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136 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
What is a pharmacopeia?
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A medical reference summary that indicates standards of drug purity, strength and direction of synthesis.
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The difference between therapeutic classification and pharmacologic classification is that therapeutic classification refers to a drug's _______
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Therapeutic classification refers to a drug's USE.
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The client is to receive sublingual nitroglycerin to treat chest pain. The nurse tells the client that a sublingual drug:
a. works by dissolution. b. enters the blood stream directly. c. takes several hours to be effective. d. are toxic to the liver. |
Sublingual drugs enter the blood stream directly.
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Drugs that are given via the enteral route of administration utilize which system for delivery?
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Enteral route = via the digestive system
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A client who has kidney disease may have problems with which phase of drug movement?
a. Metabolism. b. Excretion. c. Distribution. d. Absorption. |
a. Metabolism (Liver)
b. EXCRETION (KIDNEYS) c. Distribution (Blood/Lymph) d. Absorption |
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Pediatric and geriatric clients may have altered sensitivity to drug therapy. This is due to:
a. reduced enzyme activity. b. increased metabolic rates. c. inactive life styles. d. high percentage of body fat. |
reduced enzyme activity
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Which of the following will have the greatest effect on drugs excreted by the respiratory system?
a. High first pass effect. b. Binding to plasma proteins. c. Good blood flow to lung capillaries. d. Drug solubility. |
Good blood flow to lung capillaries.
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Which of the following would cause a drug to be absorbed more quickly?
a. Large surface area of membrane. b. Reduced binding to plasma proteins. c. Reduced body temperature. d. Presence of food in the digestive tract. |
a. Large surface area of membrane.
b. Reduced binding to plasma proteins. |
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If the client is taking a drug with a short half-life you explain this by stating that half-life is the time it takes ________________.
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to remove half of the drug from the general circulation.
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A drug with a short half-life will be excreted quickly or slowly?
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Quickly.
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Disulfiram (Antabuse) is used to treat what?
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Alcoholism.
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When advising a client who has heart disease not to smoke, you know that the rationale is that nicotine causes the heart to __________.
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accelerate its rate.
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Client teaching regarding methylphenidate (Ritalin) would include which of the following:
a. methylphenidate (Ritalin) should be taken at bedtime to avoid insomnia. b. if the child is over active it is ok to give an extra dose. c. children on methylphenidate (Ritalin) should not eat chocolate. d. there are no interactions between methyphenidate (Ritalin) and OTCs. |
Children on methylphenidate (Ritalin) should not eat chocolate.
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The following is true about the effects of sympathetic nervous system stimulation.
Heart rate will ________, pupils will ________. |
Heart rate will increase, pupils will dilate.
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Adrenergic drugs may have which of the following "fight or flight" side effects?
a. Tachycardia and Hypotension. b. Hypertension and Bradycardia. c. Cardiac arrhythmias and Bradycardia. d. Cardiac arrhythmias and Hypotension. |
Hypertension and Bradycardia.
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Atropine is used in pre-operative clients to achieve what?
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Decreased secretion of mucus membranes.
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In what condition would the administration of atropine be contraindicated?
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Glaucoma.
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The primary use of beta 1 blockers is to treat:
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Hypertension
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Prior to starting any anticholinergic drug the nurse should assess the client for what?
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Difficulty urinating.
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The parasympathetic nervous system produces which of the following?
a. Rest and relaxation response. b. Fight or flight response. |
PARASYMPATHETIC = Rest and Relaxation
SYMPATHETIC (Sympathetic to situation) = Fight or Flight |
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When giving intravenous barbiturates you would monitor the client for ___________.
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Respiratory depression.
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Epilepsy is a condition characterized by:
a. high blood pressure and vasoconstriction. b. abnormal discharges within the brain. c. proteinuria and edema in the brain. d. tremors, confusion and disorientation. |
abnormal discharges within the brain.
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Which of the following types of seizures occur most often in children?
a. Atonic. b. Myclonic. c. Absence. d. Complex partial. |
Absence.
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All three categories of seizure drugs work by effecting:
a. nutrient and mineral balance. b. rate of glucose metabolism. c. protein levels. d. coagulation factors. |
nutrient and mineral balance.
