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135 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
4 mechanisms of cell injury
Depletion of ATP
Mito membrane damage
Loss of Ca++ homeostasis
Reactive Oxygen species
Hypoxia vs Ischemia
Loss of O2
vs
Loss of Blood (O2 and nutrients)
5 Effects of ATP depetion
Compromised PM Na pump
Anaerobic glycolysis
Compromised PM Ca pump
Ribosomal damage
Mito and Lyso membranes don't remain intact
Mito membrane damage
Preventing maintenence of proton motive force for oxidative phos and ATP syn.
Leakage of cytochrome C
Mito permeability transition (MPT)
Loss of Ca homeostasis
ATPase
Endonuclease (N chromatin damage)
Protease (disruption of membranes)
Phospholipase
Reactive Oxygen Species
3 major antioxidant enzymes
Superoxide Dismutase
Glutathione
Catalase
Reactive Oxygen Specied
Antioxidants (3)
Binding of metal ions to storage and transport proteins, minimizing OH formation (2)
Vitamins A,C,E
Iron storage (Ferritin)
Cu storage and transport (Ceruloplasmin)
Characteristics of Coag Necrosis

How long until you can tell at light microscope level?
Most common type
Typical of hypoxic cell death
Ghost outlines for several days
Ischemia
Gradual nuclear degeneration
LL clotted blood
6-12 hours
Caseous and Gangrenous Necrosis are what type of necrosis?
But can look like, especially caseous,...
Coag necrosis

