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220 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

1.)a regulatory protein that binds to specific sites on DNA and stimulates transcription; involved in positive control


2.)in a pathogen, a decreased or loss of virulence. Also, a mechanism for controlling gene expression, typically, transcription is terminated after initiation but before a full length mRNA is produced


3.)a small signal molecule that takes part in quorum sensing

activator protein


attenuation


autoinducer

1.)the suppression of alternative catabolic pathways for a preferred source of carbon and energy


2.)a regulatory nucleotide that participates in catabolite repression


3.)transcription of a gene followed by translation of the resulting mRNA into proteins

catabolic repression


cyclic AMP


gene expression


1.)proteins induced by high temperature (or certain other stresses) that protect against high temperature, especially by refolding partially denatured proteins or by degrading them


2.)production of an enzyme in response to a signal (often the presence of the substrate for the enzyme)


3.)a mechanism for regulating gene expression in which as repressor protein prevents transcription of genes

heat shock proteins


induction


negative control

1.)a mechanism for regulating gene expression in which an activator protein functions to promote transcription of genes


2.)a regulatory system that monitors the population size and controls gene expression based on cell density


3.)prevention of the synthesis of an enzyme in response to a signal

positive control


quorum sensing


repression

1.)a regulatory protein that binds to specific sites on DNA and blocks transcription; involved in negative control


2.)__is transmission of a gene into mRNA followed by translation of mRNA into proteins


3.)most __are enzymes that carry out biochemical reactions


4.)__proteins are needed at the same level all the time


repressor protein


gene expression


proteins


constructive

1.)do microbial genomes encode many proteins that are not needed all the time?


2.)regulation helps conserve __and resources


3.)when glucose is available, are enzymes for glycolysis needed all the time


4.)enzymes to break down lactose "___" are not always needed


5.)__genes code for a protein

yes


energy


yes


Lac Operon


structural

1.)translation starts at the __and ends at the __


2.)A __ is a protein needed only for initiation of RNA synthesis.


3.)cells get amino acids from the media, but what happens if the media doesn't contain any?


4.)there are two major levels of regulation in the cell, one controls the activity of ___, and the other one controls the __of an enzyme

start codon, stop codon


sigma factor


they can make it


preexisting enzymes, amount

1.)the activity of a protein can be regulated only after it has been synthesized, this is called __regulation


2.)regulating the activity of an enzyme in the cell is typically __, while synthesizing an enzyme is __


3.) the one that controls the activity of preexisting enzymes are associated with __

posttranslational


very rapid, relatively slow


feedback inhibition

1.)the one that controls the amount of an enzyme is associated with regulate __


2.)the __gene encodes the gene product and its expression is controlled by __in the upstream region


3.)The ___ purpose is to transcribe the genes that are present and then the products (proteins) that those genes code for can be made.

translation


structural, sequences


operons

1.)three parts of an operon


2.) the place where RNA polymerase binds


3.)an “on-off switch” to control transcription of the enzyme-coding genes


4.)genes that code for enzymes involved in a metabolic pathway

promoter, operator, structural genes


promoter


operator


structural genes

1.)__is a short region between the start of transcription and the start of translation, and __is a short region b/w the stop codon and the transcription terminator and these regions are where translational regulation often occurs


2.)to monitor gene expression levels corresponding to specific proteins, __genes are employed and they encode for an easy-to-detect product

5' untranslated region, 3' UTR


reporter

1.)reporter genes can be fused to other __ or regulatory __


2.)an example of a reporter gene is the __protein


3.)the __, which fluoresces bright green when exposed to a specific wavelength of light, is commonly used for monitoring gene expression


4.)fluorescence happens if what?

genes, elements


green fluorescent protein


green fluorescent protein


gene is expressed

1.)mRNA transcripts generally have a __half life


2.)why does mRNA have a short half life?


3.)regulation of transcription typically requires proteins that can bind to __


4.)small __influence the binding of regulatory proteins to DNA, that proteins actually regulate transcription

short


prevents the production of unneeded proteins


DNA


molecules

1.)the amount of a protein present in a cell may be controlled at the level of __, at the level of __, or by protein __


2.)for a gene to transcribe, RNA polymerase must recognize a specific __on the DNA and begin its activity


3.)Any protein that interacts with dna sequences of a gene and controls its transcription.

transcription, translation, degradation


promoter


regulatory protein

1.)most DNA __proteins interact with DNA in a sequence specific manner


2.)specificity is provided by interactions b/w amino acid side chains and chemical groups on the __and sugar__backbone of DNA


3.)__of DNA is the main site of protein binding


4.)__ frequently are binding sites for regulatory proteins


binding


base, phosphate


major groove


inverted repeats

1.)can the level of fluorescence be correlated to the level of gene expression?


