My Ndeb2

Front 1

Retention of a gold inlay is improved by
1. addition of an occlusal dovetail.
2. increasing the parallelism of walls.
3. lengthening the axial walls.
4. placing a gingival bevel.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 1

A

Front 2

In restoring occlusal anatomy, the protrusive
condylar path inclination has its primary
influence on the morphology of
A. cusp height.
B. anterior teeth only.
C. mesial inclines of maxillary cusps and
distal inclines of mandibular cusps.
D. mesial inclines of mandibular cusps and
distal inclines of maxillary cusps.

Back 2

D

Front 3

When using ultra high speed cutting
instruments for cavity preparation, the heat
generated is directly related to the
1. duration of cutting.
2. size, speed and sharpness of the bur.
3. use of air and water spray.
4. existing pulp pathology.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 3

A

Front 4

Which of the following statements are true
concerning the adult mandible?
1. The mandibular foramen lies in the centre
of the mandibular ramus both in the
vertical and horizontal planes.
2. The angle formed by the junction of the
ramus and the body of the mandible is an
acute one.
3. The genial tubercles are attachments for
the anterior bellies of the digastric
muscles.
4. The temporalis muscle attaches to the
lateral surface of the coronoid process.
A. (1) and (2)
B. (1) and (4)
C. (1) and (3)
D. (1) (3) (4)

Back 4

B

Front 5

Which of the following instruments can be used
for placing gingival bevels on inlay
preparations?
1. Margin trimmers.
2. Enamel hatchets.
3. Carbide finishing burs.
4. Small diamond disks.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 5

B

Front 6

A lingual approach for a conservative Class III
preparation for a composite resin requires
A. a retentive internal form.
B. parallelism of the incisal and gingival
walls.
C. maintenance of the incisal contact area.
D. All of the above.

Back 6

C

Front 7

Which of the following microorganisms are
most frequently found in infected root canals?
A. Streptococcus viridans.
B. Staphylococcus aureus.
C. Lactobacilli.
D. Enterococci.
E. Staphylococcus albus.

Back 7

D

Front 8

The mechanical objectives of preparing the
root canal system for obturation with guttapercha
should include
A. development of a continuously tapering
cone in the root canal.
B. removal of irregularities.
C. maintenance of an intact foramen.
D. All of the above.

Back 8

D

Front 9

Severe throbbing tooth pain which increases
when the patient lies down is a symptom of
A. a pulp polyp (chronic hyperplastic
pulpitis).
B. late stage of acute pulpitis (acute
suppurative pulpitis).
C. chronic pulpitis (chronic ulcerative
pulpitis).
D. chronic apical abscess.
E. pulp hyperemia.

Back 9

B

Front 10

What clinical evidence would support a
diagnosis of acute dento-alveolar abscess?
1. A negative reaction to the electric vitality
tester.
2. A positive reaction of short duration to
cold.
3. A positive reaction to percussion.
4. Presence of a draining fistula.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 10

?

Front 11

The joining together of two teeth
A. gemination.
B. fusion.
C. twinning.
D. concrescense

Back 11

D

Front 12

Radiographs of the mandibular incisor teeth of
a 45 year old healthy black female patient
reveal periapical radiolucencies. The teeth are
vital and asymptomatic. You would
A. perform a biopsy of the radiolucent
lesion.
B. perform endodontic therapy on the four
incisors.
C. place a drain in the affected area.
D. observe periodically.

Back 12

D

Front 13

Which of the following could be immediate
postoperative complications of periapical
surgery?
1. Haemorrhage.
2. Edema.
3. Paresthesia.
4. Pain.
5. Mucocele.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) (2) (3) (4)
C. (1) (3) (5)
D. All of the above.

Back 13

B

Front 14

What are the purposes of using occlusal
splints?
1. To change the pattern and degree of tactile
afferent neural impulses.
2. To immobilize teeth.
3. To produce a permanent change in the
occlusion.
4. To prevent teeth from disturbing occlusal
sensory input.
A. (1) and (2)
B. (3) only
C. (1) (2) (4)
D. All of the above.

