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207 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
define normal flora and state its purpose
bacteria that is expected to colonize the body, helps protect from colonization by pathogens, can supplement host nutrition and provides immune stimulation
define pathogenic bacteria
technically limited to those virulent organisms where common exposure results in disease (Shigella, B. anthracis)
define opportunistic pathogen
an organism that does not normally cause disease (pseudomonas) causes a disease because the host has a pre-existing condition
define and give an example of acute disease
rapid onset, usually rapid resolution, e.g. cholera
define and give an example of chronic disease
slow onset, slow resolution e.g. tuberculosis
define and given an example of a recurrent disease
usually acute bouts without long lasting immunity, e.g. gonorrhea, E. coli UTI
define and given an example of a pyogenic disease
fever and large degree of white cell infiltrates (pus), e.g. Staph and Strep wound infections
define and give an example of an immune mediated disease
antibody or cellular responses to organism cause tissue damage e.g. rheumatic fever
List 7 methods by which an organism can enter a host
ingestion
inhalation
trauma
needles
arthropod bites
sexual transmission
eyes
Remeber: There Are Some Ewey Nasty Infection Incidents
How would organisms like Salmonella, Shigella, Vibrio cholerae, Listeria, and B. anthrasis gain entry into the host
ingestion via contaminated food or water
How would organisms like M. tuberculosis, Legionella pneumophila, Bordetella, B> anthracis, and Y. pestis gain entery into the host?
inhalation
Give some examples of species that can gain entry into the host via trauma
Clostridia sp, B. anthrasis, Strep, Staph
What pathogens commonly gain entry into the host via needlesticks
Staph, Pseudomonas
What pathogens are often transmited by arthropod bites
Rickettsia, Yersinia pestis, Borrelia spp.
List some pathogens that can be transmitted sexually
Chlamydia trachomatis, Treponema pallidum, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Shigella spp.
List some pathogens that can gain entry into the host via the eyes
Chalmydia trachomatis, N. gonorrhoeae, B. cereus, Pseudomonas spp.
list the Molecular Koch's postulates
1. the phenotype under investigation shoudl be associated with pathogenic members of a genus
2. specific mutagenesis of the gene(s) associated with virulence should lead to a significant decrease in virulence
3. complementation of the mutation should restore pathogenicity
What types of mutations are best for proving the molecular koch's postulates
inframe deletions or point mutations
How might a gene be complemented to restore pathogenicity when trying to prove the molecular koch's postulates
on a plasmid or allelic replacement
What adherence structures can serve as virulence/ disease mechanisms
1. Pili/fimbraie
2. Non fimbrial surface proteins
3. Capsule
4. Lipoteichoic acids
5. flagella
Sticky Pathogens Can Love Forever
Describe how a bacteria would normally be destroyed by a macrophage
-bacteria becomes bound to cell surface
-induction of cellular events that leads to engulfment and formation of a phagosome
-acidification of the phagosome and fusion with the lysosome
-acid, destructive enzymes, and oxygen radicals destroy the bacteria
What are the four methods that bacteria can use to invade a cell and avoid being killed
1. Cellular invasion with replication in the cytoplasm
2. invasion with replication in the late endosome
3. Invasion with replication in the phagosome
4. Special parasite vesicle
Cellular invasion with replication in the cytoplasm in a mechanism for cell invasion.Given an example of bacteria that do this
Rickettsiae, Shigella, Listeria
Invasion with replication in the late endosome is mechanism for cell invasion. Given an example of bacteria that do this
Salmonella
Invasion with replication in the phagolysosome is a mechanism for cellular invasion. Give an example of bacteria that do this
Coxiella, Mycobacteria
The use of a special parasite vesicle is an example of a cellular invasion mechaism. Give an example of bacteria that do this
Chlamydia spp. use inclusion bodies
Some intracellular bacteria like Shigella and Listeria spread from cell to cell in the host without an extracellular state. Explain how this occurs
1. The cells enter the host and lyse the phagosome and then replicate in the cytoplasm
2. The cells organize polymerization of actin filaments and propel themselves into neighboring cells
3. They enter the new cells encased in a dobule membrane which they lyse for new rounds of replication
Describe the general structure of a bacterial exotoxin (AB subunit model)
usually function as two discrete protein subunits or domains within a single protein, one subunit controls the ability to bind to the host cell receptors (B=bind) and the other carries out the toxic activity (A=activity).