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When caring for a client who is taking phenytoin (Dilantin) you would include which of the following interventions in your plan of care?
a. Good pulmonary care. b. Assessment for depression. c. Attention to oral hygiene. d. Monitoring for conjunctivitis. |
Attention to oral hygiene.
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One of the major side effects of antipsychotic drugs is extrapyramidal effect. Which of the following are symptoms of this?
a. Tremors and involuntary repetitive movements. b. Diarrhea and abdominal cramping. c. Lethargy and Bradycardia. d. Insomnia and increased muscle tone. |
Tremors and involuntary repetitive movements.
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Which of the following symptoms would be found in a client with Parkinson's disease?
a. Bradykinesia and flaccidity of muscles. b. Tremor, muscle rigidity and weakness. c. Hyperkinesis and rigidity of muscles. d. Spasticity and bradykinesia. |
Tremor, muscle rigidity and weakness.
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Symptoms of Parkinson's disease are thought to be caused by which of the following?
a. Destruction of the neurotansmitter dopamine. b. Autoimmune effect on ACTH receptor sites. c. Increase production of dopamine. d. An inability to utilize dopamine. |
Destruction of the neurotansmitter dopamine.
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The focus of anti-parkinson drug therapy is to:
a. produce extrapyramidal effects. b. stimulate release of acetylcholine. c. decrease breakdown of dopamine in the limbs. d. restore balance of dopamine and acetylcholine in the brain. |
restore balance of dopamine and acetylcholine in the brain.
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Clients with Alzheimer's disease have which of the following changes in brain function?
a. Loss of cholinergic brain function. b. Hyperactive cholinergic brain function c. Increased dopamine loss. d. Breakdown of cells in the cerebellum. |
Loss of cholinergic brain function.
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formulary
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lists of drugs and drug recipes commonly used by pharmacists
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pathophysiology
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the study of diseases and the functional changes occurring in the body as a result of diseases
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pharmaceutics
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the science of preparing and dispensing drugs
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pharmacology
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the study of medicines, the discipline pertaining to how drugs improve the health of the human body
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pharmacotherapeutics
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treatment of diseases by the use of drugs
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Four stages of approval for therapeutic and biologic drugs
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1. Preclinical investigation
2. Clinical investigation 3. Submission of a New Drug Application (NDA) with review 4. Post-marketing surveillance |
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Stage 1 of new drug approval process by FDA
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Pre-clinical investigation- basic scientific research involving laboratory culturing and animal testing to determine drug dosage effectiveness and potential adverse effects.
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Stage 2 of new drug approval process by FDA
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Clinical investigation- involves CLINICAL PHASE TRIALS (longest part of drug approval process). Clinical pharmacologists perform tests on volunteers and large groups of selected clients with certain diseases. Scientists and practitioners establish drug doses and identify adverse effects. Clinical investigators address concerns such as drug-drug interactions, drug-other disease interactions, effectiveness between one type of client and another, etc.
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Stage 3 of new drug approval process by FDA
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Submission and review of New Drug Application (NDA)- Clinical Phase III trials and more animal testing may continue if needed. If NDA approved - move to stage 4. If NDA rejected- process stops until concerns are addressed.
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Stage 4 of new drug approval process by FDA
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Post-marketing surveillance- PURPOSE: to check for any new harmful effects that may appear when the drug is used in a larger and more diverse population. If serious adverse effects appear, drug is recalled.
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Division of FDA responsible for regulation of therapeutic Rx and OTC drugs
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CDER- Center for Drug Evaluation and Research
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Division of FDA responsible for regulation of use of Biologics
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CBER- Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research
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Biologics
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Chemical Agents that produce biological responses within the body; they are synthesized by cells of the human body, animal cells, or microorganisms. Ex: Hormones, vaccines, animal products.
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Three drug classifications
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TRADITIONAL DRUGS- chemically-produced, synthesized in a laboratory.
