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565 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

All of the following are classified as somatic symptom and related disorders EXCEPT




a. dissociative identity disorder. b. factitious disorderc. conversion disorder. d. illness anxiety disorder.

a

The common aspect of all somatic symptom disorders is a maladaptive or excessive




a. belief that a serious medical condition will cause death.b. belief that one's appearance is ugly.c. response to physical or associated health symptoms.d. concern with the meaning of a physical pain.

c

Hippocrates and the Egyptians before him thought that hysterical disorders were the result of a _________.




a. dysfunctional ovary b. tense vaginac. wandering uterus d. none of these

c

According to psychological theory, neuroses stem from




a. underlying unconscious conflicts.b. the clash of conscious and unconscious therapy.c. dream process.d. identity concepts.

a

Illness anxiety disorder exists when




a. a person is excessively concerned about being sick, even when only experiencing minor symptoms.b. real physical illness is exaggerated to the point where the patient can only focus on the pain.c. the patient has an unrealistic fear of contacting germs.d. the patient is truly ill but does not trust the medical establishment enough to seek treatment.

a

An essential element of illness anxiety disorder is __________.




a. psychosis b. worryc. depression d. dissociation

b

Joe just ate six chili dogs and drank a liter of soda. If Joe suffers from illness anxiety disorder, he would probablyinterpret any resulting stomach discomfort as




a. his own fault for eating so much.b. the result of poor quality food.c. gas pains from overeating.d. a sign that something is seriously wrong with his stomach.

d

Panic disorder shares several common characteristics with both somatic symptom disorder and illness anxietydisorder. Which of the following is not one of those shared features?




a. Age of onset b. Running in familiesc. Personality characteristics d. Manner in which anxiety is expressed

d

Clients with illness anxiety disorder are likely to




a. avoid doctors.b. avoid unnecessary medical procedures.c. soon reject assurances that they are healthy.d. ignore the long-term process of illness

c

Since Jane has been diagnosed with illness anxiety disorder, we can expect her to see her physician




a. often and feel completely reassured that there is nothing wrong with her health.b. rarely but continue to believe that she is quite ill.c. almost never because she does not trust physicians.d. often but continue to be anxious about her health anyway.

d

Although Jill feels fine now and believes that she is healthy, she still worries endlessly about developing a seriousillness. Most likely Jill would be diagnosed with




a. illness anxiety disorder. b. conversion disorder.c. somatization disorder. d. body dysmorphic disorder

a

Although both panic disorder patients and persons with somatic symptom disorder tend to misinterpret bodilysensations, patients with panic disorder




a. are having real physical sensations, while the sensations of those with somatic symptom disorder are "all intheir heads."b. tend to fear immediate catastrophe, while those with somatic symptom disorder tend to fear long-term illness.c. are having imagined physical sensations, while those with somatic symptom disorder are experiencing realphysical sensations.d. tend to ignore the symptoms of their first attacks, while those with somatic symptom disorder tend to seekimmediate medical treatment following the first indication of pain.

b

Minor, physical complaints are common among ____________.




a. young children b. adolescentsc. the middle aged d. the elderly

a

With regard to a diagnosis of somatic symptom disorder, women are




a. equally likely as men to be diagnosed.b. less likely than men to be diagnosed.c. more likely than men to be diagnosed.d. more likely than men to be diagnosed during middle to late adulthood but no more likely than men to bediagnosed during teen years and early adulthood

c

Disorders such as koro and dhat that are similar to somatic symptom disorders demonstrate the




a. influence of culture on psychopathology.b. physical basis of many hypochondriacs' complaints.c. difficulty of accurately diagnosing hypochondriasis.d. influence of genetics on psychopathology.

a

Although it's name has changed from DSM-IV to DSM-5, hypochondriasis is essentially an emotional disturbancetriggered by




a. physical pathology.b. misinterpretation of normal physical sensations.c. social concerns.d. severe or unusual physical sensations.

b

Studies suggest that patients with somatic symptom disorder or illness anxiety disorder are characterized by atendency to




a. interpret ambiguous stimuli as threatening. b. minimize physical symptoms.c. have low sensitivity to perceived illness. d. avoid bad news cues

a

Paradoxically, an effective treatment for somatic symptom disorder and illness anxiety disorder involves helping thepatient to focus on




a. creating their own symptoms.b. ignoring their own symptoms.c. getting reassurance about their symptoms.d. understanding other life stressors.

c

With regard to the treatment of illness anxiety disorder and somatic symptom disorder, some research supports theuse of __________.




a. conditioningb. psychoanalysisc. cognitive-behavioral treatment and stress reductiond. humanistic therapy

c

With regard to the treatment of somatic symptom disorder and illness anxiety disorder, research exploring the useof reassurance in a process called "explanatory therapy" showed that




a. some significant gains were achieved.b. reassurance did not work for hypochondriacs.c. reassurance showed some gains but they lasted less than several days.d. the gains were so significant that participants were essentially "cured."

a

In terms of antidepressant medication treatments for somatic symptom disorder, the most accurate statement basedon the research so far is




a. antidepressants are effective but not significantly different from a placebo condition.b. antidepressants are not effective.c. some reports suggest that antidepressants may be effective, but placebo-controlled studies have not beenperformed.d. placebo-controlled studies have been performed and the results suggest that antidepressants work for somehypochondriacs but not for most.

a

Research suggests that somatic symptom disorder often occurs in families with a strong tendency toward__________.




a. antisocial personality disorder b. schizophreniac. depression d. obsessive-compulsive disorder

a

A possible link between antisocial personality disorder and somatic symptom disorder is _____________.




a. a lack of impulse control b. lack of aggressionc. social isolation d. dependence

a

The hypothesized connections between somatic symptom disorder and antisocial personality disorderare




a. poor modeling by parents and other authority figures.b. sibling rivalry and attention deficits.c. pleasure seeking and impulsivity.d. genetic defects and poor nutrition.

c

A patient with somatic symptom disorder tends to generate higher healthcare costs than an average patient due to.




a. an extensive medical and physical workup with every visit to a new physician.b. the person's tendency to visit numerous medical specialists.c. both a and bd. neither a or b

c

One method that is used to reduce the financial burden associated with somatic symptom disorder is____________.




a. psychoanalysisb. encouraging patients to speak to family and friends about their symptomsc. exposure therapyd. assignment of a gatekeeper physician

d

Joe injured his back at work several years ago. Although he was treated and considered healed by his physicians,he still complains of severe and debilitating back pain. Other than some minor scar tissue, his doctors can't findanything that could be causing more than some minor stiffness. It appears that Joe might be diagnosed with_________________.




a. conversion disorder b. depersonalization/derealization disorderc. somatic symptom disorder with predominant pain d. illness anxiety disorder

c

The disorder that involves physical malfunctioning without any physical cause is called __________.




a. conversion disorder b. hypochondriasisc. somatization disorder d. body dysmorphic disorder

a

George has completely lost his sight during the past year, but medical experts can find no physical reason for hisblindness. This could be an example of _______________.




a. somatization disorder b. hypochondriasisc. conversion disorder d. dissociative disorder

c

Conversion disorder patients were conceptualized by Freud as




a. converting unconscious conflicts into physical symptoms.b. converting unconscious conflicts into defense mechanisms.c. experiencing physical symptoms as a result of the superego.d. experiencing internal conflicts as a result of id impulses being suppressed by the superego.

a

Conversion disorder symptoms generally appear ______________.




a. randomlyb. following a physical injury to the affected areac. shortly after some marked stressd. in children

c

Which of the following would be typical for a patient suffering from a conversion disorder?




a. Feeling a lump in the throat that interferes with swallowing, eating, or talking.b. Ability to see some bright objects when calm but suffering complete loss of sight during a stressful period oremergencyc. Great concern with the loss of function and belief that it is a symptom of a potentially fatal diseased. Ability to identify everything in the visual field even though the patient reports that she is blind

a

In regard to diagnosing a patient's symptoms as a conversion disorder, it is




a. quite apparent when a patient is malingering (faking), but it is difficult to determine whether symptoms aredue to real physical disorders or a conversion disorder.b. quite apparent when a symptom is due to a real physical disorder, but it is impossible to determine thedifference between a conversion disorder and patient malingering (faking).c. rather easy to determine the difference between symptoms that the patient fakes, those caused by realphysical disorder, and symptoms caused by conversion disorder.d. very difficult to determine whether the symptoms are due to malingering (faking), real physical disorders, orconversion disorder.

d

Which of the following statements is TRUE about factitious disorders?




a. Fortunately, the disorder does not seem to extend to other members of the family.b. The symptoms are under involuntary control.c. There is no obvious reason for voluntarily producing symptoms.d. The symptoms lead to a splintering off of one's identity into several "subpersonalities."

c

Factitious disorder imposed on another is often characterized by




a. deliberate actions directed toward making a child sick.b. a parent denying that a child has symptoms that have, in fact, been observed.c. a parent developing the same symptoms that their child has.d. convincing a child to lie to a doctor about factitious symptoms.

a

A person who fakes symptoms for a goal is called a _________, while a person who fakes a disease for no cleargoal has a ________disorder:




a. malingerer; factitious b. conversion disorder patient; malingeringc. fictitious disorder patient; conversion d. hypochondriac; factitious

a

A mother who repeatedly seeks medical treatment for her child’s unusual illness and is overly involved in the child’streatment might need to be assessed for _____________.




a. factitious disorder imposed on another b. malingeringc. conversion disorder d. illness phobia

a

A commonly-seen form of factitious disorder imposed on another is a set of conditions that




a. falls somewhere between malingering and conversion disorders.b. falls under voluntary control like malingering.c. is an atypical form of child abuse.d. is a combination of a somatic symptom disorder and a dissociative disorder.

c

Catharsis is




a. the process of placing a tube into the bladder to release urine.b. a conscious behavioral process.c. a purging of emotionally traumatic events.d. none of these

c

Which of the following statements is TRUE about conversion disorders?




a. The prevalence of conversion disorders is equal in men and women.b. Conversion disorders typically develop in the late 20s or early 30s.c. Conversion disorders are not uncommon in males at times of extreme stress.d. Once conversion disorders disappear, they do not reoccur.

c

Freud called the reduction in anxiety by converting unconscious conflicts into physical symptoms




a. primary narcissism. b. secondary narcissism.c. primary gain. d. secondary gain.

c

The modern view of the causes of conversion disorder is




a. completely different from Freud's ideas of the etiology of this disorder.b. somewhat similar to the causes that Freud described for this disorder.c. a combination of genetic predisposition and neurobiological deficits.d. based on social learning theory.

b

With regard to Freud's explanation of "la belle indifference" (the observation that conversion disorder patients arenot concerned about their symptoms), research conducted by Lader and Sartorius (1968) suggests that




a. conversion disorder patients do display "la belle indifference," but Freud's explanation of primary gain is notsupported.b. Freud's explanation is essentially correct since there is great variability in the amount of concern thatconversion disorder patients display regarding their symptoms.c. conversion disorder patients actually are quite concerned with their symptoms, so Freud's explanation ofprimary gain is not supported.d. "la belle indifference" is a myth, thus validating Freud's explanation of primary gain.

c

Your textbook authors describe a treatment plan for conversion disorder involving




a. in-depth exploration of psychological conflicts.b. regression to the early psychosexual stages of development.c. application of a strict behavioral program that includes reinforcement for each display of progress andpunishment when necessary.d. reduction of any reinforcing or supportive consequences of the conversion symptoms.

d

In treating conversion disorder, which of the following statements is true?




a. Clients responded well to cognitive-behavioral therapy.b. Clients responded well to hypnosis.c. Clients responded well when hypnosis and cognitive-behavioral therapy were combined.d. Like somatic symptom disorder, clients do not respond well to any treatment.

a

The experience of dissociation occurs in




a. psychotic disorders only.b. individuals with dissociative disorders only.c. only in those individuals who have experienced great personal trauma.d. certain psychological disorders as well as in non-disordered people at times.

d

Depersonalization is defined as




a. altered perception including loss of the sense of one's own reality.b. altered perception involving loss of the sense of reality of the external world.c. vivid hallucinations.d. the feeling that one is no longer a person.

a

Jason suddenly notices that the world looks weird to him. Some objects look bigger than normal and others looksmaller. Cars passing by seem oddly shaped and people appear dead or mechanical. Joe is experiencing________.




a. derealization b. depersonalizationc. classic early psychosis symptoms d. mania

a

While driving alone in her car, Sarah suddenly looks around and, for a moment, she can't remember where she is,how she arrived at this point on the road, or even why she is driving her car. Sarah is experiencing_______________.




a. derealizationb. depersonalizationc. the early stages of what will eventually become a severe psychotic disorderd. symptoms of a mood disorder

b

Individuals with depersonalization show




a. decreased emotional responsiveness. b. increased emotional responsiveness.c. erratic emotions. d. insincere emotions.

a

Losing your own sense of reality is called ______________.




a. depersonalization b. a fugue statec. a trance state d. a dissociative disorder

a

The diagnosis of depersonalization-derealization disorder is




a. rare and only applied when the experience of depersonalization interferes with normal functioning.b. rare but applied to anyone who experiences depersonalization.c. fairly common since many people experience depersonalization.d. fairly common and applied to anyone who is frightened by an experience of depersonalization.

a

In dissociative amnesia, the individual typically has no memory of




a. any events.b. events prior to a trauma.c. selective events, particularly those involving trauma.d. events following a trauma, particularly those involving interpersonal issues.

c

In dissociative fugue, the term fugue relates to ________________.




a. confusion b. flight or travelc. loss of consciousness d. hallucination

b

Patients diagnosed with dissociative amnesia with a dissociative fugue




a. will travel and typically experience memory loss during their trip.b. will travel but do not experience memory loss.c. typically experience memory loss but do not travel.d. seldom recover any sense of their own identity.

a

During a dissociative fugue state, it is not uncommon for individuals to




a. commit suicide.b. see the world as a strange and foreign place.c. take on a new identity.d. contact friends and family.

c

A man who finds himself living in a small town in Alaska with no recall of how he got there may have___________.




a. dissociative amnesia with dissociative fugue b. conversionc. depersonalization-derealization disorder d. dissociative identity disorder

a

A distinctive dissociative state that is not found in Western cultures is ____________.




a. amok b. exorcismc. trance d. voodoo

a

Dissociative trance disorder is diagnosed




a. only when the trance is unpredictable in terms of when it appears (i.e., individual goes into a trance withoutprior religious ritual).b. only when the trance is undesirable and considered pathological in the individual's culture.c. only when the trance causes harm to the individual or others.d. whenever an individual repeatedly enters a trance state.

b

In non-Western cultures, trance and possession are




a. extremely rare.b. never considered a disorder.c. the most common forms of dissociative disorders.d. the rarest forms of dissociative disorders.

c

The disorder in which more than one distinct personality exists within one individual was changed from multiplepersonality disorderto ___________ in the DSM-IV.




a. dissociative identity disorder b. dissociative trance disorderc. schizophrenia d. multiple personality disorder

a

An alter is




a. a separate identity experienced by someone with dissociative identity disorder.b. a new identity created by someone with dissociative fugue.c. a new identity created by someone with generalized amnesia.d. a physical symptom with no physical cause experienced by someone with somatic symptom disorder

a

With regard to dissociative identity disorder, the term "alter" refers to ______________ within the individual.




a. the "host" personality b. a dangerous personalityc. the most recent personality to emerge d. a different personality

d

A switch




a. usually occurs instantaneously.b. is the transition from one personality to another.c. may exhibit physical transformations.d. all of these

d

In dissociative identity disorder, the "host" personality is usually the one that




a. is the most aggressive of the personalities.b. asks for treatment and becomes the patient.c. earns income for the individual.d. is sexually provocative

b

In dissociative identity disorder, the "host" personality usually




a. is of a gender opposite to that of the individual.b. becomes overwhelmed trying to hold all of the personality fragments together.c. is male.d. is well aware of each personality and everything that happens while each personality is active.

b

The existence of a cross-gendered alter in dissociative identity disorder is _________.




a. common b. rarec. present in every patient d. almost never seen in this disorder

a

One aspect of the DSM-5 criteria for diagnosis of dissociative identity disorder is ______.




a. patient awareness of the distinct personalitiesb. existence of three or more personality fragmentsc. amnesiad. history of abuse

c

Vanna, who is 40, apparently believes that she is a 20-year-old woman. Suddenly, she starts to speak and behavevery differently, and says she no longer thinks of herself as "Vanna." Instead, she claims to be Elise, a 10-year-oldchild. It is likely that Vanna has just experienced a _____.




a. switch b. dissociative trance disorderc. conversion reaction d. schizophrenic moment

a

In dissociative identity disorder, the transition from one personality to another is called a ___________.




a. transformation b. substitutionc. switch d. alteration

c

The process of changing from one personality to another generally occurs ________ in most patients withdissociative identity disorder.




