Nur111 - Final Exam Review

Front 1

Also known as 24-hour day-night cycle, it influences the pattern of major biological and behavioral functions

Back 1

Circadian rhythm

Front 2

Stage of NREM sleep that involves the initial stage of deep sleep

Back 2

Stage 3 NREM

Front 3

Stage of sleep when vivid dreams start occurring

Back 3

REM sleep

Front 4

Functions of NREM sleep include (select all that apply):
a. Body tissue restoration
b. Brain / cognitive restoration
c. Protein synthesis (tissue repair)
d. Memory storage and learning

Back 4

Body tissue restoration and protein synthesis are functions of NREM sleep
Brain / cognitive restoration and memory storage and learning are functions of REM sleep

Front 5

A 65 year old client is complaining of having difficulty falling and staying asleep. Which patient teaching sentence would the nurse advise the client to do?
a. Take several naps during the day to make up for the lost sleep
b. Decrease fluids 2 – 4 hours before going to sleep
c. Advise client to sleep as late as possible
d. Do exercises in the evening before going to sleep

Back 5

B. By decreasing fluids 2 to 4 hours before sleep, it is less likely that the client will awaken because of a need to urinate. Limiting naps during the day will help improve nighttime sleep. Exercising in the evening can make falling asleep more difficult.

Front 6

A disorder characterized by the lack of airflow through the nose and mouth for periods of 10 seconds or longer during sleep

Back 6

Sleep apnea

Front 7

A nurse educator is doing a patient teaching procedure for the client. The client mentions occasionally having snacks before going to bed and asks what foods should he take and avoid before going to sleep. The nurse would tell the client that a light snack that contains ____ (select all that apply) can be taken before going to sleep
a. Protein
b. Carbohydrates
c. Caffeine
d. Alcohol

Back 7

A light snack of protein and carbohydrates is good before going to bed
Caffeine and alcohol interferes with REM sleep

Front 8

During assessment, the client complains of frequently having nightmares and insomnia. What type of medication would cause that problem for the client?

Back 8

Beta-blockers

Front 9

The most common sleep disorder that describes the inability to sleep, remain asleep, and fall back to sleep and is most common in women

Back 9

Insomnia

Front 10

A 35 year old client presents to her healthcare provider with complains of being sleepy during the day, fatigue, and lethargy. The client is showing clinical manifestations of

Back 10

Insomnia

Front 11

A dysfunction of mechanisms that regulate sleep and wake states – excessive daytime sleepiness is the most common complaint associated with this disorder

Back 11

Narcolepsy

Front 12

A nurse is seeing a client who’s experiencing sleep attacks, cataplexy, hallucinations, and sleep paralysis. The nurse is about to administer methylphenidate (Ritalin) for the client due to what condition?

Back 12

Narcolepsy

Front 13

Condition where there is a decreased amount and quality of sleep caused by insomnia or sleep apnea

Back 13

Sleep deprivation

Front 14

Sleep problems that are more common in children than in adults

Back 14

Parasomnias

Front 15

A nursing student is asked to do a sleep assessment on one of his clients. The client reports of having trouble sleeping for the past couple of months. To know the nature of the problem, the nursing student would ask which question to the client?
a. “How often during the week do you have trouble falling asleep?”
b. “What type of problem are you having with your sleep?”
c. “How long does it take you to fall asleep?”
d. “How many hours of sleep a night did you get this week?”

Back 15

b. Asking about the type of problem the client is having is one of the assessment question to determine the nature of the problem. All the other choices determine the severity of the problem

Front 16

A nurse is taking care of a client who reports experiencing having trouble sleeping at night and being too tired during the day. To assess and determine clinical manifestations of insomnia, the nurse would ask the client:
a. “Do you experience headaches after waking up?”
b. “Do you snore loudly? Or does anyone else in your family snore loudly?”
c. “Has anyone ever told you that you often stop breathing for short periods during sleep?”
d. “What do you do to prepare for sleep? To improve your sleep?”