Liquifactive necrosis
Characteristics of Liquefactive Necrosis
Rapid influx of neutrophils
No macrophage ring or giant cells
Seen in hypoxic death of the CNS
Complete enzymatic digestion of cells, becoming a viscous mass of amorphous material containing dead cells.
What should you know about "acellular" liquifactive necrosis?
There are inflammatory cells present, but no parenchyma left.
Dry vs Wet Gangrenous Necrosis
Wet is With superimposed infection, and is wet due to action of leukocytes and bacteria.
Apoptosis
4 components
Initiitation by 2 pathways (ex & intrinsic)
Regulatory molecules (Bcl-2)
Caspases (death program)
Phagocytossis
2 each
Intrinsic pathway initiated by:
Extrinsic pathway initiated by:
In: WIthdrawal of Growth factor and hormones
Extrinsic: Receptor ligand interaction Fas Ligand and TNF receptor (Fas Receptor or CD95)
Apoptosis
Lysosomal Catabolism
Induction of SER
Mito alterations
Cytoskeletal Abnormalities
Cholesterol Accumulations
In macrophages in Intimal layer of lrg arteries
In macrophages in dermis of patients with hypercholesterolemia
In macrophages of lamina prop of gallbladder
Atherosclerosis
Xanthoma
Cholesterolosis
HGF
Mitogenic for epi cells, HGF receptor is produce of proto-oncogene
TGF beta
Inhibits epi proliferation, stimulates fibrogenesis
VEGF
Promotes vasculogenesis and angiogenesis
FGF
Migration of macro, fibro and endo
PDGF
Proliferation and migration of fibro, sm muscle, hepatic stellate
EGF/TGF alpha
Binds to EGF receptor with intrinsic tyr kinase activity, mainly ERB B1 inducing proliferation of epi, fibro and hepatocytes.
Signal Transduction Systems
Receptors with Tyr Kinase Activity (3)
PI3
MAP --> Ras/Raf
IP3 --> Ca++
Signal Transduction Systems
Via G protein
cAMP
Signal Transduction Systems
Receptor w/o Tyr kinase activity
JAK/STAT
3 phases of response to partial hepatectomy
Priming
Proliferation
Growth Inhibiton
Priming: G0-G1 c-fos, c-jun, c-myc
Proliferation: G1-S Cyclin D-CDK4
Growth Inhibiton: TGF beta, activin others,
Most common enzmatic defect
Gauchers's (glucocerebrosides)
Most common receptor protein disorder:
Hypercholesterolemia
What chromosomes are associated with the following disorders:
Cystic Fibrosis
Marfan's
NF1
NF2
Prader Willi
DiGeorge
7
15
17
22
15
22q11.2
Most common cause of Down Syndrome
Non-disjunction during mitosis
(
results when the long arms of two acrocentric chromosomes fuse at the centromere and the two short arms are lost.
Roberstsonian Translocation
Child with Prader Willi, due to 2 possible causes regarding chromosome 15
Deletion of paternal or imprinting of maternal
Child with Angelman Syndrome, due to 2 possible causes regarding chromosome 15
Deletion of maternal or imprinting of paternal
5 chemical forces involved in drug-receptor interactions.
Covalent Bonds
Van der Waals-London Forces
Ionic Bonds
Hydrophobic Interactions
Hydrogen bonds
Covalent bonds in therapeutics
Not common
2 bonding atoms share electrons
Usually irreversible
Often toxic
Ionic bonds in therapeutics
More common than covalent bonds
Weaker than covalent bonds
(ex cationic head of acetylcholine to the anionic site of cholinesterase)
Characteristics in therapeutics
Ionic
More common than covalent bonds
Weaker than covalent
Opposite electrostatic charges
ex: cationic head of acetylchoiine to the anionic stie of the cholinesterase
Characteristics in therapeutics
Hydrogen Bonds
Individual bonds are weak but parallel arrays result in high energy of association
Characteristics in therapeutics
Hydrophobic
Impt in highly lipid soluble drugs and lipids in cell membranes and receptor pockets
Lack strxrl specificity
Characteristics in therapeutics
Van der Waals-London Forces
Very weak
Molecules which utilize weaker bonds will bind more selectively than those with stronger bonds
Bind reversibly
T or F
Competitive antagonists bind a different receptor than agonist.
False
They bind the same receptor
T or F
Re: Irreversible antagonist, it cannot be displaced by high conc of agonist
True
Competative or noncompetative
A non-receptor antagonist (acts at a site beyond receptor for agonist)
So, noncompetative.
Effects cannot be surmounted via large quantities of agonist.
Gs Go Gi or Gq
Activates Ca channels, activates adenylate cyclase
Gs
Gs Go Gi or Gq
Activates K channels, inhibits adenylate cyclase
Gi
Gs Go Gi or Gq
Inhibits Ca channels
Go
Gs Go Gi or Gq
Activates phospholipase C...DAG, IP3
Gq
Rapid desensitization following continued receptor stimulation. Is this reversible?
Tachyphylaxis
This is readily reversible.
What type of receptors are found in the SA node of the heart, the cardiac muscle, and adipose tissue?
Beta one
What type of receptors are found in the bronchial smooth muscle, the GI sm muscle, uterus, bladder, liver and pancreas.
Beta two
What type of receptors are found only in adipose tissue?
Beta three
What do Beta3 receptors do in the adipose tissue?
Increase Lipolysis
What do Beta 1 receptors do in the SA node of the heart, the cardiac muscle, and adipose tissue?
SA node of the heart=increase hrt rate
cardiac muscle=increase contractility
adipose tissue= Increase lipolysis
What do Beta2 receptors do in the bronchial smooth muscle, the GI sm muscle, uterus, bladder, liver and pancreas.
bronchial smooth muscle=dilates bronchioles
GI sm muscle=constricts sphincters and relaxes gut wall
uterus=relaxes uterine wall
bladder=relaxes bladder
liver=increase gluconeogenesis and glycolysis
pancreas=increase insuline release
In a log dose response curve, what is on the x and y axes?
X axis: dependent variable
Y axis: Indepndnt variable
Which is more impt, efficiency or potency?
Efficiency
A relationship btwn receptor occupancy and pharmacological response.
Efficacy
Term used to compare relative positions of dose response curves on horizontal axis.
Described in absolute dosage or in relative comparisons to other drugs in the same class.
Concentration at which drug will elicit 50% of its maximal response.
Potency
Used to describe relative maxima achieved by a drug.
Intrinsic activity
EC50
Concentration at which drug will elicit 50% of its maximal response.
The Kd corresponds to the ligand concentration at which __% of the receptors are bound.
50%
______ depends on the following two factors: affinity of receptors (Kd) for binding the drug, and efficacy with which D-R interaction is coupled to response
Potency
Aggregation of platelets to form a platelet plug at the site of endothelial injury is
mediated by which two substances released by platelets?
ADP and thromboxane A2
Type of embolism often caused by physical trauma?
Fat Embolism
An HIV-positive patient with AIDS is most likely to have which lab result?
Hypergammaglobulinemia
oncogenic viruses usually activate oncogenes by gene amplification, inactivation of
suppressor genes, or inducing translocations
viral carcinogenesis
Tumor Grading primarily refers to
differentiation of cells in the tumor
epidermal basement membrane contains what three components?
Type IV collage
Proteoglycans
Laminin
Interaction of epithelial cells and mesenchymal cells with extracellular matrix
proteins is mainly mediated by which class of membrane receptors?
Integrins
Within activated macrophages,interaction of nitric oxide and
superoxide anion
The destruction of infectious agents within a neutrophil’s phagocytic vacuole is
most effectively accomplished by halogenation, a process requiring which
enzyme?
myeloperoxidase
In equations:
E=
Emax=
EC50=
E=effect
Emax=efficacy
EC50=Potency
When is EC50<Kd
In the case of spare receptors
What does a steep dose effect curve imply?
There is a small difference between the dose which would be therapeutic vs the dose that causes negative outcome. It implies a safety concern.
Used to determine whether an antagonist interacts at a receptor in a competitive surmountable manner or in a competitive irreversible manner.
Log dose graded response curve
What effect will higher concentrations of both the competitive antagonist and the agonist have on a dose response curve?
It will shift the curve to the right w/o chg in slope or maximal intrinsic activity. A competitive antagonist reduces the potency of an agonits with out affecting the intrinsic activity of agonist (efficacy)
All or none response based on predetermined criteria. Plot of fraction of pop that responds to a given dose of a drug against the drug dose.
Log Quantal Dose Response
ED50=
TD50=
LD50=
ED50=50% have therapeutic response
TD50=50% have toxic response
LD50=50% have die
What is the equation to understand therapeutic index (TI)
A drug with a large therapeutic index will be ________ safe than a drug with a small therapeutic index.
LD50/ED50 or TD50/ED50
ie a less steep slope