BIOLOGICS- naturally-produced, made by the body's cells & microorganisms, associated with the bloodstream (ex: hormones, vaccines, animal products) NATURAL/ALTERNATIVE THERAPIES- extracted from a natural source (ex: herbs, vitamins, minerals) |
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Bioavailability
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The ability of a drug to reach the bloodstream and its target tissues
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Chemical Name
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Strict Chemical Nomenclature used for naming drugs, established by the International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry (IUPAC)
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Combination Drug
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A drug product with more than one active generic ingredient
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Controlled Substance
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Drug whose use is restricted by the Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act
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Generic Name
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Nonproprietary name of a drug, assigned by the government
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Pharmacological Classification
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Organization of drugs on the basis of their MECHANISM OF ACTION. (Ex: diuretics [cause diuresis] calcium channel blockers, sympatholytics [block stress-related activity], vasodilators, etc)
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Mechanism of Action
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The method in which a drug exerts its therapeutic effects
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Therapeutic Classification
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Organization of drugs on the bases of their THERAPEUTIC USEFULNESS. (Ex: anticoagulants, antihypertensives, antidysrhythmics, antianginals, antihyperlipidemics)
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Trade name
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Proprietary (owner) name of a drug assigned by the manufacturer; aka BRAND name or PRODUCT name
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Physical Dependence
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Altered physical condition caused by the nervous system's adaptation to repeated drug use- person experiences physical signs of discomfort (withdrawal) when drug is no longer used.
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Psychological Dependence
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Strong, compulsive feeling of need to continue drug use; little or no signs of physical discomfort with discontinuance of drug.
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Scheduled drugs
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Drugs that are classified according to their potential for abuse.
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Schedule I Drugs
Schedule II Drugs Schedule III Drugs Schedule IV Drugs Schedule V Drugs |
SCHEDULE I- highest potential for abuse, little to no therapeutic value (ex: heroin, LDS, marijuana),
SCHEDULE II- high potential (ex: morphine, cocaine, methadone) SCHEDULE III- moderate potential (ex: anabolic steroids, codiene, hydrocodone [Vicodin] SCHEDULE IV- lower potential (ex: Valium, Xanax) SCHEDULE V- lowest potential (ex: OTC cough meds with codeine) |
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Enteral route
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Drug administration through the gastrointestinal tract.
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Parenteral route
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Drug administration through the a way other than the digestive tract (usually injection).
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Intraarterial route
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Method of parenteral drug delivery where drugs are injected into the arterial circulation.
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Intradermal route
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Method of parenteral drug delivery where drugs are injected into the dermis of the skin.
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Intraperitoneal route
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Method of parenteral drug delivery where drugs are injected into the abdominal cavity.
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Intrathecal route
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Method of parenteral drug delivery where drugs are injected into the spinal subarachnoid space.
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Topical route
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Drug administration by which drugs are placed directly onto the skin and mucous membranes.
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Hypodermis is _______
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HYPODERMIS is directly under the epidermal layer of skin. (SubQ injections)
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Dermis is _______
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DERMIS is the layer of skin lying immediately under the epidermis, consists of papillary and reticular layers. (Intradermal injections)
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Subarachnoid space is _______
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SUBARACHNOID SPACE is the space between the pia mater and the arachnoid, containing the cerebrospinal fluid. (Intrathecal injections)
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Transmucosal route
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Method of topical drug delivery where drugs are applied directly to mucosal membranes, including the nasal and respiratory pathways and reproductive openings.
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Transdermal route
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Method of topical drug delivery, usually by a patch, where drugs are absorbed across the layers of the skin for the purpose of entering the bloodstream.
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Solubility is _________
Dissolution is _________ |
SOLUBILITY is the ability to dissolve or mix.
DISSOLUTION is the dissolving process of solid drug preparations; the longer it takes for drugs to dissolve, the more delayed their onset of action. |
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Epidural route
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Method of parenteral drug delivery where drugs are injected into the space overlying the dura mater.
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Dura mater is _____
(Subdural space is _____) Arachnoid membrane is _____ (Subarachnoid space is _____) Pia mater is _____ |
DURA MATER is the outermost of the meninges covering the spinal cord and brain.