Back 16

D. all the other choices ask questions for a client to assess for sleep apnea

Front 17

Drug that produces general depression and is used to treat insomnia

Back 17

Benzodiazepines (Restoril)

Front 18

A physician ordered to D/C the client’s benzodiazepine medication. One important teaching point relating to the drug that the nurse would tell the client is:

Back 18

The client may experience rebound insomnia after the drug is D/C’ed

Front 19

Type of drug that is used for short term treatment of insomnia and usually doesn’t cause “hang-over” (daytime sleepiness)

Back 19

Nonbenzodiazepines (Lunesta, Ambien, Sonata)

Front 20

The nurse recognizes that a client is experiencing insomnia when the client reports (select all that apply):
a. Difficulty staying asleep
b. Difficulty falling asleep
c. Falling asleep at inappropriate times
d. Feeling tired after a night’s sleep

Back 20

A, B, D. These symptoms are often reported by clients with insomnia. Falling asleep at inappropriate times is indicative of narcolepsy

Front 21

To promote sleep in a hospitalized client, which intervention should the nurse implement?
a. Withhold client's pain medication during the day to decrease napping episodes
b. Ensure that the client's room is kept completely dark during the night with no outside lighting
c. Close the door to the client's room whenever possible to decrease the noise level and light coming into the room
d. Instruct the night nurse not to perform the prescribed every 4 hour assessments during the night

Back 21

C. Reducing the amount of light and the noise of call lights, hallway traffic, and overhead paging are important nursing interventions to facilitate sleep for a hospitalized client

Front 22

Surgery performed on basis of client’s choice; non-life threatening and may improve the client’s quality of life

Back 22

Elective surgery

Front 23

Surgery done for life-threatening conditions and must be done immediately to save life or preserve function of body part

Back 23

Emergency surgery

Front 24

Type of surgery where a diseased body part is removed

Back 24

Ablative surgery

Front 25

A nurse is doing a preoperative assessment on a client. Which initial findings would the nurse give more attention to?
a. Lung sounds clear during auscultation
b. Skin intact and warm to touch
c. Patient being on NPO status for the surgery
d. Oral temperature of 99.5

Back 25

D. having a fever predisposes the client to fluid and electrolyte imbalance and may indicate underlying infection

Front 26

A nurse is performing a preoperative assessment on a client that has a history of MI and chest pain (angina). To determine the onset and duration of the client’s condition, the nurse would ask:
a. “Do you have any swelling of your feet?”
b. “Are you short of breath or have any difficulty breathing?”
c. “How often do you have chest pain, when does it start, and how long does it last?”
d. “Are you having any discomfort or pressure on your chest?”

Back 26

C. All the other choices ask for the signs and symptoms of the client’s condition

Front 27

A client who is on Coumadin therapy is asked to discontinue the drug at least 48 hours before surgery because:

Back 27

Anticoagulants alter normal clotting factors and thus increase the risk of hemorrhaging

Front 28

A nurse is taking care of a client who is going for surgery and informed the client that her medications were discountinued prior to surgery. The client asks the nurse why she should not continue taking her antihypertension medication (atenolol) before going for surgery, the nurse would explain to the client:
a. The drug potentiates electrolyte imbalances after surgery
b. Drug inhibits platelet aggregation and prolong bleeding time
c. Drug increases susceptibility to postoperative bleeding
d. Drug interacts with anesthetic agents to cause bradycardia, hypotension, and impaired circulation

Back 28

D. antihypertensive medications interact with anesthetic agents to cause bradycardia, hypotension, and impaired circulation.
Diuretics potentiate electrolyte imbalances. NSAIDS increase susceptibility to postoperative bleeding and inhibit platelets aggregation and prolongs bleeding time

Front 29

A nurse is doing her preoperative assessment on a client who is scheduled for surgery. Which statement from the client would the nurse give more attention to?
a. “I’ve been eating foods rich in protein, vitamin C and vitamin A”
b. “I’ve never used any illegal drugs or substance”
c. “I take herbal supplements together with my regular multivitamins”
d. “I don’t have a history of heart attack, or any valve disease”

Back 29

C. herbal supplements have the ability to affect platelet activity and increase susceptibility to postoperative bleeding

Front 30

Lab value that determines nutritional status

Back 30

Albumin

Front 31

Lab diagnostic screenings are ordered for a client who is scheduled to undergo for surgery. Aside from CBC, serum electrolytes, and coagulation studies, hCG is also included. The reason the client is also tested for hCG is:

