Nycc Neuroscience Ii Midterm

Front 1

What is the origin of CN I?

Back 1

Olfactory mucosa of the upper portion of the nasal cavity

Front 2

What is the origin of CN II?

Back 2

Ganglion cells of the Retina

Front 3

What is the level of nuclei and origin of CN III?

Back 3

Midbrain at superior Colliculus (Oculomotor N.), Anterior Periaqueductal gray (Edinger-Westphal N.)

Front 4

What is the level of nuclei and origin of CN IV?

Back 4

Midbrain at inferior colliculus in the anterior Periaqueductal gray (Trochlear Nucleus)

Front 5

What are the levels of nuclei and the origins of CN V?

Back 5

Midpons; C5 (Nucleus of Spinal tract), Midpons (Chief Sensory Nucleus, Mesencephalic Nucleus, Motor Nucleus)

Front 6

What is the level of nuclei and origin of CN VI?

Back 6

Lower Pons at Facial Colliculus (Abducent nucleus)

Front 7

What is the level of nuclei and the origins of CN VII?

Back 7

Lower Pons at the level of the Facial Colliculus (Facial Nucleus, Nucleus of the Solitary Tract, Superior Salivatory Nucleus)

Front 8

What are the levels of nuclei and the origins of CN VIII?

Back 8

Vestibular Nuclei (Lateral aspect 4th ventricle), Cochlear Nuclei (Acoustic tubercle)

Front 9

What are the levels of nuclei and the origins of CN IX?

Back 9

Medulla (Nucleus of the Solitary Tract, Nucleus ambiguus), Pons (Inferior Salivatory Nucleus)

Front 10

What is the level of nuclei and the origins of CN X?

Back 10

Medulla (Dorsal motor nucleus, Nucleus Ambiguus, Nucleus of Solitary Tract, Nucleus of the Spinal tract of Trigeminal)

Front 11

What is the level of nuclei and origins of CN XI?

Back 11

Medulla and cervical segments (Nucleus Ambiguus and disperse cell bodies)

Front 12

What is the level of nuclei and the origin of CN XII?

Back 12

Medulla (Hypoglossal nucleus)

Front 13

The vestibulocochlear’s nuclei are found on the _______ of the _____ ventricle.

Back 13

floor, fourth

Front 14

Where do the vestibulocochlear and facial nerves exit?

Back 14

Cerebellopontine angle

Front 15

What are the functions of the CN VIII nerve?

Back 15

Balance & Equilibrium (connected to the position and movement of the head) and Auditory

Front 16

A lesion to the vestibular portion of CN VIII results in what?

Back 16

Vertigo and Nystagmus

Front 17

A lesion to the cochlear portion of CN VIII results in what?

Back 17

Deafness and Tinnitus

Front 18

What is nystagmus?

Back 18

Uncontrollable rhythmical oscillations of the eye

Front 19

What is tinnitus?

Back 19

Persistent buzzing/ringing sound

Front 20

Is the Facial, VII, nerve motor or sensory?

Back 20

Both motor and sensory

Front 21

What is the motor nucleus of the facial nerve and what does it control?

Back 21

Facial nucleus, Muscles of facial expression

Front 22

What is the taste and parasympathetic nucleus of the facial nerve and what does it deal with specifically?

Back 22

Solitary tract nucleus, Taste from anterior 2/3 of the tongue

Front 23

What is the parasympathetic nucleus of the facial nerve and what does it control?

Back 23

Superior salivatory nucleus, salivary glands

Front 24

What two cranial nerves control the tongue?

Back 24

IX and VII

Front 25

What is an upper motor neuron lesion of the facial nerve called and what does it effect?

Back 25

Supranuclear, Lower half of contralateral side of the face

Front 26

What is a LMN lesion of the facial nerve called and what does it effect?

Back 26

Infranuclear, Ipsilateral side of the face

Front 27

What is a LMN lesion of the facial nerve also known as?

Back 27

Bell’s palsy

Front 28

In the case of a facial nerve lesion, the affected area usually exhibits what?

Back 28

hyperacousis, unilateral facial paralysis with inability to wrinkle the forehead, raise the eyebrow, shut the eye, smile; tear flow over sagging lower eyelid, and loss of taste from the anterior 2/3 of the tongue

Front 29

What is a patient suspected of a facial nerve lesion asked to do?

Back 29

Smile while closing eyes tightly

Front 30

The trigeminal nerve is both a _____ & _____ type of nerve.

Back 30

motor & sensory

Front 31

What 6 muscles does the motor portion of the trigeminal nerve control?

Back 31

Muscles of mastication (Masseter, Temporalis, medial and lateral Pterygoid), the Mylohyoid, Anterior belly of the Digastric

Front 32

What trigeminal nucleus controls pain and temperature of the face and oral cavity?

Back 32

Nucleus of the spinal tract

Front 33

In the trigeminal nerve, what is in charge of proprioception?

Back 33

Mesencephalic nucleus

Front 34

In nerve V, what controls touch?

Back 34

Chief sensory nucleus

Front 35

What may occur if the Trigeminal nerve has a lesion?

Back 35

Trigeminal neuralgia (tic douloureux), facial anesthesia or numbness, inability or difficulty to bite down

Front 36

What is the presentation of sudden unilateral severe sharp stabbing pain along the distribution of the nerve called?

Back 36

Tic douloureux (Trigeminal neuralgia)

Front 37

Is the Abducent ( CN # ____ ) a motor or sensory nerve?

Back 37

VI, motor

Front 38

Where is the nucleus and exit of the abducent?

Back 38

Pons (abducent nucleus), Pontomedullary junction between basilar pons and pyramid

Front 39

What is the function of the Abducent? Ipsilateral or contralateral control?

Back 39

Innervate lateral rectus muscle of the eyeball, Ipsilateral

Front 40

What is the failure to move eyes laterally?

Back 40

Medial strabismus

Front 41

What cranial nerves are associated with the midbrain?

Back 41

Oculomotor III, and Trochlear IV

Front 42

What raises the superior eyelid?

Back 42

Levator palpebrae superioris

Front 43

What nerve innervates the superior oblique?