There are also discrete elements of the protein necessary for secretion from the cell and for translocation across the plasma or endosomal membrane
Describe the 3 ways cytolytic toxins can act and give an example of each
1. creation of a membrane pore e.g. alpha toxin of S. aureus
2. Enzymatic destruction of phospholipid bilayer e.g. sphingomyelinase of S. aureus, Beta toxin
3. Surfactant e.g. Delta toxin of S>. aureus
T/F hemolytic toxins evovled specifically to lyse RBCs
false, they most likely evovled to lyse phagocytes
describe type 3 secretion systems
-directly delivers bacterial proteins into the host cell cytoplasm by injection
-proteins can affect cytossketal structure and second messenger pathways
-example EHEC and petesal formation/ tight adhesion sites
List some examples of mechanisms to evade the host immune response
capusles, antigenic variation, anti-immunoglobulin proteases, disruption of complement cascase, inhibition of opsonization, inhibition of phagocyte chemotaxsis, destruction of phagocytes by leucotoxins, intracellular replicaiton
Discribe how disease is thought to occur in the three way interaction model
When the pathogen enters the host, the homeostasis of the location is interupted and inflmation occurs. If the pathogen survives inflammation better than the normal microbiota, disease occurs
Which cytokines are primarily responsible for the acute phase responses
IL-6, TNF-a
What are the three lines of defense against invasion by bacteria pathogens
1. natural barriers like skin, mucous, cilliated epithelium, gastric acid, bile, normal flora
2. innate, pattern recognition and antigen non specific responses (fever, complement, iron binding proteins, antimicrobial peptides, phagocytes)
3. Memory responses based on antigen specificity (antibodies, T cells)
What defese mechanism is employed early in infection when bacterial attachement occurs
innate defence mechanisms like antibodies to adhesins
What defense mechanism is employed early infection when local proliferation occurs
phagocytes, complement lysis, blocking of metabolite transport
What defense mechanism is employed later in infection if invasion occurs
antibody to aggressins, antibody to organism, complement lysis, phagocytes
what defense mechaism is employed later in infection if a toxin is produce
antibody to the toxin
what defense mechaism is employed later in infection if intracelluar growth occurs
cell mediated immunity
What are the immune barrier defenses associated with the eyes
washing of tears and lysozyme (catalyzes hydrolysis of bacterial peptidoglycan)
What are the immune barrier defenses of the skin
anatomic barrier, antimicrobial secretions
What are the immune barrier functions of the digestive tract
stomach acidity, normal flora, bile
What are the immune barrier functions of the genitourinary tract
washing of urine, lysozyme, vaginal lactic acid
What are the immune barrier functions to the respiratory tract
mucus, ciliated epithelium, alveolar macrophages
lysozyme is a nonspecific humoral defense mechanism. What is its function and source
function- catalyses the hydrolysis of bacterial peptidoglycan
source-tears, saliva, nasal secretions, body fluids, lysosomal granulas
lactoferrin and transferrin are nonspecific humoral defense mechanisms. What is their function and source
function-bind iron and compete with MOs for it
source- specific granules of PMNs
lactoperoxidase is a nonspecific humoral defense mechanism
what is its source and function
function- may be inhibitory to many microorganisms
source-milk and saliva
Beta lysin is a nonspecific humoral defense mechanism, what is its function and sourcce
function- effective against gram positive bacteria
source- thrombocytes, normal serum
chemotactic factors are a nonspecific humoral defense mechanism, what is their function and sourcce
function- induce directed migration of PMNs, monocytes, and other cells
source-bacterial substances, products of cell injury, denatured proteins, complement, chemokines
properdin is a nonspecific humoral defense mechanism, what is its function and sourcce
function- activates complement in the absence of antibody-antigen complex
source-normal plasma
cationic peptides (defensins, etc) are a nonspecific humoral defense mechanism, what is their function and sourcce
function-disrupt membranes, block cell transport activities
source- polymorphonuclear granules
what cell gives rise to all blood cells
pluripotent stem cell
what % of circulating leukocytes are neutrophils
60%
what % of circulating leukocytes are B lymphocytes and T cells
33%
What are PAMPs
Pathogen Associated Molecular Patter, a bacterial product like flagella or LPS that trigger immune responses
What type of receptors recognize PAMPs
toll like receptors (TLRs)
When circulating naive Th cells recognize their cognate antigen, they differentiate into one of several effector lineages. What are these lineages?