Back 31

To rule out pregnancy before going to surgery

Front 32

Which of the nursing diagnoses are relevant to clients having surgery? (select all that apply)
a. Knowledge deficit
b. Ineffective airway clearance
c. Impaired physical mobility
d. Acute pain

Back 32

All of them are relevant to clients having surgery.
Nursing diagnosis made preoperatively will focus on the potential risks a client may face after surgery

Front 33

Which client action would require an immediate nursing intervention?
a. Client using incentive spirometer to do breathing exercises
b. Client performs controlled coughing to help remove mucus effectively
c. Client laying on one side of the bed for a long time
d. Client doing leg exercises (dorsiflexion , plantar flexion) as tolerated

Back 33

C. the client laying on one side of the bed for a long time have a great risk of developing pressure sores

Front 34

The nurse is preparing the client for surgery and is about to administer pre-op meds when she noticed that the consent form hasn’t been signed by the client. The next best action that the nurse should do is:
a. Withhold the pre-op meds, ask the client if she received sufficient information about the surgery and the consent form and then inform the surgeon that the consent isn’t signed by the client
b. Administer the pre-op meds and then inform the surgeon about the unsigned consent form
c. Administer the pre-op meds and ask the client’s family members to sign the consent form
d. Administer the pre-op meds and then ask the client to sign the informed consent form

Back 34

A. Inform the surgeon that the consent form hasn’t been signed by the client. Pre-op meds shouldn’t be administered until the client signs the consent.

Front 35

The procedure during surgery preparation where verification is done by marking the operative site with indelible ink to mark left and right distinction, verifying the correct patient, procedure, and location

Back 35

“Time out”

Front 36

Person responsible for review of preoperative assessment, client care documentation, operating non-sterile equipment, and verifying sponge and instrument counts

Back 36

Circulating nurse

Front 37

The nurse that maintains a sterile field during surgical procedure, assists with applying surgical drapes, and prepares sterile equipment

Back 37

Scrub nurse

Front 38

During physical preparation, positioning of the client happens during:

Back 38

Maintenance phase of anesthesia

Front 39

Type of anesthesia where there is loss of sensation with loss of consciousness

Back 39

General anesthesia

Front 40

Type of anesthesia where there is loss of sensation without loss of consciousness

Back 40

Regional anesthesia

Front 41

Type of anesthesia routinely used for procedures that do not require complete anesthesia and reduces fear and anxiety with minimal risk

Back 41

Conscious sedation

Front 42

A client who is scheduled to go for surgery asked the nurse why she should be NPO before the surgery. The nurse would tell the client:
a. Having food in the stomach during surgery increases the risk of hemorrhage
b. Food causes paresthesia during surgery
c. General anesthesia relaxes the muscles of the GI tract and there is a risk of vomiting
d. Food contents in the stomach lowers the body temperature during surgery

Back 42

C. General anesthesia causes loss of protective (gag) reflex which increases the risk of vomiting food and aspirating it into the lungs
Paresthesia is caused by the positioning on one side for a long time, especially during surgery
The cold room temperature in the OR usually cause hypothermia

Front 43

___ is a late sign of malignant hyperthermia

Back 43

Increased body temperature

Front 44

The nurse notes that a postsurgical client has a heart rate of 130 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute. The nurse also assesses jaw muscle rigidity and rigidity of the limbs, abdomen, and chest. What does the nurse suspect and what intervention is indicated?
a. The nurse suspects pneumonia and should listen to breath sounds, notify the surgeon, and anticipate an order for chest radiography.
b. The nurse suspects infection and should notify the surgeon and anticipate administration of antibiotics
c. The nurse suspects malignant hyperthermia and should notify the surgeon/anesthesiologist immediately and prepare to administer dantrolene
d. The nurse suspects hypertension and should check blood pressure, notify the surgeon, and anticipate administration of antihypertensives

Back 44

C. Malignant hyperthermia is a potentially lethal condition that can occur in clients receiving general anesthesia. It should be suspected when there is unexpected tachycardia and tachypnea; elevated carbon dioxide levels; jaw muscle rigidity and rigidity of the limbs, abdomen, and chest; and hyperkalemia. The nurse will immediately administer dantrolene sodium ordered by the health care providers.

