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323 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
receptor potential
in response to mechanical, thermal, chemical and light stimulus, is a passive response, ion channels open in response to touch in receptor potential
synaptic potential
in response to a neurotransmitter, ion channels also involved in the synaptic potential, a passive response
passive response
small response, not conducted very far
action potential
large amplitude, conducted along the length of the entire nerve, an active response
active response
bigger response than the passive response, conducted and goes the entire length of the entire cell
charge
a basic property of matter in units of coulombs, the possession of net positive or negative charge by ions, for examples Na+, K+, Ca2+, and Cl-
current
the movement of charge in coulombs/sec = amps, the movement of charge into and out of cells (across the plasma membrane), flux of charge
inward current
is + charge entering the cell or – charge leaving the cell
outward current
is + charge leaving the cell or – charge entering the cell
voltage
voltage difference between two points is strictly the work (force * distance) needed to move a test charge from one point to another, we can ignore the distance and think of a voltage as a force acting to push charges, a transmembrane voltage pushes charges across a membrane
potential
another word for voltage
membrane potentials
difference in electrical potential between the inside and outside of the cell
what happens to membrane potential with a stimulus
INC the amplitude of the stimulus INC the number of the action potentials, the amplitude of the stimulus is encoded in the frequency of the action potentials, the amplitude of each action potential is not changed much
resting potential
unstimulated, resting neurons have 40 to 90 mV inside, negative value
stimulating electrode
used to alter the membrane potential by injecting charge into the cell
initiation of passive responses
result from injection of negative charge and small amounts of positive charge, amplitude typically nearly linearly related to the amount of charge injected, the amplitude DEC with distance from the site of injection
initiation of action potential
result from injection of larger amounts of positive charge, amplitude is independent of the amount of current, the action potential is conducted along the length of the entire nerve
initiation transmembrane potentials
result from gradients of permenant ions (i.e. ions that can cross the membrane), the permeability of the membrane to individual ions
permeability
is a measure of the ease of movement of a solute molecule across a membrane, determined by ion channels, if a lot of Na+ channels are open, then Pna will be high
conductance
another measure of the ease of movement of a solute molecule across a membrane
how are ion gradients established
pumps use energy to create ion gradients (Na-K ATPase), created by active transport, main ones are the Na+/K+ pump and the Ca2+ pump
ion gradients across the plasma membrane
1. K+ (140 intracellular, 5 extracellular, -90 potential)
2. Na+ (5-15 intracellular, 145 extracellular, +60 to +90 potential)
3. Cl- (4-30 intracellular, 110 extracellular, -88 to -35 potential)
4. Ca2+ (0.0001 intracellular, 1-2 extracellular, +100 potential)
Nernst equation
equation that allows one to use gradient of ions to measure voltage
E = RT/zF * ln [X]o/[X]i
goldman-hodgkin-katz equation
states that the contribution of an ion gradient to potential of the membrane is weighted by the permeability of the cell membrane to that ion
Em = 58 log (Pk [K]o + Pna [Na]o + Pcl [Cl]i) / (Pk [K]i + Pna [Na]i + Pcl [Cl]o)
***Cl- is upside down because of the z value, Ca2+ is divalent and is not used (putting it in would cause an explosion
ion channels
transmembrane proteins that provide a pathway for rapid movement of ions across the membrane (can be gated and are selective)
ion channel gating
channels typically can be opened and closed by specific stimuli including voltage, ligands, heat, light and mechanically, opening and closing of channels INC and DEC membrane permeability
ion channel selectivity
many ion channels are specific for a single ion or class of ions, many are less selective, voltage gated
resting membrane
is relatively highly permeable to K+, typically relatively close to Ek, at rest Pk > Pna, during an action potential PNa > Pk to cause depolarization, then Pk > Pna to cause repolarization, this is all done by opening and closing channels
encoding stimulus intensity
the intensity of a stimulus (natural or artificial) is encoded in the frequency of action potentials, commonly the freq. INC with the intensity of the stimulus but the response can be complex, properties of the ion channels determine the encoding, neurons can alter their encoding by altering the opening and closing of their channels (this is called learning)
apamin (bee venom)
blocks a specific type of K+ channel
shapes of action potentials
the shape of the action potential will influence the maximum frequency at which a neuron can generate action potentials, the shape will influence the amount of Ca2+ that enters during an action potential (or a train of action potentials) and this will influence the amount of transmitter that is released
voltage-gated Ca2+ channels
in many cells, voltage-gated Ca2+ channels open during depolarization, Ca2+ enters the cell and triggers biochemical events: release or neurotransmitter or hormone, contraction of muscle, the longer the depolarization, the more Ca2+ enters
sodium pump
has little or no effect on the amplitude or time course of the action potential, it generates the Na+ and K+ gradients that produce Ena and Ek, once these are generated the pump’s contribution to the action potential is done
channelopathies
disorders due to mutations in genes encoding for ion channels, typically each channel gene has multiple mutations, there are no rules for channelopathies, mutations giving rise to similar syndromes can be scattered all over the channel sequence (episodic ataxia due to mutations in the Ca2+ channel gene), it is generally impossible to link symptoms to a location on a channel or even to a particular channel
passive conduction
in the absence of activity by ion channels a depolarization will be conducted with decrement over a short distance, if there are no changes in membrane permeabilities, a depolarization or a hyperpolarization will be conducted for a relativelyl short distance (<1 or 3 mm) with decrement, not regenerative and does not go very far
active conduction
if the right ion channels are activated they will boost the signal along the length of the neuron, APs are conducted long distances without decrement, also in skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle, if there are voltage-gated Na+ channels an AP can be conducted for long distances (>100 m) essentially without decrement, myelination and larger axon diameter will speed conduction
conduction of membrane potential
speed matters, larger cells conduct faster, myelinated cells conduct faster, the AP essentially jumps from node to node (salutatory conduction)
dendrites
there are voltage-gated conductances in dendrites
Luigi Galvani
showed that electrical stimulation of muscular tissue produces contraction and force
Guillaume Ducheene and the muscles of facial expression
He applied electric stimulation to intact skeletal muscles, systematically mapped out functions of nearly every facial muscle, discovered that the muscles around the eyes are only active during a genuine smile, an insincere smile involves only the muscles of the mouth
tendon reflex
demonstrates reciprocal innervation in CNS, excites enxtensor and inhibits flexor, an AP in the sensory neuron produces a depolarizing response (an EPSP) in the extensor motor neuron, an AP in the interneuron produces a hyperpolarizing response (an IPSP) in the flexor motor neuron
posture
is not controlled by the brain, but rather the spinal cord, it is purely due to reflexes
muscle spindle
senses stretch
junctional folds
deep foldes in the cell membrane of the muscle fiber, beneath which the sarcoplasm contain numerous mito
terminal swelling of the motor axon
have abundant neurosecretory granules (acetylcholine) and mito
curare
binds to ACh receptors (nicotinic receptors)
end plate potential
EPP, has a depolarizing synaptic potential at the end plate, postsynaptic potential induced at the NMJ by the opening of the nicotinic receptors, is not an AP, but it partially depolarizes the membrane and can initiate an AP, not continuous, but quantized, MEPP is the fundamental unit of the EPP, undergoes passive (electrotonic spread), spreads and decays, not regenerative like the AP
end plate current
EPC, has an inward synaptic current at the end plate
MEPPS
miniature end plate potentials, spontaneous depolarizations of consistent amplitude in the absence of nerve stimulation, very small, brief depolarizations which occur even when there has been no AP in the nerve, about 150 MEPPS = 1 EPP, spontaneous MEPP can resemble the evoked EPP, MEPP due to spontaneous vesicles from the presynaptic membrane
stastical relationship between MEPPs and EPP
MEPPs are clustered around 0.4 mV in amplitude, for the evoked EPPs, can get 5X the amplitude of the MEPP, some at 0.4, 0.8, 1.2 or 1.6
neurotransmitter release
is also qantized
rise in presynaptic Ca2+
is essential for neurotransmitter release, if inject Ca2+ buffer in the presynaptic terminal, then buffer binds to Ca2+ and when stimulate an AP it blocks the response in the postsynaptic cell, showing Ca2+ is necessary in the release of vesicles for transmission
location of Ca2+ channels in the presynaptic membrane
Ca2+ channels in the presynaptic membrane line up where the vesicles are, Ca2+ channels also line up with the nicotinic receptors on the postsynaptic terminal
transmission across the NMJ
get an AP in the nerve, passes id down the branches and depolarizes the nerve terminal, Ca2+ comes in and causes vesicle fusion, contents diffuse, bind to nicotinic receptors and activate Na+ channels to open and generate an AP