Back 43

SO4, Trochlear Nerve IV

Front 44

What nerve innervates the Lateral recti muscle?

Back 44

LR6, Abducens Nerve VI

Front 45

What nerve innervates most eye muscles?

Back 45

Oculomotor Nerve III

Front 46

The Oculomotor has 2 nuclei at the level of the __________ in the ___________.

Back 46

Superior Colliculus, Periaqueductal gray

Front 47

What nucleus of the oculomotor innervates the ciliaris and sphincter papillae?

Back 47

Edinger-Westphal nucleus (parasympathetic)

Front 48

What occurs when light is shown on the eye pupil causing contraction?

Back 48

Pupillary light reflex

Front 49

What is the only cranial nerve to exit dorsally?

Back 49

Trochlear

Front 50

What is the focusing thickening adjustment of the ciliaris called?

Back 50

Accomodation reflex

Front 51

What is diplopia?

Back 51

Double vision

Front 52

Why does diplopia occur?

Back 52

Loss of conjugate movement

Front 53

What is mydriasis?

Back 53

Dilated pupil

Front 54

What causes mydriasis?

Back 54

Paralysis of sphincter pupillae and unopposed dilation action by sympathetic

Front 55

What is cycloplegia and what do you lose with it?

Back 55

Paralysis of the ciliaris, loss of accommodation reflex

Front 56

The nucleus of the Trochlear nerve lies in the __________ at the level of the _________.

Back 56

Periaqueductal gray at the level of the inferior colliculus

Front 57

What presents when the oculomotor nerve is lesioned?

Back 57

diplopia, ptosis, lateral strabismus, mydriasis, cycloplegia

Front 58

What occurs when the Trochlear nerve is lesioned?

Back 58

Weakness of downward gaze and diplopia when looking downward and inward, head tilt towards the opposite side

Front 59

Where does the Trochlear nerve decussate?

Back 59

Superior medullary velum

Front 60

The nucleus of the Abducent nerve is in the ________ beneath the _______________.

Back 60

pons, facial colliculus

Front 61

A lesion of the Abducent (CN #___) results in _____ and ______.

Back 61

VI, medial strabismus, diplopia

Front 62

What occurs in the first week of development?

Back 62

Fertilization of egg by sperm, cleavage (series of miotic cell divisions), Implantation

Front 63

What occurs in the second week of development?

Back 63

Reorganization of the blastocyst into a bilaminar embryonic germ disk

Front 64

What three things occur in the third week?

Back 64

Gastrulation, notochord & prechordal plate formation, neurulation

Front 65

During gastrulation, the ________ develops in the _________.

Back 65

Primitive groove, epiblast

Front 66

The primitive groove becomes the ______ and develops caudally displacing the _________.

Back 66

Primitive streak, primitive hypoblast

Front 67

Gastrulation results in the trilaminar disk, the components of which are ____, ____, and ____.

Back 67

Endoderm, Ectoderm, and Hypoblast

Front 68

The remaining epiblast from gastrulation is the _______.

Back 68

Ectoderm

Front 69

The ______ condenses along the primitive streak forming the ______ and the _______.

Back 69

Mesoderm, Notochordal process and prechordal plate

Front 70

As the notochordal process becomes the notochord, it stimulates what tissue change?

Back 70

Overlaying ectoderm into neural tissue

Front 71

The neural plate is derived from the _________.

Back 71

Ectoderm

Front 72

The notochord is derived from the _________.

Back 72

Mesoderm

Front 73

The notochord and the prechordal plate approximate to form what over the notochord?

Back 73

Neural plate

Front 74

What is neurulation?

Back 74

Formation of the neural plate, neural tube, and neural crest cells

Front 75

The neural plate gives rise to the _________.

Back 75

CNS

Front 76

The neural crest cells gives rise to __________.

Back 76

Parts of the PNS and other structures

Front 77

Persistence of mesenchyme formation from the primitive streak results in __________.

Back 77

Sacrococcygeal teratoma

Front 78

The neural plate invaginates and closes forming what?

Back 78

Neural tube

Front 79

The neural tube caudal to the ________ of somites form the spinal cord; it has ____ walls and a ____ tube.

Back 79

4th pair, thick wall & small tube

Front 80

What part of the neural tube forms the brain?

Back 80

the part cranial to the 4th pair of somites

Front 81

What forms the ventricular system?

Back 81

Neural canal cranial to the 4th pair of somites

Front 82

During neurulation, where do the neural crest cells form and where do they end up?

Back 82

Edge/Hinge Point, under surface ectoderm

Front 83

What 6 trunk structures are derived from the neural crest?

Back 83

Dorsal root ganglion, Sympathetic chain ganglion, Parasympthetic chain ganglion, Schwann cells, Melanocytes, Adrenal medulla

Front 84

Neural tube cells form ______ cells, which in turn separate the neural tube into 3 stratified layers.

Back 84

Neuroepithelial

Front 85

What are the three layers of the neural tube and the cells found in each?

Back 85

Ventricular (Glial progenitor cells: oligodentries, astrocytes, ependymal cells, Neuroblasts), Mantle (Gray of the CNS from Neuroblasts), Marginal (White of the CNS from Axons)

Front 86

Which neural tube plate produces the dorsal horn? The ventral horn? What separates them?

Back 86

Alar plate, Basal plate, Sulcus limitans

Front 87

During the 4th week, the DRG forms from the ____, eventually resulting in what key structures?

Back 87

Neural Crest Cells, the Spinal nerves

Front 88

For pathway formation, the medial branches from the DRG may synapse with ______ cells and ______ cells, and may ascend forming ______.

Back 88

intermediolateral column, ventral horn, funiculi

Front 89

What does the failure of the neural folds to fully differentiate result in?

Back 89

Craniorachischisis totalis

Front 90

What are the 3 primary vesicles?

Back 90

Prosencephalon, Mesencephalon, Rhombencephalon

Front 91

The forebrain becomes what 2° structures? What does each structure ultimately become?

Back 91

Telecephalon (Cerebrum), Diencephalon (Thalami)

Front 92

The midbrain becomes what 2° structures? What does each structure ultimately become?