Back 14

C

Front 15

Which of the following muscles comprise the
retromolar pad?
1. Lateral (external) pterygoid.
2. Buccinator.
3. Palatoglossus.
4. Superior constrictor.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 15

C

Front 16

which of the following are characteristic symptoms of acute suppurative pulpitis
1. Spontaneous throbbing pain.
2. Prolonged pain initiated by heat.
3. Increased pain while lying down.
4. Increased pain by cold.

A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 16

A

Front 17

Histologically, a pulp polyp consists of
1. a mass of collagenous fibres.
2. Russell bodies.
3. proliferating capillaries.
4. fibroblasts.
5. polymorphonuclear leucocytes.
A. (1) (2) (3) (4)
B. (1) (3) (4)
C. (1) (3) (4) (5)
D. (2) and (5)
E. All of the above.

Back 17

C

Front 18

The most important principle dictating location
and size of access to the root canal system is
A. preservation of tooth structure.
B. removal of all caries.
C. straight line access to the canal.
D. removal of all pulp horns.

Back 18

C

Front 19

Which of the following should be considered
when assessing the difficulty of removal of an
impacted mandibular third molar?
1. angulation.
2. root width.
3. depth in the alveolus.
4. periodontal ligament space.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 19

E

Front 20

Extraction of a tooth is CONTRAINDICATED
in the dental office for a patient who
1. had a myocardial infarct two months ago.
2. is hypothyroid.
3. has a Factor VIII deficiency.
4. is 4 months pregnant.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

Back 20

B

Front 21

Hyperkeratosis, acanthosis, dysplasia,
increased mitosis, intact basal cell layer and
chronic inflammatory cells are histologic
features that may be found in
A. squamous cell carcinoma.
B. carcinoma in situ.
C. papillofibroma.
D. endothelioma.

Back 21

B

Front 22

Osteomyelitis of the mandible may follow
1. radiotherapy.
2. dentoalveolar abscess.
3. fracture.
4. Vincent’s angina.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 22

E

Front 23

Which of the following is/are associated with
an unerupted tooth?
1. Odontogenic adenomatoid tumor.
2. Periapical cemental dysplasia.
3. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor.
4. Cementoblastoma.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 23

B

Front 24

Increasing the kilovoltage setting in the dental
x-ray machine results in
A. more gamma radiation.
B. greater collimation.
C. more penetration.
D. greater secondary radiation at the level of
the skin.

Back 24

C

Front 25

A small, well-circumscribed, periapical
radiolucency on a mandibular incisor which is
clinically asymptomatic and responds normally
to vitality tests is most likely
A. a periapical granuloma.
B. sclerosing osteitis.
C. a radicular cyst.
D. periapical cemental dysplasia.

Back 25

D

Front 26

Histological sections of a lesion removed from
the apex of a carious tooth show immature
fibrous tissue and chronic inflammatory cells.
The most likely diagnosis is a/an
A. acute periapical abscess.
B. odontogenic fibroma.
C. radicular cyst.
D. periapical granuloma.
E. central fibroma.

Back 26

D

Front 27

The electric pulp tester might be of some value
in determining whether
1. the pulp is hyperemic or hyperplastic.
2. there is a partial necrosis of the pulp.
3. there is a partial or total pulpitis.
4. the pulp is vital or nonvital.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only

Back 27

D

Front 28

The greatest single factor in reducing radiation
exposure in dentistry is
A. higher kVp.
B. proper filtration.
C. high speed film.
D. collimation of the X-ray beam.

Back 28

C

Front 29

Oral lesions may be an early manifestation of
1. leukemia.
2. pernicious anemia.
3. infectious mononucleosis.
4. obstructive jaundice.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 29

A

Front 30

Hypercementosis (cemental hyperplasia)
A. is most often confined to the apical half of
the root.
B. most frequently affects molars.
C. affects non vital teeth in the majority of
cases.
D. (A) and (C)
E. (B) and (C)

Back 30

A

Front 31

Erythroblastosis fetalis may be a cause of
A. supernumerary incisors.
B. pigmented teeth.
C. peg lateral incisors.
D. Fordyce's granules.
E. blue sclerae.

Back 31

B
green teeth

Front 32

Upper face infections can communicate with
the cavernous sinus through
A. the angular vein to the superior
ophthalmic vein.
B. the pterygoid plexus to the inferior
ophthalmic vein.
C. A. and B.
D. None of the above.