2.)since inverted repeats are frequently the binding sites for regulatory proteins, do they require the formation of stem loop structures in the DNA?


3.)__are proteins composed of two identical polypeptides


4.)are binding proteins often homodimeric?

yes


no


homodimeric proteins


yes

1.)the two identical polypeptide subunits are each subdivided into __, which are regions of the protein with a specific structure and function


2.)protein dimers interact with __on DNA


3.)each of the polypeptides binds to one __


4.)so basically, inverted repeats are where the __binds


5.)are several classes of protein domains critical for proper binding of proteins to DNA

domains


inverted repeats


inverted repeat


protein


yes

1.)one of the most common classes of protein domains is __


2.)the first helix is the __helix that interacts specifically with DNA


3.)the second helix is the __helix which stabilizes the first helix by interacting with it by way of hydrophobic interactions


4.)many different DNA binding proteins from __contain helix-turn-helix

helix-turn-helix


recognition


stabilizing


Bacteria

1.)the turn linking the two helices consist of three amino acid residues, the first which is typically a __


2.)sequences are recognized by __interactions, including hydrogen bonds and van der Waals contacts


3.)so many different DNA binding proteins from bacteria contain helix-turn-helix, these include many repressor proteins such as the __and __ repressors of E. coli

glycine


noncovalent


lac, trp

1.)are there multiple outcomes after DNA binding


2.)the first outcome is DNA binding protein may __a specific reaction on the DNA molecule


3.)what is an example of catalyzing a specific reaction


4.)the second outcome is the binding event can block transcription, or ___


5.)the third outcome is the binding event can activate transcription, or __

yes


catalyze


transcription by RNA polymerase


negative regulation


positive regulation

1.)the repressor proteins bind to the __of the operon


2.)the structural genes are the genes that code for __


3.)the terminator is the stop of transcription and occurs at __


4.)the promoter is where RNA polymerase and __binds


5.)negative regulation involves a __

promoter


mRNA


inverted repeats


sigma factors


repressor

1.)__is when the repressor protein binds to the operator to block transcription


2.)there are several mechanisms for controlling gene expression in bacteria, these systems are greatly influenced by __in which the organism is growing


3.)one mechanisms for controlling gene expression in bacteria is the presence or absence of specific small __

repression


environment


molecules

1.)interactions between small molecules and DNA binding proteins result in control of __or __


2.)so for an example of repression, in E. coli and other bacteria the enzymes needed to synthesize the amino acid arginine are made only when arginine is absent from the culture medium, an excess of arginine __the synthesis of these enzymes

transcription, translation


decreases

1.)is induction negative control?why?


2.)__is when the inducor binds to the repressor proteins (change shape) and prevents bind of the repressor protein to the operator allowing transcription of the structural gene


3.)are enzyme induction the opposite of enzyme repression


4.)with enzyme induction, an enzyme is made only when its __is present

yes, because of the repressor


induction


yes


substrate

1.)positive control also involves a protein but enhances __


2.)repression is a __pathway while induction is a __pathway


3.)__control is a regulatory mechanism that stops transcription


4.)__is preventing the synthesis of an enzyme in response to a signal

transcription


biosynthetic, catabolic


negative


repression

1.)do enzymes affected by repression make up only a small fraction of total proteins?


2.)repression typically affects __enzymes


3.)the enzymes for the utilization of the sugar lactose as a carbon source by E. coli are encoded by __


4.)what enzyme cleaves lactose into glucose and galactose

yes


anabolic


Lac operon


B-galactosidase

1.)so basically, the enzyme B-galactosidase is required for E. coli to grow what


2.)if lactose is absent, the enzyme is not made, but __begins almost immediately after lactose is added


3.)repressible operon are expressed unless __ (example is Tryp Operon)


4.)the enzyme that represses enzyme synthesis is called a __

lactose


synthesis


repressed


core-pressor

1.)the trypt repressor protein binds to the operator to block transcription, why is this?


2.)__is the production of an enzyme in response to a signal


3.)for induction, enzymes are synthesized when?