a. slowlyb. quicklyc. rarelyd. only after many warning signs that a change is about to occur

b

With regard to evidence for the scientific validity of dissociative identity disorder (DID), the most accuratestatement is




a. most DID patients are faking.b. research suggests that faking dissociative experiences is possible.c. it is virtually impossible to fake the types of changes that occur in dissociative identity disorder.d. objective tests can always determine which patients are faking dissociative identity disorder

b

Studies of faking, amnesia, and hypnosis such as the one conducted by Spanos (1996) suggest that symptoms ofdissociative identity disorder




a. cannot be developed through therapist suggestion and reinforcement.b. are almost always the result of hypnotically inserted (false) memories.c. can be developed through therapist suggestion and reinforcement.d. are almost never the result of therapist intervention

c

Comparisons of optical functioning in the various personalities of dissociative identity disorder patients showchanges that would be




a. easy to fake.b. absolutely impossible to fake.c. consistent with an individual who was trying to fake.d. difficult to fake.

d

With regard to the studies of DID described in your text regarding faking, amnesia, and hypnosis as well as thestudies regarding the physiological changes that occur in the different personalities the most accurate statement is




a. while DID symptoms can be faked or developed through suggestion, many physiological changes observed inDID patients would be very difficult to fake.b. DID symptoms and the many physiological changes observed in DID patients can be developed throughsuggestion and are easily faked.c. while physiological changes associated with DID are relatively easy to fake, the symptoms of DID are verydifficult to fake or to develop through suggestion.d. almost all cases of DID are probably faked or developed through therapist suggestion.

a

Dissociative identity disorder tends to be associated with _________________.




a. child abuse b. multiple psychological disordersc. dissociation d. all of these

a

Which of the following statements is FALSEabout dissociative identity disorder?




a. Once established, the disorder lasts a lifetime without treatment.b. For prevalence rates, the ratio of females to males is approximately 9 to 1.c. The frequency of switching increases with age.d. The form that the disorder takes does not differ substantially over the lifespan.

c

Individuals with dissociative identity disorder generally




a. have only one other distinct personality.b. suffer a loss of their own identity that lasts several years.c. maintain complete awareness of all of their personalities.d. have several distinct personalities.

d

One distinction that may help determine those with DID from individuals who are malingering (faking theirsymptoms) is that malingerers are




a. usually eager to demonstrate their symptoms.b. usually hiding the existence of a major life crisis.c. more likely to have many alters.d. less likely to seek treatment.

a

The average number of alter personalities observed in individuals with dissociative identity disorder is______________.




a. 1 b. 2c. 15 d. 100

c

Dissociative identity disorder is most commonly found in ______________.




a. females b. malesc. children d. the elderly

a

The average length of time between an individual's first symptoms of DID and the identification and diagnosis ofthe disorder by a professional is _____________.




a. one year b. 20 yearsc. less than a month d. seven years

d

Without treatment, it is expected that DID will last ___________.




a. 10 years b. a lifetimec. several months d. 20 years

b

Studies examining the incidence of DID in non-clinical populations (the population at large or a universitypopulation) suggest that approximately ________ percent of the general population suffer from DID.




a. .001 b. .01 to .05c. 1.5 d. 5

c

Sue has DID. It is extremely likely that she also has




a. at least one other psychological disorder. b. a problem with her weight.c. a history of problems with the law. d. no desire to get better.

a

One reason that DID can be misdiagnosed as psychosis is that




a. auditory hallucinations are common in both disorders.b. both disorders are in the same DSM-IV category.c. mental health professionals generally do not believe that dissociation is possible.d. substance abuse makes it difficult to differentiate these disorders.

a

The common feature in almost every case of DID is




a. hallucinations and delusions. b. unrelenting substance abuse.c. a history of body dysmorphic disorder. d. a history of severe child abuse.

d

The causes of dissociative identity disorder appear to be _____________.




a. physical abuse b. sexual abusec. witness to a traumatic event d. all of these

d

A comparison of dissociative reactions in "normals" and in DID patients indicates that the experience of dissociationis ________________ in normal versus DID patients.




a. very different b. very similarc. identical d. so different as to have no similarities at all

a

Some theorists suggest that dissociative identity disorder is an extreme subtype of ___________.




a. dissociative amnesia b. obsessive-compulsive disorderc. posttraumatic stress disorder d. antisocial personality disorder

c

According to the autohypnotic model, people who are suggestible may be




a. able to create false memories to ease their trauma.b. able to use dissociation as a defense against extreme trauma.c. able to remember the trauma that created the false memories.d. unable to switch at will.

b

Which of the following statements is TRUEabout DID?




a. DID is easy to fake.b. DID is absolutely impossible to fake.c. Dissociative symptoms may be the result of sleep deprivationd. DID is made up of false memories

c

Studies suggest that false memories are ___________________.




a. difficult to create b. easily created in childrenc. unrelated to suggestions d. very rare

b

There is now incontrovertible evidence that the following statement is TRUEwith respect to the accuracy ofrecovered memories:




a. False memories can be created, and selective dissociative amnesia can occur for early traumaticexperiences.b. False memories can be created, but there is no evidence of selective dissociative amnesia for early traumaticexperiences.c. False memories cannot be created, and individuals do not develop selective dissociative amnesia for earlytrauma.d. False memories cannot be created, but there is evidence that individuals do develop selective dissociativeamnesia for early trauma

a

In studies conducted by Elizabeth Loftus and her colleagues (Loftus, 2003; Loftus, Coan, and Pickrell, 1996),individuals were told about false events that had supposedly occurred when they were children. The results of thisstudy indicated that




a. people cannot be convinced of events that did not happen.b. people can become quite convinced of events that never happened.c. only individuals with diagnosable disorders can be convinced of events that never happened.d. people can become convinced of events that did not happen only during hypnosis or other dissociative states.

b

While interviewing 129 women with documented histories of childhood sexual abuse, Willams (1994) found withextensive questioning that




a. every woman remembered minute details of the abuse.b. almost none of the women recalled the abuse.c. 38% of the women did not recall the abuse.d. 75% of the women did not recall the abuse.

c

Goodman et al. (2003) interviewed 175 individuals with documented child abuse histories and found that ___ of thesubjects remembered and reported the abuse.




a. 25% b. 53%c. 81% d. 100%

c

The part of the treatment plan for DID that is similar to the treatment plan for posttraumatic stress disorder is




a. integration of personality fragments.b. use of antipsychotic medications.c. reliving the trauma (catharsis).d. hypnotic regression to early life experiences.

c

In the "Abnormal Psychology Live" interview with Rachel, she claims that nobody (meaning none of her alters)wants responsibility for her body because




a. none of the alters are sufficiently mature.b. there is too much desire for self-destruction.c. of reasons that she cannot understand.d. there is too much devastation behind it.

d

In the "Abnormal Psychology Live" presentation, Rachel describes how her eyes always see the world through "afog." She attributes this to having spent "years in the darkness" and




a. other people looking through the same eyes.b. her history of substance abuse.c. not wanting to see the world as it really is.d. the trauma of constantly switching personalities.

a

In the "Abnormal Psychology Live" presentation of Doug who has suffered with body dysmorphic disorder, hedescribes having thought about his perceived physical flaws




a. three to four times a day. b. three or four hours a day.c. about six hours a day. d. virtually all day long.

d

In the "Abnormal Psychology Live" presentation of Doug who has suffered with body dysmorphic disorder, heattributes all of the following to his disorder EXCEPT




a. the failure of his marriage. b. his obsessions.c. his low self-esteem. d. his failure to seek advancement at work.

c

End of chapter 6, Begin chapter 7

:)

Prior to the DSM-III, conditions that are currently characterized as mood disorders were referred to by severaldifferent names, including all of the following EXCEPT




a. depressive disorders. b. affective disorders.c. psychotic episodes. d. depressive neuroses.

c

The physical symptoms of a major depressive disorder include




a. changes in appetite or weight. b. decreased ability to concentrate.c. increased energy. d. decreased self-esteem

a

One of the symptoms of a mood disorder is called anhedonia, which means




a. a feeling of worthlessness. b. an altered pattern of sleep.c. indecisiveness. d. an inability to engage in pleasurable activities.

d

Mood disorders can range from mild to severe; the most severe type of depression is called




a. major depressive disorder b. dysthymia.c. cyclothymia. d. profound depression.

a

The first episode of major depression is usually time-limited - often lasting up to ________ - if left untreated.




a. 3 months b. 6 monthsc. 9 months d. 1 year

c

Which of the following is a symptom of a manic mood state?




a. Clear, coherent speech b. Hypoactive behaviorc. Fatigue d. Grandiose planning

d

When used in connection with mood disorders, "flight of ideas" means




a. anxiety about airplane travel.b. rapid speech expressing many exciting ideas at once.c. limited imagination reflected in a slow way of speaking.d. repression of all creative ideas.

b

In comparing the length of untreated depressive episodes to untreated manic episodes, which of the following is anaccurate statement?




a. Depressive episodes generally last longer.b. Manic episodes generally last longer.c. Both types of episodes typically last about the same amount of time.d. This comparison cannot be made because depressive episodes are always treated.

a

Which of the following is NOT TRUE about a hypomanic manic episode?




a. It is not necessarily problematic.b. It does contribute to the definition of several mood disorders.c. It causes marked impairment in social or occupational functioning.d. It need only last 4 days.

c

A 35-year-old individual named Manny has recently formulated an elaborate plan to cure AIDS with vitamintherapy. To provide funding for this cause, he has withdrawn all the money from his bank account and purchasedthousands of jars of vitamins and small boxes in which to put them. When he appeared at a hospital emergencyroom loudly demanding names of patients with AIDS, he himself was hospitalized for psychiatric observation. Whatis your diagnosis of Manny?




a. Major depressive episode b. Hypomanic episodec. Manic episode d. Postpartum psychosis

c

Unipolar mania




a. does not exist. b. is rare.c. is fairly common. d. is a part of bipolar disorder.

b

During a dysphoric manic episode, the patient experiences mania and ___________.




a. schizophrenia b. confusionc. anxiety and depression d. anger

c

Dysphoric mania refers to a type of mood disorder in which manic episodes are




a. extremely severe. b. very mild.c. accompanied by depression or anxiety. d. related to a medical condition

c

Most individuals who experience a single episode of major depressive disorder will




a. never have another episode.b. most likely have just one more episode.c. probably have several episodes throughout their lives.d. later have a manic episode.

c

Debbie has been diagnosed with major depressive disorder, recurrent. She wants to know what to expect in thefuture regarding her condition. You tell her that according to recent research the median lifetime number of majordepressive episodes is _____.




a. 2-3 b. 4-7c. 8-11 d. 12-15

a

Persistent depressive disorder (formerly called dysthymia) differs from major depressive disorder because peoplediagnosed with dysthymia have symptoms of depression that are ________.




a. more severe b. longer-lastingc. episodic d. temporary

b

Jack has experienced recurrent episodes of major depressive episodes. In the intervals between the episodes, hedoes not seem to return to "normal." In fact, during those periods, he has been diagnosed as suffering frompersistent depressive disorder. Jack's condition is referred to as _______________.




a. double depression b. bipolar disorderc. atypical depression d. dysfunctional dysthymia

a

A person who experiences a persistent depressed mood for at least 2 years but is not experiencing majordepression may have




a. persistent depressive disorder. b. cyclothymic disorder.c. bipolar disorder. d. double depression.

a

Milton has been mildly depressed for many years. Just recently, however, his depression deepened, and he wasseverely depressed for about three months. His deep depression then lifted and he was once again mildlydepressed. Milton




a. will be easier to treat now that the severe depression is resolved.b. will quickly respond to treatment and will recover completely from his depression.c. will require a longer and more intense course of treatment to maintain a normal mood state.d. will require treatment for the rest of his life.

c

Katie has been diagnosed with major depressive disorder. Most recently, she has been lying immobile for longperiods. If someone moves one of her arms to a different position, it just stays there. Katie has stopped speakingand does not appear to hear what is being said to her. What specifier would you apply to her diagnosis of majordepressive disorder?




a. Chronic b. With catatonic featuresc. With atypical presentation d. Melancholic

b

Tamara gave birth to a healthy child four days ago. Now she is tearful and having mood swings. Fortunately, thesesymptoms disappeared relatively quickly. Tamara was probably suffering from _______________.




a. major depressive disorder with peripartum onset b. baby bluesc. persistent depressive disorder d. major depressive episode with seasonal onset

b

A person who eats and sleeps too much is experiencing a depressive episode with __________ features.




a. atypical b. melancholicc. chronic d. catatonic

a

The melancholic specifiers for depressive disorders include all of the following EXCEPT




a. weight loss. b. loss of libido (sex drive).c. sleeping late and hypersomnia. d. anhedonia.

c

Although catatonic symptoms occur in major depressive disorders, they are more frequently associated with______________.




a. phobias b. somatoform disordersc. dissociative identity disorder d. schizophrenia

d

The peripartum onset specifier is used to characterize a severe manic or depressive episode with psychotic featuresthat occurs in a woman immediately before or after ____________.




a. childbirth b. a hysterectomyc. a physical assault d. menopause

a

In rare tragic cases, a mother suffering from major depression with peripartum onset sometimes




a. kills her child. b. commits suicide.c. murders other people's children. d. injures the child's father.

a

The most usual pattern of a temporal specifier in major depressive disorder occurs in the late fall and ends with thebeginning of spring. This type of depression is known as __________.




a. melancholic b. recurrentc. postpartum d. seasonal affective disorder

d

Which of the following statements applies to the condition known as seasonal affective disorder (SAD)?




a. Women with SAD reported more autonomous negative thoughts throughout the year than women withoutSAD.b. People with SAD have symptoms of decreased sleep and decreased appetite.c. Depression in vulnerable people might be triggered by decreased production of the hormone called melatonin.d. SAD can be treated with phototherapy, i.e., 2 hours of exposure to bright light just before going to sleep.

a

Morning light is thought to help with seasonal affective disorder because it




a. produces phase advances of the melatonin rhythm.b. reverses melatonin release.c. increases the amount of melatonin released.d. eliminates melatonin release.

a

An effective treatment for SAD is




a. exposure to bright light shortly after awakening.b. exposure to bright light in the evening.c. exposure to a negative ion generator shortly after awakening.d. exposure to a negative ion generator in the evening.

a

According to recent research (Kessler et al., 2003), the percentage of people aged 18 to 29 that have alreadyexperienced major depression is _______.




a. 10% b. 18%c. 25% d. 40%

c

How many patients with severe cases of depression where the episode lasts 5 years or longer can be expected torecover?




a. 4% b. 22%c. 38% d. 56%

c

The probability that a person will recover from a major depressive episode within 1 year approaches 90% in_________________.a. almost all cases b. mild cases onlyc. severe cases only d. double depression only

a

Symptoms of severe depression are generally NOT considered a psychological disorder when they are associatedwith ________________.




a. a grief reaction b. a manic episodec. anxiety d. thoughts of suicide

a

A woman who is extremely depressed a year or so after the loss of her spouse might be diagnosed with___________.




a. normal bereavement b. dysthymiac. major depression d. complicated grief

d

Although grieving is considered a normal process, it does sometimes become a psychological disorder. Which of thefollowing cases would NOT be diagnosed as a pathological grief reaction?




a. Mr. A experienced a death in his family. In addition to symptoms of depression, he has been having auditoryhallucinations in which he hears other deceased people talking to him.b. Miss B. has experienced the death of a close friend. She is so depressed that she has no appetite, no energy,and is suicidal.c. Mrs. C's dog recently died. Three weeks later, her friends suggest that she get another dog "to help her getover the loss." Mrs. C. refuses and says she just isn't ready to get another dog and besides, it would beimpossible to replace her beloved "Toto."d. Dr. D's wife died a few months ago. Recently, in addition to his depressive symptoms, he has been havingparanoid delusions in which he believes that certain unnamed individuals are planning to remove his wife'sbody from the grave

c

If a friend of yours stops sleeping and suddenly claims that he is going to go to law school and medical schoolsimultaneously so he can change the world, you might suspect he is __________.




a. anxious b. depressedc. manic d. anhedonic

c

Andy is currently completing a chemical formula that he knows will cure cancer. Shortly before, he had submitted abook to a publisher and was sure that it would become a bestseller. For several weeks prior to this, he wasbedridden, morose, had no energy, and lacked any spontaneity. He never left his bed and had to be cared for by hisfamily. Andy's diagnosis is ________________.




a. major depressive disorder b. persistent depressive disorderc. bipolar I disorder d. bipolar II disorder

d

Bipolar II disorder consists of




a. depression with hypomanic episodes. b. depression with anxiety.c. depression with mania. d. depression with dysthymia.

a

Jane is diagnosed with bipolar II disorder. You can expect that she will experience




a. full manic episodes. b. hypomanic episodes.c. both manic and hypomanic episodes. d. neither manic nor hypomanic episodes.

b

When manic episodes alternate with depressive episodes, the disorder most correctly diagnosed would be




a. bipolar disorder. b. major depressive disorder.c. bipolar II disorder d. cyclothymic disorder

a

Recent evidence indicates a higher level of ___________ in patients with bipolar disorder that was marked by arapid cycling pattern compared to those with a non-rapid cycling pattern.