Back 32

C

Front 33

The apical region of a non-vital tooth with a
deep carious lesion may radiographically show
1. widening of the periodontal space.
2. loss of lamina dura.
3. a circumscribed radiolucency.
4. calcification of the periodontal
membrane.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 33

A

Front 34

Hemangiomas of the jaws
A. never occur in bone.
B. are malignant.
C. can appear cystic radiographically.
D. are metastatic lesions.

Back 34

C

Front 35

In infectious mononucleosis you are most likely
to find
1. a positive Paul Bunnel test.
2. lymphadenopathy.
3. palatine petechiae.
4. leukopenia.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 35

A?

Front 36

The discontinuity of the lamina dura on a
radiograph may be a consequence of
1. pulpitis.
2. metastatic carcinoma.
3. parathyroid hyperplasia.
4. eburnated bone.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 36

A?

Front 37

A lead diaphragm in x-ray units serves to
A,produce a more homogenous x-ray beam
B.prevent secondary radiation
C.collimate the useful beam of rays
D.all of above
E.none of above

Back 37

C

Front 38

Which of the following radiographic findings
are attributable to trauma from occlusion?
1. Widening of the periodontal ligament
space.
2. Vertical destruction of the interdental
septum.
3. Widening of the lamina dura.
4. Narrowing in width of the periodontal
ligament space.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

Back 38

A

Front 39

Surgery of irradiated bone is complicated by
the fact that the
A. original neoplasm may invade the area of
surgery.
B. bone becomes brittle.
C. blood vessels become sclerosed
compromising normal healing.
D. All of the above.
E. None of the above.

Back 39

D?

Front 40

An osteoma is
A. radiopaque.
B. radiolucent.
C. either radiopaque or radiolucent.
D. radiolucent surrounded by a radiopaque
line.

Back 40

A

Front 41

The fixing solution serves the purpose of
1. carrying on development.
2. hardening the emulsion.
3. removing unexposed silver salts.
A. (1) and (2)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (3)
D. All of the above.
E. None of the above.

Back 41

C

Front 42

In dental radiography, an increase in the
kilovoltage is accompanied by
A. an increase in the quantity of radiation.
B. greater penetrability.
C. the ability to decrease exposure time.
D. All of the above.

Back 42

B

Front 43

Radiographically, the opening of the incisive
canal may be misdiagnosed as a
1. branchial cyst.
2. nasopalatine cyst.
3. nasolabial cyst.
4. radicular cyst.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 43

C?

Front 44

The radiographs of dentinal dysplasia Type I
show
A. obliteration of pulp chambers and root
canals.
B. small underdeveloped roots.
C. involvement of primary as well as
permanent teeth.
D. (A) and (B)
E. All of the above.

Back 44

E

Front 45

The appearance of a circumscribed radiolucent
area sharply outlined, bounded by an even
radiopaque border, located at the apex of a
non-vital tooth, is consistent with
A. periapical cemental dysplasia.
B. a radicular cyst.
C. rarefying osteitis.
D. an eosinophilic granuloma.

Back 45

B

Front 46

In the early stage, a periapical abscess can be
differentiated from a lateral periodontal abscess
by
A. pain.
B. type of exudate.
C. tenderness to percussion.
D. response of pulp to electrical stimulation.
E. radiographic examination.

Back 46

D

Front 47

A periapical radiolucency associated with a
vital maxillary central incisor can represent a
1. nasopalatine cyst.
2. dentigerous cyst.
3. foramen of the incisive canal.
4. periapical granuloma.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 47

B

Front 48

Ankylosis is commonly
A. associated with a non-vital pulp.
B. the result of a root fracture.
C. associated with a root penetrating cavity.
D. resulting in a submerged tooth, out of
occlusion.
E. found in permanent teeth.

Back 48

D

Front 49

Signs and symptoms of diabetic patients
include
1. polyuria.
2. polydipsia.
3. glycosuria.
4. dysphagia.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 49

A

Front 50

P20#6 An ameloblastoma is most frequently found in
A. the anterior region of the maxilla.
B. the mandible, near the junction of the
body and the ramus.
C. the posterior region of the maxilla.
D. in the anterior region of the mandible near
the midline.