4.)so what does B-galactosidase do?


5.)what does Lac Operon do?


6.)what is the inducor for Lac Operon

1.)because excess Trypt operon, cell doesn't need to make it


2.)induction


3.)only when needed (no waste energy)


4.)cleaves lactose into glucose and galactose


5.)codes for the enzymes to break down lactose


6.)Allo Lactose

1.)Allo lactose binds to the __protein to make it not able to bind to the operator


2.)__is a substance that induces enzyme synthesis


3.)__is a substance that represses enzyme synthesis


4.)__is a collective term for inducers and repressors

repressor


inducer


corepressor


effectors

1.)effectors affect transcription indirectly by binding to specific DNA __


2.)repressor molecules bind to an __repressor protein


3.)Allosteric repressor becomes active and binds to regions of DNA near the promoter called the __


4.)__is a cluster of genes arranged in a linear fashion whose expression is under control of a single operator

binding proteins


allosteric


operator


operon

1.)operator is located __of the promoter


2.)__is physically blocked when repressor bonds to operator


3.)can enzyme induction be controlled by a repressor


4.)addition of a __inactivates repressor and transcription can proceed


5.)repressors role is inhibitory, so it is called __control

downstream


transcription


yes


inducer


negative

1.)__control is when regulator protein activates the binding of RNA polymerase to DNA


2.)__catabolism occurs in E. coli


3.)maltose activator protein cannot bind to DNA unless it first binds to __


4.)__proteins bind specifically to certain DNA sequence


5.)in positive control of transcription the regulatory protein is an __that activates the binding of RNA polymerase to DNA

positive


maltose


maltose


Activator


activator


1.)for the activator proteins, the region of DNA that is the binding site of the activator is not called an operator, but instead an __site


2.)can the activator binding site be close to the promoter or several hundred base pairs away?


3.)genes for maltose are spread out over the chromosome in several operons, each operon has an ___site

activator binding


yes


activator binding


1.)multiple operons controlled by the same regulatory protein are called a __


2.)do regulons also exist for negatively controlled systems?


3.)__regulate expression of many different genes simultaneously


4.)what is an example of global control


5.)synthesis of unrelated catabolic enzymes is repressed if __is present in growth medium

regulon


yes


global control systems


catabolite repression


glucose

1.)is lac operon under control of catabolite repression


2.)__growth is two exponential growth phases


3.)in catabolite repression, transcription is controlled by an activator protein and is a form of __controll


4.)catabolite repression relies on an activator protein and the activator protein is called the __

yea


diauxic


positive


cyclic AMP receptor protein

1.)__is a key molecule in many metabolic control systems


2.)cyclic AMP is derived from a __precursor


3.)because cyclic AMP is derived from a nucleic acid precursor, it is a __nucleotide


4.)_genes are controlled by catabolite repression (no need to swim in search of nutrients)

cyclic AMP


nucleic acid


regulatory


flagellar

1.)are dozens of catabolic operons affected by catabolite repression?


2.)prokaryotes regulate cellular metabolism in response to environmental __


3.)__is indirect transmission of an external signal to a target cell


4.)__is a regulatory system consisting of a sensor protein and a response protein


5.)is external signal transmitted directly to the target?

yes


fluctuations


signal transduction


two-component systems


yes

1.)an external signal is detected by a sensor an transmitted to regulatory machinery (___)


2.)are most signal transduction systems two component regulatory systems?


3.)the two component regulatory system is made up of two different proteins, what are they


4.)__(in cytoplasmic membrane) detects environmental signals and autophosphorylates

signal transduction


yes


sensor kinases, response regulator


sensor kinases

1.)__(in cytoplasm) is the DNA binding protein that regulates transcription


2.)a balanced regulatory system must have a __loop, that is, a way to complete the regulatory circuit and terminate the response


3.)there are almost __different two-component systems in E. coli


4.)phosphate assimilation, nitrogen metabolism, and osmotic pressure response are examples of what

response regulator


feedback


50


two component systems

1.)can some signal transduction systems have multiple regulatory elements?