spread of Na+ AP from end plate region
if a stimulating pipette is placed over the Z line where the T-tubules are then get contraction, if over the middle of the sarcomere then there is no contraction
coupling of Na+ AP to Ca2+ release and to contraction
1. Na+ AP depolarizes T-tubule membrane
2. this depolarization causes voltage sensitive dyhidropyridine receptors to change conformation of ryanodine receptors
3. Ca2+ is released from ryanodine sensitive stores
4. released Ca2+ binds to troponin, revealing cross-bridge binding sites on actin molecules
SR
stores Ca2+
ryanodine receptor
allows Ca2+ to flow out of the sarcoplasmic spaces where it can activate the filament
T-tubule
where AP propagates, causes the ryanodine receptors to change their conformation to depolarization, they unplug and allow Ca2+ to flow out of the sarcoplasmic spaces
excitation-contraction coupling
shows that when an AP is fired, Ca levels don’t rise until a small delay
heart and the discovery of chemical neurotransmission via ACh
two hearts are placed in two separate beakers connected by a tube that allows for the transfer of solution from heart 1 to heart 2, heart 1 has a vagus nerve attachment while heart 2 has no vagus nerve attachment, when stimulate with the vagus nerve then there was a dec in the beats in heart 1, then shortly thereafter a decrease in heart 2
synthesis and breakdown of acetylcholine
the synthesis of ACh from choline and acetyl CoA is derived from pyruvate generated by glycolysis, synthesized by the enzyme choline acetyltransferase, choline is transported into the terminal via a Na+ dependent transporter, ACh is loaded into synaptic vesicles by a vesicular transporter, after release, ACh is rapidly metabolized acetylcholinesterase, choline is transported back into terminal
nicotini receptors
blocked or antagonized by curare, binds nicotine, are ligand gated ion channels, the reversal potential of the receptors implies that it is a non-selective cation channel
muscarini receptors
also bind ACh, blocked or antagonized by atropine, a G-protein coupled receptor
strucuter of the ligand gated nicotinic ACh receptor
has two alpha, a beta, gamma and delta subunit
sequence of events in AP propagation
1. an AP arrives at the end of a motor neuron at the NMJ
2. depolarization causes Ca2+ entry into nerve terminal and vesicle mobilization
3. this causes the release of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine
4. acetylcholine diffuses across synaptic cleft and binds to nicotini receprot on sarcolemma
5. activation of nicotinic receptors generates EPP
6. EPP initiates an AP in the muscle cell membrane (sarcolemma)
7. ACh broken down by acetylcholinesterase into choline plus acetate, choline reuptake into nerve terminal
8. this AP is carried quickly into the large muscle cell by invaginations in the cell membrane called T-tubules
9. the AP causes depolarization of the T-tubule membrane that opens ryanodine receptor on the SR
10. activation of ryanodine receptors leads to the store release of calsium into the myofribirls
11. Ca2+ causes tropomyosin to be displaced uncovering myosin binding sites on actin
12. myosin cross bridges can now attach and the cross bridge cycle can take place
13. relaxation is the reverse of these steps
vesicle synaptic proteins
synaptobrevin and synaptotagmin on the vesicle, SNAP-25 and snytaxin on the cell membrane, steps of endocytosis
1. vesicle docks
2. entering Ca2+ binds to synaptotagmin
2. SNARE complexes form to pull membranes together
3. entering Ca2+ binds to synaptotagmin
4. Ca2+ gound synaptotagmin catalyzes membrane fusion
diseases associated with exocytosis and endocytosis
various steps in the exocytosis and endocytosis cycle are targets for disease that is associated with weakness and fatigability of skeletal muscle, botulinum and tetanus toxins affect SNARE proteins involved in vesicle fusion, LEMS attacks presynaptic Ca2+ channels
Lambert-Eaton myasthetnic syndrome (LEMS)
an autoimmune disease, complication in patients with certain kinds of cancer, recordings from muscle biopsies suggest amplitude of EPPs is reduced but amplitude of MEPPs are normal, blood of such patients high in antibodies to Ca2+ channels, evidence points to an immune defect that leads to a loss of voltage gated presynaptic Ca2+ channels, removal of antibodies reduces muscle weakness, caused by antibodies to the Ca2+ channel in the nerve terminal resulting in DEC release of quanta of acetylcholine, there is a very strong association with neoplasms, particularly with bronchus carcinoma, symptoms are proximal weakness, often with autonomic features, reflexes are absent
myasthenia gravis
autoimmune disease of neuromuscular synapses, seen twice freq in women, there is a peak incidence in the 2nd and 3rd decades and a second in the 6th and 7th, look at the slide on lecture 2, EPPs are down because there are not so many nicotinic receptors
botulinum toxin
prevents release of quanta, Clostridium botulinum, hydrolyzes the synaptic proteins synaptobrevin (Bot. toxins B, D, F, G), syntaxin (Bot. toxin C), SNAP-25 (Bot toxin A, C, and E), inhibits ACh release in NMJs and other synapses, flaccid type of paralysis, usually occurs in people who have eaten improperly preserved foods, the toxin can be destroyed by heating, causes neuromuscular weakness, extreme cases respiratory failure due to paralysis of diaphragm
tetanus
Clostridium tetani, synaptobrevin is the synaptic protein hydrolyzed, inhibits glycine and GABA release in CNS, spastic type of paralysis, occurs when an open wound is exposed to the bacteria, blocks release of inhibitory neurotransmitters form interneurons, loss of synaptic inhibition on spinal motorneurons, results in hyper-excitation of skeletal muscle and tetanic contraction
aminoglycosides (antibiotics) and excess Mg2+
interfere with Ca2+ mediated release of quanta,
black widow spider venom
causes a complete depletion of ACh, there is initial spasms and then paralysis
cobratoxins
bind specifically to the ACh receptor
tetanus toxin and botulinum toxin in common
work by cleaving SNARE proteins involved in fusion of synaptic vesicles with the presynaptic membrane, inhibit transmitter release, lowering transmitter concentration in the synaptic cleft, produced by anaerobic soil bacteria, both protease enzymes
BOTOX
works by physiologically weakening facial muscles beneath the skin that are related to expression lines, contraction of these muscles results in wrinkles, BOTOX blocks the impulses from the nerve to the facial muscles thereby relaxing them, the result is that the pull of the underlying facial muscles relax causing the skin to flatten, results in smooth look
neurotoxins
poisonous insects, shell fish, plants and venomous animals are widespread in nature, many toxins they produce affect the nervous system, especially the neuromuscular junction since this paralyzes prey, given the essential role of ACh in mediating neuromuscular transmission in many species it is not surprising that many toxins affect this synapse
alpha-bungarotoxin
one of the many peptides that make up the venom of the banded krait, paralyses its prey by blocking neuromuscular neurotransmission by irreversibly binding to nicotinic ACh receptors thereby preventing ACh from opening channels on the postsynaptic membrane, other snake toxins that block ACh receptors are cobra and sea snake peptide erabutoxin
conotoxins
these peptides, which are produced by fish hunting marine cone snails, block various Ca2+ channels, Na+ channels, glutamate receptors and ACh receptors
curare
south American arrow head poison used to immobilize prey, it is derived from tree bark Chondodendrum tomentosu
anti-cholinesterase nerve gases
include tabun (GA), soman (GD) and sarin, tabun is an organophosphate type compound that was developed between WWI and II, it can be easily absorbed through the skin, by means of inhalation or ingestion, they symptoms of the poisoning are similar, regardless of the route of introduction, include runny nose, coma, death, drooling, nausea…
atropine sulfate
primary treatment for Tabun and several other nerve agents, it is commonly carried in auto-injectors by military personnel in dosages of 1-2 mgs, however in many cases, massive doses may be necessary to revers the effects of the anticholinesterase agents, freq. 20-40 mgs of atropine may be necessary
pralidoxime chloride
the 2nd drug that is used in the treatment of nerve gas poisoning, used to reactivate the acetylcholinesterase that is bound by the nerve agent
What are the integral components of defense reaction in animals?
1. INC blood flow through skeletal muscle but DEC blood flow through viscera and skin
2. INC blood pressure and heart rate
3. pupil dilation
4. sweat gland activation
5. activation of piloerector muscles (hair stands on end)
6. activation of adrenal medulla (adrenalin) and cortex (corticosteroids)
What is the purpose of the ANS?
with the help of the endocrine system, it regulates the activities of nearly all the tissues throughout the body, and through neural reflex arcs modulates or controls the actions of all the body’s major organ systems including the CV, reproductive, urinary, digestive, respiratory and visual system
What activities of the body is the ANS responsible for regulating?
body temperature (control of skin), endocrine and exocrine secretions, cell metabolism, total body water, electrolyte balance and influences the immune system
What are the two anatomically distinct, mutually antagonistic systems of the ANS?
the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems, sympathetic stimulates the adrenal medulla to release epinephrine and norepinephrine
Who were the researchers who first rationalized the visceral motor system (ANS)?
Walter Gaskell and John Langley
What is the function of autonomic ganglia?
they harbor the primary visceral motor neurons
What was the importance of Walter Cannon to ANS research?
coined homeostasis, lay the basis for neuronal plasticity through understanding the effects of denervation in the ANS, used X-rays to study digestive processes
Why is it important to have an understanding of the ANS?