Front 45

A nursing student is doing a patient teaching procedure on his client who just got back from surgery about deep breathing exercises. The client asked the nursing student about the purpose of deep breathing exercise. The nursing student would explain to the client that:

Back 45

Deep breathing exercise prevents atelectasis (collapsed lung alveoli)

Front 46

During post-op, the client’s urinary output is ____

Back 46

Low (in response to stress, the body releases aldosterone which then leads to release of ADH which causes fluid retention)

Front 47

The client arrives at the hospital for her scheduled surgery. Which is the most significant question the nurse should ask the client during her assessment?
a. “Do you have any one to stay with you during your stay here?”
b. “Have you had anything to eat or drink since last night?”
c. “Did you bring any valuables with you that need to be stored during surgery?”
d. “Since you are going to be here for quite some time, did you park your car at the employees’ parking lot?”

Back 47

B. Ensuring that the client has remained NPO for the prescribed length of time before surgery is critical to prevent vomiting and aspiration during surgery

Front 48

Time required to have half the medication to leave the body

Back 48

Half-life

Front 49

Type of drug reaction in which a client overreacts or underreacts to a medication or has a reaction different than normal

Back 49

Idiosyncratic reaction

Front 50

Type of drug-drug interaction where the combined effect of the two medications is greater than the effect of the medications when given separately

Back 50

Synergistic

Front 51

Unintended, undesirable, and often unpredictable severe responses to medication

Back 51

Adverse effects

Front 52

Phase of therapeutic relationship that happens before meeting the client and background information is obtained

Back 52

Pre-interaction

Front 53

Before taking the NUR111 final exam, a nursing student gives herself positive messages regarding her ability to do great on the test. This is an example of what type of communication?
a. Intrapersonal
b. Interpersonal
c. Transpersonal
d. Public

Back 53

A. Intrapersonal communication is a powerful form of communication that occurs within an individual. Interpersonal communication takes place between people. Transpersonal communication occurs within a person's spiritual domain. Public communication is interaction with an audience.

Front 54

The nurse tells the client, "I'm not sure I understand what you mean by 'sicker than usual.' What is different now?" The nurse is using the therapeutic technique of:
a. Clarifying
b. Paraphrasing
c. Focusing
d. Providing information

Back 54

A. Clarifying gives the client a chance to be more specific or give more information. Paraphrasing means restating another's message briefly in one's own words. The nurse is not providing information in the remarks given. Focusing is used to bring attention to key concepts or elements in a message

Front 55

Pain from arthritis is an example of:
a. Referred pain
b. Visceral pain
c. Deep somatic pain
d. Radiating pain

Back 55

C. deep somatic pain is pain that originates in the bone / joints
Referred pain occurs in an area and pain extends to a different area (kidney stone, MI / jaw pain)
Visceral pain is due to stimulation of internal organs and unique to the organ involved (angina)
Radiating pain starts at source of injury and extends to the surrounding area (sore throat)

Front 56

A client complains to the nurse that the TV in his room is not working. The nurse noted that the doctor was just talking to the client about his diagnosis earlier. The client is expressing what type of defense mechanism?
a. Denial
b. Conversion
c. Displacement
d. Compensation

Back 56

C. the client is transferring emotions, ideas from a stressful situation (talking to the doctor about his diagnosis) to a less anxiety-producing substitute (TV in the room)
Denial is avoiding emotional conflict by refusing to acknowledge anything that causes emotional pain (ex. a person refuses to discuss or acknowledge a personal loss)
Conversion is the unconscious repression of anxiety-producing emotional conflict and transforming it into non-organic symptoms (ex. difficulty sleeping, loss of appetite)
Compensation is making up for a deficiency in one aspect of self-image by strongly emphasizing a feature considered an asset (ex. a person who is a poor communicator relies on organizational skills)