2.)do some Archaea also have two component regulatory systems


3.)there are modified two-component systems used in chemotaxis to sense __changes in attractants and repellents and regulation __rotation

yes


yes


temporal, flagellar

1.)we know that prokaryotes are too small to sense spatial gradients of a chemical but they can respond to temporal gradients, meaning, they can sense the change in concentration of a chemical over __rather than the absolute concentration of the chemical stimulus


2.)3 main steps in the regulation of chemotaxis


3.)in the first step, sensory proteins in cytoplasmic membrane sense __and __

1.)time


2.)response to signal, controlling flagellar rotation, adaptation


3.)attractants, repellants

1.)______binds the attractant and repellant and initiates flagellar rotation


2.)in the second step, the controlling of flagellar rotation is controlled by __protein


3.)__results in counterclockwise rotation and runs


4.)__results in clockwise rotation and tumbling

methyl-accepting chemotaxis proteins (MCPs)


CheY


CheY


CheY-P

1.)the 3rd step is adaptation and it has a __ which allows the system to reset itself to continue to sense the presence of a signal


2.)the feedback loop in adaptation involves the modification of __


3.)when MCPs are fully methylated, they no longer respond to __but are more sensitive to __

feedback loop


MCPs


attractants, repellants

1.)when MCPs are unmethylated, they respond highly to __and are insensitive to __


2.)__is the movement toward light


3.)what replaces MCPs in phototaxis


4.)__is movement toward oxygen


5.)__protein monitors oxygen levels for aerotaxis


6.)__proteins also play a role in phototaxis and aerotaxis

attractants, repellants


phototaxis


light sensor


aerotaxis


redox


Che

1.)can prokaryotes respond to the presence of other cells of the same species?


2.)__is a mechanism by which bacteria assess their population density


3.)quorum sensing ensures that a sufficient number of cells are present before initiating a response that, to be effective, requires a certain cell __. (example is toxin production in pathogenic bacterium)

yes


quorum sensing


density

1.)a small signal molecule that takes part in quorum sensing


2.)does each species of bacterium produce a specific autoinducor molecule


3.)the autoinducer diffuses freely across the cell envelope, reaches __concentration inside cell only is many cells are near, and then binds to specific __proteins and triggers transcription of specific genes

autoinducor


yes


high, activator

1.)there are several different classes of autoinducers, __was the first autoinducer to be identified


2.)quorum sensing first discovered as mechanism for regulating ___ production in bacteria including Alivibrio Fischeri


3.)__operon encodes bioluminescence(glowing bacteria)


Acyl homoserine lactone


light


Lux

1.)an example of quorum sensing is P. aeruginosa switching from free living to growing as a __


2.)another example of quorum sensing is virulence factors of ___


3.)is quorum sensing present in some microbial eukaryotes


4.)does quorum sensing exist in Archaea

biofilm


Staphylococcus aureus


yes


probably not

1.)Shiga toxin producing E. coli, such as the notorious foodborne pathogen E. coli O157:H7 produces ___AL3, that induces virulence genes


2.)as the E.coli population increases in the intestines, bacterial cells produce AI-3 while host intestinal cells produce the stress hormone __and __

AHL


epinephrine, norepinephrine

1.)epinephrine, plus norepinephrine plus Al-3 bind to sensor molecules in plasma membrane and it basically activates __, __production, and production of __proteins


2.)staphylococcus aureus secretes small peptides that damage host cells or alter host's immune system, they are under control of ___

motility, enterotoxin, virulence


autoinducing peptide

1.)autoinducing peptide activates several proteins that lead to production of __proteins


2.)Pseudomonas aeruginosa produces what


3.)P. aeruginosa produces __that increase pathogenicity and antibiotic resistance

virulence


biofilms


polysaccharides

1.)cells of P. aeruginosa posses two separate quorum sensing systems, Las and Rhl, that respond to specific __and activate the transcription of genes encoding exopolysaccharide synthesis as cell numbers increase


2.)P. aeruginosa produces AHLs and cyclic di-guanosine ___, which leads to exopolysaccahride production and flagella synthesis

AHL's


monophosphate

1.)catabolic repression and quorum sensing are both examples of __control


2.)global control networks may include activators, repressors, signal molecules, two component regulatory systems, regulatory RNA, and alternation ___


3.)__is response to high temperature that includes the synthesis of heat shock proteins together with other changes in gene expression

global


sigma factors


heat shock response

1.)__are proteins induced by high temperature that protect against high temperature, especially by refolding partially denatured proteins or by degrading them


2.)are aerobic and anaerobic respiration, catbolite repression, nitrogen utilization, oxidative stress, SOS response and heat shock response other global control systems?

heat shock proteins


yes

1.)RNA molecules that are not translated to give proteins are collectively known as __