Back 50

B

Front 51

multiple giant cell lesions of bone are associated with
A. hyperthyroidism
B. hypothyroidism
C. hyperparathyroidism
D. hypoparathyroidism

Back 51

C

Front 52

a common clinical sign of occlusal traumatism:

A. tooth mobility
B. pocket formation
C. gingival recession
D. TMJ pain dysfunction syndrome
E. pulp calcifications

Back 52

A

Front 53

The clinical appearance and texture of an early
carcinoma of the floor of the mouth could be
A. red and soft.
B. white and rough.
C. ulcerated and indurated.
D. All of the above.
E. None of the above.

Back 53

D

Front 54

Which gingival manifestation(s) would be
expected in a patient with a blood dyscrasia?
1. Enlargement.
2. Bleeding.
3. Ulceration.
4. Atrophy.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 54

A

Front 55

Which of the following landmarks are
recognizable in periapical radiographs of the
mandible?
1. External oblique ridge.
2. Coronoid process.
3. Mylohyoid ridge.
4. Mental foramen.
5. Incisive canal.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) (3) (4)
C. (1) (4) (5)
D. (2) (4) (5)
E. (3) (4) (5)

Back 55

B

Front 56

A. foci of cartilage are a common
histological finding.
B. an inflammatory infiltrate is
characteristically present.
C. there are characteristic changes in the
blood chemistry.
D. a ground-glass appearance is present on
radiographs.

Back 56

D

Front 57

P22 Multiple supernumerary teeth are most
commonly found in
A. cherubism.
B. cretinism.
C. hypothyroidism.
D. cleidocranial dysplasia.
E. Down's syndrome.

Back 57

d

Front 58

23.Among the following, which may be associated
with root resorption?
1. Excessive orthodontic forces.
2. Periapical granuloma.
3. Cementoma.
4. Hypercementosis.
5. Traumatic injury.
A. (1) (2) (4)
B. (1) (2) (4) (5)
C. (1) (2) (5)
D. (1) (2) (3) (5)
E. All of the above.

Back 58

C

Front 59

23.Ludwig's angina may cause
A. respiratory obstruction.
B. cavernous sinus thrombosis.
C. suppurative encephalitis.
D. subdural empyema.

Back 59

A

Front 60

24.Tissue from a multilocular radiolucent area of
the posterior mandible shows microscopically
follicular areas lined with cylindrical cells
resembling the enamel organ. The most likely
diagnosis is a/an
A. neurofibroma.
B. ameloblastoma.
C. central fibroma.
D. periodontal cyst.
E. dentigerous cyst

Back 60

B

Front 61

24.The most logical explanation for causing
swelling beneath the eye caused by an
abscessed maxillary canine is that the
A. lymphatics drain superiorly in this region.
B. bone is less porous superior to the root
apex.
C. infection has passed into the angular vein
which has no valves.
D. the root apex lies superior to the
attachment of the caninus and levator labii
superioris muscles.

Back 61

D

Front 62

24.The earliest radiographic sign of occlusal
trauma is
A. hypercementosis.
B. root resorption.
C. alteration of the lamina dura.
D. widening of the periodontal ligament
space.
E. ankylosis.

Back 62

D

Front 63

the finding of "acid fast" microorganism in sputum suggests the presence of
A. mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. diplococcus pneumoniae
C. streptococcus pyogens
D. neisseria gonorrhoeae

Back 63

A

Front 64

In radiography, minimum magnification and
maximum definition are achieved by
A. minimum OFD (object-film distance) and
minimum FFD (focal-film distance).
B. minimum OFD (object-film distance) and
maximum FFD (focal-film distance).
C. maximum OFD (object -film distance)
and maximum FFD (focal-film distance).
D. maximum OFD (object-film distance) and
minimum FFD (focal-film distance).

Back 64

B

Front 65

Which lesion(s) may appear radiographically as
multilocular radiolucencies?
1. Ameloblastoma.
2. Odontogenic myxoma.
3. Primordial cyst.
4. Keratocyst.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

Back 65

E

Front 66

The most common site of intra-oral squamous
cell carcinoma is the
A. palate.
B. floor of the mouth.
C. gingiva.
D. buccal mucosa.