Back 92

Mesencephalon (Midbrain)

Front 93

The hindbrain becomes what 2° structures? What does each structure ultimately become?

Back 93

Metencephalon (Pons and Cerebellum), Myelencephalon (Medulla and Spinal cord)

Front 94

Failure to close what at 26 days may result in spina bifida?

Back 94

Caudal neuropore

Front 95

Failure to close what at 24 days may result in anencephaly?

Back 95

Cranial neuropore

Front 96

What vessel network is found in the mature ventricular system? What is it made of?

Back 96

Choroid plexus of the ventricles, Pia mater

Front 97

Choroid plexus helps in the production of what?

Back 97

Cerebrospinal fluid

Front 98

The __________ and _________ from Neural crest cells form the choroid plexus; together they are known as _________.

Back 98

Ependymal layer of the neural tube, Pia mater, Tela choroidea

Front 99

What is hydrocephalus?

Back 99

Blockage of Cerebrospinal fluid resulting in intracranial pressure and abnormal growth

Front 100

What is obstructive hydrocephalus?

Back 100

Narrowed ventricular spaces with enlarged ventricles upstream of the blockage

Front 101

What is Aqueductal stenosis?

Back 101

The condition where a tumor of the Midbrain or debris from hemorrhage compress the Cerebral aqueduct

Front 102

What marks the cranial end of the neural tube?

Back 102

Lamina Terminalis

Front 103

The _______ is associated with the deep tendon reflex to prevent ______ injury.

Back 103

muscle spindle, muscle

Front 104

The _______ is associated with the tension of muscle to prevent ______ injury.

Back 104

golgi tendon organ, tendon

Front 105

Where and what is the golgi tendon organ?

Back 105

Located between the muscle and tendon, Encapsulated Ib proprioceptors

Front 106

What synapses with the Ib interneuron?

Back 106

Ib fibers from the Golgi tendon organ, Cutaneous receptors, Joint receptors

Front 107

What does the inhibitory Ib interneuron do?

Back 107

Inhibits the Alpha motor neuron pool of Agonists

Front 108

What is the flexion and crossed extension reflex?

Back 108

Aδ nociceptors cause the flexion (withdrawal) of injured limb while extending the contralateral limb

Front 109

The nucleus gracilis and cuneatus give rise to _____ fibers, decussate to form the _____, and end up as the ______.

Back 109

Internal arcuate, Medial lemniscus, Ventral posterior lateral thalamic nucleus

Front 110

From the ventral posterior lateral thalamic nucleus the fibers move cranially to where?

Back 110

Through the internal capsule to the somatosensory cortex (Brodmann's areas 1,2,3)

Front 111

How is the deep sensibility tract examined?

Back 111

Romberg’s test, Dermatomes with tuning forks, Upper extremity position sense

Front 112

Where does proprioception come from and through what pathways?

Back 112

Lower extremity (Spinocerebellar tract), Upper extremity (Fasciculus Cuneatus)

Front 113

What 3 tracts are involved in pain & temperature regulation? What are they collectively known as?

Back 113

Spinothalamic, Spinoreticular, Spinomesencephalic; Anterolateral system

Front 114

Describe the pathway of the Spinothalamic tract all the way to the Somatosensory cortex.

Back 114

Spinothalamic tract -> Ventral white commissure -> Ventral posterior lateral thalamic nucleus -> Internal capsule -> Somatosensory cortex (Brodmann's areas 3,1,2)

Front 115

How is the pain and temperature tract examined?

Back 115

Pinwheel over dermatomes

Front 116

What are the 6 structures of the Basal ganglia?

Back 116

Lentiform nucleus (Putamen, Globus Pallidus I & II), Caudate nucleus, Subthalamic nucleus, Substantia Nigra

Front 117

Where is the head of the Caudate nucleus located?

Back 117

Lateral wall of the Anterior horn of the Lateral ventricle

Front 118

Where is the tail of the Caudate nucleus located?

Back 118

Roof of the Inferior horn of the Lateral ventricle ending inferiorly in the Amygdala

Front 119

What are the individual entities of the Substantia Nigra, and what does each secrete?

Back 119

Pars compacta (dopamine), Pars reticulata (GABA)

Front 120

What makes up the Corpus striatum?

Back 120

the Caudate nucleus and the Lentiform nucleus

Front 121

What is comprised of the head of the Caudate nucleus and the Putamen?

Back 121

Neostriatum or Striatum

Front 122

In the basal ganglia cortex excitatory/inhibitory pathways, the cortex secretes _____ from area ___.

Back 122

Glutamate, Area 4

Front 123

What area of the cortex is excited/inhibited by the thalamus?

Back 123

Area 6

Front 124

What are the nuclei of the thalamus stimulated by Globus pallidus I & II?

Back 124

Ventral Anterior & Ventral Lateral
Thalamic nuclei

Front 125

Excitation of Area 6 and the Supplementary cortex results in what?

Back 125

Excitation of motor nucleus and initiation of movement

Front 126

What are the hypokinetic disorders?

Back 126

Akinesia (inability to intiate movements), Bradykinesia (slowness & shuffling of movement)

Front 127

The largest group of hyperkinetic disorders are dyskinesias, name the subtypes of dyskinesia.

Back 127

Chorea, Ballismus, Athetosis, Dystonia

Front 128

What may be the cause of Parkinson’s disease?

Back 128

Depletion of dopaminergic cells in the Substantia nigra

Front 129

What are possible treatments of Parkinson’s?

Back 129

L-Dopa, Embryonic dopamine cells, Pallidotomy (VA & VL Nuclei Cauterization/Ablation by pacemaker)

Front 130

What are the symptoms of Parkinsons?

Back 130

Akinesia, Bradykinesia, Resting tremor, cogwheel rigidity, flexed posture, masked expression, shuffling

Front 131

What is Huntington’s disease?

Back 131

Autosomal dominant disease, onset at 40s-50s, slow degeneration of neurons in Striatum

Front 132

How soon after onset do patients normally die from Huntington’s Disease?

Back 132

15-20 years (also high suicide rate)

Front 133

What are the symptoms of Huntington’s Disease?