a. treatment response b. resistance to treatmentc. medication side effects d. suicide

d

Suicide associated with bipolar disorder almost always occurs during




a. a manic phase. b. depressive episode.c. a prodromal period. d. a hypomanic phase.

b

The rapid-cycling specifier refers to an individual with bipolar disorder who experiences at least ___ manic ordepressive episodes in a year.




a. 2 b. 4c. 6 d. 8

b

In studies of bipolar patients who experience rapid cycling, it has been found that from 60% to 90% are_________.




a. female b. malec. elderly d. adolescents

a

At various times, Cynthia, a 20-year-old college student, has been considered by her family and/or friends to bemoody, high-strung, explosive, or hyperactive. She never fails to take care of her responsibilities, but the fact thatshe seems to experience mood swings that are outside the norm has been noticed by those around her. Knowingthe criteria for mood disorders, you would diagnose Cynthia with ___________.




a. major depressive disorder b. panic disorderc. persistent depressive disorder d. cyclothymic disorder

d

When referring to the mood disorders called cyclothymia and persistent depressive disorder, it would be accurate tosay that an individual with cyclothymia probably




a. would be considered "moody." b. cannot function normally at all.c. has more depressive episodes. d. has full manic episodes.

a

The less severe but more chronic version of bipolar disorder is called __________ disorder.




a. dysphoric b. seasonal affectivec. bipolar III d. cyclothymic

d

In about _____________patients, cyclothymic mood swings develop into full-blown bipolar disorder.




a. 25% to 33% b. 33% to 50%c. 50% to 66% d. 10% to 20%

b

Approximately ______ experience major depressive disorder over a lifetime and approximately _____ in the lastyear




a. 11%; 4% b. 16%; 6%c. 21%; 8% d. 25%; 10%

b

With regard to the prevalence of mood disorders, which of the following has been found consistently?




a. Females experience major depressive disorders less frequently than males.b. Men have twice as many mood disorders as women.c. Bipolar disorders occur equally across the sexes.d. Dysthymia occurs equally across the sexes.

c

Depression rates in adolescents appear to be




a. increasing. b. leveling off.c. about the same as adults. d. decreasing

c

All of the following are accurate statements about the prevalence of mood disorders in children and adolescentsEXCEPT




a. Bipolar disorder in children is often misdiagnosed as attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).b. Major depressive disorder in adolescents is largely a female disorder.c. Rates of attempted suicide decrease during adolescence.d. Adolescents with bipolar disorder may become aggressive, impulsive, sexually provocative and accidentprone.

c

A child raised by depressed parents is likely to




a. struggle with depression as well. b. learn how to avoid depression.c. be inoculated against depression. d. deny stress symptoms

a

A common characteristic of depression in boys is ___________________.




a. aggression b. passivenessc. shyness d. coping behavior

a

Which of the following is TRUE of depression in the elderly?




a. Being depressed triples the risk of death in the elderly.b. Suicide rates are the second highest of any age group due to depression.c. The prevalence of depression is almost equal among elderly men and women.d. All of the above

c

Being depressed __________ the risk of death in elderly patients who have had a stroke or heart attack.




a. has no effect b. doublesc. triples d. reduces

b

Cross-cultural research indicates that, due at least in part to appalling social and economic conditions, theprevalence of major depression is extremely high among ________.




a. African Americans b. Hispanic Americansc. Asian Americans d. Native Americans

d

According to your textbook, researchers have been studying the life histories of American poets to determine ifthere is a relationship between creativity and _______.




a. anxiety b. bipolar disorderc. dissociation d. schizophrenia

b

In research looking at the biological causes of mood disorders, studies have shown that if one of a set of twins hasa mood disorder, the probability that the other twin will have a mood disorder is _________.




a. 29% b. 42%c. 66% d. 81%

c

Which of the following statements is TRUE?




a. Overwhelming evidence suggests mood disorders are familial and reflect an underlying genetic vulnerability.b. Studies are now beginning to identify a small group of genes that may contribute to genetic vulnerability tosome types of depression.c. The genetic contribution to depression falls in the range of approximately 40% for females and 20% formales.d. All of the above

d

Recent research suggests that




a. social and psychological explanations seem to account for factors that contribute to both anxiety anddepression.b. for mania, the biological vulnerability may not be specific to that disorder.c. the same genetic factors contribute to both anxiety and depression.d. All of the above

c

Current research into neurotransmitter systems has produced the "permissive" hypothesis, which states that




a. low levels of serotonin are sufficient to explain the etiology of mood disorders.b. the norepinephrine system regulates serotonin levels; if norepinephrine is low, depression will occur.c. when serotonin levels are low, other neurotransmitter systems become dysregulated and contribute to moodirregularities.d. the absolute levels of neurotransmitters are more significant in mood regulation than the overall balance ofthe various neurotransmitters

c

A friend of yours tells you that he thinks he is mildly depressed, but he's not sure. Knowing that you are studyingabnormal psychology, he asks if there is any kind of laboratory test that could determine whether or not someone isdepressed. You respond correctly with one of the following statements:




a. Currently there is no way of diagnosing depression with a laboratory test.b. The dexamethasone suppression test is a biological test for depression.c. The dexamethasone suppression test can only be used to diagnose severe cases of depression.d. Cortisol levels are decreased in depression; he could have his cortisol levels checked by a blood test.

a

In regard to most disorders, serotonin is thought to




a. function independently of other neurotransmitters.b. regulate other neurotransmitters, such as norepinephrine and dopamine.c. be unrelated to symptoms.d. none of the above

b

The best conclusion about the dexamethasone suppression test (DST) for the diagnosis of depression is that




a. it is accurate.b. it is effective but cannot differentiate bipolar disorder from major depression.c. it promises to be an effective diagnostic tool in the future.d. it is not useful as a diagnostic tool.

d

Recent research suggests that




a. the suppression of neurogenesis in the hippocampus is due to the connection between high stress hormonesand depression.b. low hippocampal volume may precede and contribute to the onset of depressionc. electroconvulsive therapy seems to produce neurogenesis in the hippocampusd. All of the above

d

One symptom of depression is an increase in sleeping. What other symptoms related to sleep occur in depression?




a. A reduction of slow-wave (deep) sleep.b. Less intense REM activityc. Stages of deepest sleep occurring earlier in the sleep cycled. Slower onset of REM sleep

a

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the sleep of depressed patients?




a. They enter REM sleep quickly. b. They experience intense REM episodes.c. They show delayed slow wave sleep. d. They show advanced slow wave sleep.

d

Depressive individuals tend to exhibit




a. greater right anterior brain activity. b. greater left anterior brain activity.c. more alpha wave activity. d. less overall brain activity.

a

In regard to the relationship between stress and depression, all of the following statements are true EXCEPT




a. the context of the life event, as well as its meaning to the individual, is more important than the nature of theevent itself.b. an individual's current mood state might distort earlier memories of stressful life events that precipitated thedepression.c. stressful life events are strongly related to the onset of mood disorders.d. recurrent episodes of depression, but not initial episodes, are strongly predicted by major life stress.

d

When individuals who are biologically vulnerable to depression place themselves in high-risk stressful environments,it is called




a. humoral theory. b. the cognitive-behavioral model.c. the gene-environment correlation model. d. a stress-depression linkage effect.

c

Stressful events are strongly related to the onset of ____________.




a. depression b. bipolar disorderc. both d. neither

c

Martin Seligman's theory that people become anxious and depressed because they believe that they have no controlover the stress in their lives is called




a. the learned helplessness theory. b. cognitive-behavioral theory.c. humanistic/existential theory. d. the control theory of depression.

a

In 1989, Abramson and his colleagues revised Seligman's theory of learned helplessness, changing the focus fromspecific attributions to _________ as the crucial factor in depression.




a. lack of control b. a sense of hopelessnessc. repressed anger d. a feeling of failure

b

A student who has been doing very well in her psychology class receives a minor critical comment on an essay thatshe wrote as part of an exam. The student thinks, "This is terrible. I'm probably going to fail the course." This typeof cognitive error in thinking is called _________.




a. arbitrary inference b. overgeneralizationc. splitting d. dissociating

b

Regarding Beck's views on depression, which of the following definitions of cognitive errors and negative schema isNOT correct?




a. In a self-blame schema, depressed individuals feel personally responsible for every bad thing that happens.b. Arbitrary inference means that a depressed individual emphasizes the positive rather than the negativeaspects of a situation.c. In a negative self-evaluation schema, depressed individuals believe that they can never do anything correctly.d. Overgeneralization occurs when a small error is magnified to mean something much more significant

b

Negative cognitive styles are associated with a vulnerability to subsequent depression




a. in people in general.b. in people who have already been depressed.c. only in people who are currently depressed.d. only in women.

a

According to recent research on the development of depression, dysfunctional attitudes (a negative outlook) andhopelessness attributes (explaining things negatively) constitute a _____________ vulnerability to depression.




a. biological b. cognitivec. behavioral d. sociological

b

In Aaron Beck's depressive cognitive triad, individuals think negatively about all of the following EXCEPT________.




a. themselves b. their immediate worldc. their past d. their future

c

For individuals who had not been previously depressed, research studies indicate that a marital separation or divorceresulted in




a. a higher rate of depression in men.b. a higher rate of depression in women.c. approximately equal rates of depression for males and females.d. no symptoms of depression in either males or females.

a

Possible reasons for the higher rates of depression found in women include all of the following EXCEPT




a. culturally induced dependence and passivity.b. sense of uncontrollability and helplessness.c. low value placed on intimate relationships.d. self-blame for being depressed.

c

Possible reasons for the higher rates of depression found in women relate to the disadvantages experienced bywomen in the United States such as




a. discrimination and poverty. b. abuse and sexual harassment.c. both of these d. none of these

c

With regard to social support,




a. having one close friend did not affect depression rates.b. having social support helped speed recovery from depressive episodes.c. having social support had no effect in China.d. having social support helped speed recovery from manic episodes.

b

Which of the following factors contribute to the integrative theory of depression?




a. Stressful life events b. Stress hormonesc. Neurotransmitter systems d. All of these

d

The following types of medications are all used to treat depression EXCEPT




a. SSRIs. b. mixed reuptake inhibitors.c. MAO inhibitors. d. GABA inhibitors.

a

Which of the following is perhaps the best-known and widely used SSRI medication?




a. Prozac b. Valiumc. Hypericum d. Thorazine

a

The antidepressant medications known as imipramine (Tofranil) and amitriptyline (Elavil) are included in the classof drugs called




a. SSRIs. b. tricyclics.c. MAO inhibitors. d. tranquilizers

b

The class of drugs that blocks the enzyme that breaks down norepehinephrine and serotonin is




a. SSRIs. b. tricyclics.c. MAO inhibitors. d. tranquilizers

c

Which of the following statements is TRUE about tricyclics?




a. Tricyclics work within 24 hours after they are ingested.b. They can be accompanied by very unpleasant side effects.c. Tricyclics block the reuptake of acetylcholine.d. Weight loss is a side effect of taking a tricyclic.

b

Side effects of the tricyclic antidepressants include _______________.




a. weight loss b. excessive urinationc. sexual dysfunction d. diarrhea

c

Clinical studies have shown that the response rate for patients receiving at least some relief from depressivesymptoms is approximately ________.




a. 25% b. 50%c. 75% d. 100%

b

Studies has shown that tricyclics have caused




a. manic episodes in the elderly. b. severe weight loss in adolescents.c. sudden death in some children under 14 years old. d. all of the above

c

With regard to treatment of mood disorders, which of the following statements is accurate?




a. Patients do not recover from episodes of major depression without treatment.b. Delaying or preventing future episodes of major depression is an important treatment goal.c. After a patient has experienced a major depressive episode and recovered, treatment can be discontinued.d. Close to 100% of patients with major depressive disorder respond to drug treatment.

b

A goal of treatment for patients who have experienced major depressive disorders is delaying or preventing thenext episode. In which of the following situations would this goal be LEAST important?




a. Patients who have recovered from a major depressive episode but still have some residual symptomsb. Patients with a past history of chronic depression (dysthymia)c. Patients with a past history of multiple episodes of major depressive disorderd. Patients who have had a single, brief episode of major depressive disorder and recovered without treatment

d

All of the following are side effects of lithium therapy EXCEPT ____________.




a. lowered thyroid functioning b. weight lossc. toxicity d. lack of energy

b

All of the following statements about lithium therapy are true EXCEPT




a. lithium can act as an antidepressant.b. lithium can act as a mood stabilizer.c. dosage must be carefully regulated to prevent toxicity.d. the side effects of lithium are less serious than those of other antidepressants.

d

A relative of yours has been diagnosed with bipolar disorder. Your family is impressed when you mention that thepreferred drug for this condition is ________.




a. Prozac b. St. John's Wortc. an anticonvulsant d. lithium

d

All of the following statements about lithium therapy are true EXCEPT




a. for those patients who respond to lithium, approximately 70% will relapse.b. for anyone with recurrent manic episodes, maintenance on lithium is recommended to prevent relapse.c. once a person is symptom-free for 6 months, he/she may stop taking lithium.d. people stop taking lithium to regain the euphoric feeling that mania produces.

c

One of the problems encountered by psychiatrists who prescribe medication for patients with bipolar disorder is thatpatients often




a. stop taking the medication in order to bring on a depressive state.b. stop taking the medication in order to bring on a manic state.c. overdose on the medication during a severe manic state.d. become addicted to the medications during a severe manic state

b

The antidepressant medication lithium is also referred to as a mood stabilizer because it




a. increases the availability of both dopamine and norepinephrine in the brain.b. is less toxic than the SSRI medications.c. helps to prevent manic episodes.d. increases thyroid functioning, which results in improved mood stabilization.

c

Although electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) has been a controversial issue for decades, it is an effective treatmentfor depression especially when




a. patients cannot afford antidepressant medication.b. patient response to antidepressant medication is poor.c. symptoms of depression are mild.d. a manic-depressive patient is currently experiencing a manic episode.

b

All of the following statements are true about ECT EXCEPT




a. electric shock is administered directly to the brain for less than a second.b. patient response to antidepressant medication is poor.c. for severely depressed patients with psychotic features, approximately 25% of those not responding tomedication will benefit.d. ECT treatments are administered every other day for a total of 6 to 10 treatments

c

All of the following statements are accurate about electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) except




a. relief of symptoms can occur within a week or two with ECT.b. ECT treatment should be followed up with medication.c. short-term memory loss can be a side effect of treatment with ECT.d. psychotically depressed patients should be treated with ongoing medication, not ECT, even when response tothose drugs is poor

d

Recent research suggests that an equally effective alternative to some antidepressant medications that appears toalter electrical activity in the brain may be




a. transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS). b. electrocranial stimulation (ECS).c. magnetic resonance stimulation (MRS). d. positron cranial stimulation (PCS)

a

Interpersonal psychotherapy deals with all of the following interpersonal problems EXCEPT




a. environmental interactions.b. acquiring new relationships.c. identification and correction of deficits in social skills.d. interpersonal role disputes

a

Prevention of mood disorders in children and adolescents include all of the following except




a. universal programs. b. selected interventions.c. indicated interventions. d. milieu interventions.

d

Which of the following statements about suicide is correct?




a. The suicide rate is high among African Americans but low among Native Americans.b. The suicide rate among adolescents in the U.S. is decreasing.c. For teenagers, suicide is the third leading cause of death after auto accidents and homicide.d. Females are more likely than males to die from suicide.

c

Researchhas found that low serotonin levels may be implicated in suicidal behavior because they affect all of thefollowing EXCEPT _______.




a. impulsivity b. instabilityc. agnosia d. overreactivity

c

With regard to the relationship between mood disorders and suicide, which of the following statements reflects thecurrent thinking on this issue?




a. Suicide is often associated with psychological disorders, especially depression.b. All people who attempt suicide have mood disorders.c. A small percentage of adolescent suicides are an expression of severe depression.d. Suicide is generally a response to some disappointment in people who are otherwise psychologically healthy.

a

Statistics on suicide indicate that approximately one-quarter to one-half of all suicides are associated with_____________.




a. alcohol use b. gunsc. aggression d. work stress

a

Although glorifying and romanticizing suicide in the media contributes to copycat suicides, it is more likely that theperson copying the suicide is




a. just doing it for attention.b. vulnerable due to an existing psychological disorder.c. not really serious about the suicide attempt.d. trying to impress others

b

Impulsive suicidal behavior is often a symptom of _____________ personality disorder.




a. schizoid b. borderlinec. obsessive-compulsive d. paranoid

b

Which of the following statements is accurate regarding the relationship between anxiety and depression?




a. Many depressed patients are or have been anxious and many anxious patients are or have been depressed.b. Cognitive content (thinking) is more negative in anxious patients than in those with depression.c. A core symptom of anxiety is the inability to experience pleasure.d. Anxiety is often preceded by an episode of major depression.

a

On the "Abnormal Psychology Live" CD for Chapter 7, Barbara says that her primary depressive symptom was______________.




a. agitation b. suicidal thoughtsc. mania d. physically lethargy

d

During Evelyn's final interview on the "Abnormal Psychology Live" CD for Chapter 7, she describes the experienceof starting to feel better as




a. beginning to see some light. b. being lifted above the depths of despair.c. having fewer suicidal thoughts. d. wanting to go home.

