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135 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
4 mechanisms of cell injury
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Depletion of ATP
Mito membrane damage Loss of Ca++ homeostasis Reactive Oxygen species |
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Hypoxia vs Ischemia
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Loss of O2
vs Loss of Blood (O2 and nutrients) |
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5 Effects of ATP depetion
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Compromised PM Na pump
Anaerobic glycolysis Compromised PM Ca pump Ribosomal damage Mito and Lyso membranes don't remain intact |
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Mito membrane damage
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Preventing maintenence of proton motive force for oxidative phos and ATP syn.
Leakage of cytochrome C Mito permeability transition (MPT) |
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Loss of Ca homeostasis
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ATPase
Endonuclease (N chromatin damage) Protease (disruption of membranes) Phospholipase |
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Reactive Oxygen Species
3 major antioxidant enzymes |
Superoxide Dismutase
Glutathione Catalase |
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Reactive Oxygen Specied
Antioxidants (3) Binding of metal ions to storage and transport proteins, minimizing OH formation (2) |
Vitamins A,C,E
Iron storage (Ferritin) Cu storage and transport (Ceruloplasmin) |
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Characteristics of Coag Necrosis
How long until you can tell at light microscope level? |
Most common type
Typical of hypoxic cell death Ghost outlines for several days Ischemia Gradual nuclear degeneration LL clotted blood 6-12 hours |
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Caseous and Gangrenous Necrosis are what type of necrosis?
But can look like, especially caseous,... |
Coag necrosis
Liquifactive necrosis |
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Characteristics of Liquefactive Necrosis
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Rapid influx of neutrophils
No macrophage ring or giant cells Seen in hypoxic death of the CNS Complete enzymatic digestion of cells, becoming a viscous mass of amorphous material containing dead cells. |
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What should you know about "acellular" liquifactive necrosis?
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There are inflammatory cells present, but no parenchyma left.
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Dry vs Wet Gangrenous Necrosis
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Wet is With superimposed infection, and is wet due to action of leukocytes and bacteria.
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Apoptosis
4 components |
Initiitation by 2 pathways (ex & intrinsic)
Regulatory molecules (Bcl-2) Caspases (death program) Phagocytossis |
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2 each
Intrinsic pathway initiated by: Extrinsic pathway initiated by: |
In: WIthdrawal of Growth factor and hormones
Extrinsic: Receptor ligand interaction Fas Ligand and TNF receptor (Fas Receptor or CD95) |
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Apoptosis
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Lysosomal Catabolism
Induction of SER Mito alterations Cytoskeletal Abnormalities |
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Cholesterol Accumulations
In macrophages in Intimal layer of lrg arteries In macrophages in dermis of patients with hypercholesterolemia In macrophages of lamina prop of gallbladder |
Atherosclerosis
Xanthoma Cholesterolosis |
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HGF
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Mitogenic for epi cells, HGF receptor is produce of proto-oncogene
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TGF beta
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Inhibits epi proliferation, stimulates fibrogenesis
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VEGF
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Promotes vasculogenesis and angiogenesis
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FGF
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Migration of macro, fibro and endo
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PDGF
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Proliferation and migration of fibro, sm muscle, hepatic stellate
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EGF/TGF alpha
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Binds to EGF receptor with intrinsic tyr kinase activity, mainly ERB B1 inducing proliferation of epi, fibro and hepatocytes.
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Signal Transduction Systems
Receptors with Tyr Kinase Activity (3) |
PI3
MAP --> Ras/Raf IP3 --> Ca++ |
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Signal Transduction Systems
Via G protein |
cAMP
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Signal Transduction Systems
Receptor w/o Tyr kinase activity |
JAK/STAT
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3 phases of response to partial hepatectomy
Priming Proliferation Growth Inhibiton |
Priming: G0-G1 c-fos, c-jun, c-myc
Proliferation: G1-S Cyclin D-CDK4 Growth Inhibiton: TGF beta, activin others, |
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Most common enzmatic defect
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Gauchers's (glucocerebrosides)
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Most common receptor protein disorder:
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Hypercholesterolemia
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What chromosomes are associated with the following disorders:
Cystic Fibrosis Marfan's NF1 NF2 Prader Willi DiGeorge |
7
15 17 22 15 22q11.2 |
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Most common cause of Down Syndrome
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Non-disjunction during mitosis
( |
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results when the long arms of two acrocentric chromosomes fuse at the centromere and the two short arms are lost.
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Roberstsonian Translocation
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Child with Prader Willi, due to 2 possible causes regarding chromosome 15
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Deletion of paternal or imprinting of maternal
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Child with Angelman Syndrome, due to 2 possible causes regarding chromosome 15
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Deletion of maternal or imprinting of paternal
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5 chemical forces involved in drug-receptor interactions.