Back 133

Chorea, Dementia, Behavioral or psychiatric disturbances

Front 134

What is chorea?

Back 134

Involuntary twitching of the extremities and face that progressively worsens & expands

Front 135

What is Sydenham’s Chorea?

Back 135

Transient childhood Chorea associated with Rheumatic fever and affects the Striatum

Front 136

What causes Athetosis? What is it?

Back 136

Degeneration of Globus pallidus, results in writhing movements of distal extremities

Front 137

What is Ballism?

Back 137

Lesion of Subthalamic nucleus, Contralateral involuntary movements of proximal extremities & trunk

Front 138

What is Wilson’s Disease?

Back 138

Can’t Metabolize Cu; Cu accumulates in liver and becomes toxic to liver & basal ganglia

Front 139

What are some symptoms of Wilson’s Disease?

Back 139

Liver cirrhosis, Kayser-Fleischer ring (Cu ring around iris)

Front 140

What is an injury of the Lentiform nucleus resulting in co-contractions of flexors and extensors called?

Back 140

Dystonia Musculorum Deformans

Front 141

What is Torticollis?

Back 141

a Focal dystonia; constant spasms of Sternocleidomastoid & Trapezius muscles

Front 142

What is an upper eyelid focal dystonia (twitch) called?

Back 142

Blepharospasm

Front 143

What can be seen in a brain horizontal scan in a patient with Wilson’s Disease?

Back 143

No Caudate nucleus, reduced Putamen

Front 144

What are the Cortical association areas?

Back 144

Anterior Frontal lobe, Posterior parietal lobe

Front 145

What do the Cortical association areas and Basal ganglia do?

Back 145

Motor and sensory environmental awareness of self

Front 146

What area is the target of the Thalamus in the direct/indirect pathways?

Back 146

Area 6 (Premotor & Supplementary motor cortex)

Front 147

What is the Primary motor cortex?

Back 147

Area 4 in the Precentral gyrus

Front 148

What is the function of the Cerebellum and Motor cortex in motor control?

Back 148

Planning the sequence and timing of muscle contraction & Relaxation of muscle for smooth motion

Front 149

What Brodmann's areas are located in the Postcentral gyrus?

Back 149

3,1,2

Front 150

What are the two descending pathways for the execution of movement?

Back 150

Lateral pathway and Ventromedial pathway

Front 151

Where is the lateral pathway located and what tracts are included in it?

Back 151

Lateral Funiculus, Lateral Corticospinal Tract, Rubrospinal Tract

Front 152

The lateral pathway influences motor neurons that innervate ___________________.

Back 152

Distal muscles of limbs

Front 153

The medial pathway influences motor neurons that innervate ___________________.

Back 153

Axial and proximal limb muscles

Front 154

Why do we mainly see lower face pathologies?

Back 154

The Corticobulbar tract for LMNs of the brainstem innervetes bilaterally, ensuring correct function

Front 155

UMN lateral Corticospinal tract goes from the motor cortex to the distal flexors. Map it.

Back 155

Corona radiata -> Posterior limb of Internal capsule -> Crus cerebri -> Basilar pons -> Pyramid -> Pyrimidal decussation

Front 156

The Rubrospinal tract begins with the ____ nucleus, crosses in the pons and innervates the ______.

Back 156

Red, Distal flexor muscles

Front 157

What are the symptoms of lateral pathway injury?

Back 157

Paresis/paralysis, Spasticity, Hyperreflexia, Clasp knife rigidity, Babinski sign, no superficial reflex

Front 158

What tract tends to overtake most of the Rubrospinal tract function?

Back 158

Corticospinal

Front 159

The Pontine Reticulospinal tract begins in the ____ and ends in the _____________.

Back 159

Reticular formation in Pons, bilateral ventral horns

Front 160

What does the Pontine Reticulospinal tract innervate?

Back 160

Antigravity muscles; extensors of the lower limbs

Front 161

Where does the medullary Reticulospinal tract begin and end?

Back 161

Reticular formation of medulla -> bilateral ventral horns

Front 162

What is the purpose of the Medullary Reticulospinal tract?

Back 162

Inhibit antigravity muscles

Front 163

Where does the Vestibulospinal tract begin and end?

Back 163

Vestibular nuclei -> Bilateral ventral horns

Front 164

What is the purpose of the Vestibulospinal tract?

Back 164

Controls head and back muscles based on directional information it receives from the vestibular apparatus in the inner ear, facilitates upper and lower limb extensors.

Front 165

What is the path of the Tectospinal tract?

Back 165

Superior colliculus X in medulla -> Ventral horn

Front 166

What is the purpose of the vestibulospinal tract?

Back 166

Facilitates orientation of the head and eyes to the stimulus.

Front 167

What tracts would be lost with a lesion to the Vestibular nuclei?

Back 167

Corticospinal and Rubrospinal

Front 168

What is Decerebrate rigidity?

Back 168

Tonic extension (extreme)

Front 169

What is Decorticate rigidity?

Back 169

Tonic extension of legs with flexion of the arms

Front 170

What tracts tend to cancel each other out therefore they cannot prevent the rigidities?

Back 170

Pontine & Medullary Reticulospinal

Front 171

Why is there no tonic extension in the arms with Decorticate rigidity?

Back 171

Red nucleus projections can counteract the vestibular extension function of the arms

Front 172

In the ventral horn, extensors tend to be ______ placed, and distal muscles ______ placed.

Back 172

ventrally, laterally

Front 173

Extrafusal muscles (power generating) are innervated by __________ neurons.

Back 173

ά-motor

Front 174

What are Intrafusal muscles and what are they innervated by?

Back 174

Muscle fibers within muscle spindles, γ-motor neurons

Front 175

What is a muscle fasciculation?

Back 175

Visible muscle twitching from contraction of an entire motor unit (motor unit disease)

Front 176

What is a muscle fibrillation?

Back 176

Spontaneous activity of a single muscle fiber (muscle denervation/myopathy)

Front 177

What is a muscle spindle comprised of?

Back 177

Intrafusal muscle, sensory axons (afferents), and motor axons

Front 178

What is the purpose of the γ innervated Intrafusal muscle?