a

During the final interview with Mary on the "Abnormal Psychology Live" CD for Chapter 7, she is clearly in amanic state with an affect that can be considered inappropriate due to her ________.




a. wildly excited tone of voice b. lack of eye contactc. constant crying d. laughing

d

End of Chapter 7, Begin chapter 8

:)

The chief motivating factor in both anorexia nervosa nervosa and bulimia nervosa is




a. a desire to purge. b. an overwhelming drive to eat.c. an overwhelming urge to be thin. d. a desire to starve oneself.

c

When individuals with anorexia nervosa are evaluated over long periods of time, it has been found that thepercentage of individuals who die as a result of their disorder is ______.




a. 20% b. 5%c. 2% d. 40%

a

Approximately ___ of anorexia nervosa deaths are due to suicide.




a. 5-10% b. 10-15%c. 20-30% d. 40-45%

c

The death rate (including suicide) due to anorexia nervosa is




a. higher than for any other psychological disorder except depression.b. lower than that of most psychological disorders.c. higher than that any psychological disorder reviewed in your text.d. the highest of all of the psychological disorders

c

Between 1960 and 1995, most Western countries experienced a dramatic




a. decrease in the incidence of anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa.b. increase in the incidence of anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa.c. increase in the incidence of anorexia nervosa but a decrease in the incidence of bulimia nervosa.d. increase in the incidence of bulimia nervosa and no change in the rate of anorexia nervosa

b

The strongest contributions to etiology of eating disorders seem to be _________.




a. genetic b. psychologicalc. somatogenic d. sociocultural

d

Jody sometimes eats more than just about any other girl that you know. You wonder if her eating sometimes couldbe considered bingeing. In order to determine this, you would have to know




a. the caloric intake of the foods.b. whether she is eating junk foods.c. whether eating gets to be out of her control.d. the situations under which she eats a great deal.

c

The most significant feature of bulimia nervosa is ____________.




a. purgingb. overeatingc. overeating followed by an urge to vomitd. binge eating followed by compensatory behavior

d

Susan, a woman of relatively normal weight, sometimes eats huge quantities of junk food with no ability to stopherself. She follows this with long periods of complete fasting. Based on this information, Susan




a. might be diagnosed with bulimia nervosa.b. should be diagnosed with anorexia nervosa.c. will not be diagnosed with any disorder because she is of normal weight.d. cannot be diagnosed with bulimia nervosa because she is not purging.

a

After engaging in an extended session of binge eating, Thomas goes to the bathroom and makes himself vomit. Hethinks that he has removed all of the food he consumed from his stomach, but in fact he will only have removedaround _____ percent of the calories he consumed.




a. one-third b. one-quarterc. one-half d. two-thirds

c

Amy is a young woman who is very competitive and comes from a high achieving, wealthy family. She is verysocial and likes the fact that she is quite popular. She believes that her popularity is dependent on the weight andshape of her body. Amy has a boyfriend but worries that she may care more about their relationship than he does.The feature that puts Amy most at risk for an eating disorder such as bulimia nervosa is her




a. belief that her weight and body shape influence her popularity.b. belief that her boyfriend cares less about the relationship than she does.c. successful family.d. competitive nature

a

The most serious medical consequence of bulimia nervosa is potential _____________.




a. electrolyte imbalance b. salivary gland damagec. starvation d. tooth erosion

a

Individuals with bulimia nervosa are typically




a. within 10% of their "normal" wieght.b. very overweight.c. very underweight.d. overweight during the development of the disorder but become underweight as the disorder progresses.

a

People with bulimia nervosa often present with additional psychological disorders, particularly ________ and________.




a. body dysmorphic disorder; substance disordersb. mood disorders; sexual disordersc. anxiety disorders; mood disordersd. obsessive compulsive disorder; sexual disorders

c

Which of the following statements is TRUE?




a. Eating disorders are a way of expressing depression.b. Eating disorders have a high comorbidity with stress disorders.c. Depression may be a reaction to bulimia nervosa.d. 20-40% of all people with bulimia nervosa meet the criteria for a mood disorder during the course of theireating disorder

c

Recent research (Eddy, et al., 2002) suggests that the restricting and bingeing/purging subtypes of anorexia nervosa




a. are really different disorders.b. have completely different causes.c. show few differences in severity of symptoms.d. are useless distinctions of the same disorder.

c

Which of the following diagnoses would require the noticeable loss of weight?




a. Anorexia nervosa b. Bulimia nervosac. Binge-eating disorder d. Body dysmorphic disorder

a

A common medical complication found in both bulimia nervosa and anorexia nervosa is ____________.




a. brittle hair b. downy hair on limbsc. electrolyte imbalance d. cessation of menstrual cycle

d

The most common reason that anorexic individuals generally do not seek treatment on their own is that they




a. are ashamed of their disorder. b. fear that they will be hospitalized.c. do not truly believe that they are too thin. d. have little desire for food.

c

Individuals who experience loss of control of their eating and consume great quantities of food but do not engage inany attempts to compensate for their binge would be diagnosed with




a. bulimia nervosa. b. binge-eating disorder.c. obsessive-compulsive disorder. d. anorexia nervosa

b

The best evidence that binge-eating disorder (BED) may not just be a special case of bulimia nervosa is that




a. more males than females suffer from BED.b. no genetic component has been identified for BED.c. there is a greater likelihood of remission and a better response to treatment for BED.d. the average age of onset is much younger for BED than it is for bulimia nervosa or anorexia nervosa

c

Binge-eating disorder is characterized by _____________.




a. laxative use b. purgingc. a lack of compensatory behaviors d. emaciation

c

The males most likely to develop an eating disorder such as bulimia nervosa are those who are _________.




a. overweight b. depressedc. homosexual d. only children

c

Which of the following statements is TRUE?




a. Anorexia nervosa typically occurs at a much earlier age than bulimia nervosa.b. Once bulimia nervosa develops, it tends to be chronic if untreated.c. Bulimic individuals eventually shift to symptoms of other eating disorders.d. Bulimia nervosa is more resistant to treatment than anorexia nervosa.

b

Studies of foreign-born students who are attending Western universities show that




a. anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa do not occur in students who were raised in countries where thesedisorders do not exist.b. anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa are observed in some students who were raised in countries wherethese disorders do not exist.c. anorexia nervosa, but not bulimia nervosa, has been observed in some students who were raised in countrieswhere these disorders do not exist.d. bulimia nervosa, but not anorexia nervosa, has been observed in some students who were raised in countrieswhere these disorders do not exist

b

Studies have found that adolescent girls of which race/ethnicity had less body dissatisfaction, fewer weightconcerns, and a more positive body image when compared to Caucasian adolescent girls?




a. African Americans b. Hispanicsc. Native Americans d. Asians

a

Which of the following might help to explain the vast differences in the incidence of eating disorders among menand women?




a. The influence of behavioral geneticsb. The fact that boys are encouraged to play sports and girls to be active in social functionsc. The fact that puberty brings boys' bodies closer to the societal ideal and girls' bodies further from the societalideald. The differences in the way boys and girls tend to gain weight from overeating

c

The median age of onset for all eating disorders is ____________ years of age.




a. 13 to 19 b. 18 to 21c. 20 to 26 d. 10 to 14

b

The increase in the incidence of eating disorders such as anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa has been referredto as a "collision between our culture and our physiology." The most accurate interpretation of this statement is that




a. people have become too dependent on media determinations of beauty.b. media standards of beauty are increasingly unattainable for the average woman.c. dieting has become a fad that has been taken to an extreme.d. society has no business telling us how to define beauty.

b

Which of the following is NOTtrue about the relationships between the media and attitudes about body shape?




a. Prime-time situation comedies often feature women dieting or complaining about their weight.b. Most magazine models are thinner than average women.c. Men on TV are more likely to be overweight than women.d. The media has no impact on body image

d

Mothers of girls with anorexia nervosa tend to be __________.




a. perfectionistic b. dieting themselvesc. less satisfied with their families d. all of the above

d

Studies suggest that young males would often prefer to be ____________ than they are.




a. thinner b. heavierc. taller d. shorter

b

When women are asked to identify the most attractive female body weight, they typically identify a weight that is




a. lower than the weight identified by men. b. the same as the weight identified by men.c. higher than the weight identified by men. d. 20% lower than their own body weight.

a

When men are asked to identify the ideal male body, they typically select a body weight that is about




a. equal to their own. b. 28 pounds more muscular than their own.c. equal to the average male of their age. d. 15 pounds lighter than their own.

b

Which of the teenage girls described below is at greatest risk for developing an eating disorder?




a. Alice is currently on a diet; her friends also diet aggressively.b. Sue is of average to slightly above average weight but wants to lose a few pounds.c. Megan's friends are concerned about the weight she has lost since she began working out with the swimteam.d. Jean has always been fairly thin despite the fact that she eats quite normally.

a

Weight reduction efforts by girls tend to result in ______________.




a. overall weight loss b. overall weight gainc. no change in weight d. stunted growth

a

The families of anorexia nervosa patients are typically characterized by all of the following EXCEPT




a. open communication. b. high achievement.c. perfectionism. d. concern with external appearances.

a

Of the following, the group in which we would expect to see the highest incidence of anorexia nervosa is




a. male homosexuals. b. female body builders.c. ballet dancers. d. female track stars.

c

Dietary restraint studies suggest that people who are starved




a. stop caring about food. b. may become preoccupied with food and eating.c. lose interest in food over time. d. gradually adjust to starvation diets.

b

Which of the following young women appears to be at the highest risk for developing an eating disorder?




a. Linda, whose mom and dad recently divorcedb. Carla, whose family members always seem to be fighting with each otherc. Sandy, whose family emphasizes achievement, support, and communicationd. Bonnie, whose family is perfectionistic, successful, and eager to maintain harmony

d

With regard to the biological influences of anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa, the most accurate statement is




a. anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa are culturally determined and not biologically influenced.b. the biological influences of anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa have not been studied.c. although the studies are still limited, there appears to be some biological influence in the development ofanorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa.d. although the studies are limited, there does appear to be a large biological influence for anorexia nervosa anda very small biological influence for bulimia nervosa.

c

Genetic influences on eating disorders most likely involve




a. a specific gene for each actual eating disorder.b. inherited personality traits that may make development of an eating disorder more likely.c. multiple genes interacting in ways not yet determined that directly produce eating disordered behavior.d. recessive genes.

b

Which of the following statements is TRUE about individuals with an eating disorder?




a. They have a diminished sense of personal control.b. They may manifest as strikingly low self-esteem.c. They display more perfectionistic attitudes.d. All of these statements tend ot be accurate.

d

With respect to eating disorders, drug treatments




a. have not been found to be effective in the treating of anorexia nervosa.b. had no benefit in preventing relapse in patients with anorexia nervosa.c. do not have long-lasting effects on bulimia nervosa.d. all of these

d

Which of the following statements is TRUEwith regard to drug treatments for patients with anorexia nervosa?




a. Medications have not generally been found to be effective for the treatment of anorexia nervosa.b. Antidepressants have some effectiveness in the treatment of anorexia nervosa.c. Anti-anxiety medications have some effectiveness in the treatment of anorexia nervosa.d. Anti-psychotic mediations have been found to be effective for the treatment of anorexia nervosa.

a

With regard to drug treatments for bulimia nervosa patients, which of the following statements is TRUE?




a. Medications have not been found to be effective for the treatment of bulimia nervosa.b. Antidepressants have some effectiveness in the treatment of bulimia nervosa.c. Benzodiazipine medications have some effectiveness in the treatment of bulimia nervosa.d. Anti-psychotic medications have been found to be effective for the treatment of bulimia nervosa.

b

One major problem with the use of medication in the treatment of bulimia nervosa is that




a. well-controlled studies have not found medication more effective than a placebo.b. the beneficial effects of the medication may be short-term.c. side effects make most patients discontinue the medication.d. patients refuse to take their medication.

b

With regard to treatment for eating disorders, Prozac is considered to be an effective treatment in the long term for




a. anorexia nervosa but not bulimia nervosa. b. bulimia nervosa but not anorexia nervosa.c. both anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa . d. neither anorexia nervosa or bulimia nervosa.

d

An early stage of Phoebe's cognitive-behavioral treatment for bulimia nervosa will likely involve




a. antidepressant medication. b. family therapy.c. small, frequent meals. d. in-patient treatment.

c

An important aspect of the cognitive-behavioral approach to the treatment of bulimia nervosa involves




a. changing patients' dysfunctional thoughts regarding their weight and previous weight control strategies.b. helping the patient's family learn new ways of interacting with each other and with the patient.c. changing the type and frequency of reinforcement associated with being an identified patient.d. making sure that the patient has a lot of quiet time where she can be alone.

a

A comparison of cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) and interpersonal therapy (IPT) for the treatment of bulimianervosa indicates that one year after treatment,




a. CBT was superior to IPT.b. IPT was superior to CBT.c. CBT and IPT had equivalent rates of helping clients improve.d. Neither therapy was successful at helping clients improve

a

One intriguing result from the studies comparing cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) and interpersonal therapy(IPT) for bulimia nervosa is the finding that




a. IPT is more effective in the short term but CBT is more effective when we look at how well patients aredoing one year following treatment.b. IPT and CBT appear to be indistinguishable in terms of their effectiveness in the short and long term, despitetheir very different approaches.c. IPT is always more effective than CBT.d. CBT is more effective in the short term, but IPT patients "catch up" and will do as well as CBT patients oneyear after treatment.

d

Research reported in your text conducted by Grilo, Masheb, & Wilson (2006) found that patients with binge-eatingdisorder who responded rapidly to cognitive-behavioral therapy (by the fourth week) tended to




a. have good responses to therapy both in the short long term.b. have good short-term responses but show higher rates of long-term relapse.c. have a difficult time in the short-term but show good long-term responses.d. relapse almost immediately after treatment was discontinued.

a

Which of the following statements is TRUE with regard to the treatment of binge-eating disorder?




a. Cognitive-behavioral therapy and self-help appear to be effective.b. Cognitive-behavioral therapy appears to be effective but self-help does not.c. Neither cognitive-behavioral nor self-help appears to be effective.d. Antidepressant medication is the only proven treatment.

a

Studies of the effectiveness of cognitive-behavioral treatment for bulimia nervosa have demonstrated




a. significant short-term gains in reduction of purging, but little change in binge-eating behavior.b. significant short-term gains in reduction of binge eating but no long-term gains.c. a few short-term gains in reduction of binge eating and purging but no long-term gains.d. significant short- and long-term gains in reduction of binge eating and purging.

d

The most important and immediate goal in the treatment of a patient with anorexia nervosa is________________.




a. family acceptance of the problem b. weight gainc. balanced diet d. resolution of family issues

b

Jill has been in treatment for anorexia nervosa for the past two months. Over this time, she has gained weight to thepoint where her weight is in the average range for a woman of her height. The fact that she gained weight fairlyquickly in treatment means




a. her prognosis for a full recovery is very good.b. she is probably in need of little if any more treatment.c. she has completed the most difficult part of her treatment.d. little in terms of how likely she is to be successful in the long term.

d

Many clinicians suggest that the most difficult part of treatment for anorexia nervosa, and the part of treatmentwhere many anorexic individuals are not successful, is




a. initial weight gain.b. admitting that there is a problem and agreeing to begin treatment.c. changing their attitudes regarding body shape and addressing interpersonal disruptions in their lives.d. when they become bulimic.

c

Matilda has had anorexia nervosa for several years. She started losing weight because her family said she neededto lose a few pounds. A crucial part of treatment for Matilda is family therapy that focuses on the issues regarding




a. attitudes toward body shape and image distortions.b. negative communications in the family regarding food and eating.c. dysfunctional communication in the family regarding food and eating.d. all of these

d

Outcome research regarding the long-term success of treatment for eating disorders indicates that




a. anorexia nervosa patients tend to have a better prognosis than bulimia nervosa patients.b. bulimia nervosa patients tend to have a better prognosis than anorexia nervosa patients.c. both anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa patients almost always make a full and long-term recovery aftertreatment.d. neither anorexia nervosa nor bulimia nervosa patients tend to make long-term recoveries, with most patientsgoing through repeated bouts of these disorders throughout their lives.

b

Programs that have the best chance of success for preventing eating disorders




a. should be administered to all girls under 15 years of age to prevent the disorder from developing.b. should be administered to girls under 15 yrs, of age who are concerned about being overweight.c. should be administered to all girls 15 years of age or older to prevent the disorder from developing.d. should be administered to girls 15 years of age or older who are concerned about being overweight

c

In studies of Internet-based eating disorder prevention programs (Winzelberg et al., 2000) such as the "studentbodies program,"




a. the participants showed no beneficial effects.b. participants reported improvement in body image and decreased drive for thinness.c. not a single participant has developed symptoms of an eating disorder.d. the drop-out rate has been extremely high.

b

As of 2008, the percentage of the adult population of the United States with a body mass index in the obese rangewas about __________.




a. 12% b. 17%c. 26% d. 34%

d

Obesity is the major factor in ____________.a.