Front 57

Amount of pain the person experiences before they feel it

Back 57

Threshold

Front 58

Describes how long pain is endured before doing something about it

Back 58

Tolerance

Front 59

A client tells the nurse, "I have stomach cramps and feel nauseous." This is an example of what type of data
a. Objective
b. Subjective
c. Unnecessary
d. Historical

Back 59

B. Subjective data are symptoms that the client feels but that are not measurable. Objective data are things that can be measured (blood pressure, temperature, pain rating, etc.). These are not historical data, because the client feels these symptoms now

Front 60

The purpose of HIPAA is:

Back 60

Protect the client’s personal information

Front 61

A localized injury to the skin or underlying tissue usually over a bony prominence, as a result of pressure or in combination with shear and/or friction

Back 61

pressure ulcer

Front 62

Which stage of ulcer consists of full thickness tissue loss, subcutaneous fat may be visible but bone, tendon, muscle is not exposed?

Back 62

stage 3

Front 63

A patient with a closed abdominal wound reports a sudden "pop" after coughing. When the nurse examines the surgical wound site, the nurse sees that the sutures are open and that pieces of small bowel are visible at the bottom of the now opened wound. The nurse should:
a. Allow area to be exposed to air until drainage stops
b. Place cold packs over the area, with care taken to protecting the skin around the wound
c. Cover the area with sterile saline-soaked towels and immediately notify the surgical team as this is likely to indicate a wound evisceration
d. Cover the area with sterile gauze; place a tight binder over the areas; ask the client to remain in bed for 30 minutes because this is a minor opening in the surgical wound and should reseal quickly.

Back 63

C. In wound evisceration, the bowel extrudes from the body. The nurse should cover the visible bowel with sterile saline-soaked towels and notify the surgical team. The area should not be allowed to be exposed or to dry out. Cold packs and binders are not acceptable options

Front 64

Wound bed that extends into the adjacent tissue is defines as

Back 64

Tunneling

Front 65

The nurse observes partial-thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and possibly the dermis. What stage of ulcer will the nurse document?
a. Stage 1
b. Stage 2
c. Stage 3
d. Stage 4

Back 65

B. Partial-thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and possibly the dermis is classified as a stage II ulcer. In stage I the ulcer appears as a defined area of persistent redness with no open skin areas. In stage III the ulcer appears as a full-thickness skin loss involving damage or necrosis of subcutaneous tissue that may extend down to, but not through, the underlying fascia. In stage IV the ulcer appears as a full-thickness loss with extensive destruction, tissue necrosis, or damage to muscle, bone, or supporting structures

Front 66

The nurse is in the process of changing the wound dressing of the patient when the nurse observed granulation. In what phase of wound healing is the wound undergoing?
a. Hemostasis
b. Inflammation
c. Proliferation
d. Maturation

Back 66

C. Tissue granulation occurs in the proliferative phase. Scar tissue formation happens in the maturation phase. Hemostasis occurs during the inflammation phase

Front 67

While assessing the wound on the patient, the nurse observed the tissue starting to come apart. The nurse would document the wound as

Back 67

Dehiscent

Front 68

The total separation of wound layers and protrusion of an organ through the wound opening is called:

Back 68

Evisceration

Front 69

The condition where there is an abnormal passage or opening between organs is called

Back 69

Fistula

Front 70

A type of wound intervention that removes nonviable, necrotic tissue – can be surgical or mechanical (wet-dry dressing, irrigation)

Back 70

Debridement

Front 71

The nurse plans to administer a prescribed dose of linezolid (ZYVOX), an antibiotic. The prescription states, "ZYVOX suspension 600 mg PO q12h for 14 days." The medication is labeled, "100 mg/5 ml." and has a recommended daily dosage of 800 mg – 1200 mg
How much of the medication will the nurse administer for the first 12 hours?
a. 40 ml
b. 10 ml
c. 30 ml
d. 12 ml

Back 71

C. 600 mg/100 mg × 5 ml = 30 ml

Front 72

Amount of blood pumped by each ventricle per minute

Back 72

Cardiac output

Front 73

Amount of blood ejected from each ventricle with each contraction

Back 73

Stroke volume

Front 74

Carbon monoxide is a toxic inhalant that decreases the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood by:
a. Forming a weak bond with hemoglobin
b. Forming a strong bond with hemoglobin
c. Forming a weak bond with carbamino compounds
d. Forming a strong bond with carbamino compounds