TH1, TH2, TH17
What cytokines do TH1 cells produce? What innate immune effector mechanism does this trigger? What type of pathogen does this combat?
TH1 cells produce IFN-gamma which stimulates macrophages to fight off intracellular pathogens
What innate immune effector mechanism do TH2 cells trigger? What type of pathogen does this combat?
TH2 help activate mast cells, basophils, and eosinophils, this helps combat hemolinth infections (parasites)
What cytokines do TH17 cells produce? What innate immune effector mechanism does this trigger? What type of pathogen does this combat?
TH17 cells produce IL-17 whihc helps recruit neutrophils to conbat extracellular bacteria and fungi
What cytokines are important for fighting intracellular bacteria? Extracellular?
intracellular-IFN-G (TH1 cells)
extracelllular- IL-17 (TH17 cells)
Which cytokine, produce by TH1, TH2, and TH17 cells is important for B cell proliferaiton and antibody production
IL-4
What cytokines are important in the acute phase response to bacteria?
IL-1, IL-6, TNF
Describe the immune response in terms of specificity, innateness, memory and cell type at 0-4. 4-96, and after 96 hours
0-4 hours, nonspecific, innate, no memory, no specific T cells
4-96 hours- nonspecific and specific, inducible, no memory, no specific T cells
post 96 hrs- specific, inducible, memory, specific T cells
Describe the barrier funtions of the immune system at 0-4hrs, 4-96 hrs, and post 96hrs
0-4: skin, epithelia
4-96: local inflammation (C5a) and local TNF
post 96:IgA antibody in luminal spaces, IgE antibody on most cells
Describe the immune response to extracellular pathogens at 0-4hrs, 4-96 hrs, and post 96hrs
early- phagocytes, alternative complement pathway
middle-mannose binding protein, C reactive protien, T cell independent B B cell antibody plus complement
late-IgG antibody and Fc receptor bearing cells, IgG, IgM antibody +, classical complement pathway
Describe the immune response to intracellular bacteria at 0-4hrs, 4-96 hrs, and post 96hrs
early- macrophages
middle-T cell independent macrophage activation, IL-1, IL-6, TNF-a
late- T cell activation of macrophages by IFN-G
Describe the immune response to virus infected cells 0-4hrs, 4-96 hrs, and post 96hrs
early-natural killer cells
middle-interferon alpha, Beta, inferon activated NK cells
late- cytotoxic T cells
What is the purpose of acute inflammmation and how is this achieved?
purpose-contain infection, prevent, signal subsequent immune response.
Achieved by
-capillary expansion to increase blood flow
-increased permeability of microvasculature to allow escape of leukocytes
-exit of leukocytes from capllaries
What are the symptoms of acute inflammation? What causes these symptoms
rash/warmth- capillary expansion leads to increased blood flow
edema- increased permeabilty of microvasculature allows escapte of fluid, plasma proteins, and leukocytes
pus- exit of leukocytes from capillaries to infection site
Where are actue phase proteins produced? What are they produced in response to? Where do these "triggers" come from?
Actue phase proteins are produced by liver cells in response to IL-1, IL-6, and TNF, these cytokines are released by macrophages/ dendritic cells in reponse to PAMP ligands
What are the acute phase proteins
C-reactive protien (CRP), mannose binding protein ,(MBP) and fibrinogen
WHat is the structure of CRP? WHat does it bind to? How does it contribute to the acute phase immune response
stucture-pentameric disk
binds- phosphorylcholine on bacterial but not host membranes
contribution-opsonizaiton and triggers classical complement pathway
What is the strucutre of MBP
WHat does it bind to?
How does it contribute to the acute phase immune response
structure- resemebles complement C1q
binds- mannose residues on bacterial cell surfaces common to forms of LPS and capsules
contribution-opsonizatin, activates classical pathway (MBP binds MASP which then activates C4)
list the bacterial components that can directly activate protective responses
LPS, lipoteichoic acid, lipoarabinomannan, glycolipids and glycopeptides, polyanions, N-formyl peptides
list the bacterial components that are chemotactic
peptidoglycan fragments,cell surface activation of alternative pathways of complemetn (C3a, C5a)
What are the three pathways of complement activation? What triggers them?
Which pathway can begin before the immune response?
classical-antibody antigen complex either IgG or IgM or CRP or MBP

lectin- mannose binding protein (MBSP replaces the C1 in the classical pathway then C4 to C2 the same way)

alternative-directly on pathogen surface, can begin before the immune response because it doesn't require early complement components (C1, C2, C4 etc)
What are the three main consequences of complement activation
1. opsonization of pathogens
2. recruitment of inflammatory cells via cytokines
3. direct killing of pathogens
Where do the three ways of activating complement converge?