Back 178

Muscle Spindle sensitivity

Front 179

The proprioceptors of the muscle spindle send info to the ___ & ___.

Back 179

Fasciculus Cuneatus, Fasciculus Gracilis

Front 180

What 2 types of fibers in the muscle spindle detect muscle stretch?

Back 180

Ia & II

Front 181

What is a dynamic intrafusal fiber?

Back 181

Sensitive to rate of change (fire during input), Ia

Front 182

What is a static Intrafusal fiber?

Back 182

Slowly adapting stretch receptors (fire at start and end), Ia & II

Front 183

The dynamic & static Intrafusal fibers are subtypes of what group?

Back 183

Nuclear bag fibers

Front 184

Describe the stretch reflex.

Back 184

Monosynaptic connection between the central axon of the Ia fiber and the alpha motor neuron, causing muscle contraction in response to stretch.

Front 185

The Ia inhibitory Interneuron inhibits the ____________.

Back 185

Antagonist muscle

Front 186

What prevents the over-excitation of muscles around a joint?

Back 186

Reccurrent Renshaw cell inhibition

Front 187

Specifically, what 2 things does the Renshaw inhibitory cell do?

Back 187

Excites the antagonist, Inhibits the agonist

Front 188

What structures are found in the Limbic lobe?

Back 188

Septal area, Cingulate gyrus, Parahippocampal gyrus, Hippocampus, Amygdala, Uncus

Front 189

In addition to the Limbic lobe, what structures are found in the Limbic system?

Back 189

Hypothalamus, Epithalamus, Thalamus, Brainstem Reticular formation, Olfactory cortex, Prefrontal cortex

Front 190

What are the components of the Hippocampal formation?

Back 190

Part of the Parahippocampal gyrus, Hippocampus, Dentate gyrus, Subiculum

Front 191

What is the function of the Hippocampus?

Back 191

Map of spatial memory, learning, passage of short term to long term explicit memory

Front 192

What is the order of projection (efferent route) of the Hippocampal formation?

Back 192

Hippocampus -> Fornix -> Mamillary Bodies -> Anterior Nucleus of Thalamus -> Cingulate Gyrus

Front 193

Afferents enter the Hippocampal formation from what 8 sources?

Back 193

Entorhinal area of the Parahippocampal gyrus, Contralateral Hippocampus via the Hippocampal Commissure, Amygdala, Thalamus, Locus coeruleus, Raphe nuclei, Ventral Tegmental area

Front 194

The afferents from the Hippocampal commissure come from what place?

Back 194

Contralateral Hippocampus

Front 195

The Entorhinal area of the Parahippocampal gyrus is part of what cortex?

Back 195

Primary Olfactory Cortex

Front 196

A lesion to the Hippocampal formation would result in defects in what 2 things?

Back 196

Explicit memory and Spatial orientation

Front 197

Where are the cell bodies of the Hippocampus found?

Back 197

Fornix

Front 198

What are the subtypes of Explicit memory? Define them. What is Explicit memory also known as?

Back 198

Episodic(Events)/Semantic(Facts) : Declarative Memory

Front 199

Where is Explicit memory found (aside of Hippocampal formation)?

Back 199

Medial Temporal lobe

Front 200

What are the 4 types of Implicit memory?

Back 200

Priming, Procedural, Emotional, Musculoskeletal responses to associative learning

Front 201

All sensory information hits the ________ before it goes to its proper cortex.

Back 201

Amygdala

Front 202

Priming occurs in the _______, and procedural memory in the __________.

Back 202

Neocortex, Striatum

Front 203

Where do emotional responses to associative learning occur? Musculoskeletal responses?

Back 203

Amygdala, Cerebellum

Front 204

Efferents from the Amygdala travel via the _________ to _____, _____, _____, and _____.

Back 204

Stria Terminalis, Septal nuclei, Hypothalamus, Brainstem, Cortex

Front 205

What type of information converges upon the Amygdala?

Back 205

Autonomic, Sensory, Auditory, and Visual information

Front 206

What is the function of the Amygdala?

Back 206

Affective perception of sensory stimuli

Front 207

Overstimulation of the Limbic system may result in what?

Back 207

Intense feeling of fear, possibly Olfactory hallucination

Front 208

What are the 5 Limbic system syndromes/diseases?

Back 208

Kluver Bucy Syndrome, Korsakoff’s Syndrome, Temporal lobe epilepsy, Schizophrenia, Alzheimer's

Front 209

What is the lesion of Kluver Bucy Syndrome?

Back 209

Bilateral complete lesion of Amygdala and Hippocampal formation

Front 210

What are the signs of Kluver Bucy Syndrome?

Back 210

Visual Agnosia, Hyperorality, Hypersexuality, Docility, Apathy, Bulima, Memory deficit

Front 211

Senile plaques containing an ____ protein are found in the _____ and ____ cortices of Alzheimer’s patients.

Back 211

Amyloid, Temporal Frontal, Parietal

Front 212

What are the 7 symptoms of Temporal lobe epilepsy?

Back 212

Olfactory/Visual/Auditory Hallucinations, Lip smacking, Motor acts, Temporal amnesia, Aggressiveness

Front 213

What is the function of the Septal area? What does stimulation result in?

Back 213

Emotional behavior; Transient rage, Increased water consumption, Reward reaction

Front 214

What does the reticular formation control and a lesion of it may cause what?

Back 214

ANS, somatic and visceral sensation, muscles; coma

Front 215

A lesion to the Corticospinal tract of the Pons results in what?

Back 215

Contralateral hemiparesis of trunk and extremities

Front 216

A lesion to the medial Lemniscus of the Pons results in what?

Back 216

Loss of vibration sensation & discriminatory tactile sensation, and contralateral loss of Propriception

Front 217

A lesion to the Corticobulbar tract or nucleus of the Pons results in what?

Back 217

Contralateral weakness of the lower face

Front 218

What is the only sense, special or general, that reaches the cortex directly; not via the thalamus.

Back 218

Olfaction

Front 219

What 4 cranial nerves enter or exit the superior orbital fissure?

Back 219

CN III, CN IV, CN V1 (Lacrimal), CN VI

Front 220

Where does cranial nerve II (Optic) exit the skull?