Back 74

B. carbon monoxide is the most common toxic inhalant and decreases the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood. In CO toxicity, hemoglobin strongly binds with carbon monoxide, creating a functional anemia. Because of the strength of the bond, carbon monoxide does not easily dissociate from hemoglobin, which makes hemoglobin unavailable for oxygen transport

Front 75

A drug that cause respiratory depression / hypoventilation

Back 75

Morphine

Front 76

A client is admitted to the emergency department with a suspected cervical spine fracture at the C3 level. The nurse is most concerned about the client's ability to:
a. Ambulate
b. Breathe
c. Maintain cardiac output
d. Be oriented to time, place, and person

Back 76

B. Spinal cord injury at the level of C5 or above often results in damage to the phrenic nerve, which innervates the diaphragm and permits breathing. Cardiac output is not usually affected by spinal cord injury; however, cardiac output may be reduced as a result of trauma and blood loss. It is too early to be concerned with ambulation. Life-threatening problems take priority. Level of consciousness is certainly an important consideration, because this client most likely sustained a head injury. However, this is not a certainty given the data provided.

Front 77

A client asks why smoking is a major risk factor for heart disease. In formulating a response, the nurse incorporates the understanding that nicotine:
a. Causes vasoconstriction
b. Causes vasodilation
c. Increase oxygen-carrying capacities of hemoglobin
d. Increase levels of HDLs

Back 77

A. Nicotine causes vasoconstriction, which restricts blood flow to the heart and peripheral tissues and increases the risk of hypertension and subsequently heart disease as a complicating factor. Nicotine does not cause vasodilation. Nicotine decreases the oxygen-carrying capacity of hemoglobin. Nicotine decreases the level of high-density lipoproteins and elevates the level of harmful low-density lipoproteins, which leads to atherosclerosis.

Front 78

Clinical manifestations of hypoventilation include (select all that apply):
a. Tachycardia
b. Paresthesia
c. Arrhythmias
d. Headache
e. Altered mental status
f. Tetany
g. Tachypnea
h. Chest pain

Back 78

Arrhythmias, headache and altered mental status are clinical manifestations of hypoventilation

Tachycardia, paresthesia, tetany and tachypnea are clinical manifestations of hyperventilation.

Front 79

A drug that relaxes bronchial smooth muscle and used to treat acute exacerbations of asthma

Back 79

bronchodilators (theophylline, albuterol, spiriva)

Front 80

Patients with CHF take this drug to increase the heart’s force of contraction

Back 80

cardiac glycosides (digoxin)

Front 81

While assessing the wound on the patient, the nurse notices the wound bed extends under the skin, the nurse would document the wound bed is

Back 81

undermining

Front 82

The benefits of using heat therapy include (select all that apply):
a. Decrease blood flow
b. Muscle relaxation
c. Remove waste products
d. Promote coagulation
e. Increase blood flow
f. Increase tissue metabolism
g. Increase capillary permeability
h. Reduce localized pain (anesthesia)

Back 82

- Muscle relaxation, remove waste products, increase blood flow, increase tissue metabolism, increased capillary permeability are benefits of using heat therapy
- Decrease blood flow, promote coagulation, reduced localized pain (anesthesia) are benefits of using cold therapy

Front 83

Type of nutrient that’s considered the main source of energy and composed of 45 – 65% of daily kcal

Back 83

Carbohydrates

Front 84

Proteins can be divided into the essential amino acids and non-essential amino acids. The difference between the two of them is:

Back 84

The essential amino acids aren’t synthesized by the body so they must be obtained from food sources while non-essential amino acids are manufactured by the body

Front 85

The most calorie-dense nutrient and composed of triglycerides and fatty acids

Back 85

Fats

Front 86

Organic substances present in small amounts in foods that are essential to normal metabolism and used as catalysts in biochemical reactions