THey all result in the activation of C3 convertase
What is the central step of the complement cascase, which can be reach by either the classical ,lectin, or alternate pathway? What is the result of this step?
central step-activation of C3 convertase to cleave C3 to C3a and C3b
Cleavage of C3 and subsequently C5 (triggerd by C3b) genearates anaphylatoxins (C3a and C5a) and MAC (C5-9)
which two complement activation pathways are triggered by bacterial surfaces
alternative and lectin
Which complment activation pathway is triggered by antibody-antigen complexes
classical
Which proteins of the complment cascade are anaphylotoxic
C3a, C5a
which complement protein is responsible for opsonization
C3b
which bacteria are killed by the terminal complement lytic structure
gram negative
Who discovered phagocytosis
Elie Metchnikoff
Describe the process by which neutrophils migrate from the bloodstream to the site of bacterial elicited inflammation
1. endothelial cells respond to IL-1 and TNF-a which results in upregulation of selectins leading to neutrophil tethering and rolling adhesion
2.ICAM is induced on the endothelial sufrace which is the receptor for neutrophil LFA1, this results in firm adhesion
3. Neutrophil flattens and pseudopods reach between endothelial cells. The cytoskeleton rearragnes and the cells squeezes into the interstitial space
4. A gradient of chemotactic substances results in migraiton to the site of injury
What cytokines are important for the expression of selections which are necessary to faciliate neutrophil tethering and rolling adhesion
IL-1 and TNF-a
Which receptor-ligand system is essential for neutrophil firm adhesion
endothelial cell ICAM and neutrophil LFA1
What proteins can serve as opsonins
mannose binding protein, IgG, C3b
list the oxygen dependent antibacterial compounds found within the phagolysosome
hydorgen peroxide (NADPH oxidase, and NADH oxidase)
superoxide
hydroxyl radicals
activated halides
nitrous oxide
list the oxygen independent compounds of the phagolysosome
acids, lysozyme, lactoferrin, defensins and other cationic protiens, proteases, elastase, cathepsin G
What does TLR1 recognize and where is it located
lipoprotein, located on plasma membrane
What does TLR2 recognize, and where is it located
petidoglycan, zymosan, LAM (bacteria, fungi), located on plasma membrane
What does TLR 6 recognize
Where is it located
mycoplasma lipoprotein, located on plasma membrane
What does TLR 4 recognize, Where is it located
enterobacterial LPS, located on plasma membrane
What does TLR5 recognize, Where is it located
flagella, located on plasma membrane
What does TLR 3 recognize? Where is it located?
recognizes dsRNA ( viruses) , located on the endosomal membrane
What do TLR7 and TLR 8 recognize, where are they located
recognize ssRNA (viruses) located on endosomal membrane
What cytokine facilitates the anti-inflammatory function of macrophages
IL-10
Immune memory is an accessory function of macropahges. What are the two ways this is acheive and what cytokine is invovled in 1 of the pathways?
1. antigen processing and presentation
2. T lymphocyte activation via IL-12
What are the two pathogen recognition and inflammatory functions of macrophages? What cytokines are involved?
1. cehmokines
2. inflamation w/ IL1, IL6, TNFa
What are the 4 effector functions of macrophages?
1. nitric oxide
2. oxidative burst
3.antimicrobial peptides
4. opsonization via C3b and IgG Fc receptors then phagocytosis
"NAPO" the microbes (nitric, oxidative, antimicrocial, phagocytosis
What are the four main categories of macrophage functions?