Back 220

the Optic canal

Front 221

Where does cranial nerve III (Oculomotor) exit the midbrain?

Back 221

the Interpeduncular fossa

Front 222

Where does cranial nerve IV (Trochlear) exit the midbrain?

Back 222

Inferior to the inferior Colliculi

Front 223

Where does cranial nerve VI (Abducent) exit the brainstem?

Back 223

The pontomedullary junction between the basilar pons and the pyramid

Front 224

Where does cranial nerve V (Trigeminal) exit the brainstem?

Back 224

Midpons

Front 225

Where does cranial nerve V2 (Maxillary) enter and exit the skull?

Back 225

Foramen Rotundum -> Pterygopalatine fossa, Inferior orbital foramen

Front 226

Where does cranial nerve V3 (Mandibular) exit and reenter the skull?

Back 226

Foramen Ovale, Foramen Spinosum

Front 227

Where does cranial nerve VII (Facial) exit the brainstem?

Back 227

Cerebellopontine angle

Front 228

Where does cranial nerve VII (Facial) enter and exit the skull?

Back 228

Internal acoustic meatus, Stylomastoid foramen

Front 229

What passageway does cranial nerve VIII (Vestibulocochlear) travel through on its way to the inner ear?

Back 229

Internal acoustic meatus

Front 230

Where does cranial nerve VIII (Vestibulocochlear) exit the brainstem?

Back 230

Cerebellopontine angle

Front 231

Where does cranial nerve IX (Glossopharyngeal) exit the brainstem?

Back 231

Post-olivary sulcus (Medulla)

Front 232

Where does cranial nerve X (Vagus) exit the brainstem?

Back 232

Post-olivary sulcus

Front 233

Where does cranial nerve XI (Accessory) exit the brainstem?

Back 233

Post-olivary sulcus

Front 234

Where does cranial nerve XII (Hypoglossal) exit the brainstem?

Back 234

Pre-olivary sulcus

Front 235

What 3 cranial nerves exit the skull via the Jugular foramen?

Back 235

IX, X, XI

Front 236

Where does cranial nerve XII (Hypoglossal) exit the skull?

Back 236

Hypoglossal canal

Front 237

Why are Supranuclear (UMN) symptoms of cranial nerves rare (except for VII)?

Back 237

the Corticobulbar tract innervates most of them bilaterally

Front 238

What system is cranial nerve I (Olfactory) a part of?

Back 238

Limbic

Front 239

What is the condition where the first state is normal velocity but lowered amplitude of action potentials?

Back 239

Peripheral Neuropathy

Front 240

_______ system saliva is produced while eating, ______ system saliva is produced at other times.

Back 240

Parasympathetic, Sympathetic

Front 241

What is the condition where the first state is normal amplitude but lowered velocity of action potentials? Why does this occur?

Back 241

Diabetic Neuropathy, Less Myelin

Front 242

The 3 main fiber types in the cortex are horizontal ______ fibers, vertical ______ fibers, and horizontal ______ fibers.

Back 242

Commissural, Projection, Association

Front 243

What neurotransmitter which synapses with interneurons do the Caudate & Putamen (Striatum) secrete?

Back 243

Acetylcholine (Ach)

Front 244

What neurotransmitter do the Caudate & Putamen (Striatum) mainly secrete? Where can it synapse? What response does it have?

Back 244

GABA; Globus Pallidus I & II, Substantia Nigra (Pars Reticulata & Pars Compacta); Inhibitory

Front 245

What neurotransmitter do the Ventral Lateral Thalamic Nuclei secrete? Where can it synapse? What response does it have?

Back 245

Glutamate (Glu); Motor Cortex; Excitatory

Front 246

What neurotransmitter does Globus Pallidus I & II secrete? Where can it synapse? What response does it have?

Back 246

GABA; Subthalamic Nucleus, Ventral Anterior and Ventral Lateral Thalamic Nuclei; Inhibitory

Front 247

What neurotransmitter does the Motor Cortex secrete? Where can it synapse? What response does it have?

Back 247

Glutamate (Glu); Caudate & Putamen (Striatum); Excitatory

Front 248

What neurotransmitter does the Substantia Nigra secrete and project to the Caudate & Putamen (Striatum)? What effects can it have?

Back 248

Dopamine, Excitatory or Inhibatory

Front 249

What neurotransmitter does the Subthalamic Nucleus secrete? Where can it synapse? What effect does it have?

Back 249

Glutamate (Glu); Globus Pallidus I; Excitatory

Front 250

Lesion of the MLF usually from Multiple Sclerosis in ____ patients or Stroke in ____ patients affects CN ___ and the contralateral CN ___ resulting in _______.

Back 250

Young, Old, VI, III, Internuclear Opthalmoplegia

Front 251

Internuclear Opthalmoplegia presents with _________.

Back 251

Inability to carry out synchronous horizontal gaze

Front 252

The direct pathway of basal ganglia stimulation is how we ____ movement.

Back 252

Start (Initiate)

Front 253

The indirect pathway of basal ganglia stimulation is how we ____ movement.

Back 253

Stop (Pause)

Front 254

In the ____ pathway of the basal ganglia, the Substantia Nigra (Pars ____) --DA--> Striatum --GABA--| GP___ --xGABAx-- (+) VA/VL Th. n. --glu--> Motor Cortex [ ____ movement] --glu--> Striatum [Total: ++]

Back 254

Direct, Reticulata, I, Initiates

Front 255

In the ____ pathway of the basal ganglia, the Substantia Nigra (Pars ____) --DA--| Striatum --GABA--| GP___ --xGABAx-- (+) Subthalamic n. --glu--> GP ___ --GABA--| VA/VL Th. n. --xglux-- (-) Motor Cortex [ ____ movement] --glu--> (++) Striatum [Total: +]

Back 255

Indirect, Compacta, II, I, Pauses

Front 256

Decorticate Rigidity (F↑,E↓) results from a lesion of the _____ tract.

Back 256

Corticospinal

Front 257

Decerebrate Rigidity (E↑&↓) results from a lesion of the ______ tracts?