1. the accessibility of ANS structures has meant that many of our ideas about synaptic transmission and drug action were first developed by studying their effects on ANS effectors, many of these ideas are directly transferable to the CNS since many neurotransmitters are common to both systems
2. autonomic nerves are routinely cut to alleviate several conditions such as peripheral vascular disease, they are severed by trauma or during routine surgery and organ transplantation
3. disease affecting ANS systems are often serious and contribute to morbidity and mortality
Describe what the drugs that work on the ANS do.
they either mimic or block the ANS neurotransmitters, used to treat hypertension, asthma, impotence and constipation, but these drugs do have a variety of side effects
What does bethanochol do?
it is a cholinergic agonist, used in reflux disease to INC lower esophageal sphincter pressure, side effects include abdominal cramps, skin flushing, sweating, lacrimation, salivation, bronchioconstriction, and urinary urgency
Is the ANS completely involuntary?
no, some conscious control can be exerted over some ANS controlled organs such as the bladder and penis, can also train oneself to control BP, blood flow, body temp
What does the SNS and PNS do during sexual arousal?
1. erection comes from the PNS and requires a calm state
2. SNS then takes over and when the PNS is turned off ejaculation occurs
3. erectile dysfunction (ED) can be stress induced, since one needs to be calm for erection, during premature ejaculation a switch from PNS to SNS occurs too quickly
What are the autonomic neurons (visceral efferent neurons)?
neurons lying outside the CNS and the preganglionic neurons in the lateral horns of the spinal cord, exceptions are sensory neurons which have their cell bodies in DRG (cranial sensory ganglia), carry neural impulses to cardiac muscle, smooth muscle and glandular epithelium
Where is the preganglionic input from nerve cell bodies located for the sympathetic neurons?
located in thoracic and lumbar segments of spinal cord (T1-L2 or L3)
Where is the preganglionic input from nerve cell bodies located for the parasympathetic neurons?
located in the brainstem (the cranial parasympathetic outflows) or in the sacral levels of the spinal cord (the sacral parasympathetic outflow, S2-S3)
Where is the preganglionic input from nerve cell bodies located for the enteric neurons?
most have no direct preganglionic input from the CNS, consist of not only efferent (motor neurons) but also contain interneurons and afferent (or sensory) neurons
What are the sympathetic postganglionic axons?
are relatively long with their cell bodies situated at some distance from their effectors
What are the parasympathetic postganglionic axons?
have long axons which project to postganglionic parasympathetic neurons situated relatively close to or on the innervated target tissue
What type of innervation do blood vessels get?
only get a sympathetic innervation, regulate blood vessel diameter (vasoconstriction)
What are the neurontransmitters, in general, for the parasympathetic and sympathetic systems?
parasympathetic-acetycholine, sympathetic-epinephrine
What are the different ganglia for the SNS?
superior cervical, stellate (combination of the inferior cervical and uppermost thoracic), celiac, superior mesenteric, and inferior mesenteric ganglions
What do the prevertebral ganglia innervate?
1. celiac ganglia-stomach
2. superior mesenteric ganglia-small intestine, gall bladder, and pancreas
3. inferior mesenteric ganglia-large bowel and bladder
4. pelvic ganglia-bladder, large bowel, rectum, urethra and penis
What is the purpose of the enteric nervous system (ENS)?
controls intestinal motility and secretion of water and electrolytes
Where is the ENS located?
it lies within the gut wall and contains as many neurons as the spinal cord (~1 billion) capable of own reflex activity since it continas sensory neurons, interneurons and motor neurons
What is the purpose of the myenteric (Auerbach’s) plexus?
it regulates motility (gut movements), motor functions
What is the purpose of the submucous (Meissner’s) plexus?
regulates secretion of water and electrolytes across intestinal epithelium, sensory functions, chemical monitoring and glandular secretion
Describe the parsympathetic innervation of the GI tract
vagal parasympathetic fibers make widespread connections within the ENX, 90% of the 50,000 vagal fibers are afferent, 5,000 efferent fibers innervate > 10^8 enteric neurons, GI tract gets vagal and pelvic pathways from pre-ganglionic efferent neurons originating in the brainstem and sacral spinal cord respectively
Describe the efferent fibers of the ENS.
they are thin that conduct at the <2.5 m/s range, make synaptic connections with post-ganglionic neurons which are part of the ENS, Ach is the main transmitter and acts via nicotinic receptors, although in some species and regions muscarinic receptors may also be involved
Where are the preganglionic sympathetic neurons located
in the lateral horns of the gray matter
Describe the sympathetic innervation of the head and neck.
the axons of preganglionic neurons in the upper thoracic region of the spinal cord enter the sympathetic chains at the same level and then ascend the chain to synapse with sympathetic postganglionic neurons in important paravertebral ganglia (superior, middle and inferior cervical ganglia) in the neck
Describe the sympathetic innervation of the pelvic organs
preganglionic axons descend the chains to synapse with postganglionic neurons in sacral ganglia
What do the paravertebral ganglia provide sympathetic innervation to?
blood vessels, eye and lacrimal glands, heart and airways (stellate ganglion), salivary glands, sweat glands and hair follicles
What nuclei give presynaptic parasympathetic neurons?
Edinger-Westphal, superior and inferior salivatory, visceral motor division of the nucleus ambiguous, dorsal motor nucleus, sacral parasympathetic pelvic ganglia
What is the location and purpose of the Edinger-Westphal (accessory oculomotor) nucleus?
found in the midbrain and innervates the ciliary ganglion via oculomotor nerve (III) to regulate diameter of pupil in response to light
What is the location and purpose of the superior and inferior salivatory nuclei?
found in the pons and medulla, innervate, via facial nerve (VII) and glossopharyngeal nerve (IX), the salivary and tear glands mediating salivary secretion and production of tears
what is the location and purpose of the visceral motor division of the nucleus ambiguus and dorsal motor nucleus (DMN) (which is a part of the vagus)?
lie in the medulla, neurons in the ventral lateral part of the nucleus ambiguus provide an inhibitory innervation to the cardiac ganglion via the vagus, dorsal part of DMN regulates secretion of the thorax and abdomen, ventral part of the DMN controls motor responses to the heart, lungs and gut (slowing of the heart, constricting the bronchioles, contractions of the gut)
What is the purpose of the sacral parasympathetic pelvic ganglia?
excite bladder and colon and reproductive system
What are the major parasympathetic ganglia?
they are cranial ganglia and include ciliary (iris and ciliary muscle), sphenopalatine (lacrimal gland), submandibular (sublingual and submandibular gland) and otic (parotid gland)
What are the parasympathetic ganglia that lie outside the head?
airways, cardiac plexus, hypogastric plexus (mixed para and symp, innervate the intestine and bladder) and pelvic ganglia (bladder and intestine)
Where do the cell bodies of preganglionic parasympathetic neurons that synapse with postganglionic neurons exit?
exit through the cranial nerves
Describe the neurotransmission of preganglionic neurons
most sympathetic and parasympathetic preganglionic neurons are cholinergic, utilizing acetylcholine as a neurotransmitter, Ach excites postganglionic neurons by stimulating nicotinic receptors on their dendrites and somata
Describe the neurotransmission of postganglionic sympathetic neurons
are noradrenergic, uses norepinephrine (NE) as a neurotransmitter on cardiac and smooth muscle, glands and cardiac SA and VA node cells (parasympathetic only works on glands and SA and VA node), acts on adrenergic alpha or beta receptors on effector cells which usually causes excitation or inhibition of smooth muscle respectively, NE constricts blood vessels via activation of alpha receptors but relaxes parts of the bladder via beta receptors, elicit fast excitatory postsynaptic potentials (fEPSPs)
Describe the synthesis, loading and degradation of catecholamines.
1. synthesis-
a. Tyr + O2 -> DOPA (via tyrosine hydroxylase)
b. DOPA -> dopamine + CO2 (via DOPA decarboxylase)
c. dopamine + O2 -> NE (via Dopamine-beta-hydroxylase)
d. NE -> epinephrine (via phenylethanolamin N-methyl-transferase)
2. loading-loaded into vesicles by a vesicular monoamine transporter (VMAT), cleared from the synaptic cleft by the NE transporter (NET)
3. degradation-monamine oxidase (MAO) and catechol O-methyl-transferase (COMT) contained in glia and mito
Describe the cholinergic receptor types and their effects.
1. nicotinic-supply most parasympathetic targets (and all autonomic ganglion cells), their response is a relatively fast postsynaptic response
2. muscarinic-there are M1, M2, and M3 types, supply smooth muscles and glands (M1 and M3) as well as cardiac muscles (M2), responsible for smooth muscle contraction, glandular secretion and reduction in heart rate
Describe the different types of adrenergic receptors.
there are alpha-1 and 2 as well as beta-1, 2, and 3 subtypes, responsible for sympathetic responses
What is the morphology of the postganglionic vascoconstrictor neuron and its neureffector synapse?