1. anti-inflammatory
2. accessory
3. pathogen recognistion and inflamation
4. effector functions
What 4 important inflammatory cytokines are produces by macrophages
IL1, IL6, IL 12,TNFa
Which immunoglobulin is produced first after a primary antigen challenge
IgM
How does the secondary response to a second antigen challenge differe from the primary response to a primary antigen challenge
The secondary response consists mainly of IgG whereas the primary response is IgM first. The secondary response (anamnestic response) reaches a higher titer and lasts longer
list the 4 postulates of lymphocyte clonal selection
1. each lymphocyte beras a single type receptor of a unique specificity
2. inteaction between a foreign molecule and the receptor with high affinity in the proper context triggers activation
3. The activated cell differentiates into clones with the same receptor specificity
4. lymphocytes beraing receptors specific for self receptors are deleted early in lymphoid development
What is the structure, site of action and effector functions of IgM antibodies
structure- classic Y shape with heavy and light chain, bound in pentameric structure with disulfide bonds joining the 5 induvidual antibodies
site of action- intravascular
effector functions- complement activation, agglutination, important for responses to polysaccharides on bacterial surfaces
What is the structure, site of action and effector functions of IgG antibodies
structure- Y shpae with heavy and light chains
site- intravascular, intersitial fluid, transplacental
function- complement activation, neutralization, opsonization, neonatal immunity
What is the structure, site of action and effector functions of IgA antibodies
structure- Y shape with heavy and light chains, dimeric secretory IgA
site- luminal secretions, breast milk, mucosa
function-neutralization at body surfaces, intestinal immunity in neonates
What is the structure, site of action and effector functions of IgE antibodies
structure- Y shape with heavy and light chains
site- subcutaneous, submucosal
function-mast cell sensitization, eosinophil acitvation
What is the structure, site of action and effector functions of IgD antibodies
structure-Y shape with heavy and light chain
site- B cell surface
function-unknonw, possibly B cell antigen receptor
list 3 bacteria surface structures that antibodies can bind to
1. fimbriae
2. lipoteichoic acid
3. capsule
How important (-, +, ++, +++) is complement for fighting extracellular bacteria? Intracellular?
extracellular +
intracellular -
How important (-, +, ++, +++) is interferon for fighting extracellular bacteria? Intracellular?
it is not important for either (-) interferons are important in defending against viral infections
How important (-, +, ++, +++) are neutrophils for fighting extracellular bacteria? Intracellular?
extracellular +++
intracellular -
How important (-, +, ++, +++) are macrophages for fighting extracellular bacteria? Intracellular?
extracellular ++
intracellular +++
How important (-, +, ++, +++) are CD4 TH1 cells for fighting extracellular bacteria? Intracellular?
extracellular -
intracellular ++
How important (-, +, ++, +++) are CD cytotoxic T cells for fighting extracellular bacteria? Intracellular?
extracellular -
intracellular ++
How important (-, +, ++, +++) are antibodies for fighting extracellular bacteria? Intracellular?
extracellular ++
intracellular +
What are the 5 properties of a good candidate for vaccine development
1. organism causes significant illness
2.organism exists as only one serotype
3.antibody blocks infection or systemic spread
4. organism does not have oncogenic potential
5. vaccine is heat stable
What are the 5 properties of a good vaccine
1. generates memory response without disease
2. elicits a strong response (adjuvants)
3. the correct response is elicited (systemic vs mucosal route, antibody vs. T cell)
4. resonable cost
5. safe
Compare and contrast live and inactivated vaccines in terms of route of administration
live- natural or injection
inactive- injection
Compare and contrast live and inactivated vaccines in terms of dose
live- low
inactive- high
Compare and contrast live and inactivated vaccines in terms of number of doses
live- single
inactive- multiple
Compare and contrast live and inactivated vaccines in terms of need for adjuvant
live-no
inactive- yes
Compare and contrast live and inactivated vaccines in terms of duration of immunity
live-long term
inactive- short term
Compare and contrast live and inactivated vaccines in terms of antibody response
live- IgG, IgA
inactive- IgG
Compare and contrast live and inactivated vaccines in terms of cell medaited immune response
live-good
inactive- poor
Compare and contrast live and inactivated vaccines in terms of heat lability
live- yes
inactive- no
Compare and contrast live and inactivated vaccines in terms of interferance and side effects
live- occasional interferance and occasional mild side effects
inactive- no interfereance, occasional sore arm
Compare and contrast live and inactivated vaccines in terms of reversion to virulence
live- rare
inactive- none
What type of immune response is generated from the naked DNA vaccine model? How is this done?
A cytotoxic T cell response is illicited by injecting naked DNA coated on gold particles into muscle cells. This resulted in production of the encoded proteins and an immune response towards those proteins
What is the gram stain morphology of Staphylococcus?
gram positive cocci
two plane division gives grape like clusters
Is Staph motile?
Can it form spores?
catalase rxn?
oxygen relationship?
non-motile, non spore forming, catalase positive, facultative anaerobe
What are the three staph species that are important to humans
S. aureus
S. epidermidis
S. saprophyticus
How is Staph normally grown? How can S. aurues be selected?