Type 1 diabetes b. Type 2 diabetesc. anorexia nervosa d. bulimia nervosa

b

Individuals with night eating syndrome




a. consume a third of their daily intake after their evening meal.b. binge during the night.c. do not wake up while eating during the night.d. often purge after eating

a

Which of the following genetic factors does NOTcontribute to obesity?




a. Number of fat cells b. Likelihood of fat storagec. Activity levels d. Fat cell shape

d

Average weight loss on diet programs such as Atkins and Weight Watchers is _______.




a. 4-7 pounds b. 10-15 poundsc. 20-25 pounds d. 30 or more pounds

a

The most successful weight loss programs are




a. commercial self-help plans that limit carbohydrates or calories.b. self-directed diet plans based on diet books.c. professionally directed behavior modification programs.d. hypnosis-based plans

c

Bariatric surgery is




a. effective at any weight.b. more successful than dieting for the treatment of the very obese.c. less successful than diet for the very obese.d. always successful

b

Surgical treatments are likely to be the




a. first line of treatment for the very obese.b. last line of treatment for the very obese.c. treatment of choice for anyone who wants to lose weight.d. most rare of weight loss treatments

b

One method of preventing obesity that has been suggested is




a. instituting a "Twinkie tax" on all food with a high sugar content.b. reducing the cost of health foods.c. taking soda and junk food vending machines out of schools.d. all of these

d

The proposal that we should discuss taxing high calorie, fat, or sugar foods to control obesity has




a. been adopted nationwide.b. been viewed as a means of deterring unhealthy eating and raising money to combat obesity.c. been rejected outright as having no possibility of decreasing obesity.d. thought to benefit the poor more than the well-to-do.

b

The intent of taxing the purchase of unhealthy foods would be to




a. make unhealthy foods less attractive to consumers.b. punish the poor.c. raise general government revenue.d. Increase profits for food manufacturers.

a

Seriously obese adolescents are most likely to lose weight with




a. the use of medications.b. the use of behavioral treatments.c. the combination of medications and behavioral treatments.d. the use of surgery.

b

Sleep studies suggest that around 28% of Americans




a. get more than 6 hours of sleep a night. b. report feeling excessively sleepy during the day.c. have insomnia. d. need less than 5 hours of sleep a night.

b

Lack of adequate sleep has a negative effect on ____________.




a. health b. productivityc. clarity of thought d. all of these choices

d

Sleep research suggests that




a. REM sleep is related to depression.b. sleep abnormalities follow clinical depression.c. sleep problems don’t predict who is at risk for later mood disorders.d. sleep deprivation has permanent antidepressant effects on some people.

a

Individuals who feel tired and cranky all day despite falling asleep at a normal hour and awakening at their usualtime are most likely suffering from a(n) _____________.




a. parasomnia b. dyssomniac. type of REM sleep deprivation d. anxiety problem

b

Of the following, the correct pairing is _______________.




a. dyssomnia - sleepwalkingb. dyssomnia - inability to fall asleepc. parasomnia - waking up after 3 or 4 hours of sleep and then being unable to fall back to sleepd. parasomnia - lack of REM sleep

b

The most comprehensive evaluation of sleep is performed by a(n) ______________ evaluation.




a. polysomnographic b. actigraphicc. electromyographic d. electroencephalographic

a

While a patient sleeps, a polysomnographic evaluation collects data on all of the following characteristics EXCEPT_________.




a. respiration b. muscle movementsc. brain waves d. metabolic rate

d

Individuals with a sleep efficiency of 90%




a. spend more of their "bed time" awake than asleep.b. have a diagnosable sleep disorder.c. need to increase the number of hours in bed.d. spend 10% of their "bed time" awake.

d

Individuals suffering from primary insomnia




a. do not sleep at all.b. have difficulty initiating or maintaining sleep.c. wake up during their sleep cycle with severe nightmares.d. frequently sleepwalk

b

Sleep disorders are appropriately diagnosed based on the




a. quality and quantity of sleep as well as daytime sequelae (how theindividual feels when awake).b. quality and quantity ofsleep only.c. quantity of sleep plus the amount of sleep time the individual believes isappropriate.d. subjective judgment of theclinician.

a

Fred has been having a great deal of trouble initiating and maintaining sleep. He guesses that he is sleeping for anaverage of about 3 hours each night and complains that he feels terrible during the day. In addition, Fred has alwaysexperienced some anxiety but has recently felt a tremendous increase in his overall anxiety level. The existence ofboth a sleep disorder and anxiety




a. makes the diagnosis of primary insomnia incorrect.b. increases our confidence that primary insomnia is the correct diagnosis.c. indicates that the insomnia is a result of the anxiety rather than a cause of the anxiety.d. is extremely common since sleep problems can be both a cause and a result of anxiety

d

The percentage of the general population that reports some symptoms of insomnia during any given year isapproximately __________.




a. 10% b. 20%c. 33% d. 50%

c

As we grow older, it seems that the amount of sleep that we require __________.




a. decreasesb. increasesc. stays the samed. decreases until early adulthood and then begins to increase again

a

Adolescents tend to shift toward a




a. biologically determined later sleep schedule.b. culturally determined earlier sleep schedule.c. biologically determined earlier sleep schedule.d. culturally determined later sleep schedule

a

One biological factor that has been related to individuals who experience insomnia is ______.




a. genetics b. higher body temperaturec. low body weight d. percentage of body fat

b

Samantha started having difficulty falling asleep during final exam week. Although exams are over, she now startsto worry about sleep right after dinner. Even the sight of her bed makes her very anxious. The fact that Samantha'sinsomnia continues long after the stress of exams is over points to the role of ___________in the maintenance ofsleep disorders.




a. biology b. other medical conditionsc. learning d. unknown factors

c

Sam sleeps for 8 or more hours every night but never feels rested. He can't understand why he is always tireddespite the fact that he reports no difficulties with the quality or quantity of his sleep. Of the following, Sam's mostlikely diagnosis is ____________.




a. hypersomnolence disorder b. sleep apneac. narcolepsy d. non-specific parasomnia

a

Rose sleeps about 8 hours each night. She awakens feeling fine and well rested, but she tends to fall asleep about 2or 3 times during the day. We can conclude that




a. Rose should be diagnosed with primary insomnia.b. Rose would be diagnosed with hypersomnolence disorder if her symptoms cause disruptions or distress in herlife. c. Rose should be diagnosed with a parasomniad. a medical condition is a more appropriate diagnosis than a sleep disorder.

b

Of the following, the only symptom that both patients with narcolepsy and patients with hypersomnolence disorderexperience is




a. falling asleep during normal waking hours. b. sudden loss of muscle tone.c. sleep paralysis. d. hypnagogic hallucinations

a

In which of the following situations is Bill, who has narcolepsy, most likely to experience cataplexy?




a. Immediately upon waking up after a long, restful sleepb. At any random momentc. Under hypnosisd. While jumping up and cheering for his favorite team

d

While suddenly and unexpectedly falling asleep during normal waking hours, Sarah experiences vivid hallucinationsof being in a horrible car crash. The experience is so realistic that she actually feels physical sensations as if thehallucination were real. Sarah's most likely diagnosis is _______.




a. sleep apnea b. hypersomniac. schizophrenia d. narcolepsy

d

Cataplexy as experienced by patients with narcolepsy can be characterized by




a. sudden, minor loss of muscle tone. b. physical collapse.c. slight muscle weakness. d. any of these

b

An individual who wakes up feeling that there are other people in the room but is unable to move or say anythingmay be experiencing




a. cataplexy associated with sleep apnea.b. hypnagogic hallucinations associated with hypersomnia.c. sleep paralysis and hypnagogic hallucinations associated with narcolepsy.d. sleep paralysis and hypnogogic hallucinations associated with hypersomnia.

c

Which of the following conditions is thought to be a potential explanation for UFO experiences?




a. Sleep paralysis b. Cataplexyc. Hypnagogic hallucinations d. Sleep apnea

c

Obstructive sleep apnea is characterized by




a. complete cessation of respiratory activity for brief periods.b. interruption of air flow and brief cessation of respiratory activity.c. interruption of air flow without cessation of respiratory activity.d. central nervous system disorders and trauma.

c

The different types of sleep apnea are




a. obstructive, central, and sleep-relatedhypoventilation.b. obstructive, chronic, and sleep-relatedhypoventilation.c. central, chronic, and mixed. d. hypersomnolent, chronic, and parasomnic

a

A severe difficulty in regulating sleep that is induced by jet lag or by working rotating shifts is an example of___________.




a. circadian rhythm sleep disorder b. sleep apneac. hypersomnolence disorder d. narcolepsy

a

Two factors that help regulate our natural sleep/wake cycles are




a. melanin and auditory stimulation. b. melatonin and auditory stimulation.c. melatonin and light. d. light and blood sugar levels

c

All of the following are examples of causes of circadian rhythm sleep disorder EXCEPT____________




a. jet lag b. shift workc. delayed sleep phase d. sleep rebound

d

Benzodiazepine medication is not recommended as a long-term solution for the treatment of insomnia because of




a. the addictive properties of these medications.b. rebound insomnia that occurs after the medication is discontinued.c. excessive sleepiness that may persist during the day.d. all of these

d

The reason that antidepressant medications are sometimes used to treat narcolepsy is that




a. narcolepsy is often caused by depression.b. the anti-anxiety properties of these medications reduce narcolepsy.c. these medications suppress REM sleep that can trigger cataplexy.d. antidepressants are found to reduce hypnagogic hallucinations.

c

Medical treatments for severe sleep apnea include medication, mechanical devices, and _______.




a. surgery b. exercise of the neck musclesc. a high protein diet d. changing the patient's sleep schedule

a

When attempting to "reset the biological clock" of an individual with a circadian rhythm sleep disorder, it is generallyeasier and more effective to




a. make the patient's bedtime earlier.b. leave the patient's bedtime alone and change the duration of sleep.c. make the patient's bedtime later.d. keep the person awake for several days in a row.

c

Abnormal events such as nightmares, sleep terrors, and sleepwalking that occur during sleep or during the twilighttime between sleep and waking are classified as _________.




a. parasomnias b. dyssomniasc. narcolepsy d. REM disorders

a

Sleepwalking is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT




a. acting out a dream.b. occurrence during NREM stages of sleep.c. no memory of the sleepwalking event.d. occurrence primarily in children.

a

Martin sits up every night screaming. He does not remember these terrors nor is he easily awakened or comforted.What should Martin's mother do?




a. Wake Martin up during the attack.b. Make sure that Martin is very tired before going to bed.c. Use scheduled awakenings to briefly awaken Martin before an attack occurs.d. All of these have been demonstrated to reduce the frequency and duration of sleep terrors

c

Susan, who described her experience with anorexia nervosa on the "Abnormal Psychology Live" CD for Chapter 8,said that as soon as she eats, she




a. becomes anxious. b. feels disgusting.c. becomes depressed. d. gains weight.

d

On the "Abnormal Psychology Live" CD for Chapter 8, Susan mentioned that she often compensated for eating bypurging. She indicated that her weight has been as low as 87 pounds. Her diagnosis is ____________.




a. anorexia nervosa b. bulimia nervosac. pica d. ruminaiton disorder

a

End chapter 8, begin chapter 9

:)

At the beginning of the 20thcentury, the leading cause of death in the U.S. was _______________.




a. automobile accidents b. infectious diseasesc. heart attacks d. suicides

b

According to the text, some of the major contributing factors to illness and death in the United States are currently




a. viral and bacterial. b. behavioral and psychological.c. neurological and endocrinological. d. pharmacological and hormonal.

b

Using the word psychosomaticto describe a disorder with an obvious physical component is considered misleadingbecause




a. it gives the impression that psychological disorders like anxiety or depression do not have a biologicalcomponent.b. it assumes that the physical aspects of a disorder are less important than the psychological aspects.c. it emphasizes the psychological symptoms of a disorder instead of the physical symptoms.d. it gives the impression that biological disorders are not influenced by psychological factors.

a

Knowledge derived from the behavioral sciences applied to the prevention, diagnosis, and treatment of medicalproblems is called




a. health psychology. b. behavioral medicine.c. psychophysiological disorders. d. psychosomatic medicine.

b

What is the name of the new field of study that reflects the shift in focus from infectious disease topsychological/behavioral factors as causes of illness and death?




a. Behavioral medicine b. Abnormal psychologyc. Medical psychology d. Physical medicine

a

In which of the following ways do psychological and social factors influence health?




a. They can affect basic biological processes resulting in illness and disease.b. Risky behaviors can increase the likelihood of developing physical disorders.c. Both of thesed. Neither of these

c

Health psychology, a subfield of behavioral medicine, focuses on all of the following EXCEPT




a. promotion and maintenance of health. b. health policy formation.c. improvements in healthcare systems. d. psychosomatic effects on health

d

"AIDS, a disease of the immune system, is directly affected by stress. Stress may then promote the deadlyprogression of the disease." These two statements are an example of ________ factors influencing ________processes.




a. psychological; biologicalb. biological; psychologicalc. sociocultural; geneticd. genetic; sociocultural

a

Which of the following statements is TRUE?




a. 50% of deaths from the 10 leading causes of death in the United States can be traced to behaviors commonto certain lifestyles.b. Smoking is the leading preventable cause of death in the United States.c. Smoking has been estimated to cause 20% of all deaths.d. All of the above

d

According to the principles of health psychology, which of the following is the best protection against acquiringAIDS?




a. Getting an injection of the AIDS vaccineb. Being treated for HIV before it develops into AIDSc. Changing risky behaviors that can lead to disease acquisitiond. Deciding to be sexually abstinent after years of being sexually active

c

What percentage of deaths that are attributed to the top ten causes of death in the US can be traced to lifestylechoices?




a. 10% b. 25%c. 50% d. 75%

c

In 1936 Canadian researcher Hans Selye discovered that giving injections to laboratory rats caused them to developulcers. His finding led to a new area of study called




a. stress physiology. b. stress psychology.c. animal psychology. d. psychosomatic pathology

a

In response to sustained stress, the body goes through several stages that together constitute the general adaptationsyndrome (GAS), a concept proposed by researcher Hans Selye. The GAS consists of all the following stagesEXCEPT _____________.




a. alarm b. resistancec. exhaustion d. remediation

d

The physiological response of an individual to a stressor is called __________________.




a. adaptation b. fight-or-flight reactionc. stress d. a syndrome

c

Research has shown that increased levels of cortisol in response to stress may cause damage to parts of the_________________.




a. skeletal system b. brainc. lungs d. stomach

b

Which of the following statements accurately describes a process in the activation of the HPA (hormonal) axis?




a. The hippocampus secretes corticotropin releasing factor (CRF).b. CRF stimulates the thyroid gland.c. The hippocampus (via the somatic nervous system) activates the adrenal glands.d. The adrenal glands secrete the stress hormone cortisol

d

Research has shown that excessive secretion of the stress hormone cortisol can result in cell death in thehippocampal region of the brain in cases of ____________________.




a. substance abuse b. maniac. posttraumatic stress disorder d. AIDS

c

Continuous secretion of the stress hormone cortisol by the adrenal glands can lead to all of the following EXCEPT




a. damage to the hippocampus.b. impaired functioning of the immune system.c. muscle atrophy.d. low blood pressure in the cardiovascular system

d

Which of the following best represents the emotional continuum believed to be related to coping with threat andchallenge?




a. Anxiety, stress, depression, excitement b. Stress, anxiety, depression, excitementc. Depression, stress, excitement, anxiety d. Excitement, stress, anxiety, depression

d

Which of the following factors is most closely related to how well you think you can cope with a threat orchallenge?




a. Control b. Effortc. Cortisol d. Practice

a

Whether or not stress and/or anxiety develop in a stressful situation appears to be related to one's perceived senseof ________________.




a. happiness b. excitementc. control d. acceptance

c

Based on your knowledge of recent research studies, which of the following people would you predict is LEASTlikely to catch a cold following exposure to the virus?




a. Karen, a very sociable woman who has many good friendsb. Mike, a very intelligent student who understands complex information and conceptsc. Judy, a very assertive individual who frequently says exactly what's on her mindd. Marilyn, a very compulsive person who likes to point out other people's mistakes

a

The work of Cohen and his associates suggests that




a. intensity of stress one experiences impacts the severity of cold symptoms.b. social support has no effect on cold symptoms.c. exposure to friends increases the chance of illness.d. cold symptoms are mostly psychological

a

All of the following situations have been associated with lowered immune system functioning EXCEPT




a. marital conflict or relationship difficulties. b. job loss.c. death of a loved one. d. pregnancy.

d

Research findings have suggested that it might not be the stressful event itself that lowers immune systemfunctioning but rather the accompanying ___________.




a. dissociation b. isolationc. depression d. anger

c

Stress affects immune function




a. but only if the stressful event is life-threatening. b. even if the stressful event lasts as little as 2 hours.c. in real life but not in the lab. d. only in the chronically ill.

b

The immune system identifies and eliminates foreign materials, which are called __________________.