1. neuron forms many (~1000) varicosities close to the blood vessel, are arranged close to the smooth muscle cells
2. terminal branches of the postganglionic axon form nonadrenergic plexus at the adventitial site around the blood vessel, smooth muscle cells are electrically and chemically coupled by gap junction channels forming a functional syncytium
What do APs in smooth muscles in the blood vessels do
synaptic nerve stimulation releases NE which activates alpha 1 receptos on the smooth muscle, blocked by parzosin, AP in smooth muscle are caused by Ca2+ influx through L-type Ca2+ channels blocked nicardinine, nifedinine and verapamil
What does sympathetic innervation do to arteries and veins to the gut?
it constricts arteries and veins to the gut reducing blood flow there, thus INC blood volume for the rest of the body, major targets include the vessels in the mesentery and gut wall, utilize noradrenaline (norepinephrine), ATP and often one or more peptides (NPY)
What role does ATP and noreadrenaline play in sympathetic innervation?
ATP causes significant depolarization of smooth muscle, noradrenaline is the major excitatory transmitter causing significant vascoconstriction which is blocked by the blocker by the blocker of adrenergic transmission (guanethidine)
What do the cholinergic sympathetic neurons do?
innervate eccrine sweat glands in the skin (stimulation), some cutaneous blood vessels and arteries (inhibition) in skeletal muscle, activates NO production
What is the mechanism of ACh activated NO production
ACh binds on muscarinic receptos, leads to an INC in Ca2+ in endothelial cells which stimulates NO synthase (NOS) to generate NO, turns L-arginine into NO and L citrilline
How does viagra work?
it INC NO production, can lead to hypertension, it is an inhibitor of cyclic GMP-specific phosphodiesterase INC the level of NO and blood flow through the genitals, PDE turns cGMP into GMP, by inhibiting PDE, cGMP is not broken down acting to prolong the effects of cGMP and the erection
Where do the sympathetic and parasympathetic neurons derive from?
they derive from neural crest cells
What determines whether or not a neuron uses cholinergic or noradrenergic receptors?
depends on trophic factors in the tissue environment in which the neurons reside after migration
What are the different combinations of chemical coding of postganglionic sympathetic neurons?
1. NE/NPY (neuropeptide Y)-cutaneous vasculature (+)
2. NE-piloerector muscles (+)
3. ACh (Chat)/VIP (vasoinhibitory polypeptide) -sweat glands (+), cutaneous vessels (-)
4. NE/NPY-skeletal muscle vasculature (+), skeletal muscle (-)
5. ACh (Chat)-vasculature
What determines the degree of divergence in autonomic ganglia?
the degree of divergence of individual preganglionic neurons on postganglionic neurons probably is a function of the size of target organ (and therefore body size) and of the type of autonomic final pathway (low divergence in the pupillomotor pathway and high degree of divergence in vasoconstrictor pathways)
What determines the degree of convergence in autonomic ganglia?
the degree of convergence varies between different autonomic pathways
Describe the spinal autonomic reflex pathways.
it is the building block between supraspinal centers and final autonomic pathways, usually at least one interneuron (can be excitatory or inhibitory) between primary afferent neurons and preganglionic neurons
What is the consequence of spinal cord transaction for spinal autonomic systems?
1. denervation of preganglionic neurons and autonomic interneurons
2. changes of geometry of preganglionic neurons
3. sprouting of afferent neurons
4. neurochemical changes of afferent neurons
What are the important effectors in thermoregulation?
1. eccrine sweat glands
2. cutaneous resistance vessels
3. piloerector muscles
4. nose
5. lungs
What are the roles of NE and ACh in sympathetic innervation of the skin?
NE is responsible for pilomotor and vasoconstriction, ACh is responsible for sudomotor and vasodilator
What is ANS response to a lowering of body temperature
INC metabolism, DEC cutaneous blood supply by INCing sympathetic activity to the blood vessels in the skin, and piloerection which traps a layer of insulating air in hairs near the skin surface
What is the ANS response to an increase in body temperature?
leads to an INC in evaporative cooling by DECing sympathetic activity to blood vessels in the skin resulting in vasodilation of cutaneous vessels, especially of the hands and feet, dilation of cutaneous blood vessels by activation of postganglionic sympathetic neurons, a release of sweat by INCing sympathetic activity to eccrine glands and hyperventilation that is more apparent in some mammals such as the dog
What is the importance of autonomic reflexes?
activity in the ANS depends on the integration of a variety of reflex arcs often involving integrative centers in autonomic ganglia, the spinal cord, brain stem and hypothalamus, usually involves interneurons
Where are the cell bodies of visceral sensory afferents located?
have cell bodies located in the DRG and in sensory ganglia associated with glossopharyngeal and vagus CN and in the trigeminal ganglia, most that mediate sensation and nociception accompany the sympathetic nerves (splanchnics) whereas those involved in reflexes regulating visceral tone and motility and secretion accompany parasympathetic nerves (vagus and pelvic nerves)
What is the purpose of visceral afferents
they monitor the activity in a variety of tissues, their fibers accompany both sympathetic and parasympathetic efferent nerves to their targets
What are the components of a basic spinal reflex arc?
1. visceral afferent neurons plus sensory receptor
2. interneuron
3. preganglionic neuron
4. postganglionic neuron
5. effector
What are the different classes of visceral afferent receptors?
chemoreception, mechanoreception, thermoreception, nociception
Describe chemoreception.
nerve endings sensitive to pH, P O2, P CO2 in intestinal tract, bladder, kidneys, blood vessels, regulation of intestinal motility and blood pressure
describe mechanoreception.
stretch sensitive nerve endings in hollow organs (eg heart, intestine, bladder), some are sensitive to movements of intestinal mucosal villi, piloerection, they regulate contractility of bladder and intestine and blood pressure
describe thermoreception
nerve endings sensitive to temperature, found in the skin, GI tract
describe nociception
nerve endings sensitive to pain, especially overstretching of visceral organs, they are found in most internal organs, bladder, intestine etc.
What are the different types of visceral reflexes?
supraspinal, viscero-cutaneous and viscero-somatic reflexes
Describe supraspinal reflexes.
the afferent fibers can ascend the spinal cord or directly enter supraspinal sites, neurons in reflex centers provide output to preganglionic neurons in the spinal cord or medulla
describe viscero-cutaneous reflexes.
stimulation of nociceptos in visceral organs can lead to a reddening of the skin over the organ as activity in postganglionic sympathetic neurons innervating blood vessels in the skin is reduced
describe viscero-somatic reflexes
stimulation of nociceptive afferent in viscera by noxious stimuli can lead to a tightening of skeletal muscles over sensitive viscera due to activation of somatic motor neurons in the spinal cord by visceral afferent impulses
Describe dual afferent innervation.
when both sympathetic and parasympathetic afferents innervate an organ, found in the major thoracic, abdominal and pelvic organs, most of these fibers are unmyelinated
What are the percentages between afferent and efferent fibers in the body?
20% of the total nerve fibers running with sympathetic nerves are afferent, 80% of all fibers in vagus are afferent and 50% of fibers in the pelvic nerves are afferent
Describe pain in terms of the sympathetic and parasympathetic stimulation.
1. splanchnic nerve stimulation elicits severe pain in conscious humans
2. chronic visceral pain (cancer, severe peripheral vascular disease) can be relieved by surgically sectioning sympathetic nerve trunks but not parasympathetic nerve trunks
Can visceral sensations be localized?
they are difficult to localize because of the relative lack of visceral sensory neurons compared to mechanosensory neurons to skin and deeper somatic structures visceral, visceral sensations are thus diffuse
What is the major effect of sympathetic neurons in the gut wall?
cause inhibition of enteric neuronal transmission, mostly by presynaptic inhibition via alpha adrenoceptors, however they also cause vascoconstriction and changes in secretion and muscle tone
what are the two divisions of parasympathetic neurons innervating the gut?
parasympathetic efferent neurons use acetylcholine as their primary transmitter, may also use modulatory peptides such as VIP
1. vagal efferent neurons with cell bodies in the dorsal vagal nucleus
2. sacral efferent neurons, have cell bodies in the sacral parasympathetic nucleus of spinal cord or in extrinsic pelvic ganglia near the rectum
How do parasympathetic efferents mediate both contraction and relaxation in the gut?
mediate it through their nicotinic synaptic input to excitatory and inhibitory motorneurons, parasympathetic efferents make exclusively excitatory synaptic outlets but the final common effector may show either net excitation or net inhibition, seen in the stomach where vagal efferent stimulation leads to relaxation of the proximal stomach but contractile activity in the distal stomach
Where are the sympathetic neurons to the gut wall located?
mostly located in the prevertebral ganglia (celiac, superior mesenteric and inferior mesenteric ganglions), a minority are located in the paravertebral ganglia (sympathetic chain) and a few lie in the pelvic ganglia
What are the neurotransmitters used by the sympathetic neurons in the gut?
most use noradrenaline as their primary transmitter, some also release modulatory substance such as neuropeptide Y, somatostatin or ATP
What are the targets of the sympathetic neurons in the gut wall?
different types of neurons (determined by the cotransmitters that they contain) so there is a degree of independent neural regulation, innervate separate targets in the gut wall, 3 targets are the secretomotor pathways in the submucous ganglia, motor pathways largely concentrated in myenteric ganglia and direct vasoconstrictor innervation of blood vessels
What cotransmitters are found on each of the different types of neurons in the gut wall?