Can grow Staph species on blood agar plates at 37, colonies form within 24 hrs
S. aureus can be selected for with manitol salts agar which contains 7.5% salt as a selective agent. Fermentation of the mannitol turns the media yellow (differential and selective media)
What are the two important diagnostic enzymes for Staphylococcus
1. coagulase- S. aureus is coag +
2. catalase- all are catalse + , differ from strep wich are calatase negative
What are the 4 staphylococcol tissue destryoing enzymes
1. hyaluronidase
2. lipase
3. nuclease
4. fibrinolysin (staphylokinase)
Staph Never Have Love
What is staphylokinase and how does it help Staph avoid the immune response
Staphylokinase is a Staph enzyme that activates plasminogen to form plasmin which digests fibrin clots. This disrupts the fibrin meshwork which is used to localize an infection. Staphlyokinase also cleaves C3b and IgG which prevents the bacteria from being opsonized efficicently
How does fibrinogen protect Staph from the host immune response?
It binds C3b and prevents lysis by complement
What are 3 mechanisms used by Stahylococcol species to evade the host immune response
1. staphylokinase
2. fibrinogen
3. protein A
What are the 5 ways protein A functions as a virulence factor?
1. binds to Fc fragment of antibodies
2.Binds to TNFa receptor
3. Binds von Willebrand factor
4. Binds B cell surface IgM variable regions
5. Aids in cell agglutinatino/ biofilm formation
"A Fears Very Tiny Bugs" (Aggultination, Fc binding, Von Willebrand, TNF, B Cells)
One of the ways that protein A acts as a virulence factor is by binding the Fc portion of antibodies. Explain the net effect of this process
-twarts accute immunity by tying up the antibodies in an unproductive way
-prevents opsonization
One of the ways that protein A acts as a virulence factor is by binding the TNFa receptor. Explain the net effect of this process
binding of the TNFa receptor leads to induction of cytokines and subsequent inflammation
One of the ways that protein A acts as a virulence factor is by binding von Willebrand factor. Explain the net effect of this process
von Willebrand factor is a serum glycoprotein that mediates platelet aggregation at sites of endothelial damage. Protein A can bind to this factor which facilitates infection and adhesion at invaded sites like catheters etc
One of the ways that protein A acts as a virulence factor is by binding to vraible regions of B cell surface IgM. Explain the net effect of this process
This induces B cell apoptosis and thus poor antibody response
How is protein A used commercially?
IT can be coupled to small beads and Ig specific for a target protein can be added. An antigen-antibody- bead complex is formed which can then be centrifuged out of a lysate
What is cogulase's (bound and free) function and how does it benefit S. aureus?
converts fibrinogen to fibrin
bound form causes staphylococci to clump, free form reacts with globulin plasma factor to form staphylotrhombin
may form a protective layer of fibrin around stahylococcal abscesses
How are S. epidermidis and S. saprophyticcus differentiated?
novobiocin suceptibilit, S. saprophyticus is resistant
Which portion of LPS is antigenic? Which is toxic?
the o antigen is antigenic
lipid A is toxic
Describe the alpha and beta toxins associated with S. aureus? What do they do?
alpha- disrupts smooth muscle in blood vessels, oxic to many different cells types, forms pore in host cell emembrane resulting in an influx of ions and cell lysis
beta (sphingomyelinase C)-catalyses hydrolysis of membrane phospholipids (sphignomyelin)
together the two toxins are responsible for tissue descrtion and abscess formation
Describe the Staphylococcal toxin Panton-Valentine Leukocidin
Why is the dose significant?
How is it aquired by the strain? What is unique about is strain distribution
-PVL leads to the secretion of two proteins LukS and LukF. These combine on the phagocyte cell membrane and form a pore that leads to leukotoxicity (signifiance in pathogenesis is controversial)
-low dose leads to apoptosis but high dose leads to lysis releasing inflammatory mediators and ROS which cause tissue necrosis
-it is encoded by a prophage
-PVL is made by 5% of S. auerus strains but nearly all MRSA strains
What are Phenol-soluble modulins (PSMs)
small (20-25 AA) surfactant peptides produce by MRSA ans some S. epidermidis.