A drug with a large therapeutic index will be more safe than a drug with a small therapeutic index.
Phase I versus Phase II
Phase I trials are the first stage of testing in human subjects. Normally, a small (20-80) group of healthy volunteers will be selected.
Phase II is when the ED50 in humans is determined, b4 marketing the new drug.
What is the most important and most common mechanism of drug permeation?
Passive Transfer(Simple diffusion)
only non-ionized, lipid soluble drugs are passively absorbed.
Membrane Transfer Mechanisms
Epi lining of body surfaces:
Most capillaries & glom of kidney:
Only small mw molecules <150

Permit passage of large mw molecules, 20,000 to 30,000, but larger molecules and protein bound drugs are not filtered.
Energy is required for active transport or facilitated diffusion?
What types of carriers exist for facilitated diffusion?
Active Transport

AA in BBB
Weak acids in prox convoluted tubule of kidney.
Glucose
Receptor mediated endocytosis
Pinocytosis
Intramuscular and subcutaneous have the same range of bioavailability. What is it?
75-100%
Bioavailability of IV, transdermal topical, Inhalation and oral
IV = 100%
Transdermal = 80-<100%
Inhalation = 5-<100%
Oral = 5-<100%
Rectal = 30-<100%
Most quick to most delayed methods of drug delivery
IV
Inhalation
Intrperitoneal
Subcutaneous
Intramuscular
Intradermal
Oral
Topical
Where is the likely site of absorption for acidic and basic drugs respectively?
Acidic: In the stomach
Basic: In the intestines
Range of pKa of acid to base compatible with rapid absorption
3 (acid) to 7.8 (base)
Enterohepatic circulation
the circulation of bile from the liver, where it is produced, to the small intestine, where it aids in digestion of fats and other substances, back to the liver
CYP3A4 a member of the cytochrome P450 mixed-function oxidase system, is one of the most important enzymes involved in the metabolism of xenobiotics in the body. What impact does grapefruit juice have?
Grapefruit juice inhibits the CYP3A4 isoform, drugs (such as felodipine) are not metabolized and therefore have a higher bioavailability.
Duration of action of a drug and MEC
Duration of action of a drug begins when plasma conc reaches minimal effective conc and ends when plasma conc drops below MEC
TIme course of drug action
Determined by its rate of absorption, its distribution in body compartments and its rate of elimination.
Iontophoresis
Electrophoration
Sonophoresis
Iontophoresis-low voltage pulses enhance transport of low MW molecules.
Electrophoration-high voltage pulses enhance transport of lrg chrged molecules by inducing temporary pores in membranes.
Sonophoresis-ultrasound enhances transport by temporarily forming air-filled cavitations in lipid bilayers of stratum corneum.
Steady State Conc -
Time to acheive it?
Rate of drug admin =
Plateau should fall in the therapeutic range
Normally acheived after 4-5 half lives
Rate of drug admin = rate of drug loss
Loading Dose = Vd X Css
Volume of distribution X desired steady state plasma conc
Dose maintenence =
Clearance X Desired steady state conc
The _____ for a drug is a common measure of the extent of availability. It reflects the absorption, dist, metab, and excretion of the drug.
AUC area under the curve
Drugs with quaternary ammonium (ex curare) are very _______ and not _____ ___________ and will be poorly absorbed across cell membrane.
Drugs with quaternary ammonium (ex curare) are very polar and not lipid soluble and will be poorly absorbed across cell membrane.
Weak acids are predominantly __________ at acid pH.
Weak bases are predominantly __________ at basic pH.
non ionized
non ionized
Weak acids tend to conc in regions of high pH, therefore, alkalinization of the urine increases the clearance of weak acids.
What is peritoneal dialysis?
An isotonic fluid is placed in the peritoneal cavity, then evacuated and replaced periodically.
Blood Brain Barrier characteristics
Only Lipid soluble can enter
TJx btwn endo cells
Fewer pinocytotic vessecles
Surrounded by pericytes and astroglial processes
More mito for transport energy
Produces 20-30% of the CSF volume
Adrenal medulla, type of receptor, releasing epi and norepi
Nicotinic
First order elimination - (most drugs) a consistent fraction of the drug is eliminated per time period. When is the graph curved? When is it straight?
First order is curved when plotted on rectilinear curve.
First order is straight when plotted on semilogarithmic Graph
Zero order elimination - zero change in amt of drug eliminated per unit time (fixed amt) When is the graph curved? When is it straight?
The graph is curved on a semiligarithmic and straight on a regular cartesian plot.
Vd (volume of distribution)
Amt of drug in body/conc of drug in plasma
A fictitious volume, allows one to get a rough indication into which body compartment a drug is distributed.
Volume of distribution
Plasma 4
EC volume 20
Total Body Water 60
Warfarin is 99% bound to plasma proteins at steady state. Therefore only 1% is free and can
only free drug can produce an effect