Back 66

B

Front 67

Intermittent painful swelling in the
submandibular region that increases at
mealtime is indicative of
A. a ranula.
B. a blockage of Wharton's duct.
C. Ludwig's angina.
D. a blockage of Stensen's duct.
E. an epidemic parotitis.

Back 67

B

Front 68

Which of the following is/are NOT usually
affected by hereditary ectodermal dysplasia?
A. Salivary glands.
B. Teeth.
C. Sweat glands.
D. Hair.
E. Fingernails.

Back 68

A

Front 69

Multinucleated giant cells are associated with

1. plasmocytoma.
2. odontogenic myxoma.
3. hyperparathyroidism.
4. tuberculosis.
5. osteoclastoma.

A. (1) (3) (4)
B. (2) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (3) (4) (5)
E. (2) (4) (5)

Back 69

D

Front 70

The term "carcinoma in situ" implies that the
lesion shows
A. metaplasia.
B. early invasion of malignant cells through
the basement membrane.
C. dysplasia of cells confined within the
epithelium.
D. distant metastasis of a malignant tumo

Back 70

С

Front 71

The redness of an inflammatory lesion of oral
mucosa is due to
A. increased number of capillaries.
B. increased size of capillaries.
C. decreased thickness of epithelium.
D. decreased connective tissue elements.
E. All of the above.

Back 71

E

Front 72

Which of the following is NEVER associated
with an impacted tooth?
A. Adeno-ameloblastoma.
B. Odontogenic myxoma.
C. Pindborg's tumor.
D. Primordial cyst.
E. Ameloblastoma.

Back 72

D

Front 73

An occluded submandibular duct can be
diagnosed by
A. history.
B. palpation.
C. sialography.
D. occlusal radiographs.
E. All of the above.

Back 73

E

Front 74

A patient presents with a 3.0 cm ulcerated
lesion on the lateral border of the tongue. You
would
A. excise the entire lesion.
B. do nothing until the ulcer heals.
C. observe for 14 days to see if the ulcer
heals.
D. make a smear for cytologic examination.
E. perform an incisional biopsy.

Back 74

C

Front 75

A 2cm, discrete, white lesion of the buccal
mucosa has not resolved after elimination of all
local irritants. The most appropriate
management would be to
A. cauterize it.
B. apply toluidine blue staining.
C. perform an incisional biopsy.
D. re-examine at 6 month intervals.
E. refer patient to family physician.

Back 75

C

Front 76

Which one of the following would be of
greatest value in determining the etiology of an
oral ulceration?
A. History of the oral lesion.
B. Cytological smear.
C. Systemic evaluation.
D. Laboratory tests.

Back 76

A

Front 77

Which of the following can be characterized by
a narrowing of pulp chambers and root canals?
1. Aging.
2. Chronic trauma.
3. Dentinal dysplasia.
4. Taurodontism.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 77

A

Front 78

Percussion of a tooth is used to evaluate
1. ankylosis.
2. mobility.
3. pain.
4. vitality.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 78

A

Front 79

A patient with congestive heart failure may
have
1. epistaxis.
2. shortness of breath.
3. exophthalmos.
4. pitting edema of the ankles.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 79

C

Front 80

White lesions of the oral mucosa may be
produced by

1. thickening of the epithelium.
2. increase of the keratinized layers.
3. coagulation by heat or chemicals.
4. mycotic infection.

A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 80

E

Front 81

A pontic replacing a mandibular first molar
should be designed so that it(s)
1. gingival surface is concave and adapts
closely to the ridge.
2. has open gingival embrasures.
3. conceals the porcelain to metal junction
on its gingival surface.
4. gingival surface is convex in all
directions.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 81

C

Front 82

Which of the following cements can chemically
bond to enamel?
1. Zinc phosphate cement.
2. Polycarboxylate cement.
3. Reinforced zinc oxide eugenol cement.
4. Glass ionomer cement.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 82

C

Front 83

A patient suddenly becomes pale and sweaty
after an injection of 4ml of lidocaine 2% with
epinephrine l:l00,000. The radial pulse is slow
and steady. The respiration is slow. The blood
pressure is 80/60. What is the most probable
diagnosis?
A. A toxic reaction to lidocaine.
B. A toxic reaction to epinephrine.
C. An allergic reaction to the local
anesthetic.
D. Incipient syncope.
E. An impending adrenal insufficiency.