At high conentration they can lyse neutrophils and RBCs
at low concentrations their "modulin" activity stimulates neutrophils to produce cytokines and to positivley chemotax towards a loal inflammatory site
(example is delta toxin)
What two forms of hemolysis can S. aureus display
beta and non-hemolytic
Describe the staphylococal exotoxin exfoliatin
-causes splitting of the epidermnal layers of skin via disruptionof the intracellular junctions, results in desqumation of the epidermis
~%5 of S. aureus
-the cause of staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome
What Staphylococcal product causs SSSS
exfoliatin
Describe the Staphylococcal exotoxin Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin (TSST)
-associated with TSS cuausing S. aureus strains
-binds host cells and induces cytokine and inflamatory produces
"cytokine storm" IL-1, IL-6, IL-12, TNFa
Describe the Staphylococcal enterotoxin. What disease does it cause? How does it act?
-heat and acid stable
-ingestion of toxin without bacteria is sufficient to cause illness
-leads to food poisioning
-binding of toxin to host cells leads to release of cytokines and inflammatory products
-example of a super antigen
What is a super antigen?
A superantigen acts as a polyclonal T cell activator. In contrast to the normal pathway where an antigen leads to the activation of one specific T cell population, superantigens can activate many different types of T cells beause they facilitate binding of TCR and MHC2 outside of the antigen binding domain
How does the immune response ellicited by a superantigen differ from that induced by a "normal" antigen
when a normal antigen is presented to a T cell, recongition leads to cytokine (IL-2) secretion and proliferation of that specific type of T cell. The T cell then ineracts with the B cell resulting in antibody production. When a superantigne activates a T cell the same pathway occurs but in addition, excess IL-2 stimulates the produciton of TNF and other cytokines, eventually leading to shock
Toxic shock syndrome is caused when a localized staphylococci infection produces TSST-1. What are the symptoms of TSS? What can cause the disease to reoccur? How is the disease caused?
Sxs- sudden fever, hypotension, diffuse erthematous rash, if untreated can lead to multiple organ failure and death
-disease can reoccur if antibiotics do not clear infection or pt. fails to develop
an antibody to TSS-1
-disease associated with use of hyper-absorbant tampons
T/F S. aureus associated food poisoning results from ingesting a bacteria
false, the posoning is the result of ingesting a heat resistant enterotoxin not the bacteria itself
describe S. aureus associated food poisoning
Cause? Severity? Sxs? Tx and recovery?
Caused by ingestion of heat stable enterotoxing. Manifests 4-12 hours after ingestion of contaminated food. Sxs include vomiting, diarrhea, abdomnial pain, and nausea. The disease is self limiting and recovery begins post 24 hrs. Rarely seroius except in elderly
Describe Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome (SSSS) aka Ritter's disease
age group? cause? Sxs? Tx?
occurs in small children
abrupt onset of erthema (skin inflammation), large bullae (cutaneous blisters) NO WBCs or bacteria
clears 7-10 days, no lasting scarring
caused by the exofoliatin toxin
note that Bullous impetigo has localized blisters also but these are culture positive
What two organisms can cause impetigo
S. aureus and Group A Strep (S. pyogenes)
Describe impetigo
result of Group A strep or Staph aureus infection. Formation of multiple pustules on the skin which often rupture and form crusty lesions
Describe Folliculitis
result of S. aureus infection. Pus filled infection of hair follicules. Folliculitis of the eyelash is called a stye
What organism causes furuncles/boils/ carbuncles. Describe these infections. Are there any serious complications?
S. auerus. Furuncles/ boids are a progression of folliculitis where larger reddened nodules develop. Carbuncles are groups of furuncels that join togeter and progress deeper into the subcutaneous tissue. This progression canlead to bacterimia.
S. aureus is a common cause of bacterimia. What are two ways this organism can get introduced into the blood?
-indwelling catheters
- IV drug use
Describe S. aureus associated pneumonia
life threatening infection. Can result from aspiration of oral secretions or by spread from the blood (hematogenous). Especially probelmatic consequence of viral influenza or cystic fibrosis
Staph epidermidis is coagulase negative (diff from S. aureus). What are the most common sites of infection by this organism
-infection of replaced heart valves
-infection of catheters and prosthetic joints
What type of infection is commonly associated with Staph Saprohyticus? (coagulase negative)
Uriniary tract infection (cystitis= bladder, urethritis= urethra)
What is the significance of small colony varients
A strain of S. aureus that may live intracellulary. Allow the bacteria to avoid host immune response and resist antibiotics
What is the purpose of lancefield grouping?
serological groupping of streptococci based on cell wall carbohydrages (C groups), note that some species do not have C group antigens (like S. pneumoniae)
What speicies belongs to group A strep and gives a Beta hemolytic reacion?