2.)are small RNAs known as noncoding RNA


3.)small RNA are made by transcribing non-template strands of a gene are called __RNAs


4.)can each antisense RNA regulate multiple mRNAs


5.)transcription of antisense RNA is enhanced when its target genes need to be turned __


noncoding RNA
yes


antisense


yes


off

1.)do some antisense RNAs actually enhance translation


2.)__sRNAs are encoded in the intergenic regions and can be spatially separated from their mRNA target


3.)binding of trans-sRNA to targets depends on a small protein called RNA __


4.)RNA chaperons helps small molecules maintain __

yes


Trans


chaperones


correct structure

1.)an example of an RNA chaperone is __


2.)HFQ binds to both RNA molecules and to __


3.)__are RNA domains in an mRNA molecule that can bind small molecules to control translation of mRNA


4.)riboswitches are located at the __end of mRNA and the binding result from folding of RNA into a __structure

HFQ


ribonuclease


riboswitches


5, 3D

1.)riboswithces are similar to a protein recognizing a __


2.)riboswitch control is analogous to __control


3.)are riboswithces found in some bacteria, fungi and plants?


4.)regulatory RNA molecules exert their effects by base pairing with __

substrate


negative


yes


mRNA

1.)___RNA molecules can block or open ribosome binding sites, and increase or decrease degradation of mRNA


2.)__is a form of transcriptional control in Bacteria that functions by premature termination of mRNA synthesis


3.)in attenuation, control is exerted after the initiation of transcription but before its __


4.)does the mechanism of attenuation resemble riboswitches?

regulatory


attenuation


completion


yes

1.)attenuation resembles riboswitches because in both, the first part of the mRNA to be made called the leader can fold into two alternative __ structures


2.)they are different because in attenuation, one secondary structure allows continued synthesis of the mRNA whereas the other secondary structure causes premature __

secondary


termination

1.)the tryptophan operon contains structural genes for __proteins of tryptophan biosynthetic pathway plus the promoter and other things


2.)transcription of the entire tryptophan operon is under __control


3.)in addition to the promoter and operator regions needed for negative control, there is a sequence in the operon called the __sequence that encodes a short polypeptide

5


negative


leader

1.)the leader sequence that encodes a short polypeptide in tryptophan is called the __


2.)if tryptophan is plentiful in the cell, there will be plenty of charged tryptophan tRNAs and the leader peptide will be __


3.)synthesis of the leader peptide results in __of transcription of the remainder of the typ operon, which includes the structural genes for biosynthetic enzymes

leader peptide


synthesized


termination

1.)if tryptophan is scarce, the tryptophan rich leader peptide will __be synthesized


2.)if synthesis of the leader peptide is halted by a lack of tryptophan, the rest of the operon is what?


3.)does genomic evidence suggest attenuation exists in Archaea


4.)while transcription of downstream DNA sequences is still proceeding, can translation of already transcribed sequences happen?


not


transcribed


yes


yes

1.)transcription is attenuated because a portion of newly formed mRNA folds into a unique __that inhibits RNA polymerase activity


2.)what binds to the promoter region?


3.)what binds to the operator region?


4.)the stem loop structure forms in mRNA because two stretches of nucleotides near each other are complementary and thus can __pair

stem-loop structure


sigma factors and RNA polymerase


repressors


base

1.)if tryptophan is plentiful, the ribosome translates the leader sequence until it comes to the lead __codon


2.)the remainder of the leader sequence then forms a stem loop, a transcription pause site, which is followed by a __rich sequence that actually causes termination


3.)structural genes code for __

stop


uracil


enzymes

1.)__is a mechanism for turning off the reactions in a biosynthetic pathway


2.)the reactions are shut off because the end product of the pathway binds to the first enzyme in the pathway, thus doing what


3.)the inhibited enzyme has two binding sites, the active site and the __site, where the end product of the pathway binds

feedback inhibition


inhibiting its activity


allosteric

1.)an inhibited enzyme is an __enzyme


2.)allosteric enzymes do what?