Back 86

Vitamins

Front 87

The body doesn’t store these type of vitamins so daily intake must be provided

Back 87

Water soluble vitamins

Front 88

Fat soluble vitamins include (select all that apply):
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin E
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin B complex
e. Vitamin D
f. Vitamin K

Back 88

Vitamins A, D, E, and K are all fat-soluble vitamins

Vitamins C and B complex are water soluble vitamins

Front 89

Vitamin ___ protects cell membranes from free radical damage

Back 89

Vitamin E

Front 90

Vitamin that aids in wound healing and formation of steroid hormones

Back 90

Vitamin C

Front 91

Inorganic elements essential for the body’s biochemical reaction (electrolyte balance)

Back 91

Minerals

Front 92

Part of the nursing assessment that focuses on the client’s habitual intake of foods and liquids, as well as information about preferences, allergies and other relevant areas

Back 92

Diet history

Front 93

Clients who have neurological or neuromuscular disease and those who have had trauma to or surgical procedures of the oral cavity or throat are at risk for

Back 93

Aspiration

Front 94

A nurse is providing teaching procedures for feeding a client who is at risk for aspiration. The client asked why it’s necessary to add thickener to thin liquids while feeding. The nurse would answer

Back 94

Thin liquids (water, fruit juice)are difficult to control in the mouth and are more easily aspirated

Front 95

The nurse teaches a client who has had surgery to increase intake of which nutrient to help with tissue repair?
a. Fat
b. Protein
c. Carbohydrates
d. Vitamins

Back 95

B. Proteins provide a source of energy and are essential for synthesis (building) of body tissue in growth, maintenance, and repair. Proteins are also required for blood clotting, fluid regulation, and acid-base balance. Fats are important for metabolic processes. Vitamins are chemicals used as catalysts in biochemical reactions. They are essential to normal metabolism and are present in small amounts in foods. Carbohydrates are used for energy.

Front 96

Decreased urine output usually less than 400 ml in 24 hours

Back 96

Oliguria

Front 97

Produced by the kidneys, ____ functions within the bone marrow to stimulate red blood cell production and maturation

Back 97

Erythropoietin

Front 98

Alcohol affects the urinary system by:

Back 98

Inhibiting ADH, which then promotes urination

Front 99

Bleeding from the kidneys or ureters cause urine color to become ____ while bleeding from the bladder or urethra causes a ____ urine

Back 99

Kidneys / ureters = dark red ; bladder / urethra = bright red

Front 100

A low urine specific gravity reflects ___ urine while a high specific gravity reflects ___

Back 100

Low = diluted ; high = concentrated

Front 101

A patient in the ICU is about the go for a CT/IVP. One important thing to remember about patients who are going for that specific test is:

Back 101

To check if the patient has a shellfish / iodine allergies and watch out for delayed allergic reaction after the procedure

Front 102

A patient recently diagnosed with BPH is prescribed the alpha-adrenergic drug, terazosin (Hytrin). One important nursing intervention regarding the drug is:

Back 102

Monitor the patient’s BP because drug can lower the BP

Front 103

A client with UTI is taking Pyridium for pain and irritation. One classical side effect of that drug is

Back 103

It turns the urine color to bright orange

Front 104

When assessing for the characteristics of stool, the nurse should know that a bright red colored stool is a sign of ____ while a black or tarry stool is a sign of ____

Back 104

Bright red stool = lower GI bleed ; black or tarry stool = upper GI bleed

Front 105

Temporary cessation of peristalsis usually lasting about 24 – 48 hours and mainly caused by general anesthesia used in surgery

Back 105

Paralytic ileus

Front 106

A nurse is sending a client to the radiology lab for a lower GI barium enema. One nursing intervention for the client after the test is to increase fluid intake. The reason is:

Back 106

Barium causes constipation

Front 107

Antacids composed of aluminum compounds can cause ___ while antacids with magnesium compounds case ____

Back 107

Aluminum compounds = constipation ; magnesium compounds = diarrhea

Front 108

Drugs that suppress gastric acid secretion and blocks the final path for gastric acid production – used for short term (4-8 weeks) duodenal cancer, gastric ulcer, and GERD

Back 108

Proton pump inhibitors (Prevacid, Prilosec, Nexium)