Back 83

D

Front 84

Early signs and symptoms of localized alveolar
osteitis (dry socket) include
1. bleeding.
2. bad odour.
3. pus formation.
4. pain.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 84

C

Front 85

A periapical infection of a mandibular third
molar may spread by direct extension to the
1. parapharyngeal space.
2. submandibular space.
3. pterygomandibular space.
4. submental space.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 85

A

Front 86

A patient dislocates his mandible for the first
time. After reduction, you should
A. inject the joint with hydrocortisone.
B. inject the joint with a sclerosing solution.
C. have the patient exercise the mandible to
avoid trismus.
D. immobilize for ten days.

Back 86

D

Front 87

31. The most likely complication associated with
the extraction of an isolated maxillary second
molar is
A. a dry socket.
B. nerve damage.
C. fracture of the malar ridge.
D. fracture of the tuberosity.

Back 87

D

Front 88

31. The most likely complication associated with
the extraction of an isolated maxillary second
molar is
A. a dry socket.
B. nerve damage.
C. fracture of the malar ridge.
D. fracture of the tuberosity.

Back 88

D

Front 89

In an acute upper airway obstruction, the entry
to the airway on an emergency basis should be
made at the
A. cricoid cartilage.
B. thyroid notch.
C. thyroid membrane.
D. cricothyroid membrane.
E. first tracheal ring.

Back 89

D

Front 90

A Le Fort I or Guerin fracture is a
A. fracture of the zygomatic arch.
B. horizontal fracture of the maxilla.
C. fracture of the malar complex involving
the floor of the orbit.
D. pyramidal fracture of the maxilla.
E. craniofacial dysjunction.

Back 90

B

Front 91

Fractures of the maxilla can best be diagnosed
by
I. occlusal radiographs.
2. clinical examination.
3. lateral jaw radiographs.
4. evidence of periorbital edema.
5. anteroposterior radiograph of the skull.
A. (1) and (4)
B. (2) and (5)
C. (2) and (3)
D. (2) and (4)
E. All of the above.

Back 91

B

Front 92

34. Which of the following is best removed by
curettage?
A. Ameloblastoma.
B. Pleomorphic adenoma.
C. Central giant cell granuloma.
D. Squamous cell carcinoma.
E. Cylindroma.

Back 92

C

Front 93

34. In a safe general anesthetic mixture, the
MINIMALLY acceptable percentage of oxygen
is
A. 5 percent.
B. 10 percent.
C. 20 percent.
D. 50 percent.
E. 80 percent.

Back 93

C

Front 94

Each of the following is a side effect of
prolonged tetracycline hydrochloride therapy
EXCEPT
A. superinfection.
B. photosensitivity.
C. vestibular disturbances.
D. discoloration of newly forming teeth.
E. gastrointestinal symptoms (when
administered orally).

Back 94

C

Front 95

Which of the following nerves are anesthetized
by an infraorbital nerve block?
1. Zygomatico-temporal.
2. Palpebral.
3. Zygomatico-facial.
4. Lateral nasal.
5. Labial.
A. (1) (2) (3) (4)
B. (1) (2) (3)
C. (2) (3) (4) (5)
D. (2) (3) (4)
E. (2) (4) (5)

Back 95

E

Front 96

Cardiac arrhythmias are most commonly seen
during administration of
A. thiopental.
B. halothane.
C. ethyl ether.
D. nitrous oxide.

Back 96

B

Front 97

Antihistamines act by
A. increasing the action of histaminase.
B. altering the formation of histamine.
C. blocking the actions of histamine by
competitive inhibition.
D. interfering with the degradation of
histamine.

Back 97

C

Front 98

Patient nausea during nitrous oxide
administration is an indication that the patient
A. is nervous.
B. has not eaten for some time.
C. is allergic to nitrous oxide.
D. has received the nitrous oxide too quickly.

Back 98

D

Front 99

Which of the following is used in the
management of a patient with grand mal
seizures?
A. Amobarbital.
B. Secobarbital.
C. Pentobarbital.
D. Phenobarbital.

Back 99

D

Front 100

Which of the following drugs has/have
antisialagogue properties?
1. Codeine.
2. Atropine.
3. Acetylsalicylic acid.
4. Methantheline.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

Back 100

C