1. adrenergic fibers on blood vessels contain peptide NPY
2. submucous ganglia lack NPY but contain somatostatin immunoreactivity
3. adrenergic fibers to the myenteric ganglia appear to lack both NPY and somatostatin
What are the major types of synaptic input and their transmitters to the sympathetic neurons of the gut?
sympathetic neurons to the gut receive synaptic input from 3 sources (preganglionic neurons from the spinal cord (powerful and prominent, ACh), viscerofugal (enteric) neurons (ACh) and spinal afferent neurons (ACh and peptides: SP and CGRP)
What activates sympathetic neurons in the gut?
are activated by cholinergic synaptic inputs form viscerofugal (enteric) neurons in the gut, these neurons have cell bodies in myenteric ganglia and which project via the mesenteric nerves to the prevertebral sympathetic ganglia
What supplies innervation to the airways?
supplied by autonomic fibers that are found associated with smooth muscle, submucous glands and bronchial blood vessels
What are the roles of the parasympathetic nerve fibers in terms of the respiratory system?
they are cholinergic, tonically contract airway smooth muscle via muscarinic receptors affecting bronchioconstriction, other nerve fibers release NO and VIP to relax airway smooth muscle, others also release ACh and VIP to promote bronchial secretion
What are the roles of the sympathetic nerve fibers in terms of the respiratory system?
there are adrenergic receptors on smooth muscle but there is no known sympathetic innervation of the smooth muscle of the airways, sympathetic nerves likely inhibit secretion
What is the basis for asthma drugs?
stimulation of beta-2 receptors leads to relaxation of the airways and gut smooth muscle through INCing cAMP, wherease beta-1 receptors INC heart rate by INCing cAMP, inhalers stimulate both the beta-1 and beta-2 receptors, so DECing asthma attacks may lead to racing heart
what are the different drugs for asthma?
albuterol (terbutaline and metaproterenol) and beta-2 selective agonists (bronchodilation inhalation vs. oral, less side effects)
How does the ANS control BP?
use baroreceptor reflexes
what happens when the baroreceptor reflexes are compromised?
feeling faint when standing, especially in old age, fainting while on parade due to venous pooling in legs
Describe baroreceptors.
are mechanosensitive sensory nerve fibers within blood vessel walls that are stimulated by stretching of the vessel wall by INC in intravascular pressure, associated with many major blood vessels, most important are those found at the bifurcation of the common carotid arteries (carotid sinus) and those found in the aorta (aortic arch baroreceptors)
where are the cell bodies of the afferent fibers to the carotid sinus and aortic arch baroreceptors found?
located within cranial sensory ganglia associated with the IX and X cranial nerves, they transmit their afferent signals to brainstem nuclei
What happens when the BP falls?
when BP falls there is a DEC in activity in the aortic arch and carotid sinus baroreceptor sensory neurons, this leads to activation of the SNS and a withdrawal of parasympathetic input, sympathetic stimulation leads to an INC in heart rate, cardiac output and activation of vasoconstrictor neurons in the paravertebral ganglia, so BP rises
What happens when the BP rises?
an INC in BP leads to stimulation of baroreceptors with an INC in AP firing in sensory nerves with cell bodies in superior and inferior sensory ganglion of CN IX, activity in these sensory nerves is integrated in the medulla, also INC in AP firing in CN X and DEC in preganglionic sympathetic nerves (which innervates the heart and blood vessels)
What effect does the parasympathetic preganglionci nerve fibers have on heart rate?
DEC heart rate by stimulating postganglionic parasympathetic neurons on the heart, these release ACh onto M1 on SA node cells to slow heart rate, a reduction in sympathetic activity leads to reduction in both heart rate and strength of contractions of the myocardium as well as vasodilation
What controls bladder function?
ANS via micturition centers in the pons
Describe the filling phase of bladder control.
the filling phase is via SNS, preganglionic sympathetic fibers originate in T10-L2, postganglionic sympathetic nerve fibers to IMG and ganglia in pelvic plexus, postganglionic neurons relaxs detrusor muscle (NE or beta-receptors), constrct trigone smooth muscle and close internal urethral sphincter (NE on alpha-receptors)
Describe the emptying phase or micturition of bladder control.
the emptying phase is via PNS, at a certain threshold volume sympathetic activity is switched off, preganglionic parasympathetic neurons in S2-S4 are activated, these synapses with postganglionic parasympathetic neurons in pelvic plexus to cause contraction of the detrusor muscle (ACh on muscarinic receptors).
What senses distension in the bladder wall?
sensory afferent fibers with cell bodies in the DRG do, moderate distension inhibits parasympathetic pathways underlying bladder emptying
What is the somatic component of bladder control?
the pudendal nerve is responsible for contraction of the pelvic floor musculature and is under voluntary control, thus also playing a role in voiding
Describe bladder control in infants.
1. in the infant, urination is purely a local reflex centered in the lower portion of the spinal cord, involuntary voiding occurs whenever the bladder is sufficiently full in infants <2, results from stretch receptors transmitting impulses to the sacral micturition center in the spinal cord, this center causes detrusor muscle contraction of the bladder
2. between 2 and 3, a special area in the brain develops and nerve pathways to that center allows the child to detect a sensation of bladder fullness
3. an area in the lower part of the brain (pontine micturition center) develops enough to coordinate sphincter relaxation during voiding
4. at ~4 to 5 years old, child learns conscious bladder control and develops the ability to inhibit the bladder center in the sacral spinal cord
What causes continence during sleep?
results from the unconscious inhibition of detrusor muscle contraction by an area in the brain known as the basal ganglia
How do paraplegic patients have bladder control?
paraplegic patients have lost descending control of the sacral spinal cord, urination is stimulated reflexly at the level of the sacral cord by sufficient bladder distension (similar to infant < 2 years, may need an indwelling catheter to ensure adequate drainage
What type of innervation do the salivary glands have?
thye have a dual innervation, parasympathetic postganglionic cholinergic neurons aids secretion by relaxing the smooth muscle of neighboring arterioles thereby INCing local blood flow, PNS produces a copious serous fluid, postganglionic sympathetic nerves release NE onto alpha-receptors to also INC secretion from the salivary glands, but produce a mucous secretion that makes the mouth feel dry
What is involved in the iris-accommodation reflex?
accommodation is an adaptation of the visual apparatus to facilitate near vision, involves an INC in the curvature (and therefore the refractive power) of the lens, papillary constriction to help sharpen the image on the retina, and convergence of the eyes to fixate on the target object
What are the parasympathetic pathways involved in the papillary light reflex?
walking into a bright room leads to a stong activation of Edinger-Westphal (accessory occulomotor) nucleus and constrction of pupil
What are the sympathetic pathways involved in the papillary light reflex?
walking into a dark room leads to strong activation of superior cervical ganglion and dilation of pupil
Describe the pathway for the papillary light reflex.
axons from the superior colliculi and pretectal nuclei project to both the Edinger-Westphal and oculomotor nuclei, signals from the Edinger-Westphal nuclei travel via the ipsilateral oculomotor nerve to reach the ciliary and constrictor pupilae muscles of the eye, contraction of the ciliary muscle causes the lens to INC its curvature (and thus its refractive power), while contraction of the constrictor pupillae reduces the size of the papillary aperture
Describe Horner’s Syndrome.
caused by damage to pathway that controls sympathetic innervation of the head (damage to the sympathetic chain in the head), symptoms include constriction of pupil on the side of the lesion, ptosis (droopy eyelids), dry face (DEC sweating) and flushed face (due to INC skin temperature)
What determines the functional state of the penis (and clitoris)?
whether flaccid or erect it is governed by smooth muscle tone within the corpus cavernosum and corpus spongiosum
What maintains smooth muscle tone and flaccidity (detumescence)?
SNS and myogenic mechanisms, SNS is responsible for ejactulation-contraction of the vas deferens, in the flaccid state a dominant sympathetic influence prevails and arterial and corporal smooth muscle are contracted, as a result only a minimal amount of blood flows through the cavernous artery into the lacunar spaces
What induces smooth muscle relaxation and erection (tumescence)?