3.)feedback inhibition is a __reaction


4.)some pathways controlled by feedback inhibition use __


5.)__are different enzymes that catalyze the same reaction but are subject to different regulatory controls

allosteric


changes shape


reversible


isoenzymes


isoenzymes

1.)biosynthetic enzymes can also be regulated by __modifications


2.)regulation involves a small molecule attached to or removed from the protein, this results in conformational change that inhibits __


3.)common post translational ___include adenosine monophosphate, adenosine diphosphate, inorganic phosphate, and methyl groups

covalent


activity


modifiers

1.)__is a virus that infects bacterial cells


2.)__is the protein shell that surrounds the genome of a virus particle


3.)__is the subunit of a capsid


4.)__is a protein synthesized soon after virus infection and before replication of a virus genome

bacteriophage


capsid


capsomere


early protein

1.)__is a cell inside which virus replicates


2.)__is a geometrical shape occurring in many virus particles, with 20 triangular faces and 12 corners


3.)__is a protein, typically a structural protein, synthesized late in virus infection


4.)__is a bacterium containing a prophage


5.)__is a state in which the viral genome is replicated in step with the genome of the host

host


icoshedron


late protein


lysogen


lysogeny

1.)__is the type of virus infection that leads to virus replication and destruction of the host cell


2.)__is the complex of nucleic acid and proteins of a virus


3.)__is a zone of lysis or growth inhibition caused by virus infection of a lawn of sensitive host cells


4.)__is the lysogenic form of a bacteriophage

lytic pathway


nucleocapsid


plaque


prophage

1.)__is the genome of a temperate or latent animal virus when it is replicating in step with the host chromosome


2.)__is a virus whose RNA genome is replicated via a DNA intermediate


3.)__is the retroviral enzyme that can produce DNA from an RNA template

provirus


retrovirus


reverse transcriptase

1.)__is a virus whose genome can replicate along with that of its host without causing cell death, in a state call lysogeny (bacterial viruses) or latency (animal viruses)


2.___is a process, sometimes initiated by infection with certain viruses, whereby a normal animal cell becomes cancer cell


3.)__is the infectious virus particle; the viral genome surrounded by a protein coat and sometimes other layers

temperate virus


transformation


virion

1.)__is a virus that lyses or kills the host cell after infection


2.)__is a genetic element containing either RNA or DNA surrounded by a protein capsid and that replicates only inside host cells


3.)__is a genetic element that cannot replicate independently of a living (host) cell


4.)__is the study of viruses

virulent virus


virus


virus


virology

1.)__(virus particle) is an extracellular form of a virus that


2.)a virion exist outside __and facilitates transmission from one host cell to another


3.)virion contains __genome surrounded by a protein coat and in some cases, other layers of material


4.)T-cell count below __=aids. what is the normal t-cell count?

virion


host


nucleic acid


200, 600

1.)viral genomes are either __or __genome and most are __(circular or linear?)


2.)what kind of microscope used to see viruses


3.)viruses can be classified on the basis of the host they infect, name some of the viruses


4.)viruses come in many shapes and sizes and are measure in __

DNA, RNA, linear


electron


bacterial, archaeal, animal, plant


nanometers

1.)the capsid is composed of a number of protein molecules arranged in a precise and highly repetitive pattern around the __


2.)a __is the smallest morphological unit visible with an electron microscope


3.)__is a complete complex of nucleic acid and protein packaged in the viron


4.)___is a virus that contains additional layers around the nucleocapsid

nucleic acid


capsomere


nucleocapsid


enveloped virus

1.)are nucleocapsids constructed in highly symmetric ways


2.)one type of symmetry of the nucleocapsid is the __symmetry, which is rod shaped viruses (tabacco mosaic virus)


3.)length of a virus determined by length of __


4.)width of a virus determined by size and packaging of __subunits

yes


helical


nucleic acid


protein

1.)another type of symmetry of the nucleocapsid is __symmetry which is spherical viruses (human papillomavirus)


2.)icosahedral symmetry is the most efficient arrangement of subunits in a __shell


3.)the virion (enveloped viruses) has a membrane surrounding the nucleocapsid, which is a lipid __with embedded proteins

icosahedral


closed


bilayer

1.)the __makes initial contact with the host cell


2.)__viruses are virions composed of several parts, each with separate shapes and symmetries


3.)bacterial viruses contain complicated structures, __heads and __tails


4.)4 viruses talked about in the movie


5.)west Nile is cause by a virus (__agent) which is a pathogen

envelope


complex


icosahedral, helical


west nile, TB, Chagus disease, Hanta fever


etiological agent

1.)what is the vector of west Nile


2.)tuberculosis is caused by what bacteria


3.)mycobacteria is __fast, have __acids and a waxy cell wall


4.)__is a drug used to treat TB


5.)mycobacteria live in __(WBCs)


6.)Chagas disease is caused a parasite __

mosquito


mycobacterium


acid, mycoic


isoniazid


machrophages


Protozoan

1.)what else is Chagas disease called and why


2.)__with genetically engineered bacteria made the toxins that killed the parasite


3.)__fever is similar to E. coli


4.)hanta virus is also called __virus


5.)do dead host cells replicate viruses?