Group A- S. pyogenes
What species belongs to group B strep and gives a Beta and occasionally alpha and non hemolytic reaction
S. agalactiae
What lancefield group does S. pneumoniae belong to?
none, it does not have a C antigen
What is the viridans strep group? What disease do they cause
Oral commensal speceis that are alpha hemolytic
usually not pathogenic but can cause endocarditis if they are introduced into the blood stream
List the 8 virulence determineants of Group A strep, S. pyogenes
1. capsule
2. M protein
3. Lipoteichoic Acid
4. F protein
5. Streptolysin O and S
6. C5a peptidase
7. Ig binding protein
8. tissue destroying enzymes
What sugar is the group A C antigen?
rhamnose, N-acetylglucosamine
List 6 suppurative group A streptococcal diseases
1. pharyngitis
2. Scarlet fever
3. Streptococcoal toxic shock
4. impetigo
"Strep Is Careful Never to Pass" (scarlet, impetigo, cellulitis, necrotizing faciitis, toxic shock, pharyngitis)
5. cellulitis
6. nercrotizing fasciitis
T/F Group A strep can be carried in teh throat without disease
True, 15 to 20% of children and adults are carriers
List two non suppurative group A streptococcal diseases
1. rheumatic fever
2. Acute glomerular nephritis
Describe rheumatic fever
cause?
age group?
believe to be casused by antibodies to group A strep that cross react with connective tissue leading to local complement activation and destructuion, usually mannefests on hear valves
-usually occurs in children ages 5-15
Describe acutue glomerular nephritis
cause?
sxs?
inflammation of the glomeruli, loss of filtering ability, accumulation of waste in system and loss of protein in the urine
-believe to be caused by an accumulation of antibody-antigen compelxes to group A strep in the glomeruli
How is group A strep cultured and presumptivley identified
-culture on BAP plate
-ID- recongize hemolytic colonies, sensitive to bacitracin
How is group B strep culture and presumptivley identified
-culture on BAP with beta hemolysis
-resistant to bacitracin
-hydrolyses hippurate
What two diseases are associated with group B strep
neonatal sepsis and meningitis
postpartum sepsis
List 4 diseases that are caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae
1. pneumonia
2. otitis media and sinusitis
3. meningitis
4. bacteremia
T/F S. pneumoniae is a strict human parasite
true
How is S. pneumoniae cultured and presumptivley identified
-readily grown
-forms large goey colonies (capsule) that exhibit alpha hemolysis,
-sensitive to optocin
-note that serological identification of the capsular type is not a routine laboratory test
What type of hemolysis?
Group A strep (S. pyogenes)
Group B strep (S. agalactiae)
S. pneumoniae
Group A- beta
Group B- beta
S. pneumonaie- alpha
What does the S. pneumoniae vaccine consist of and who is it recomended for?
-consists of the most common types of capusular carbohydrates
-recomended for elderly
What is the difference between active and passive immunity?
active- result of an infection,a person forms their own antibodies
passive- a person is given antibodies from anther source (IV, injection etc)
Is MBP an opsonin?
Yes
What are the 4 steps of phagocytosis
1. formation of the phagosome
2. acidification of the phagosome
3. fusion with the lysosome
4. killing
What are the antigen presenting cells?
macrophages, dendritic cells, B cells
Listeria monocytogenes is motile intracellularly in infected cells and the motility results in the infection of neighboring cells. What host molecule is rearranged and what listerial protein mediates the rearrangement?
Actin, ActA
What are the Staphylococcal immune evasion enzymes / binding proteins
1. stahylokinse- activates plasminogen to form plasmin which digests fibrin clots and allows the infection to spread. Also cleaves C3b and IgG
2. fibrinogen binding protein- binds C3b and IgG
3. Protein A
List 2 Staph virulence factors that can bind IgG
Staphylokinase, Protein A
List2 Staph virulence factors (enzymes or binding proteins) that interfere with complement
1. Staphylokinase cleaves C3b
2. Fibrinogen binding protein binds C3
Which streptococcal virulence factors interfere with complement?
1. M protein degrades C3b
2. C5a peptidase degrades C5a
Which steptococcal virulence factors have lytic activity?
Streptolysin S and O
Streptokinase
Which streptococcal virulence factors are antiphagocytic
1. capusle
2. M protein