PNS, NO released from both PNS and vascular endothelium by ACh is the principal mediator of tumescence (relaxation of corporal smooth muscles and erection)
What role does Ca2+ play in detumesence?
rhythmic activity in pacemaker (ICC) cells spreads to the smooth muscle and is responsible for myogenic tone that produces flaccidity of penis, there is also rhythmic Ca2+ transients in smooth muscle of penis
What role does NO play in tumescence
NO is the principal agent responsible for relaxation of penile smooth muscle,
How is NO synthesized
is formed from arginine by the enzyme nitric oxide synthase (NOS)
Describe the pathway to erection
in response to sexual stimulation, parasympathetic stimulation leads to an INC in NO production, NO causes a DEC in peripheral resistance due to vasodilation and INC blood flow through the cavernous and helicine arteries, INC blood volume, erection occurs and blood flow through the cavernous artery ceases because of compression of the dorsal vein of penis
Describe the pathway to detumescence after erection.
results when elevated sympathetic activity INC the tone of the helicine arteries and contraction of trabecular smooth muscle occurs
How is the signal for NO production terminated?
cGMP is converted into GMP by PDE, cGMP is needed in NO synthesis
How does NO work
Acetylcholine causes the production of inositol triphosphate (IP3), an important second messenger in many hormone signal transduction pathways. IP3 opens calcium channels in the endoplasmic membrane of the endothelial cells; the liberated calcium then activates NO synthase and causes the production of NO. Whatever the source, endothelial cells or cavernous nerve, NO diffuses across the muscle cell membrane and binds to guanylyl cyclase. Guanylyl cyclase catalyzes the synthesis of cyclic GMP from GTP. cGMP then activates a cGMP dependent protein kinase which in turn stimulates the uptake of calcium by the endoplasmic reticulum of the muscle cell. The reduced levels of cytoplasmic calcium which causes the muscle cell to relax. As a consequence of muscle cell relaxation, vasodilation occurs.
What are the reflex centers that regulate the outflow of the sympathetic and parastympathetic nervous systems to specific organs?
1. cardiovascular center (regulates heart rate)
2. vasomotor center (regulates blood vessel diameter)
3. micturition center (controls bladder function)
4. papillary center (controls the amount of light entering the pupil)
5. respiratory center (controls depth and rate of respiration)
6. swallowing center (coordinates peristalsis through the pharynx and esophagus)
7. vomiting center (coordinates reverse peristalsis in GI tract)
what do neurons in these higher centers do?
project either into the parasympathetic nuclei to either inhibit or excite preganglionic parasympathetic neurons or down the spinal cord via interneurons to either inhibit or excite preganglionic sympathetic neurons
What functions do the afferent activity from viscera serve?
1. it provides feedback input to local reflexes that modulate moment-to-moment visceral motor activity within individual organs
2. it informs higher integrative centers of more complex patterns of stimulation that may singnal potentially threatening conditions and/or require the coordination of more widespread visceral motor, somatic motor, neuroendocrine, and behavioral activites
What is the purpose of the nucleus of the solitary tract in the medulla?
it is the central structure that receives visceral information and distributes accordingly
what is the main function of the hypothalamus?
homeostasis (maintaining the body’s status quo), holds factors such as blood pressure, temperature, fluid and electrolyte balance and weight are held to a precise value called the set point (which can migrate over time, but from day to day it is remarkably fixed), can control every endocrine gland in the body
How does the hypothalamus function?
secretes hormones (neuropeptides) and growth factors that regulate the body, allows the ANS to influence the immune system
what is the function of the limbic system?
it links emotional responses to ideas and images with the hypothalamus
What are the two main outputs from the hypothalamus?
1. neural signals to the autonomic centers in the medulla-allows the hypothalamus to control heart rate, vasoconstriction, digestion, and sweating
2. endocrine signals to/through the pituitary-neurons project into the posterior pituitary where axon terminals release oxytocin and vasopressin into the bloodstream, other neurons release factors into the capillary system of the anterior pituitary, induce the anterior pituitary to secrete any one of at least six hormones (ACTH, TSH)
What information does the hypothalamus consider?
1. contextual information-cerebral cortex, amygdale, hippocampal formation
2. sensory inputs-visceral and somatic sensory pathways, chemosensory and humoral signals
3. after comparing these inputs to the biological set points and undergoes visceral motor, somatic motor, neuroendocrine, behavioral responses
What are cholinergic symptoms (as seen with organophosphate/pesticide poisoning, for example)?
“SLUDGE” syndrome (salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation, GI distress (abdominal cramps), emesis (vomiting)
What are anti-cholinergic symptoms (seen with exposure to atropine, for example)?
mad as a hatter=seizures, hallucinations
blind as a bat=papillary dilation
hot as a hare=no sweating
dry as a bone=no secretions
red as a beet=flushing (as in with exercise, not parasympathetic flush with blushing)
Describe the receptor potential.
channel opens in response to mechanical pressure, has a small response (compared to AP), graded (harder pressure evokes a larger response) and not conducted very far, a passive response
Describe the synaptic potential.
channels open in reponse to a neurotransmitter, response is small (compared to AP), graded (more neurotransmitter evokes a larger response) and not conducted very far, passive response
What is the purpose of gap junctions in between cells?
connect cells to be electrically coupled, gives the two cells the same membrane potential, gap junctions allow ions to move between the cells
Describe what bi-directional conduction was.
very fast conduction between two coupled hippocampal neurons, they are nearly perfectly synchronized, it is good for coordinating electrical activity of a population of cells (particular CNS neurons (hormone-secreting cells in hypothalamus), cardiac muscle and smooth muscle)
What are synaptic vesicles?
membrane bound organelles in the presynaptic terminal contain one or several different neurotransmitters
What are synaptic clefts?
a relatively wide space separating the pre and post-synaptic neurons
What are the steps found in neurotransmission?
1. synthesize neurotransmitter and load vesicle
2. AP
3. and 4. open calcium channels, Ca2+ influx
5-8. vesicles fuse, neurotransmitter is released, diffuses into cleft, binds to receptors, receptors do whatever they do
9. postsynaptic neurons responds
9.5. inactivate or remove the neurotransmitter
10. vesicular membrane retrieved
What drugs disrupt the steps found in neurotransmission?
1. lidocaine-blocks the AP
2. conotoxin-blocks the Ca2+ influx
3. BoTX-block the vesicle release
4. curare-block the receptor (ACh)
5. physostigmine, prozac-block inactivation/uptake of neurotransmitter
What is the role of Ca2+ in a voltage-change across the membrane triggers a biochemical event?
voltage activates voltage-gated Ca2+ channels in the presynaptic membrane provide Ca2+ to trigger the release of neurotransmitter, if extracellular Ca2+ is removed or Ca2+ entry is blocked there will be no release (Ca2+ removal is done in the lab, block of Ca2+ entry is done clinically)
What is co-transmission?
the ability of all neurons to release several to many neurotransmitters
What types of vesicles hold small-molecule neurotransmitters and neuropeptides?
small-moleculare neurotransmitter in small clear-core vesicles, neuropeptide in large dense-core vesicles
Describe low-frequency stimulation.
a small number of AP raises Ca2+ only near the membrane, releasing the clear core vesicles, sustained stimulation will mobilize the release of the neuropeptides
Describe high-frequency stimulation.
a high number of AP raises the Ca2+ throughout the entire synaptic terminal, the neuropeptides are released as well
What is the model for vesicle recycling?
1. vesicles bud from the endosome and fill with transmitter
2. vesicles dock at release site (being primed to undergo exocytosis)
3. vesicles fuse into the plasma membrane (exocytosis, in response to INC Ca2+)
4. vesicle membrane retrieved by endocytosis (through clathrin coated pits)
5. vesicles return to the endosome
What is the “kiss-and-run” model?
a model for vesicle fusion, states that vesicle fusion seems to be incomplete and that only part of the vesicle touches the membrane, releases its contents, then closes back up, some vesicles are competent for the kiss and run method while others are not
What are the more important proteins involved in vesicle release discussed in class?
SNARES, synaptotagmin and Ca2+ channel
What is the purpose of the Ca2+ channels?
they release Ca2+ for this system, into the presynaptic bulb
What is the purpose of synaptotagmin?
it is the Ca2+ sensor on the vesicle
What are some examples of SNARES?
synaptobrevin (on the vesicle), syntaxin (on the membrane), SNAP-25 (which is not a SNAP, found on the membrane and regulates the assembly of two other SNARES)
What is the molecular mechanism for vesicle binding?
1. vesicle docks with the three types of SNARES, synaptotagmin and the Ca2+ channels not interacting with each other
2. Ca2+ enters and binds to synaptotagmin
3. SNARE complexes form to pull membranes together
4. Ca2+ bound synaptotagmin catalyzes membrane fusion
Why is it important to study the details of the release of neurotransmitters?
it is a target for drug action, new methods are revealing new facets of the process
Why is permeability important for determining membrane potential?
the contribution of an ion gradient to the membrane potential is weighted by the permeability of the cell membrane to that ion, if Pk is large, Em is close to Ek, Pna is large, Em is close to Ena, see GHK equation
What are three rules that govern the effect of the ion gradient on membrane potential?
