonellae growth in potentially hazardous food, the recommended temperature for storage is
a. 45 degrees F b. 42 degrees F c. 50 degrees F d. 40 degrees F |
b. 42 degrees F
|
|
|
When the internal temperatures of perishable foods are 42'F, growth of which of the following is inhibited?
a. Salmonellae b. Staphylococci c. Bacillus cereus d. a and b above |
d. a and b above
|
|
|
Which of the following factors slow(s) down biological activity and preserve(s) food?
a. high or low temperatures b. reduced moisture c. refrigeration d. all of the above |
d. all of the above
|
|
|
Temperatures of __________ have been found more satisfactory for the storage of foods used within 24 or 48 hours.
a. 32 to 40 degrees F b. 38 to 40 degrees F c. 40 to 45 degrees F d. 35 to 40 degrees F |
b. 38 to 40 degrees F
|
|
|
The racks in refrigerators or walk-in-coolers must be __________ to allow circulation of cold air.
a. slotted b. solid c. spaced equal distances apart d. none of the above |
a. slotted
|
|
|
Sandwich and salad mixtures should be placed in shallow pans at a depth not greater than __________ to accelerate the rapid cooling of the food.
a. 3 inches b. 2 inches c. 5 inches d. 8 inches |
a. 3 inches
|
|
|
In order to avoid pathogen growth and/or survival, food that is greater than __________ thick frozen or partially thawed should not be cooked.
a. 4 inches b. 3 inches c. 2 inches d. 1 inch |
a. 4 inches
|
|
|
The amount of heat required to lower one pound of a product one degree Fahrenheit is
a. exothermal extraction b. the specific heat c. the coolant factor d. important to know |
b. the specific heat
|
|
|
A freezer unit for frozen food should maintain temperatures of __________ or below.
a. 32 degrees F b. 24 degrees F c. 10 degrees F d. 0 degrees F |
d. 0 degrees F
|
|
|
To prepare a solution of 100 mg per liter available chlorine, __________ of 5.25 percent bleach with one gallon of water should be used.
a. 0.5 oz b. 1.0 oz c. 0.33 oz d. 0.25 oz |
d. 0.25 oz
|
|
|
A mold control program should include all of the following factors except
a. spraying with a 5000 mg/l sodium hypochlorite solution b. spraying with a 1000 mg/l quaternary ammonium compound c. respraying the entire section with 400 to 500 mg/l of quaternary solution every week or two d. cleaning the affected area with an alkaline detergent |
b. spraying with a 1000 mg/l quaternary ammonium compound
|
|
|
The correct order of sequence for hand washing dishes is
a. scrape and flush, wash, sanitize, rinse, air dry b. scrape and flush, wash, rinse, sanitize, air dry c. scrape and flush, wash, rinse, air dry d. scrape and flush, wash, sanitize, rinse, towel dry |
b. scrape and flush, wash, rinse, sanitize, air dry
|
|
|
The final rinse water temperature for a heat sanitizing machine dishwasher should be
a. 180 degrees F b. 160 degrees F c. 175 degrees F d. 210 degrees F |
a. 180 degrees F
|
|
|
Which of the following is not a step in proper machine dishwashing?
a. wash and sanitize b. scrape c. cloth dry d. rack dishes |
c. cloth dry
|
|
|
What is the minimum period of wash time for a single-tank conveyer dishwashing machine?
a. 10 seconds b. 25 seconds c. 20 seconds d. 15 seconds |
d. 15 seconds
|
|
|
Food borne pathogens grow well at temperatures
a. below 32 degrees F (O degrees C) b. between 1 degrees F and 40 degrees F (-17 degrees C to 4 degrees C) c. between 41 degrees F and 135 degrees F (5 degrees C and 57 degrees C) d. above 212 degrees F (100 degrees C) |
c. between 41 degrees F and 135 degrees F (5 degrees C and 57 degrees C)
|
|
|
FAT TOM stands for Food, Acidity, Time, Temperature, Oxygen and
a. Meat b. Moisture c. Melatonin d. Management |
b. Moisture
|
|
|
Which pathogen is primarily found in the hair, nose, and throat of humans?
a. Giardia duodenalis b. Bacillus cereus c. Clostridium botulinum d. Staphylococcus aureus |
d. Staphylococcus aureus
|
|
|
While commonly linked with contaminated ground beef, what pathogen has also been linked with contaminated produce?
a. Bacillus cereus b. Salmonella spp. c. Shiga toxin-producing E. coli d. Clostridium perfringens |
c. Shiga toxin-producing E. coli
|
|
|
Which practice can reduce Salmonella spp. in poultry to safe levels?
a. storing food at 55 degrees F (13 degrees C) or higher b. inspecting canned food for damage c. cooking food to the right temperature d. purchasing oysters from approved, reputable suppliers |
c. cooking food to the right temperature
|
|
|
Covering wounds can help prevent the spread of which pathogen?
a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Norovirus c. Vibrio vulnificus d. Salmonella spp. |
a. Staphylococcus aureus
|
|
|
Which foodborne illness has been linked with ready-to-eat food and shellfish contaminated by sewage?
a. Hepatitis A b. Anisakiasis c. Shigellosis d. Botulism |
a. Hepatitis A
|
|
|
Viruses such as Norovirus and hepatitis A can be spread when foodhandiers fail to
a. use pasteurized eggs b. wash their hands c. determine the correct moisture level d. purchase beef from approved, reputable suppliers |
b. wash their hands
|
|
|
What is the best way to prevent a foodborne illness caused by seafood toxins?
a. freezing seafood prior to cooking it b. purchasing smoked or cured seafood c. purchasing seafood from approved, reputable suppliers d. cooking seafood to the right minimum internal temperature |
c. purchasing seafood from approved, reputable suppliers
|
|
|
A person who ate raw oysters later became disoriented and suffered memory loss. What illness was most likely the cause?
a. amnesic shellfish poisoning b. paralytic shellfish poisoning c. neurotoxic shellfish poisoning d. hemorrhagic shellfish poisoning |
a. amnesic shellfish poisoning
|
|
|
Foodservice operations should not use mushrooms unless they have been
a. stored at 41 degrees F (5 degrees C) or lower b. frozen before cooking or serving c. purchased from an approved, reputable supplier d. cooked to an internal temperature of 135 degrees F (57 degrees C) |
c. purchased from an approved, reputable supplier
|