(Subdural space is the space between the dura mater and the arachnoid membrane.) ARACHNOID is the intermediate membrane of the meninges that enclose the brain and spinal cord. (Subarachnoid space is the space between the arachnoid membrane and the pia mater, containing the CSF.) PIA MATER is the innermost of the meninges covering the spinal cord and brain. |
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Viscosity
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Thickness of a liquid
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Types of ENTERAL drug administration
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ORAL (PO)- by mouth
BUCCAL- Across membranes of the mouth (cheek) SUBLINGUAL (SL)- under the tongue RECTAL (PR)- by suppositories or enema |
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Types of PARENTERAL drug administration
IV IA IC Card 1 of 3 |
INTRAVENOUS (IV)- into the venous circulation
INTRA-ARTERIAL (IA)- into the arterial circulation INTRACORONARY (IC)- into the coronary circulation |
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Types of PARENTERAL drug administration
SQ ID IM Intraosseous Card 2 of 3 |
SUBCUTANEOUS (SQ)- under the skin; into the hypodermis
INTRADERMAL (ID)- into the dermis of the skin; intracutaneous INTRAMUSCULAR (IM)- into the muscles INTRAOSSEOUS- into the bone |
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Types of PARENTERAL drug administration
Epidural IT IP Intrasynovial Card 3 of 3 |
EPIDURAL- into the space overlying the dura mater
INTRATHECAL (IT)- into the spinal subarachnoid space INTRAPERITONEAL (IP)- into the abdominal cavity INTRASYNOVIAL- into the joint |
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Types of TOPICAL drug administration
Transcutaneous Transdermal Card 1 of 2 |
TRANSCUTANEOUS- Across the skin
TRANSDERMAL- Across the dermis |
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Types of TOPICAL drug administration
Transmucosal Opthalmic Otic Vaginal Intrauterine Card 2 of 2 |
TRANSMUCOSAL- across mucous membranes
OPTHALMIC- onto membranes of the eyes OTIC- onto membranes of the deeper ear VAGINAL- onto membranes of the vagina INTRAUTERINE- onto membranes of the uterine lining |
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Agonists
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Drugs that are capable of binding with receptors in order to induce a cellular response
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Antagonists
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Drugs that block the response of another drug
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Biotransformation
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The metabolism or chemical conversion of drugs from one form to another that may result in increased or decreased activity
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Blood-brain barrier
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An anatomical structure that prevents some substances from gaining access into the brain
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Blood-placental barrier
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An anatomical structure that prevents some substances from moving into the bloodstream of the fetus
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Blood-testicular barrier
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An anatomical structure that prevents some substances from entering male reproductive tissue
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Absorption
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The process of moving a drug across body membranes
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Distribution
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The process of transporting drugs through the body
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Efficacy
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The effectiveness of a drug in producing a more intense response as its concentration is increased
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Enterohepatic
recirculation |
Recycling of drugs and other substances by the circulation fo bile through the intesting and liver
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Excretion
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The process of removing substances from the body
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First-pass effect
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The initial metabolism in the LIVER of an (enteral) drug absorbed from the GI tract, rendering it less bioavailable before it reaches systemic circulation through the bloodstream.
Parenteral drugs bypass liver which prevents first-pass effect. |
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Half-life
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The time it takes for one-half of the original amount of a drug in the body to be removed; a measure of the rate at which drugs are removed from the body.
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Synergistic effect
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A drug interaction that results from combined drug effects that are greater than the effect achieved if the drugs were given alone.
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Contraindication
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Any symptom or circumstance that makes treatment with a drug unsafe or inappropriate
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Iatrogenic
hazard |
Any potential or actual patient harm that is caused by errant actions of health care staff members
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Onset of Action
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Time it takes for a drug to elicit a therapeutic response
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Peak effect
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Time it takes for a drug to reach its maximum therapeutic response in the body
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Receptor
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The structural component on the outer surface of a cell to which a drug binds in a dose-related manner in order to produce a response.
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Rate of Elimination
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The amount of drug removed from the body during a specified period of time.
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Prodrugs
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Drugs that become more active after they are metabolized; an inactive drug form that is converted to an active metabolite by various biochem rxns in the body (often more readily absorbable than its active metabolite).
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Potency
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The power or strength of a drug at a specified concentration or dose.
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METABOLITE
Active Metabolite Inactive Metabolite |
METABOLITE- A chemical form of a drug that is the product of one or more biochemical metabolic rxns involving the parent drug.
ACTIVE METABOLITES- metabolites that have pharmacologic activity of their own, even if the parent drug is inactive INACTIVE METABOLITES- lack pharmacologic activity and are simply drug waste products awating excretion from the body |
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Parent Drug
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The chemical form of a drug that is admin to the body before it is metabolized by the body's biochem rxns into its active or inactive metabolites.
A parent drug that is not pharmacologically active itself is a PRODRUG. |
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Substrate
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A substance (ex: drug or natural biochemical in the body) on which an enzyme acts
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Therapeutic
index |
The difference between the minimum therapeutic and toxic concentrations of a drug. If the therapeutic index is narrow, the range btw the therapeutic and toxic drug concentrations is small.