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Covalent Bonds
Van der Waals-London Forces Ionic Bonds Hydrophobic Interactions Hydrogen bonds |
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Covalent bonds in therapeutics
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Not common
2 bonding atoms share electrons Usually irreversible Often toxic |
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Ionic bonds in therapeutics
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More common than covalent bonds
Weaker than covalent bonds (ex cationic head of acetylcholine to the anionic site of cholinesterase) |
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Characteristics in therapeutics
Ionic |
More common than covalent bonds
Weaker than covalent Opposite electrostatic charges ex: cationic head of acetylchoiine to the anionic stie of the cholinesterase |
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Characteristics in therapeutics
Hydrogen Bonds |
Individual bonds are weak but parallel arrays result in high energy of association
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Characteristics in therapeutics
Hydrophobic |
Impt in highly lipid soluble drugs and lipids in cell membranes and receptor pockets
Lack strxrl specificity |
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Characteristics in therapeutics
Van der Waals-London Forces |
Very weak
Molecules which utilize weaker bonds will bind more selectively than those with stronger bonds Bind reversibly |
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T or F
Competitive antagonists bind a different receptor than agonist. |
False
They bind the same receptor |
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T or F
Re: Irreversible antagonist, it cannot be displaced by high conc of agonist |
True
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Competative or noncompetative
A non-receptor antagonist (acts at a site beyond receptor for agonist) |
So, noncompetative.
Effects cannot be surmounted via large quantities of agonist. |
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Gs Go Gi or Gq
Activates Ca channels, activates adenylate cyclase |
Gs
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Gs Go Gi or Gq
Activates K channels, inhibits adenylate cyclase |
Gi
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Gs Go Gi or Gq
Inhibits Ca channels |
Go
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Gs Go Gi or Gq
Activates phospholipase C...DAG, IP3 |
Gq
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Rapid desensitization following continued receptor stimulation. Is this reversible?
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Tachyphylaxis
This is readily reversible. |
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What type of receptors are found in the SA node of the heart, the cardiac muscle, and adipose tissue?
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Beta one
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What type of receptors are found in the bronchial smooth muscle, the GI sm muscle, uterus, bladder, liver and pancreas.
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Beta two
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What type of receptors are found only in adipose tissue?
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Beta three
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What do Beta3 receptors do in the adipose tissue?
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Increase Lipolysis
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What do Beta 1 receptors do in the SA node of the heart, the cardiac muscle, and adipose tissue?
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SA node of the heart=increase hrt rate
cardiac muscle=increase contractility adipose tissue= Increase lipolysis |
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What do Beta2 receptors do in the bronchial smooth muscle, the GI sm muscle, uterus, bladder, liver and pancreas.
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bronchial smooth muscle=dilates bronchioles
GI sm muscle=constricts sphincters and relaxes gut wall uterus=relaxes uterine wall bladder=relaxes bladder liver=increase gluconeogenesis and glycolysis pancreas=increase insuline release |
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In a log dose response curve, what is on the x and y axes?
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X axis: dependent variable
Y axis: Indepndnt variable |
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Which is more impt, efficiency or potency?
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Efficiency
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A relationship btwn receptor occupancy and pharmacological response.
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Efficacy
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Term used to compare relative positions of dose response curves on horizontal axis.
Described in absolute dosage or in relative comparisons to other drugs in the same class. Concentration at which drug will elicit 50% of its maximal response. |
Potency
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Used to describe relative maxima achieved by a drug.
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Intrinsic activity
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EC50
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Concentration at which drug will elicit 50% of its maximal response.
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The Kd corresponds to the ligand concentration at which __% of the receptors are bound.
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50%
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______ depends on the following two factors: affinity of receptors (Kd) for binding the drug, and efficacy with which D-R interaction is coupled to response
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Potency
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Aggregation of platelets to form a platelet plug at the site of endothelial injury is
mediated by which two substances released by platelets? |
ADP and thromboxane A2
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Type of embolism often caused by physical trauma?
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Fat Embolism
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An HIV-positive patient with AIDS is most likely to have which lab result?
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Hypergammaglobulinemia
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oncogenic viruses usually activate oncogenes by gene amplification, inactivation of
suppressor genes, or inducing translocations |
viral carcinogenesis
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Tumor Grading primarily refers to
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differentiation of cells in the tumor
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epidermal basement membrane contains what three components?
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Type IV collage
Proteoglycans Laminin |
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Interaction of epithelial cells and mesenchymal cells with extracellular matrix
proteins is mainly mediated by which class of membrane receptors? |
Integrins
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Within activated macrophages,interaction of nitric oxide and
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superoxide anion
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The destruction of infectious agents within a neutrophil’s phagocytic vacuole is
most effectively accomplished by halogenation, a process requiring which enzyme? |
myeloperoxidase
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In equations:
E= Emax= EC50= |
E=effect
Emax=efficacy EC50=Potency |
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When is EC50<Kd
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In the case of spare receptors
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What does a steep dose effect curve imply?