a. antigens b. mitogensc. lymphokines d. antibodies

a

The cells of the humoral immune system that produce immunoglobulins are called ___________.a. B cells b. T cellsc. NK cells d. macrophages

a

B cells are associated with ________ immunity, while T cells are associated with ______ immunity:




a. humoral; memory b. humoral; cellularc. cellular; humoral d. vascular; suppressor

b

Which of the following immune cells enhance immune system responses by signaling B cells to produce antibodiesand signaling other T cells to destroy antigens?




a. B cells b. Helper T cellsc. T suppressor cells d. NK cells

b

Too many T4 (helper) cells can result in




a. an autoimmune disease. b. diminished antibody responses.c. long-term immune activity. d. diminished immune functions

a

The immune system is weakened in AIDS patients because the human immunodeficiency virus directly attacks thelymphocytes called _______________.




a. killer T cells b. T4 (helper cells)c. suppressor T cells d. B cells

b

Contrary to the earlier belief that the brain and immune system operate independently of each other, scientists nowknow that




a. the immune system functioning can be suppressed through classical conditioning.b. there are many connections between the nervous system and the immune system.c. there are psychological influences on the neurological responding implicated in our immune response.d. all of the above

d

Psychoneuroimmunology focuses on the study of




a. physiology, neurons, and immune function.b. psychology, neurological responses, and immune function.c. psychology, nature, and illness.d. physiological numbers and images

b

In 2011, it was estimated that the total number of people afflicted with HIV, the human immunodeficiency virus,was slightly more than _______ million.




a. 13 b. 23c. 34 d. 43

c

Estimates regarding the prevalence of AIDS in southern Africa indicate that




a. the percent of the adult population that are HIV positive comprises two-thirds of the cases worldwide.b. 10% of the adult population has AIDS.c. 5 million children are orphaned by the disease.d. all of the above

a

Which of the following statements about AIDS is TRUE?




a. An infected person immediately develops AIDS-related complex (ARC).b. The median time for the development of full-blown AIDS is around 7 to 10 years.c. The death rate from AIDS increased 80% since 1990.d. The current successful treatment of AIDS is the result of highly active antiviral therapy (HAART), whicheliminates the virus.

c

AIDS is now treated with new combinations of drugs called "highly active antiretroviral therapy" (HAART), which




a. suppress the virus in people who are HIV positive.b. cure AIDS by eliminating the virus from the body.c. reduce herpes virus but not HIV cells.d. are well tolerated and cause minimal side effects.

a

LaDanian has recently started losing weight, developed a fever, and experiences night sweats. He may beexperiencing ______________.




a. HIV b. AIDSc. pneumonia d. AIDS-related complex

d

Group psychotherapy for cancer patients tends to




a. reduce recovery times. b. increase survival times.c. affect mental but not physical health. d. cure cancer.

b

Which of the following is NOTtrue?




a. Group psychotherapy always prolongs life in cancer patients.b. Group psychotherapy seems to decrease depression in cancer patients.c. Group psychotherapy may prolong life in some cancer patients.d. Mothers of children with cancer benefit form therapy.

a

Benefit finding refers to




a. looking for the positive consequences of getting cancer.b. obtaining adequate healthcare coverage for cancer.c. promoting immune function in response to cancer.d. enhancing medical treatments for cancer

a

Which of the following does NOT describe an effective psychosocial intervention that has been reported inoncology research studies?




a. Use of psychological treatments that reduce pain and depression and enhance feelings of well-beingb. Use of videotapes and dolls that reduce children's stress and anxiety during medical proceduresc. Use of therapy sessions that temporarily prolong life for breast cancer patients both during and after theinterventiond. Use of cognitive imaging techniques that temporarily render the AIDS virus inactive for brief periods

d

Unhealthy and/or risky behaviors that impact directly on the cardiovascular system may contribute to




a. strokes and high blood pressure only.b. coronary heart disease only.c. strokes, high blood pressure, and coronary heart disease.d. reduced immunity to autoimmune diseases.

c

Essential hypertension refers to




a. the need to hold blood pressure levels constant.b. hypertension caused by a disease.c. hypertension caused by pregnancy.d. hypertension with no verifiable physical cause.

d

During laboratory stress tests, which of the following individuals has been shown to have greater reactivity in theirblood pressure?




a. Those with normal blood pressure whose parents had normal blood pressureb. Those with normal blood pressure whose parents had high blood pressurec. Those with very low blood pressure whose parents had low blood pressured. Those with very low blood pressure whose parents had normal blood pressure

b

Since heart disease is the number one cause of death in the United States, it would be very important, in terms ofprevention, to determine if




a. better medications can be found to treat heart disease.b. changes in behavior, lifestyle, and attitude can prevent heart attacks.c. psychotherapy can help people adjust to having an artificial heart.d. heart transplants can be made available to more patients.

b

Various psychological factors have been used to explain individual variations in blood pressure including all of thefollowing EXCEPT _____________.




a. coping style b. personalityc. level of stress d. cognitive skills

d

Which of the following is a correct match of medical condition and its definition?




a. Angina: obstruction caused by build up of plaque in the arteriesb. Atherosclerosis: deficiency of blood to a body part caused by narrowing of the arteriesc. Mycardial infarction: death of heart tissue due to a completely clogged arteryd. Ischemia: chest pain caused by partial obstruction of the arteries

c

In reference to the clinical research studies focusing on factors that are implicated in heart disease, which of thefollowing is an accurate statement?




a. Males who displayed a Type A behavior pattern were less likely to develop coronary heart disease thanfemales in the Type A group.b. Younger males in the Type A group were much less likely to develop coronary heart disease than oldermales in the Type A group.c. Both men and women with the Type A behavioral pattern were twice as likely to develop coronary heartdisease than were non-Type A individuals.d. In comparison to "white collar" workers, men in lower socioeconomic positions were more likely to developcoronary heart disease

c

Gregor has just learned that his spouse of 28 years has died in an automobile accident. Upon hearing the news,Gregor collapsed and was rushed to the hospital in apparent heart failure. Gregor probably suffered




a. myocardial infarction. b. tranischemic attack.c. angina pectoris. d. myocardial stunning.

d

In comparison to men in the U.S., Japanese men exhibit




a. increased Type A behavior and decreased coronary heart disease (CHD).b. decreased Type A behavior and decreased CHD.c. increased Type A behavior and increased CHD.d. decreased Type A behavior and increased CHD.

b

Mr. Velasquez is participating in a clinical research study that is investigating psychological factors that mayinfluence the development of heart disease. When he is instructed to imagine a situation in which he was veryangry, the sensors monitoring his heart reveal that




a. his heartbeat has slowed significantly.b. his heart is pumping less efficiently.c. the area around his heart has become swollen and inflamed.d. he is having a "painless" heart attack

b

Cardiac problems have recent been found to be related to ______________.




a. anger b. anxietyc. depression d. all of the above

d

Miss T was slightly injured in an accident but has fully recovered. Although she has been given medical clearanceto go back to work and resume her normal activities, she maintains that she is still suffering from pain. You wouldcorrectly assess Miss T as someone who probably has




a. adequate coping skills. b. strong family and social support.c. no history of anxiety and/or depression. d. a disability claim pending

d

All of the following are examples of "pain behaviors" EXCEPT




a. complaining about pain to others.b. grimacing.c. positional changes (while sitting or walking).d. suffering in silence

d

People who experience phantom limb pain




a. have lost an arm or a leg.b. can describe in exquisite detail the exact location and type of pain.c. experience changes in the sensory cortex of the brain.d. all of the above

d

Based on findings from clinical research, treatment programs for chronic pain focus primarily on




a. surgical procedures. b. herbal remedies.c. psychological factors. d. experimental procedures for pain relief.

c

Researchers who study the clinical experience of pain have determined that pain is




a. entirely due to physical causes.b. entirely due to psychological causes.c. neither entirely physical, nor entirely psychological.d. always due to unknown and unpredictable factors

c

Which of the following is NOT an example of the complex interaction of physical and psychological factors in theexperience of pain?




a. The gate control theory of pain b. Phantom limb painc. Chronic pain d. Delusional pain

d

In the phenomenon known as "operant" control of pain, the pain behaviors manifested by an individual aredetermined by




a. the type of injury. b. social consequences.c. the side effects of medications. d. the patient's reaction to treatment

b

In regard to the gate control theory, the ______are thought to open the gates allowing pain sensations to betransmitted, while ______ are thought to close the gate and block the sensations.




a. small fibers; large fibers b. large fibers; small fibersc. small fibers; internal fibers d. psychological factors; physiological fibers

a

The "natural" opioids called endorphins or enkephalins act like neurotransmitters to




a. increase awareness of pain.b. shut down the sensation of pain.c. cause a "natural" addiction.d. relieve the pain caused by a heroin overdose.

b

Endogenous opioids have been implicated in a variety of psychopathological conditions including________________.




a. eating disorders b. phobiasc. obsessive-compulsive disorder d. personality disorders

a

Regarding gender differences in the experience of pain, women suffer more frequently than men from all of thefollowing EXCEPT ___________.




a. migraine headaches b. arthritisc. carpal tunnel syndrome d. backache

d

Females may have an "extra" pain-regulating pathway focused on relieving pain associated with the reproductivesystem. One implication of this biological gender difference is that




a. men need more pain relief than women following surgical procedures.b. women do not need pain relief during childbirth.c. males and females may benefit from different kinds of medications and different kinds of pain management.d. the psychological experience of pain is the same for men and women

c

In the mid-19thcentury, symptoms of fatigue, vague aches and pains, low-grade fever, and lack of energy wereattributed to a disorder called _______________.




a. neurasthenia b. neurosisc. hysteria d. somatic syndrome

a

The same symptoms that were diagnosed in the 19thcentury as a condition called neurasthenia are currentlyreferred to as ________________.




a. somatization disorder b. chronic fatigue syndromec. wasting disease d. psychogenic pain disorder

b

At various times the symptoms of the disorder known as chronic fatigue syndrome were attributed to all of thefollowing EXCEPT __________________.




a. viral infection b. environmental toxinsc. clinical depression d. brain atrophy

d

The development of chronic fatigue syndrome is associated with




a. an extremely stressful life event. b. over exercise.c. achievement-oriented lifestyles. d. a tendency to minimize pain.

a

A treatment for chronic fatigue syndrome developed by Michael Sharpe includes all of the following EXCEPT____________.




a. medication b. increased activityc. regulated rest periods d. breathing exercises

a

A controlled research study investigating the effects of a cognitive-behavioral treatment for chronic fatiguesyndrome resulted in improvement on




a. measures of fatigue.b. measures of illness belief.c. both measures of fatigue and measures of illness belief.d. neither measures of fatigue nor measures of illness belief.

c

Pain may be associated with ________________________.




a. decreased natural killer (NK) cells b. increased natural killer (NK) cellsc. increased B cells d. decreased T cells

a

All of the following are psychosocial treatments that have been developed for physical disorders and pain EXCEPT______________.




a. biofeedback b. meditationc. relaxation procedures d. acupuncture

d

The procedure known as biofeedback involves a process by which a person is first helped to become aware ofhis/her ________________.




a. physiological functions b. psychological state of mindc. negative thoughts d. level of pain

a

It has been suggested that biofeedback relieves the pain of tension headaches because it "teaches people to relax,"but it is more likely that




a. the patients whose pain is seemingly relieved by biofeedback are probably also taking aspirin or Tylenol.b. biofeedback training gives patients a sense of control over their headache pain.c. biofeedback has a "numbing effect" because it affects the nerve endings in the somatic nervous system.d. patients experience a placebo effect because the headache pain returns once the biofeedback sessions arecompleted.

b

In the 1960s, Neal Miller, using _________ with animals, discovered the first experimental evidence thatphysiological functions were subject to voluntary control.




a. classical conditioning b. physical retrainingc. operant conditioning d. obedience training

c

In biofeedback procedures, clinicians use physiological monitoring equipment to make the responses______________ to the patient.




a. visible b. audiblec. visible and/or audible d. tactile

c

In the 1970s, Herbert Benson developed a brief relaxation procedure that involved focusing on a _________.




a. word b. photoc. person d. musical note

a

Cassandra is sitting cross-legged on her rug with her arms outstretched. She closes her eyes and makes a soundlike "ummmm." She continues this procedure. Cassandra is demonstrating ______________ and the sound is a(n)______________.




a. relaxation response; focus b. meditation; mantrac. biofeedback; focus d. hypnosis; focal point

b

According to Holroyd et al., (1984) biofeedback may decrease pain because it




a. instills a sense of control over the pain.b. decreases tension.c. increases awareness of the body.d. d decreases sensitivity to pain.

a

Recent clinical studies indicate that it is a good pain relieving strategy to use biofeedback in conjunction with_______________.




a. medication b. relaxation proceduresc. a placebo d. psychotherapy

b

Comprehensive pain management programs usually include programs for teaching patients about______________.




a. relaxation b. meditationc. both meditation and relaxation d. neither meditation nor relaxation

c

Although the improvement is only moderate, relaxation techniques have been shown to have a positive effect on_______________.




a. headaches b. hypertension (high blood pressure)c. pain d. all of these

d

In keeping daily records of the stressful events in their lives, patients in pain management programs are taught to bevery specific about all of the following EXCEPT




a. the actual time of day that they experience stress.b. what seems to "trigger the stress."c. how they attempted to control the stress.d. the level of intensity of the stress

c

In a stressful events record, clients in a pain management program are asked to record




a. somatic symptoms only.b. thoughts that occur during stress but not somatic symptoms.c. thoughts that occur during stress as well as somatic symptoms.d. intensity of the stress, but not thoughts or somatic symptoms.

c

Cognitive therapy is used in stress management programs to help clients learn to do all of the following EXCEPT




a. develop more realistic appraisals and attitudes.b. identify unrealistic negative thoughts.c. tell off people they don't like as a way of reducing stress.d. assert themselves in an appropriate way in stressful situations.

c

For coping with chronic pain, chronic fatigue syndrome, and hypertension, ________ is considered generally moreeffective than either ___________ or ______________alone.




a. a stress management program; biofeedback; relaxation techniquesb. biofeedback; relaxation techniques; a stress management programc. relaxation techniques; biofeedback; a stress management programd. relaxation, biofeedback, and stress management programs are all considered equally effective

a

Individuals who are high users of pain relieving medications are _______ to benefit from pain managementprograms than less frequent users.




a. more likely b. less likelyc. equally likely d. unable

b

Chronic use of pain medications to treat headaches




a. decreases the efficacy of comprehensive programs to treat headaches.b. is associated with decreased pain initially, but is followed by rebound pain.c. decreased pain in the long run.d. an increase in short- and long-term pain.

b

In a comprehensive headache treatment program, people who were low users of analgesic medications achieved atleast a __________ reduction in headache severity and frequency.




a. 25% b. 50%c. 75% d. 99%

b

Studies of pain suggest that people who are optimistic




a. use denial to cope. b. use wishful thinking to manage.c. deal with pain directly. d. avoid treatment.

c

Jon W. has just been diagnosed with cancer. His initial response is to deny the seriousness of his condition. Thistype of coping mechanism




a. will enable him to develop better coping mechanisms later.b. is never psychologically helpful.c. doesn't really help him endure the initial shock any more easily.d. results in higher levels of corticosteroids (stress hormones).

a

Which of the following is NOT one of the three most common behaviors that put us at risk for physical disorders?




a. Unhealthy eating habits b. Lack of exercisec. Smoking d. Watching too much TV

d

The leading preventable cause of death is ______________.




a. smoking b. cirrhosis of the lever (from alcoholism)c. poisoning d. accidents

a

According to the textbook, the leading cause of death for people between the ages of 1 and 45 years is ________.




a. cancer b. injuryc. infectious disease d. genetic defect

b

Injury prevention programs have proven effective in teaching children about all of the following EXCEPT




a. escaping fires. b. crossing streets.c. riding bikes safely. d. properly extinguishing cigarettes.

d

Which is an accurate statement regarding injury prevention programs for children?




a. Most communities have injury prevention programs.b. Repeated warnings have been effective in preventing or reducing the number of injuries.c. Children who participated in safety skills programs remembered what they had learned even after theprograms were over.d. Injury prevention programs have been ineffective in changing children's behavior.

c

The only effective prevention strategy currently available for reducing the spread of AIDS appears to be_______________.




a. a vaccineb. medicationsc. changing high-risk behaviord. educating people about the risk of the disease

c

With regard to the epidemic of AIDS in Africa, an individual is most likely to become HIV positive following




a. heterosexual sex with an infected partner.b. homosexual sex with an infected partner.c. repeated injections with unsterilized needles.d. close non-sexual contact with an infected person

a

Steven and Diane, two young adults who live in different cities and do not know each other, have learned recentlythat they are HIV positive following sexual intercourse with infected partners. What changes in their behavior aremost likely to occur in the future?




a. Both Steven and Diane will now abstain from sex completely.b. Steven will abstain from sex, but Diane will continue to have sex.c. Both Steven and Diane will continue to have unprotected sex.d. Both Steven and Diane will be sure to tell future sexual partners that they are HIV positive.