1. each ion gradient contributes a gradient o the membrane potential
2. permeability has an effect on the gradient
3. permeability is controlled by opening and closing of ion channels
Describe the effect on nonselective channels on the membrane potential.
nonselective channels are channels that open that allow both Na+ and K+ through the membrane, both Pna and Pk will INC and the membrane potential will move toward a potential in between Ena and Ek, use GHK equation, makes the membrane potential less negative (depolarization)
What happens when the membrane potential is set to different values and nonselective channels are opened?
if set to a positive value (+65), then the membrane potential will become more negative (move toward 0), if set to 0 mV, then the membrane potential will not change staying at 0 mV
Describe the reversal potential (Erev).
it is the target potential associated with the opening of a particular channel, for a highly selective channel, Erev is the Nernst equilibrium potential of the chosen ion, for a non-selective channel, Erev will be between the Nernst equilibrium potentials of the ions that pass through the channel
What is the general rule for how Erev works?
the general rule is that the action of a neurotransmitter drives the postsynaptic potential toward Erev for the particular ion channels being activated
Describe the main channels that generate receptor potentials.
the main channels activated by neurotransmitters are selective for Cl- or Ca2+ or are nonselective for monovalent cations, rarer channels are selective for K+ and Na+, this is different from the channels that generate the AP (which are usually highly selective for Na+ or K+ or Ca2+
What type of potential is Erev if it is positive to threshold?
the event is an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP)
Describe EPSPs.
the EPSP caused by a single presynaptic AP in a single axon typically does not reach Erev or threshold and would not fire an AP, if multiple EPSPs are triggered by multiple presynaptic APs then it may reach threshold
What type of potential is Erev if it is negative to threshold?
the event is an inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP), especially if it is negative to resting potential, if it is more positive than the resting potential, but lower than threshold, opening these channels (usually Cl- channels) stabilizes the membrane potential near Erev making it harder to get to threshold, therefore it is possible to get an IPSP that is depolarizing the membrane potential
What type of potential do Ca2+ or nonselective for cations channels mediate?
EPSPs
What type of potential do K+ channels mediate?
IPSP
What type of potential do Cl- channels mediate?
IPSPs unless Ecl is positive to threshold, where it would be an EPSP, Cl- can sometimes be excitatory
Describe summation of the various inputs that a neuron receives
for summation, location and timing are very important, if a neuron receives a combination of EPSPs and IPSPs, just sum the value of all the potentials (that occur at the same time, those that occur later are not summed if the previous potential has already passed) to calculate the total potential
What triggers an EPP (end plate potential)?
at the NMJ, one AP in the motor neuron evokes an EPP that triggers one AP in the muscle fiber, EPPs are huge (about 15 mV) and will take you to threshold, if it doesn’t then it is pathological
what triggers EPSPs and IPSPs?
at neuron to neuron synapses, APs in the presynaptic neurons typically evoke EPSPs or IPSPs that INC or DEC, respectively, the likelihood that the postsynaptic neurons will fire an AP (whether or not threshold is reached)
Describe retrograde signaling.
allows for postsynaptic neurons to signal back to the presynaptic neuron, for example, activation of glutamate receptors raises [Ca2+]i generating a retrograde signal, some other examples of retrograde transmitters include NO, CO, cannabinoids and prostaglandins
How are presynaptic receptors responsible for regulating release?
neurotransmitters release from the presynaptic terminal can come from the neuron itself or other neurons and it is common for a neurotransmitter to inhibit its own release
What are the different families of receptors?
ligand-gated ion channels (ionotrophic receptors), G-protein coupled receptors (metabotropic receptors), receptor tyrosine kinases
Descirbe the ligand-gated ion channels (ionotrophic receptors).
the response of this channel type is limited to the channel opening or closing unless the ion is Ca2+, thousands of different receptor types are made by mixing and matching subunits (potentially)
Describe the G-protein coupled receptors.
binding of the neurotransmitter activates trimeric G-proteins that directly and/or indirectly influence the opening and closing of ion channels (along with a thousand other activities), there are only a few (<10) receptor types (monomers), have an unlimited response mediated by G-proteins, Ca2+, kinases, phosphatases
Describe the mechanism of the G-protein coupled receptors.
1. neurotransmitter binds
2. G-protein becomes activated
3. G-protein subunits or intracellular messengers modulate ion channels
4. ion channel opens
5. ion flows across membrane
Describe the receptor tyrosine kinases and there mechanism of action.
binding of the ligand activates a tyrosine kinase that directly and/or indirectly influence the opening and closing of ion channels (along with a thousand other activities), when the signal binds, the enzyme becomes activated and the enzyme generates a product
What is the difference between inotrophic and ionotrophic?
inotrophic is related to the force of contraction of a muscle (cardiac electrophysiology) while ionotrophic is a type of channel that lets ions through channels
What are the necessary criteria for a molecule to be considered a neurotransmitter?
1. present (or made quickly) presynaptically
2. Ca2+-dependent release (or generation)
3. postsynaptic receptors
4. application mimics release
5. blockers prevent action
What are some examples of small molecule neurotransmitters?
1. amino acids-glutamate, aspartate, GABA, glycine
2. biogenic amines-catecholamines (norepinephrine and epinephrine), serotonin (5-HT) and histamine
3. purines-ATP, ADP, adenosine
Describe the properties of the small molecule neurotransmitters.
are synthesized in the presynaptic terminal, necessary enzymes are made in the cell body, transported down to the presynaptic terminal (slow axonal transport), where the enzymes are made and work, packed in small clear-core vesicles usually
Describe the properties of the neuropeptides
there are a lot of these and they are not easily summarized, are large neurotransmitters, most of which are found in the GI system, synthesized and processed into vesicles in the cell body, fast axonal transport to the terminal, packaged in dense-core vesicles
what is an example of a neuropeptide?
an example is gastrin releasing peptide (GPR) and it plays a role in creating memory of fearful situations, mutants that lack receptors for GPR have trouble forgetting scary experiences
what are some unconventional neurotransmitters
endocannabinoids, NO, CO, hydrogen sulfide
What are the postsynaptic effects, precursors, rate-limiting step in synthesis, removal mechanism and type of vesicle for ACh?
1. postsynaptic effect-excitatory
2. precursor-choline + acetyl CoA
3. rate-limiting step-CAT
4. removal mechanism-AChEase
5. type of vesicle-small, clear
What are the postsynaptic effects, precursors, rate-limiting step in synthesis, removal mechanism and type of vesicle for glutamate?
1. postsynaptic effect-excitatory
2. removal mechanism-transporters
3. type of vesicle-small, clear
What are the postsynaptic effects, precursors, rate-limiting step in synthesis, removal mechanism and type of vesicle for GABA?
1. postsynaptic effect-inhibitory
2. removal mechanism-transporters
3. type of vesicle-small, clear
What are the postsynaptic effects, precursors, rate-limiting step in synthesis, removal mechanism and type of vesicle for glycine?
1. postsynaptic effect-inhibitory
2. removal mechanism-transporters
3. type of vesicle-small, clear
What are the postsynaptic effects, precursors, rate-limiting step in synthesis, removal mechanism and type of vesicle for catecholamines (epinephrine, norepinephrine, dopamine)
1. postsynaptic effect-excitatory
2. precursor-tryosine
3. rate-limiting step-tyrosine hydroxylase
4. type of vesicle-small, dense-core, or large irregular dense-core
What are the postsynaptic effects, precursors, rate-limiting step in synthesis, removal mechanism and type of vesicle for serotonin?
1. postsynaptic effect-excitatory
2. removal mechanism-transporters (MAO
3. type of vesicle-large, dense-core
What are the postsynaptic effects, precursors, rate-limiting step in synthesis, removal mechanism and type of vesicle for histamine?
1. postsynaptic effect-excitatory
2. removal mechanism-transporters
3. type of vesicle-large dense core
What are the postsynaptic effects, precursors, rate-limiting step in synthesis, removal mechanism and type of vesicle for ATP?
1. postsynaptic effect-excitatory
2. precursor-ADP
3. removal mechanism-hydrolysis to AMP and adenosine
4. type of vesicle-small, clear
What are the postsynaptic effects, precursors, rate-limiting step in synthesis, removal mechanism and type of vesicle for neuropeptides?
1. postsynaptic effect-excitatory and inhibitory
2. precursor-amino acids (protein synthesis)
3. removal mechanism-proteases
4. type of vesicle-large, dense-core
What are the postsynaptic effects, precursors, rate-limiting step in synthesis, removal mechanism and type of vesicle for endocannabinoids?
1. precursor-membrane lipids
2. rate-limiting step-enzymatic modification of lipids
3. type of vesicle-none
What are the postsynaptic effects, precursors, rate-limiting step in synthesis, removal mechanism and type of vesicle for NO?