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Enzyme
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A protein molecule that catalyzes one or more of a variety of biochem rxns.
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Duration of Action
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The length of time that a drug concentration in the blood or tissues is sufficient to elicit a therapeutic response
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Palliative
Therapy |
Aka Comfort care, used in the end stages of an illness when all possible therapy has failed.
Ex: high-dose opioid analgesics in end-stage cancer Ex: O2 in end-stage pulmonary disease |
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Supportive
Therapy |
Recovery care, maintains the integrity of body functions while pt is recovering.
Ex: Fluids & electrolytes to prevent dehydration in an influenze pt with vomiting & diarrhea |
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Polypharmacy
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The use of many different drugs in tx of a pt who may have one to several health problems.
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PREGNANCY Category A
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Studies indicate no risk to the human fetus.
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PREGNANCY Category B
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Studies indicate no risk to the animal fetus; information is not available for humans.
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PREGNANCY Category C
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Adverse effects reported in animal fetus; information is not available for humans.
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PREGNANCY Category D
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Possible fetal risk in humans reported. However, considering potential benefit vs. risk may warrant the use of these drugs in pregnant women.
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PREGNANCY Category X
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Fetal abnormalities reported and positive evidence of fetal risk in humans is available from animal and/or human studies. These drugs should not be used in pregnant women.
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Fetus is at greatest risk during
the ____ trimester because ____. The greatest percentage of maternally absorbed drugs gets to the fetus during the ____ trimester because ____. |
First; The fetus undergoes rapid cell proliferation during this time and the skeleton, muscles, limbs, and organs are developing at their most rapid rate.
Last; Drug can most easily cross the placenta due to enhanced blood flow to the fetus, increased fetal surface area, and an increased amount of free drug in the mother's circulation. |
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5 Rights of
Medication Administration |
Right PATIENT
Right DRUG Right DOSAGE Right ROUTE Right TIME (6th Right for Parenterally Administered Meds: Right LOCATION) |
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ETHICAL PRINCIPLES
Beneficence |
Beneficence- Duty of a healthcare provider to actively promote GOOD and best serve the patient.
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ETHICAL PRINCIPLES
Justice |
Justice- Duty of a healthcare provider to be fair or equal in one's actions; includes the fair distribution of resources for the care of the pt and determination of when to treat.
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ETHICAL PRINCIPLES
Nonmaleficence |
Nonmaleficence- Duty of a healthcare provider to do no harm to a client; includes avoiding doing any deliberate harm while rendering care.
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ETHICAL PRINCIPLES
Veracity |
Veracity- Duty of a healthcare provider to tell the truth; includes telling the truth with regards to placebos, investigational new drugs, and informed consent.
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Amphetamines
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Drugs that stimulate the central nervous system
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Enuresis
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Urinary incontinence
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Narcotic
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Agent that produces insensibility or stupor (narcosis); applies most commonly to the opioid analgesics
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Somatic pain
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SOMATIC PAIN originates from skeletal muscles, ligaments, and joints.
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Visceral pain
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VISCERAL PAIN originates from organs and smooth muscles.
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Superficial pain
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SUPERFICIAL PAIN originates from the skin and mucous membranes.
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Central pain
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CENTRAL PAIN results from any disorder that causes CNS damage.
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Acute pain
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ACUTE PAIN is SUDDEN in onset, usually subsides when treated, and typically occurs over less than a 3-month period.
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Chronic pain
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CHRONIC PAIN is PERSISTENT or RECURRING pain that is often difficult to treat, and typically lasts longer than 3 months.
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Neuropathic pain
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NEUROPATHIC PAIN results from a disturbance of function or pathologic change in a nerve.
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Vascular pain
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VASCULAR PAIN results from a pathology of the vascular or perivasscular tissues.
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Referred pain
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REFERRED PAIN occurs in an area away from the organ of origin.
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Psychogenic pain
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PSYCHOGENIC PAIN is psychologic in nature but is truly real pain in terms of actual pain impulses that travel through nerve cells.
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Pain threshold
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PAIN THRESHOLD is the level of stimulus that results in the perception of pain.
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Pain tolerance
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PAIN TOLERANCE is the amount of pain a patient can endure without it interfering with normal function.
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