c

Carla and Carlos have recently learned that they are HIV positive. According to research studies involving peoplewho are HIV positive, what is most likely to occur?




a. Carla will now have sex only if her partner uses a condom.b. Carlos will abstain from sex completely.c. Both Carla and Carlos will stop sharing needles with other drug users.d. Neither Carlos nor Carla is likely to change any of their previous behaviors.

d

When high-risk individuals are given educational and informational pamphlets about ways to reduce their chances ofbecoming HIV positive, they typically




a. change their high-risk behaviors.b. do not change their high-risk behaviors.c. abstain from unprotected sex.d. notify previous sex partners of their HIV condition

b

Which of the following was NOT one of the procedures or types of information used as part ofSan Francisco's 1990 community-level program to reduce new cases of HIV infection?




a. Personal detailed assessment of HIV risk for each individualb. Instructions on how to clean needlesc. Classes and videos to demonstrate safe sex skillsd. Discussions of the moral and religious consequences of being HIV positive

d

Which of the following factors does NOT accurately represent the circumstances regarding women andHIV/AIDS?




a. Women frequently do not consider themselves at risk because most media coverage of the AIDS epidemichas focused on gay white males.b. Most research on the spread of AIDS has ignored the disease in women.c. Women accounted for 50% of new AIDS cases in 2003.d. The highest age of risk for women is after age 25.

d

Regarding the age ranges for the risk of HIV/AIDS, which of the following statements is accurate?




a. For women, the highest risk is between 15 and 25.b. For women, the highest risk is during their late 20s and early 30s.c. The age range for risk is younger for men than for women.d. The age ranges for risk are the same for both males and females.

a

In regard to setting up behavioral change programs that address the HIV/AIDS epidemic, which of the following isan accurate statement?




a. The same kinds of programs can be set up for both females and males.b. Women and men need different types of programs because their risk factors are different.c. Women are not acquiring HIV/AIDS as fast as men are.d. Media attention and even research has focused on women with AIDS and largely ignored men.

b

Which is a type of circumstance in which women put themselves at risk for HIV/AIDS infection differently frommen?




a. Having unprotected sex with partners whose sexual history is unknownb. Using contaminated needles when injecting illegal drugsc. Becoming prostitutes in response to economic deprivationd. Having sex with multiple partners

c

Your textbook reports on a behavioral change program to address the high rate of smoking in China. This was animportant study for several reasons including the fact that




a. the number of people who smoke in China equals the entire population of the United States.b. almost 100% of the women in China smoke.c. males and females in China have equally high rates of smoking.d. the types of cigarettes smoked in China are more potent than in the U.S.

a

A massive antismoking campaign in China in 1989 involved




a. bonuses to employees who quit smoking.b. wives threatening divorce of their husbands didn't stop smoking.c. school children intervening in their fathers' smoking habits.d. married couples' written agreements to stop smoking.

c

In 1989, health professionals in China began a massive antismoking effort in several cities that involved childrenwhose fathers smoked. As part of this effort, all of the following are accurate statements EXCEPT




a. schoolchildren were given antismoking literature and questionnaires to take home to their fathers.b. children wrote letters to their fathers asking them to quit smoking.c. children submitted monthly reports on their fathers' smoking habits to their schools.d. photos of the fathers who continued smoking were published in the school newspapers.

d

In the massive antismoking campaign in China in 1989, the results indicated that _________ of the 10,000 fathersin the intervention group quit smoking for at least six months in comparison to a control group of 10,000 in whichonly ________ quit smoking.




a. 1%; 0.1% b. 12%; 0.2%c. 22%; 2.2% d. 50%; 25%

b

One of the most successful efforts to reduce risk factors for a medical condition involved three entire communitiesin California in which residents received different types of interventions or no intervention at all (for the communitythat served as the control group). The targeted condition in this effort was _______________.




a. diabetes b. cancerc. heart disease d. obesity

c

When pain is induced after people are given a placebo, they feel less pain because




a. the endogenous opioid system is activated.b. they simply report less pain.c. they think they feel less pain.d. they pretend to have pain.

a

Research on the placebo effect is valuable because it




a. shows that it is difficult to easily separate the effects of biochemical and psychological factors on brainfunction.b. may make it possible to more efficiently integrate placebo and drug treatments.c. can help us understand the mechanisms by which drugs are effective in pain treatmentd. all of these

d

In the "Abnormal Psychology Live” CD for Chapter 9, a young man who is HIV positive talks about his ownpersonal coping mechanisms including




a. being inspired by a friend who was also HIV positive.b. discontinuing medication during the times that he feels better.c. maintaining full-time employment.d. keeping busy with artwork

d

In the "Abnormal Psychology Live" CD for Chapter 9, the man with HIV is no longer able to




a. walk without a cane. b. read without a magnifying glass.c. write (cannot hold a pen or pencil). d. speak intelligibly

a

End chapter 9, Begin chapter 10

:)

Gender dysphoria is characterized by dissatisfaction with




a. sexual experiences. b. gender role expectations.c. one’s biological sex. d. media portrayals of gender.

c

Among men surveyed for a CDC study, _________were sexually experienced.




a. almost 100% b. just over 40%c. approximately 75% d. about 12%

a

Sexual behavior surveys suggest that




a. almost all men have more than 20 sexual partners.b. most men have very little sexual experience.c. about 23% of men have had more than 20 sexual partners.d. about 11% of men have had more than 20 sexual partners.

c

Recent studies on sexual practice indicate that sexual practices are




a. consistent in many different countries.b. very different in Western and Asian countries.c. inconsistent no matter where they are measured.d. culturally diverse

a

According to recent surveys, the following statement is true regarding sexual activity of the elderly:




a. very few individuals remain sexually active beyond age 70.b. more than half of the individuals over age 70 remain sexually active.c. 80% of males and 50% of women aged 75-79 remained sexually actived. 38.5% of males and 16.7% of women aged 75-85 remained sexually active.

d

The largest difference in sexual behavior for men versus women is that




a. men are more likely to engage in premarital sex.b. women are more likely to engage in premarital sex.c. men are more likely to masturbate.d. women are more likely to masturbate.

c

Differences in male and female attitudes toward sexuality have generally ___________ over the past 40 years.




a. decreased b. increasedc. remained the same d. disappeared completely

a

Data from research studies on gender differences in human sexuality reflect all of the following themes EXCEPT




a. men masturbate more than women.b. men are more permissive about casual premarital sex than women.c. men are less accepting about homosexuality than women.d. men and women value sexual satisfaction equally.

c

Gender differences in attitudes toward premarital sex have been _____ over time.




a. shrinking b. increasingc. fluctuating d. unreliable

a

Data from research studies on gender differences in human sexuality reflect all of the following themes EXCEPT




a. men show more sexual desire and arousal than women.b. men emphasize committed relationships more than women.c. men's self-concept is characterized in part by power, aggression, and independence.d. women's sexual beliefs are more influenced by cultural, social, and situational factors.

b

In Sweden, where attitudes toward sexuality are somewhat more permissive than they are in the United States, thepercentage of Swedish women reporting use of contraception during their first sexual intercourse was




a. significantly higher than it was for American women.b. significantly lower than it was for American women.c. approximately the same as it was for American women.d. just about 100%

a

Research regarding sexual orientation suggests that homosexuality is




a. purely genetic.b. that sexual orientation has an exclusively biological cause. c. based on learning and choice only.d. influenced by biological/genetic, psychological, and social factors.

d

Joe is homosexual and has an identical (monozgyotic) twin named Sam. The following statement is TRUE:




a. Sam is more likely than the general population to be homosexual.b. Sam is no more likely than the general population to be homosexual.c. Sam is homosexual also.d. Sam is only likely to become homosexual if Joe is a positive role model.

a

Of those identical (monozygotic) twins where one twin is homosexual, the other twin is also homosexual in 50% ofcases. This means




a. homosexuality is determined by genetics.b. genes are only one influence for sexual orientation.c. the environment determines sexual orientation.d. genes are not an influence for sexual orientation.

b

Which of the following does NOT support the fact that homosexuality is related to differential hormone exposure inutero?




a. Homosexual males are more likely to be left handed or mixed handed than right handed.b. Males and masculine lesbians often have a longer fourth ring finger than index finger.c. Homosexual males have smaller feet than heterosexual males.d. Actual structure of the brain might be different in homosexuals than heterosexuals.

c

Statistically, homosexual males are more likely to have grown up with




a. older brothers. b. older sisters.c. younger brothers. d. younger sisters.

a

Sexual dysfunctions are




a. more common in heterosexuals than homosexuals.b. more common in homosexuals than heterosexuals.c. equally common in heterosexuals and homosexuals.d. generally not reported, so little is known about their incidence.

c

Which of the following is NOTone of the three stages of sexual response?




a. Desire b. Arousalc. Orgasm d. Refractory period

d

Sexual dysfunction can be a(n) _______________ condition.




a. lifelong b. acquiredc. situational d. all of the above

d

Sexual problems are difficult to diagnose when




a. dysfunction is present and the person is distressed about it.b. dysfunction is present but the person is not distressed about it.c. the couple has been together a long time.d. the couple is sexually inexperienced

b

Happily married couples typically report




a. occasional sexual dysfunction that does not result in sexual dissatisfaction.b. occasional sex dysfunction that is associated with sexual dissatisfaction.c. very little sexual dysfunction.d. sexual dysfunction on the part of women but not men

a

Of the following, the individual most likely to receive an appropriate diagnosis of male hypoactive sexual desiredisorder is




a. Charles, who fantasizes about sex often, but is so exhausted when he gets home that he only has sex abouttwice a month.b. John, who thinks about sex, but does not have sexual relations because he thinks it is morally wrong to do sounless the goal is procreation.c. Phil, whose wife wishes he thought about sex more often because he seems satisfied having sex a few timesa month.d. Fred, who has sex at least once a week to satisfy his wife, but would prefer to be left alone since he is rarelyinterested in sex.

d

Which of the following statements is TRUE about desires of sexual disorder?




a. More than 65% of the problems who come to sexuality clinics for help complain of this disorder.b. It is the most common presenting complaint of both men and women.c. For women, the prevalence of this disorder (female sexual interest/arousal disorder) decreases with age.d. For men, the prevalence of this disorder (male hypoactive sexual desire disorder) decreases with age.

c

A person who suffers from a disorder of sexual desire may




a. never think about sex. b. never have sex.c. have sex (even frequently), but not because of desire. d. all of the above

d

The main feature of sexual arousal disorders is




a. lack of desire for sex despite normal physical sexual response.b. sexual arousal to inappropriate stimuli.c. the experience of pain during sex.d. lack of physical sexual response despite desire for sex.

d

Sexual arousal disorders are diagnosed when there is an




a. inability to achieve or maintain an erection in males and a lack of desire for sex in females.b. inability to achieve or maintain an erection in males and a lack of orgasm in females.c. inability to achieve orgasm for either gender despite erection in males and lubrication in females.d. inability to achieve or maintain an erection in males and a lack of lubrication in females

d

Based on stringent criteria, research data indicate that the percentage of men between the ages of 18 and 59 witherectile dysfunction is ____________.




a. 1% b. 3%c. 5% d. 10%

c

What is the percentage of men in their 70s with at least some impairment of erectile function?




a. 10% b. 30%c. 50% d. 70%

d

The prevalence of sexual arousal disorders appears to be




a. much higher for men than it is for women.b. much lower for men than it is for women.c. about the same in both sexes.d. slightly lower for men than it is for women.

a

The percentage of women reporting significant difficulty reaching orgasm is __________.




a. 5% b. 10%c. 25% d. 40%

c

One reason that different diagnostic criteria are used for males and females with inhibited orgasm disorder is that




a. many men who do not achieve orgasm through intercourse can reach climax through alternate forms ofstimulation.b. only about 20% of women regularly experience orgasm from intercourse.c. both a and b are correctd. neither a nor b is correct

c

Sandra and Jim have been happily married for several years. Sandra reports that she reaches orgasm fromintercourse only about half of the time and wonders if something is "wrong" with her. Sandra should




a. seek treatment for inhibited orgasm disorder.b. realize that her inhibited orgasm problem means that she doesn't really love Jim.c. relax and realize that this is not unusual for women.d. have a medical exam before assuming that she has a diagnosable psychological disorder.

c

Jody and Howard have been happily married for several years. Howard reports that in spite of being sexuallyaroused and having an erection, he only reaches orgasm from intercourse about half of the time. Howard wondersif something is "wrong" with him. Howard should




a. seek treatment for inhibited orgasm disorder.b. realize that this problem means that he does not really love his wife.c. relax and realize that this is normal.d. seek treatment for sexual aversion disorder.

a

The following paring is correct based on the ages most affected by the disorders:




a. inexperienced men ­ premature ejaculation; older men – vaginismusb. inexperienced men - premature ejaculation; older men - erectile dysfunction.c. inexperienced men - inhibited orgasm; older men - erectile dysfunction.d. inexperienced men ­ erectile dysfunction; older men – male hypoactive sexual arousal disorder

b

The most common of all the male sexual dysfunctions is ____________________.




a. erectile dysfunction b. inhibited orgasmc. premature ejaculation d. sexual aversion

c

One reason that it is difficult to provide a precise diagnosis of premature ejaculation is that




a. the concept of "too soon" is dependent on the individual and the couple.b. most men are too ashamed to admit the problem.c. women generally are reluctant to tell their partners of the problem.d. men are often unaware of what is considered "normal.

a

Premature ejaculations are




a. clearly defined by the amount of time between penetration and climax.b. generally a result of perception of control rather than actual time.c. always a sign of serious sexual problems.d. more likely in men with a higher level of sexual experience

b

Vaginismus refers to




a. painful pelvic spasms during penetration.b. painful cramps during the menstrual cycle.c. strong orgasms.d. a disorder of male sexual responsivity.

a

One reason that your text suggests questionnaires be used when assessing sexual behavior is that




a. people may provide more sexual information in writing than during an interview.b. written information regarding sexuality has been shown to be more accurate than a verbal report.c. therapists are often uncomfortable asking questions regarding sexual behavior.d. the therapist needs a written record in the patient's own words to demonstrate progress as the patientimproves

a

One of the most important skills that therapists must possess when conducting an interview regarding sexualbehavior is




a. communicating their own sexual values.b. using only the proper clinical terms for sexual behavior.c. demonstrating that they are comfortable talking about sexual issues.d. being able to diagnose medical causes of sexual dysfunction

c

Psychophysiological assessment of sexual dysfunction is generally conducted by




a. using a device that measures physical arousal during exposure to an erotic video or audio tape.b. asking patients to keep a diary of their sexual activities.c. a physician during a medical exam.d. using a device that measures brain waves during exposure to an erotic video or audio tape.

a

An instrument that is used to assess physical changes in a woman’s vagina as she experiences sexual arousal andis smaller than a tampon is called a vaginal ________.




a. photoplethysmographb. strain gaugec. EMG deviced. snap gauge

a

Two very common medical causes of erectile dysfunction are




a. asthma and diabetes. b. vascular disease and diabetes.c. vascular disease and asthma. d. arthritis and diabetes.

b

Some research suggests that as many as 80% of individuals taking ___________ medication experience somedegree of sexual dysfunction, though estimates closer to 50% seem much more reliable.




a. SSRI b. beta blockerc. tricyclic antidepressant d. anti-hypertensive

a

Sherri and Leo have been having some sexual difficulties lately. Both have experienced some symptoms of sexualarousal disorders. They decide to have a few glasses of wine before engaging in sex tonight. Is this a good idea ora bad idea?




a. It's a good idea since wine could increase desire.b. It's a good idea since wine could help performance.c. It's a bad idea since wine could further impair arousal.d. It's a bad idea since wine tends to decrease desire.

c

The effects of alcohol on sexual behavior were well noted by William Shakespeare and can be summarized as




a. alcohol decreases desire and performance.b. alcohol may increase desire but it decreases performance.c. alcohol may increase performance but it decreases desire.d. alcohol may increase desire, but nobody wants to sleep with a drunk!

b

Who will be most likely to have a sexual dysfunction?




a. Santo, a 28-year-old, who sometimes gets overexcited and ejaculates after a couple of minutes.b. Henry, who is 65 and once had a heart attack.c. Imelda, who is 33 and sexually inexperienced.d. Katrina, who is 65 and has sex only once a week.

b

Our current understanding of the psychological causes of sexual dysfunction suggests that the primarypsychological factor in sexual dysfunction is ________________.




a. anxiety b. distractionc. relationship issues d. unreasonable expectations

b

The original concept of performance anxiety as a cause of sexual dysfunction has been replaced with a moremodern view that performance anxiety is comprised of




a. distraction, cognition, and depression.b. arousal, anxiety, and distraction.c. cognition, arousal, and distraction.d. arousal, cognitive processes, and negative affect.

d

As a typical male with erectile dysfunction, we can expect Bill to show




a. decreased arousal during performance demand and an inaccurate sense of how aroused he is.b. decreased arousal during performance demand and an accurate sense of how aroused he is.c. increased arousal during performance demand and an inaccurate sense of how aroused he is.d. increased arousal during performance demand and an accurate sense of how aroused he is.