Back 257

Corticospinal, Rubrospinal

Front 258

In both Decorticate and Decerebrate Rigidity, the _____ tract remains intact.

Back 258

Vestibulospinal

Front 259

Processes from the olfactory cells of the olfactory mucosa transverse the _____ plate to synapse with the olfactory ____, which forms the medial and lateral olfactory ____.

Back 259

Cribriform, Bulb, Striae

Front 260

The medial olfactory stria projects to the ______ commissure and then to the contralateral olfactory ____.

Back 260

Anterior, Bulb

Front 261

The anterior portion of the Parahippocampal gyrus includes the ______ cortex, parts of the _____, and part of the ______ cortex.

Back 261

Piriform, Amygdala, Entorhinal

Front 262

The lateral olfactory stria projects to the ______ olfactory ______, which is the anterior portion of the ________.

Back 262

Primary, Cortex, Parahippocampal gyrus

Front 263

Lesion of CN I results in ______, Lesion of CN II results in ______.

Back 263

Anosmia (Loss of smell), Anopsia (Loss of sight)

Front 264

Light from the right visual field will stimulate the ___ side of the retinas of both eyes, which will project fibers to the ___ visual cortex.

Back 264

Left, Left

Front 265

Light from the left visual field will cross the optic chiasm when entering which eye?

Back 265

Right

Front 266

The Superior Brachium sends light ____ information to the _____ Colliculus.

Back 266

Reflex, Superior

Front 267

The optic tract fibers synapse in the ____ Geniculate body and ____ Brachium.

Back 267

Lateral, Superior

Front 268

The lateral Geniculate body contains the ____ ____ nucleus which projects fibers to form the _____ _____ which synapses with the _____ gyrus.

Back 268

Lateral Geniculate, Optic Radiation, Lingual

Front 269

The Primary Visual Cortex is comprised of the ______ and ______ gyrus.

Back 269

Cuneus, Lingual

Front 270

The CN III parasympathetic fibers synapse with the _____ ganglion.

Back 270

Ciliary

Front 271

Postganglionic parasympathetic fibers ride in the ____ ____ nerves to the ____ pupillae and ____ muscles.

Back 271

Short Ciliary, Sphincter, Ciliaris

Front 272

Postganglionic sympathetic fibers from the Internal ____ plexus (from the ____ ____ ganglia) use the ____ ____ nerves to the ____ ____.

Back 272

Carotid, Cervical Sympathetic, Short Ciliary, Dilator Pupillae

Front 273

A lesion of cranial nerve X (Vagus) results in what?

Back 273

Dysphonia, Dysphagia, Loss of gag reflex (but can feel <- CN IX), Uvular deviation to the strong side.

Front 274

A lesion of cranial nerve XII (Hypoglossal) results in what?

Back 274

Ipsilateral tongue paralysis and atrophy, tongue may deviate towards the weak side

Front 275

What 8 areas does the cranial nerve V (Trigeminal) innervate with sensory fibers?

Back 275

Face, Scalp, Teeth, Most of the Tongue, Mucosa (Oral & Nasal), Dura Mater, Cerebral Blood Vessels

Front 276

CN V3 (Mandibular) exits the skull via ____. CN V2 (Maxillary) exits the skull via ____. CN V1 (Opthalmic) exits the skull via the ____.

Back 276

Foramen Ovale, Foramen Rotundum, Superior Orbital Fissure

Front 277

What are the 3 peripheral branches of the cranial nerve V (Trigeminal) and what signals do they convey?

Back 277

V1 (Opthalmic): Sensory, V2 (Maxillary): Sensory, V3(Mandibular): Sensory & Motor

Front 278

What are the 5 peripheral branches of cranial nerve VII (Facial)?

Back 278

Temporal, Zygomatic, Buccal, Marginal Mandibular, Cervical

Front 279

Excluding proprioception, sensory fibers coming in from all three CN V divisions are _____ cells whose cell bodies are in the _____ ( _____ ganglion).

Back 279

Pseudounipolar, Trigeminal, Semilunar

Front 280

After CN V2 (Maxillary) enters the pterygopalatine fossa it receives ____ ____ fibers from the ____ ganglion also known as the ____ ganglion

Back 280

Postganglionic Parasympathetic, Pterygopalatine, Sphenopalatine

Front 281

CN V2 (Maxillary) sends postganglionic fibers via its
_____ branch, to the ____ branch of V1 and from there to the ____ gland.

Back 281

Zygomaticotemporal, Lacrimal, Lacrimal

Front 282

____ ____ fibers from the Facial nuclei and Central axons of the ____ ganglion carrying taste from the ____ 2/3 of the tongue form the sensory root to CN VII called ____ ____.

Back 282

Preganglionic Parasympathetic, Geniculate, Anterior, Nervous Intermedius

Front 283

CN VII conveys taste from the ____ 2/3 of the tongue via the ___ ___ (peripheral axons of Geniculate ganglion) which joins the ___ nerve (part of V3).

Back 283

Anterior, Chorda Tympani, Lingual

Front 284

CN VII conveys parasympathetics to the ____, ____, and ____ glands of the _____, and the ____ and ____ salivary glands (also via the ___ ___).

Back 284

Lacrimal, Serous, Mucous, Nasopharynx; Submandibular Sublingual; Chorda Tympani

Front 285

CN VII ____ ____ fibers from the Nervous ____ form the ____ Petrosal Nerve.

Back 285

Preganglionic Parasympathetic, Intermedius, Greater

Front 286

The CN VII ___ Petrosal is joined by ___ fibers from the ___ petrosal nerve to form the nerve to the ___ canal ( ___ nerve).

Back 286

Greater, Sympathetic, Deep, Pterygoid, Vidian

Front 287

The CN VII nerve to the pterygoid canal
( ___ nerve) synapses in the ____ ganglion.

Back 287

Vidian, Pterygopalatine (or Sphenopalatine)

Front 288

The CN VII ____ ganglion sends postganglionic fibers to the ____ nerve.

Back 288

Pterygopalatine, Maxillary

Front 289

The CN VII maxillary nerve projects to the _____ nerve (part of V2) and ultimately to the ____nerve (part of V1) to supply the ____ gland.