**Aspirin can displace warfarin from plasma proteins.
T 1/2 =
0.7 X Vd / CL

or

0.7 / Ke
CL =
0.7 X Vd / T 1/2 or

Rate of elimination / Drug plasma conc
Dosing rate =

Maintenance dose =

Loading dose =
CL X Target Conc

Dosing rate X Dosing interval

Vd X TC
Initial conc =

Steady State conc =
Loading dose / Vol of dist

(Frac abs X Maintenance dose) / (dosing interval X CL)
Muscarinic Receptors
M1
M2
M3
M1= cns & presynaptic autonomic ganglia
M2=Heart
M3=Sm muscle
Nicotinic Receptors
Nm
Nn
Nm=skeletal muscle
Nn= postganglionic autonomic neurons, adrenal chromaffin cells.
Alpha Adrenergic receptors
alpha1
alpha2
alpha1=postsyn effector cells, sm muscle
alpha2=presyn adrenergic nerve terminals, platelets, lipocytes
Beta Adrenergic receptors
Beta1
Beta2
Beta3
Beta1=heart
Beta2=postsyn vascular sm muscle
Beta3=lipocytes
Which receptor starts the PIP2 (DAG, IP3, Ca, PKC) cascade?
Alpha 1
Which receptor(s) start the cAMP cascade?
Beta 1&2
Humanized antibody against C5, a complement protein that mediates late steps in complement activation and assembly of the membrane attack complex, specifically against C5.
Eculizumab

(See 5 planes going to ecquador)
associated with c-myc gene translocation. The most common variant is t(8;14)(q24;q32)
8urkitt's 14ymphoma

(8,14)
Type I pneumocytes

Type II pneumocytes
Gas exchange

Production of surfactant
Lung tissue b4 and after chronic smoking.
Esophageal tissue b4 and after chronic gastric reflux.
Lung tissue will be columnar (to produce mucus) and will chg to squamous.
Esophageal tissue will be squamous and will chg to colomnar.
A disorganized mass of mature cells or tissue indigenous to the site.
Hamartoma
An ectopic rest of normal tissue. ie normal tissue in the wrong place.
Choristoma
Less than complete differentiation
Anaplasia
Characteristics of benign neoplasms (5)
Well differentiated
Slow Growing
Expansile masses pushing margins
Encapsulated
Remain Localized
Don't infiltrate or metastasize
When will you see an increased nuclear to cytoplasm ratio?
In malignant neoplasms

Invasion is the hallmark of malignancy. Most malignant cells are aneuploidy.
The cell prepares for mitosis during which phase?
G2
List the order of the cell cycle
G0
G1 S G2 M
Inhibitors of microtubule function affect cells in ___ phase
M
Glucocortoids inhibit cells in the __ phase
S
Antimetabolites, and folate pathway inhibitors inhibit cells in ___ phase
S
Anti-tumor antibiotics inhibit cells in
G2
Topoisomerase inhibitors inhibit cells in ___ and ___ phases
G2 and S
Alkylating and platinum complexes affect cell function in ____ phase(s)
all