1. precursor-arginine
2. rate-limiting step-NO synthase
3. removal mechanism-spontaneous oxidation
4. type of vesicle-none
Describe ACh as a neurotransmitter.
the transmitter at the NMJ, in the autonomic ganglia, post-ganglionic neurons in parasympathetic branch in many CNS neurons, inactivated by acetylcholinesterase, acts via ionotropic and metabotropic receptors, transported in vesicle transporters, use Na+/choline transporter to bring choline back into the presynaptic terminal after ACh is broken down by acetylcholinesterase
What enzyme is used in the synthesis of ACh?
choline acetyl-transferase, put together acetyl-CoA + choline
Describe the nicotinic receptors.
are a type of ACh receptor, is composed of a pentamer with alpha, beta, gamma, delta and epsilon subunits, ACh, nicotine, curare and bungarotoxin binding sites are on the alpha1 subunits and are specific for skeletal muscle nicotinic nAChR, while hexamethonium is specific for neuronal nACh receptors, can mix and match different subunits giving each different pharmacologies
What is the significance of the torpedo fish?
gives off an electrical current, used in studying summation, has modified muscle cells that generate electricity, can deliver a current of 60 amp at 80 V as a result of series and parallel summation of many of these specialized muscle cells
Describe the muscarinic receptors.
a type of ACh receptor, there are M1-M5 types coupled to various types of G-proteins regulating multiple cellular processes including the opening and closing of ion channels, the same receptors are found in muscle and nerve (as opposed to that found in nicotinic) but they are coupled to different processes
Describe glutamate as a neurotransmitter.
it is the principle fast excitatory neurotransmitter in the nervous system, half of the synapses in the brain are glutamatergic, there are ionotropic and metabotropic receptors, some ionotropic receptors can pass Ca2+ to trigger Ca2+ dependent events
What enzyme is responsible for the formation of glutamate?
glutaminase catalyzes the reaction glutamine -> glutamate
What is the mechanism involved in the removal and inactivation of glutamate?
glial cells are very active in removal and inactivation of glutamate, EAATs (excitatory amino acid transporter) collect glutamate (and turns it into glutamine via glutamine synthetase) while VGLUT loads the vesicles with glutamate
What are the three types of ionotropic glutamate receptors?
these are pharmacological agonists (activators), can mix and match different subunits to give different receptors, a tetramer
1. NMDA (N-methyl-D-aspartate) receptors
2. AMPA (alpha-amino-3-hydroxyl-5-methyl-isoxazole-proprionate) receptors
3. Kainate receptors (Kainic acid)
Describe the NMDA receptor.
the pore of this receptor passes Na+, K+ and Ca2+ (that acts as a 2nd messenger), this produces depolarization and activation of Ca2+ dependent processes (a twofer)
What is the role of Mg2+ in the NMDA receptor?
blocks the receptor, the block is very strong at normal resting potential such that activation of NMDA receptors alone might not evoke much depolarization, it is weaker if the neuron is depolarized such that activation of NMDA and AMPA receptors will result in big depolarization and Ca2+ entry, if Mg2+ is absent then there is a big current at all potentials, if Mg2+ is present, then there is a tiny current at the resting potential, but a bigger current at the depolarized potential
How does long-term potentiation affect the glutamate receptor?
the power of a glutamate synapse is adjustable, after high frequency (tetanus) stimulation of a pathway, stimulation of that pathway results in a larger EPSP, LTP requires strong depolarization, this depolarization relieves the block of NMDA channels by Mg2+ letting Ca2+ enter, Ca2+ activates kinases (CaM kinase II specifically) setting off a cascade resulting in more AMPA receptors and larger EPSPs, so when another stimulation comes there are lots of AMPA receptors leading to a bigger EPSP
What is the importance of the coincidence detector in Ca2+ entry?
the combination of activation of both AMPA and NMDA receptors (coincidence detector) is required for Ca2+ entry, this allows for long-term potentiation (or even long-term depression
Describe what excitotoxicity is.
many brain injuries result in maintained high levels of extracellular glutamate that can kill neurons with glutamate receptors, the mechanism of this killing is under investigation and elevations of [Ca2+]i are important, block of glutamate receptors can reduce cell death experimentally
Describe the metabotropic receptors for glutamate.
there are mGluR1-GluR8 types, coupled to various types of G-proteins regulating multiple cellular processes including the opening and closing of ion channels, there are these types of receptors on astrocytes too
Describe GABA as a neurotransmitter.
GABA is a major inhibitory neurotransmitter, it synthesized from glucose via the TCA cycle by glutamic acid decarboxylase
How is GABA inactivated?
it is inactivated by uptake (GATs) and breakdown in the mito
What are the different types of GABA receptors?
1. ionotropic receptors-2 types, GABAa and GABAc, they are Cl- channels and usually mediate IPSPs, benzodiazepines (Valium and Librium) activate GABAa receptors
2. metabotropic receptors-GABAb do the usual things, are G-protein coupled receptors
Describe Glycine as a neurotransmitter.
classified as the other inhibitory neurotransmitter that activates ionotropic Cl- channels
Describe the biogenic amines as neurotransmitters.
implicated in a range of behaviors (homeostasis, attention, movement, psychiatric disorders) in the CNS and in the ANS, include the catecholamines, histamine and serotonin
Describe the synthesis of catecholamines.
starts with tyrosine and uses tyrosine hydroxylase (as the rate limiting step) to produce norepinephrine and epinephrine, the enzymes presence in a neuron is a strong indicator that catecholamines are important, inhibition reduces synthesis of all catecholamines
Describe norepinephrine as a neurotransmitter.
is the neurotransmitter released by sympathetic post-ganglionic neurons, important in the CNS, inactivated by norepinephrine transporter (NET) that also transports dopamine and is inhibited by amphetamines
What are the receptors for norepinephrine?
are metabotropic alpha and beta-adrenergic receptors
Describe epinephrine as a neurotransmitter.
it is a transmitter in the CNS, inactivation mechanism is uptake but the transporter is not identified yet
What are the receptors for epinephrine?
are metabotropic alpha and beta-adrenergic receptors
Describe dopamine as a neurotransmitter.
dopaminergic neurons projecting from substantia nigra to corpus striatum are important coordinating movements (Parkinson’s Disease), motivation, reward, reinforcement, addiction, inactivation by Na+-dependent uptake (DAT) is inhibited cocaine
Describe the receptors for dopamine.
they are metabotropic receptors, consists of D1A, D1B, D2-D4 subtypes, they are coupled to various types of G-proteins regulating multiple cellular processes including opening and closing of ion channels
Describe histamine as a neurotransmitter
it is a neurotransmitter in the CNS, it mediates the allergic responses in the periphery
How is histamine synthesized and inactivated?
it is synthesized from histidine by histidine decarboxylase, it is inactivated by uptake but the transporter is not identified yet
Describe serotonin as a neurotransmitter.
serotonergic pathways in the CNS are involved in psychiatric disorders, serotonin is also huge in the periphery including the GI tract
How is serotonin synthesized and inactivated?
it is synthesized form tryptophan by trytophan-5-hydroxylase, it is inactivated by a specific serotonin transporter (SERT) that is inhibited by anti-depressant drugs (Prozac)
What are the receptor types for serotonin?
they are metabotropic receptors 5-HT 1, 5HT 2, 5HT 4-5HT 7, they do the usual things, there are also ionotropic receptors (5HT 3) that are nonselective cation channels
Describe the purines (ATP, ADP, AMP, adenosine) as neurotransmitters.
ATP is released along with all the other neurotransmitters (co-transmission) and there are important purinergic receptors with different sensitivities to each of the purines, extracellular ecto-5’ nucleotidases convert ATP to a soup of purines, thus one has a mix of purines hitting a mix of receptors, purinergic transmission is important in the periphery (smooth muscle) and in the CNS (mechanosensation and pain)
What are the different types of purinergic receptors?
there are P2X1-P2X7 subunits that mix and mtach to make up ionotropic receptos, these are nonselective channels, there are also P2Y1-P2Y8 that are metabotropic receptors that do the usual things, and there are also A1-A3 types that are metabotropic that also do the usual things
Describe the synthesis of the large neurotransmitters (neuropeptides).
genes encoding neuropeptides have a signal sequence that targets the pre-propeptides to the ER and golgit, these are processed to produce more than one neuropeptide
What are the different types of neuropeptides?
brain/gut peptides (including substance P-is a hypotensive agent, GI motility, CNS, pain) and the opioid peptides (including endorphins, enkephalins, dynorphins), there are also pituitary peptides, hypothalamic peptides
Describe the different types of neuropeptide receptors.
virtually all receptors are metabotropic receptors that do the usual things
What are some rules that have emerged concerning neuropeptides?
neuropeptides can travel to affect distant neurons, the effects of neuropeptides are characteristically slow and long lasting
Describe endocannabinoids as neurotransmitters and their receptors.
two have been identified (anandamide and 2-arachidonylglcerol) produced by Ca2+-dependent enzymatic degradation of membrane lipids, cannabindoid receptors are G-protein coupled receptors and act as retrograde messengers
Describe NO as neurotransmitters and their receptors.
it is generated by Ca2+ activated NO synthase, it is freely diffusible but with a short half-life, activates guanylyl cyclase and may have other actions, it is a retrograde messenger
Describe neurotrophic factors as neurotransmitters.
they are not routinely thought of as neurotransmitters, there receptors are tyrosine kinases