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There is a small difference between the dose which would be therapeutic vs the dose that causes negative outcome. It implies a safety concern.
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Used to determine whether an antagonist interacts at a receptor in a competitive surmountable manner or in a competitive irreversible manner.
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Log dose graded response curve
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What effect will higher concentrations of both the competitive antagonist and the agonist have on a dose response curve?
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It will shift the curve to the right w/o chg in slope or maximal intrinsic activity. A competitive antagonist reduces the potency of an agonits with out affecting the intrinsic activity of agonist (efficacy)
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All or none response based on predetermined criteria. Plot of fraction of pop that responds to a given dose of a drug against the drug dose.
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Log Quantal Dose Response
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ED50=
TD50= LD50= |
ED50=50% have therapeutic response
TD50=50% have toxic response LD50=50% have die |
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What is the equation to understand therapeutic index (TI)
A drug with a large therapeutic index will be ________ safe than a drug with a small therapeutic index. |
LD50/ED50 or TD50/ED50
ie a less steep slope A drug with a large therapeutic index will be more safe than a drug with a small therapeutic index. |
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Phase I versus Phase II
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Phase I trials are the first stage of testing in human subjects. Normally, a small (20-80) group of healthy volunteers will be selected.
Phase II is when the ED50 in humans is determined, b4 marketing the new drug. |
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What is the most important and most common mechanism of drug permeation?
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Passive Transfer(Simple diffusion)
only non-ionized, lipid soluble drugs are passively absorbed. |
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Membrane Transfer Mechanisms
Epi lining of body surfaces: Most capillaries & glom of kidney: |
Only small mw molecules <150
Permit passage of large mw molecules, 20,000 to 30,000, but larger molecules and protein bound drugs are not filtered. |
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Energy is required for active transport or facilitated diffusion?
What types of carriers exist for facilitated diffusion? |
Active Transport
AA in BBB Weak acids in prox convoluted tubule of kidney. Glucose |
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Receptor mediated endocytosis
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Pinocytosis
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Intramuscular and subcutaneous have the same range of bioavailability. What is it?
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75-100%
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Bioavailability of IV, transdermal topical, Inhalation and oral
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IV = 100%
Transdermal = 80-<100% Inhalation = 5-<100% Oral = 5-<100% Rectal = 30-<100% |
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Most quick to most delayed methods of drug delivery
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IV
Inhalation Intrperitoneal Subcutaneous Intramuscular Intradermal Oral Topical |
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Where is the likely site of absorption for acidic and basic drugs respectively?
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Acidic: In the stomach
Basic: In the intestines |
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Range of pKa of acid to base compatible with rapid absorption
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3 (acid) to 7.8 (base)
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Enterohepatic circulation
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the circulation of bile from the liver, where it is produced, to the small intestine, where it aids in digestion of fats and other substances, back to the liver
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CYP3A4 a member of the cytochrome P450 mixed-function oxidase system, is one of the most important enzymes involved in the metabolism of xenobiotics in the body. What impact does grapefruit juice have?
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Grapefruit juice inhibits the CYP3A4 isoform, drugs (such as felodipine) are not metabolized and therefore have a higher bioavailability.
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Duration of action of a drug and MEC
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Duration of action of a drug begins when plasma conc reaches minimal effective conc and ends when plasma conc drops below MEC
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TIme course of drug action
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Determined by its rate of absorption, its distribution in body compartments and its rate of elimination.
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Iontophoresis
Electrophoration Sonophoresis |
Iontophoresis-low voltage pulses enhance transport of low MW molecules.
Electrophoration-high voltage pulses enhance transport of lrg chrged molecules by inducing temporary pores in membranes. Sonophoresis-ultrasound enhances transport by temporarily forming air-filled cavitations in lipid bilayers of stratum corneum. |
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Steady State Conc -
Time to acheive it? Rate of drug admin = |
Plateau should fall in the therapeutic range
Normally acheived after 4-5 half lives Rate of drug admin = rate of drug loss |
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Loading Dose = Vd X Css
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Volume of distribution X desired steady state plasma conc
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Dose maintenence =
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Clearance X Desired steady state conc
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The _____ for a drug is a common measure of the extent of availability. It reflects the absorption, dist, metab, and excretion of the drug.
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AUC area under the curve
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Drugs with quaternary ammonium (ex curare) are very _______ and not _____ ___________ and will be poorly absorbed across cell membrane.
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Drugs with quaternary ammonium (ex curare) are very polar and not lipid soluble and will be poorly absorbed across cell membrane.