a

Greg often has problems with premature ejaculation. As he becomes more anxious about his problem, the amountof time between initiating intercourse and ejaculation will most likely ___________________.




a. increase b. decreasec. remain the same d. depend upon what is making him anxious

b

The most accurate description for the condition called erotophobia is




a. negative feelings toward sexuality. b. negative feelings about other people.c. fear of sex. d. fear of being raped.

a

Sexual dysfunction is often related to _________________.




a. dislike for partnerb. perception of self as less attractive than beforec. guilt about sexd. all of the above

d

Children or young adults who experience sexual victimization are




a. no more likely to experience sexual dysfunction as adults than anyone else.b. more likely to experience sexual dysfunction as adults if they are females.c. more likely to experience sexual dysfunction as adults if they are males.d. more likely to experience sexual dysfunction as adults.

d

An unusually high concern with nocturnal emissions has been reported in ___________ where there is a strongculturally held belief that loss of semen causes depletion of physical and mental energy.




a. Ireland b. Indonesiac. India d. Iceland

c

Belief in common sexual myths such as are more commonly held by men




a. who do not have sexual disorders. b. with conservative sexual attitudes.c. who have sexual disorders. d. who are homosexual.

c

Development of sexual dysfunction can be viewed as a negative cycle that involves a variety of factors, since thetypical case progresses in the following manner:




a. initial dysfunction may be triggered by an event such as substance use; concern about the dysfunction thenleads to more dysfunction, and sex itself becomes associated with negative feelings.b. initial dysfunction may be triggered by an event such as substance use; this causes a strain on therelationship and reduces the intimacy in the relationship, which then leads to anxiety about one's desirability.c. initial dysfunction occurs through slow and gradual deterioration, possibly due to a medical condition; as themedical condition develops, the individual's concern with failing sexuality increases, resulting in relationshipproblems.d. a general medical condition triggers the first dysfunction, which is followed by increased anxiety; as theanxiety increases, the sexual dysfunction becomes more severe over time and causes loss of interest in sex.

a

The authors of your textbook suggest that one of the most effective treatments for many sexual dysfunctions is




a. exploration of the patient's sexual orientation.b. improving the relationship with the patient's partner.c. education regarding normal sexuality.d. anti-anxiety medication.

c

Maggie and Jim have started sex therapy to deal with Jim's recent erectile dysfunction. The therapist has instructedthem to refrain from intercourse or genital touching but to spend the next several days enjoying each other throughhugging, kissing, and mutual massage. This is an example of




a. phase one of sensate focus treatment.b. phase two of sensate focus treatment.c. a strict behavioral treatment for erectile dysfunction.d. the first step in cognitive therapy for erectile dysfunction.

a

Sensate focus and non-demand pleasuring were designed by Masters and Johnson to treat sexual dysfunctionsprimarily through




a. improving a couple's sexual skills.b. identifying medical conditions that contribute to sexual dysfunction.c. involving an objective third party.d. elimination of psychologically-based performance anxiety.

d

Phase two of sensate focus involves "genital pleasuring" but prohibits intercourse or orgasm. The main purpose ofthis stage is to




a. allow an individual to communicate his or her desires to the partner.b. change the usual ways that the couple has tried to have sex.c. allow sexual experience without the anxiety of performance.d. provide increased anticipation of intercourse.

c

As a couple completes phase two of sensate focus therapy, they are instructed to




a. return to full, prior sexual activity.b. slowly begin sexual activity, continuing non-demand pleasuring as they progress.c. take a break from sexual activity for several weeks and then slowly return to normal sexuality.d. begin the "genital pleasuring" stage of the treatment.

b

Masters and Johnson reported that the use of sensate focus therapy for the treatment of premature ejaculation waseffective in _________ of cases treated.




a. 50% b. 65%c. 75% d. almost 100%

d

Treatment effectiveness studies of Masters and Johnson's sensate focus therapy have indicated that




a. certain aspects of the treatment such as two therapists and daily therapy are not necessary.b. many therapists using Masters and Johnson's techniques are able to demonstrate even greater treatmenteffectiveness than Masters and Johnson did.c. daily treatment is a critical component of the method.d. sensate focus is generally only effective when administered by Masters and Johnson

a

Sex therapy for erectile dysfunction has produced a positive treatment outcome in approximately _____ of thecases treated.




a. 20-30% b. 40-50%c. 60-70% d. 80-90%

c

The sex therapy technique designed specifically to treat premature ejaculation is ___________.




a. the squeeze technique b. sensate focusc. non-demand pleasuring d. cognitive restructuring

a

The specific treatment found effective in the treatment of female orgasmic disorder is ____________.




a. anti-anxiety medicationb. sensate focusc. explicit training in masturbation proceduresd. increased sexual relations

c

A woman is sent home from sex therapy with an assignment to purchase a vibrator and practice masturbating. Sheis likely being treated ________________.




a. for vaginismusb. for hypoactive sexual desire disorderc. for female orgasmic disorderd. by a sex therapist with little or no formal training in psychology

c

Dilators of gradually increasing sizes are used in the treatment of ______________.




a. female orgasmic disorder b. vaginismusc. hypoactive sexual desire disorder d. all of these

b

According to your textbook, what is the percentage of women who successfully overcome vaginismus?




a. Less than 30% b. 30% to 45%c. 50% to 75% d. 80% to 100%

d

The percentage of men with erectile dysfunction who take Viagra and are then able to maintain an erectionsufficient for intercourse is between _____________.




a. 5% and 40% b. 50% and 80%c. 80% and 90% d. 90% and 100%

b

What significant side effect is experienced by as many as 30% of Viagra users?




a. Severe headache b. Addictionc. Groin pain d. Dizziness

a

Research studies on Viagra users indicate that




a. most users are able to engage in intercourse and are very satisfied with the results.b. approximately half of the users are able to engage in intercourse and are highly satisfied with results.c. 61% of men were able to get erections adequate for intercourse, but only 32% rated the results as at least“good.”d. most users were unable to engage in intercourse and were not satisfied with results.

c

Papaverine and prostaglandin, vasodilating drugs used in the treatment of erectile dysfunction, are delivered to thepatient




a. in a capsule taken orally. b. as a dietary supplement.c. by injection directly into the penis. d. by injection into the arm or hip.

c

Although vasodilating drugs such as papaverine and prostaglandin are effective in producing an erection for patientswith erectile dysfunction, many patients discontinue use of the drugs because of




a. The painful nature of the treatment.b. the fact that these drugs eventually cure the disorder.c. the expense of the drug.d. the fact that the effectiveness of the drug decreases with continued use.

a

Which of the following treatments is NOT currently used in the treatment of erectile dysfunction?a. Vasodilating drugs b. Anti-anxiety medicationc. Surgical prosthetic implant d. Vacuum device therapy

b

One of the reasons that Viagra has become so widely accepted as a treatment for erectile dysfunction is that




a. it is more effective than the other available treatments.b. it is less expensive than other medications such as vasodilators.c. people are unaware of the other options.d. an oral medication is less awkward and intrusive than other treatments.

d

Therapy for sexual dysfunctions such as disorders of sexual desire can best be described as




a. well-studied and widely available.b. well-studied but only available in specialty clinics.c. not well-studied and not available in all locations.d. not well-studied but generally available everywhere

c

A paraphilic disorder is defined as




a. a sexual dysfunction.b. an attraction to inappropriate individuals or objects.c. an attraction to machines.d. a desire that dominates the personality.

b

The last two and most of the following she talked about in class. I have them highlighted.

........

The definition of fetishistic disorder is sexual _______________.




a. dysfunction b. attraction to inappropriate individualsc. attraction to nonliving objects d. desire that dominates the personality

c

Charles gets very sexually excited by women's shoes. While he used to fantasize about women wearing particularshoes, he now focuses almost exclusively on the shoes themselves. Charles has a(n) __________________.




a. sexual dysfunctionb. unusual interest but does not have a diagnosable disorderc. fetishistic disorderd. frotteuristic obsession

c

Greg and Diana often begin their sexual activity with Greg putting on a striptease show for Diana. They both reportgreat satisfaction and excitement with this activity. In fact, Greg says that he gets aroused by exposing himself, andDiana reports getting aroused when she watches him undress. Which of the following statements is true?




a. Greg is an exhibitionist, and Diana is a voyeur.b. Greg is a voyeur, and Diana is an exhibitionist.c. Both Diana and Greg have nonspecific fetishes because they admit to getting sexually excited by theiratypical behaviors.d. Neither Greg nor Diana should be diagnosed with a fetish because these behaviors involve consentingindividuals.

d

One psychological aspect of voyeurism and exhibitionism that seems to maintain the disordered behavior is




a. some anxiety that increases arousal.b. the fact that these individuals are rarely caught.c. the desire to hurt their victims.d. some sense that their victims really enjoy being subjected to their fetish.

a

All of the following are true statements regarding transvestic disorder EXCEPT




a. all people with transvestic disorder are either homosexual or transsexual.b. a significant percentage of individuals with this disorder are married or have been married at some time.c. there are cross-dressing clubs and newsletters for individuals with this fetish.d. some transvestic fetishists compensate by joining macho or paramilitary organizations.

a

Those with ____________ are individuals who receive a sexual thrill from inflicting pain on others, and peoplewith ____________ are individuals who receive a sexual thrill from receiving physical pain.




a. sexual sadism; sexual masochism b. sexual masochism; sexual sadismc. transvestic disorder; pedophilic disorder d. pedophilic disorder; transvestic disorder

a

"Opportunistic" rape differs from sadistic rape in that the rape in the latter is committed by an individual




a. who meets the criteria for antisocial personality disorder.b. with a particular pattern of sexual arousal.c. who rarely masturbates.d. during an unplanned assault.

b

Which of the following is TRUEabout most rapists?




a. They are sexually aroused only by violence.b. They are aggressive and have little regard for others.c. They are either hyposexual or asexual.d. They are hypersexual and generally obsessed with sex.

b

Victims of incest tend to be ____________, and victims of pedophilia (who are not also incest victims) tend to be___________.




a. male; femaleb. young children; girls who are beginning to mature physicallyc. girls who are beginning to mature physically; young childrend. female; male

c

The typical adult who molests a child




a. is violent and aggressive.b. threatens the child physically but is not violent.c. does not use physical force.d. is fully aware of the psychological damage that he is causing the child.

c

One model of learning predicts that the following boy might grow up to be a voyeur:




a. Tim, whose father is a voyeur.b. Joe, who watches a lot of pornography.c. Sid, who masturbates while peeping at his neighbor.d. Jim, who thinks it's funny to spy on people.

c

The procedure that is carried out entirely in the patient's imagination and used to reduce the inappropriate sexualarousal that exists in fetishistic behavior is called ________________.




a. classical conditioning b. sexual re-trainingc. sensate focus d. covert sensitization

d

The basic concept behind the covert sensitization method of treating unwanted sexual arousal is to




a. create empathy for the victim of the behavior.b. replace the immediate reinforcement of the behavior with the unpleasant consequences that ordinarily takelonger to be experienced.c. create a physically painful experience to replace the immediate reinforcement that the unwanted behaviorhas previously produced.d. improve family functioning, social skills, and overall effectiveness of appropriate adult relations

b

Patients undergoing the procedure called orgasmic reconditioning are instructed to




a. masturbate to their usual fantasies but to substitute more desirable ones just before ejaculation.b. masturbate to their usual fantasies but substitute images of the consequences associated with their behavior(such as getting caught, hurting someone else, etc.) just before ejaculation.c. substitute images of the consequences associated with their behavior (such as getting caught, hurtingsomeone else, etc.) every time they feel aroused by thoughts of their inappropriate desires.d. watch video tapes of normal adult sexuality repeatedly until such images result in arousal

a

The procedure called orgasmic reconditioning works according to the principle of ____________.




a. punishment of inappropriate patterns of arousal b. extinction of inappropriate patterns of arousalc. reinforcement of appropriate patterns of arousal d. reinforcement of self-control

c

Research regarding the success of treating paraphilias with procedures such as orgasmic reconditioning and covertsensitization indicates that




a. treatment is generally not successful.b. treatment is successful in only the small number of cases where the patient completes all treatment sessions.c. the number of cases in the research studies is too small to make conclusions at this point.d. treatment is generally effective.

d

Treatment for paraphilias is considered successful when someone had




a. completed all treatment session.b. demonstrated no deviant sexual arousal on objective physiological testing.c. had no legal record of any charges of deviant sexual activity.d. all of the above

d

Which of the following is TRUEregarding drugs currently available for the treatment of paraphilias?




a. The drugs eliminate sexual desire but are only effective while they are being taken.b. The drugs reduce sex drive and continue to be effective long after the patient stops the medication.c. The drugs dramatically reduce sex drive but have side effects that make them harmful to many patients.d. They produce a "chemical castration" that effectively eliminates all sex drive permanently so that the patientwill never desire sex even after discontinuing the medication.

a

Gender dysphoria is diagnosed when




a. a person's physical sex is inconsistent with the person'sgender identity.b. an individual receives sexual pleasure fromcross-dressing.c. an individual is born with ambiguous genitalia. d. All of these are correct

a

Describe the symptoms of three different forms of paraphilia. What do all paraphilias have in common?




ANSWER: Paraphilias are all characterized by sexual attraction to something or somebody other than anotheradult, including animals, children, and household objects. Individuals may exhibit more than oneparaphilic pattern and often experience mood, anxiety and substance abuse disorders as well.




Examples:




Frotteuristic disorder refers to a male in a crowded place rubbing against someone he doesn’tknow until he is stimulated to the point of ejaculation.




A sexual attraction to a nonliving object is referred to as a fetishistic disorder. Women’sundergarments and shoes are typical objects, although individuals may have very specific objectsof sexual attraction.




Voyeuristic disorder refers to watching an unsuspecting individual undressing or naked in order toget aroused.




Exhibitionistic disorder involves exposing one’s genitals to unsuspecting strangers for sexualgratification.




Transvestic disorder involves sexual arousal associated with the act of dressing in clothes of theopposite sex.




Sexual sadism and masochism refer to achieving sexual gratification either by inflicting pain orhumiliation or suffering pain or humiliation respectively.




Sadistic rape refers to rapists who are particularly aroused when force and acts of cruelty areinvolved.




Pedophilic disorder refers to sexual attraction to children or very young adolescents.

.

Inappropriate sexual arousal (e.g., fetishism) appears to be learned through




a. exposure to pornography.b. masturbatory fantasies about the object.c. social "scripts" that are transferred from one generation to the next.d. poor social skills.

b

Of the following, the individual who should be diagnosed with gender dysphoria is




a. Joe, who gets sexually aroused by wearing women's bras.b. Lisa, who is gay and has many traditional masculine traits.c. Mark, who feels like a woman trapped in a man's body.d. Sid, who can only become sexually aroused while dressed like a woman.

c

The incidence of gender dysphoria




a. is higher than that of transvestic disorder.b. occurs three times more frequently in natal males than natal females.c. is based on studies in Norway, United Sates, and England.d. is moderate, with about 5% or more of the population affected.

b

According to research on gender dysphoria,




a. genetics contribute around 62% of the vulnerability to experiencing gender dysphoria.b. environment and genetics contribute equally to the cause.c. it cannot be determined, as yet, regarding the extent of the genetic and environmental contributions to thecause.d. None of the above

a

Recent twin studies suggest that the majority of the vulnerability for gender dysphoria comes from




a. genetic factors.b. environmental factors.c. medical accidents.d. media exposure.

a

Studies suggest that in comparison to other girls and boys, girls with congenital adrenal hyperplasia are_____________.




a. more feminineb. more masculinec. smallerd. smarter

b

A boy who consistently behaves in feminine ways is exhibiting




a. gender non-activation. b. gender experimentation.c. gender crises. d. gender nonconformity.

d

All of the following statements are correct about gender nonconformity EXCEPT




a. a higher proportion of gender-nonconforming children develop a homosexual orientation as adults.b. gender nonconformity was related to psychological distress for gay men only.c. gender nonconformity was related to psychological distress for lesbians only.d. gender nonconformity was related to psychological distress for gay men and lesbians

c

Research suggests that gender nonconformity typically results in _____________.




a. gender identity issuesb. homosexual preferencesc. bisexualityd. none of the above

d

All of the following are factors that may play a role in gender nonconformity EXCEPT




a. excessive attention on the part of the mother.b. high levels of fetal testosterone.c. lack of male playmates.d. excessive physical contact on the part of the mother.

c

All of the following statements about sex reassignment surgery are true EXCEPT




a. 2% attempt suicide after surgery.b. 15% later regret surgery.c. transmen generally report better post-surgical adjustment than transwomen.d. all of the above are true.

b

Intersexuality refers to people who




a. are born with ambiguous genitalsb. are sexually attracted to members of both sexes.c. like to dress like the opposite sex.d. are no longer sexually active.

a

The new approaches to understanding and treating intersexed individuals that have been proposed recently (FaustoSterling, 2000) are based on the concept of "five sexes," which include all of the following EXCEPT_______________.




a. "herms" b. "merms" and "ferms"c. males and females d. "andros" and "estros"

d