Back 289

Zygomaticotemporal, Lacrimal, Lacrimal

Front 290

Where does the Pterygopalatine ganglion send Postganglionic fibers via the Palatine nerves?

Back 290

Serous and Mucous glands of the Soft and Hard palate and the Nasopharynx.

Front 291

___ ___ fibers from the Nervous Intermedius travel with CN VII through the ___ ___ meatus where they join the ___ ___.

Back 291

Preganglionic Parasympathetic, Internal Acoustic, Chorda Tympani

Front 292

The Chorda Tympani exits the ear cavity though the ____ fissure and joins the ___ nerve (part of V3) to supply the ____ ganglion.

Back 292

Petrotympanic, Lingual, Submandibular

Front 293

Taste fibers from the anterior ___ of the tongue join the ____ ____ in the mouth and follow it back to their cell bodies ( ____ ganglion).

Back 293

2/3, Chorda Tympani, Geniculate

Front 294

Postganglionic fibers from the ____ ganglion supply the ____ and ____ salivary glands.

Back 294

Submandibular, Submandibular, Sublingual

Front 295

Central axons from the ____ ganglion join the ____ ____ on their way to synapse with the Solitary nucleus.

Back 295

Geniculate, Nervous Intermedius

Front 296

Examination of CN VIII (Vestibulocochlear) involves what two groups of tests? What 5 tests specifically?

Back 296

Vestibular (Caloric, Barany Chair); Cochlear (Weber, Rinne, Audiogram)

Front 297

Two functions of CN IX (Glossopharyngeal) are motor to the _____ muscle, and taste fibers from the ____ 1/3 of the tongue.

Back 297

Stylopharyngeus, Posterior

Front 298

CN IX is sensory to the ____ ear, ____ cavity, ____ tubes, ____, ______, ____, ____ palate, and posterior ___ of tongue

Back 298

Middle, Tympanic, Eustachian, Tonsils, Naso-oro-pharynx, Uvula, Soft, 1/3

Front 299

CN IX is parasympathetic to the ____ gland via the ____ ganglion with
____ parasympathetic fibers from the ____ sinus/body.

Back 299

Parotid, Otic, Afferent, Carotid

Front 300

Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers from the _____ nerve form the Tympanic nerve.

Back 300

CN IX (Glossopharyngeal)

Front 301

The tympanic nerve enters the ____ plexus and is joined by ____ fibers from the ____ plexus (superior ____ ganglion).

Back 301

Tympanic, Sympathetic, Carotid, Cervical

Front 302

Postganglionic fibers from the Otic ganglion enter the ____ nerve (part of V3).

Back 302

Auriculotemporal

Front 303

Sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers form the ____ petrosal nerve which synapses in the ___ ganglion.

Back 303

Lesser, Otic

Front 304

The Auriculotemporal nerve (part of V3) wraps around the ____ ____artery to supply the ____ salivary gland.

Back 304

Middle Meningeal, Parotid

Front 305

What is examined to test CN IX (Glossopharyngeal) function?

Back 305

Taste and General Sensation of the posterior 1/3 of the tongue and Oropharynx, Sensory part of the Gag Reflex

Front 306

What occurs when CN IX (Glossopharyngeal) is lesioned?

Back 306

Blood pressure aberrations, sometimes Pain (glossopharyngeal neuralgia) or Loss of sensation in the Naso-oro-pharyngeal area, absent Gag reflex

Front 307

CN X (Vagus) conveys parasympathetics to the ____and ____.

Back 307

Thorax, Abdomen

Front 308

CN X is motor to ____ ____, intrinsic ____muscles, ____ muscles (except ____ ___ ____), and upper ____ for phonation and swallowing.

Back 308

Pharyngeal Constrictors, Laryngeal, Palatine, Tensor Veli Palatini, Esophagus

Front 309

CN X conveys sensory info from the ____, ____, the ____of the external ear, and the ____of the posterior fossa.

Back 309

Pharynx, Larynx, Concha, Meninges

Front 310

CN X (Vagus) conveys taste fibers from the ____and ____.

Back 310

Larynx, Epiglottis

Front 311

What two branches does the cranial nerve XI (Accessory) split into?

Back 311

Cranial Root, Spinal Root

Front 312

The Cranial accessory nerve joins the ____nerve to supply the ____ of the pharynx, larynx, and soft palate.

Back 312

Vagus, Muscles

Front 313

The Spinal accessory nerve conveys motor info to the _____ and ____muscles.

Back 313

Sternocleidomastoid, Trapezius

Front 314

A Lesion of cranial nerve XI (Accessory) would result in inability to do what 2 actions?

Back 314

Rotate the Head, Shrug the Shoulders

Front 315

The function of cranial nerve XII (Hypoglossal) is motor to all of the ____muscles (muscles that end with ____) except ______(<- CN X).

Back 315

Tongue, Glossus, Palatoglossus

Front 316

What does a lesion of cranial nerve XII (Hypoglossal) result in?

Back 316

Ipsilateral Tongue Paralysis and Atrophy

Front 317

Where is the body of the Caudate nucleus located?

Back 317

The floor of the body of the Lateral Ventricle

Front 318

The ____ (unknown function) and ____ (part of the ____ system) may be called part of the basal ganglia because of the general definition of the basal ganglia as the ___ matter of the cerebrum.

Back 318

Claustrum, Amygdala, Limbic, Gray

Front 319

What are the 4 types of Amnesia?

Back 319

Retrograde, Anterograde, Global, Modality Specific

Front 320

Lesions that include the Amygdala result in what?

Back 320

A diminished capacity for Fear Conditioning

Front 321

Korsakoff's psychosis is ____ deficiency seen sometimes in severe ____ that results in ____ and ____ ____ amnesia.

Back 321

Thiamine (Vit. B1), Alcoholism, Anterograde, Progressively Retrograde

Front 322

Septal area connections include: Hippocampus via the _____, Amygdala via the ___ ____, ____, ____, Habenula via the ____ ____ ____, ____, ____ gyrus.

Back 322

Fornix, Stria Terminalis, Hypothalamus, Midbrain, Stria Medullaris Thalami, Thalamus, Cingulate