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Weak acids are predominantly __________ at acid pH.
Weak bases are predominantly __________ at basic pH. |
non ionized
non ionized Weak acids tend to conc in regions of high pH, therefore, alkalinization of the urine increases the clearance of weak acids. |
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What is peritoneal dialysis?
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An isotonic fluid is placed in the peritoneal cavity, then evacuated and replaced periodically.
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Blood Brain Barrier characteristics
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Only Lipid soluble can enter
TJx btwn endo cells Fewer pinocytotic vessecles Surrounded by pericytes and astroglial processes More mito for transport energy Produces 20-30% of the CSF volume |
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Adrenal medulla, type of receptor, releasing epi and norepi
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Nicotinic
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First order elimination - (most drugs) a consistent fraction of the drug is eliminated per time period. When is the graph curved? When is it straight?
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First order is curved when plotted on rectilinear curve.
First order is straight when plotted on semilogarithmic Graph |
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Zero order elimination - zero change in amt of drug eliminated per unit time (fixed amt) When is the graph curved? When is it straight?
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The graph is curved on a semiligarithmic and straight on a regular cartesian plot.
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Vd (volume of distribution)
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Amt of drug in body/conc of drug in plasma
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A fictitious volume, allows one to get a rough indication into which body compartment a drug is distributed.
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Volume of distribution
Plasma 4 EC volume 20 Total Body Water 60 |
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Warfarin is 99% bound to plasma proteins at steady state. Therefore only 1% is free and can
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only free drug can produce an effect
**Aspirin can displace warfarin from plasma proteins. |
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T 1/2 =
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0.7 X Vd / CL
or 0.7 / Ke |
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CL =
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0.7 X Vd / T 1/2 or
Rate of elimination / Drug plasma conc |
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Dosing rate =
Maintenance dose = Loading dose = |
CL X Target Conc
Dosing rate X Dosing interval Vd X TC |
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Initial conc =
Steady State conc = |
Loading dose / Vol of dist
(Frac abs X Maintenance dose) / (dosing interval X CL) |
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Muscarinic Receptors
M1 M2 M3 |
M1= cns & presynaptic autonomic ganglia
M2=Heart M3=Sm muscle |
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Nicotinic Receptors
Nm Nn |
Nm=skeletal muscle
Nn= postganglionic autonomic neurons, adrenal chromaffin cells. |
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Alpha Adrenergic receptors
alpha1 alpha2 |
alpha1=postsyn effector cells, sm muscle
alpha2=presyn adrenergic nerve terminals, platelets, lipocytes |
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Beta Adrenergic receptors
Beta1 Beta2 Beta3 |
Beta1=heart
Beta2=postsyn vascular sm muscle Beta3=lipocytes |
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Which receptor starts the PIP2 (DAG, IP3, Ca, PKC) cascade?
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Alpha 1
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Which receptor(s) start the cAMP cascade?
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Beta 1&2
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Humanized antibody against C5, a complement protein that mediates late steps in complement activation and assembly of the membrane attack complex, specifically against C5.
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Eculizumab
(See 5 planes going to ecquador) |
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associated with c-myc gene translocation. The most common variant is t(8;14)(q24;q32)
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8urkitt's 14ymphoma
(8,14) |
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Type I pneumocytes
Type II pneumocytes |
Gas exchange
Production of surfactant |
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Lung tissue b4 and after chronic smoking.
Esophageal tissue b4 and after chronic gastric reflux. |
Lung tissue will be columnar (to produce mucus) and will chg to squamous.
Esophageal tissue will be squamous and will chg to colomnar. |
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A disorganized mass of mature cells or tissue indigenous to the site.
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Hamartoma
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An ectopic rest of normal tissue. ie normal tissue in the wrong place.
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Choristoma
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Less than complete differentiation
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Anaplasia
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Characteristics of benign neoplasms (5)
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Well differentiated
Slow Growing Expansile masses pushing margins Encapsulated Remain Localized Don't infiltrate or metastasize |
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When will you see an increased nuclear to cytoplasm ratio?
|
In malignant neoplasms
Invasion is the hallmark of malignancy. Most malignant cells are aneuploidy. |
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The cell prepares for mitosis during which phase?
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G2
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List the order of the cell cycle
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G0
G1 S G2 M |
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Inhibitors of microtubule function affect cells in ___ phase
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M
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Glucocortoids inhibit cells in the __ phase
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S
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Antimetabolites, and folate pathway inhibitors inhibit cells in ___ phase
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S
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Anti-tumor antibiotics inhibit cells in
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G2
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Topoisomerase inhibitors inhibit cells in ___ and ___ phases
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G2 and S
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Alkylating and platinum complexes affect cell function in ____ phase(s)
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all
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