6.)name the 5 steps of the viral replication cycle

1.)kissing bug, attach to face because of CO2


2.)paste


3.)Hanta


4.)Lassa


5.)no


6.)attachment, penetration, synthesis, assembly, release

1.)there is attachment of the virion to the host cell, and penetration of the virion ___into the host cell


2.)then there is synthesis of virus nucleic acid and __by host cell machinery as redirected by the virus, then there is release of new virions.


3.)The growth of a virus is also called a __step growth curve

nucleic acid


protein


one


1.)pure cultures of bacterial hosts are grown either in __ or as lawns on the surfaces of agar plates.


2.)animal viruses are cultivated in __cultures


3.)tissue culture medias are often highly __, containing a wide assortment of nutrients including blood serum and antimicrobial agents to prevent bacterial contamination

liquid


tissue


complex

1.)a viral suspension can be quantified to determine the number of infectious virions present per volume of fluid, a quantity called the __


2.)a titer is typically done using a __


3.)when a virus infects host cells growing on a flat surface, a zone of cell lysis called a __forms and appears as a clear area in the lawn of host cells

titer


plaque assay


plaque

1.)__is analogous to the bacterial colony, one way to measure virus infectivity


2.)each plaque results from infection by a __virus particle


3.)some virions contain enzymes critical to infection, they include ___, __polymerases, and __


4.)lysozyme makes __in the cell wall and __the bacterial cell

plaque assay


single


lysozymes, nuclie acid, neuraminidases


hole, lyses


1.)__are enzymes that cleave the glycosidic bonds in connective tissues allowing animal viruses to spread from cell to cell


2.)viruses replicate only in certain types of cells or in whole __


3.)__viruses are easiest to grow


4.)__viruses and some __viruses can be cultivated in tissue or cell cultures

neuraminidases


organisms


bacterial


animal, plant

1.)__viruses are typically the most difficult to grow because study often requires growth of the whole __


2.)many RNA as well as DNA __replicate in E. coli


3.)a major factor in host specificity of a virus is __


4.)the virion itself has one or more __on its external surface that interact with specific host cell surface components called __


5.)can a virus attach without a receptor?

plant, plant


bacteriophages


attachment


proteins, receptors


no

1.)if the receptor is altered (___) the host may become resistant


2.)viral receptors are surface components of the host, such as __carbohydrates, glycoproteins, __, and lipoproteins


3.)do some receptors carry out normal functions in the cell?

mutations


proteins, lipids


yes

1.)carbohydrates in the LPS outer membrane of Gram negative bacteria are the receptors recognized by bacteriophage __, a phage that binds to the LPS of E. coli


2.)is flagella and pili also receptors?


3.)what two stages make up the Latent period of virus replication

T4


yes


eclipse and maturation

1.)in the first few minutes after infection the virus enters the __phase, once attached to a permissive host cell, a virion is no longer available to infect another cell


2.)the __phase begins as newly synthesized viral nucleic acid molecules become packaged inside their capsids


3.)the new virions still cannot be detected in the culture medium unless the cells are artificially __to release them

eclipse


maturation


lysed

1.)so during the latent phase, the newly assembled virions are where?


2.)the number of virions released per cell is called __


3.)are bacteriophages very diverse?


4.)best studied bacteriophages infect __bacteria, like E. coli and Salmonella enterica


5.)most phages contain __genomes

still in the cell


burst size


yes


enteric


double stranded DNA

1.)most phages are naked, but some posses __envelopes


2.)phages are structurally complex, containing __, __and other components


3.)__mode is when viruses lyse host cells after infection


4.)__mode is when viruses replicate their genomes in tandem with host genome and without killing them (can also be lytic)

lipid


heads, tails


virulent


temperate

1.)bacteriophage __is a virus of E. coli and is one of the most complex penetration mechanisms


2.)virions attach to cells via tail fibers that interact with __on E. coli cell envelope


3.)the tail fibers retract and tail core makes contact with E. coli cell __


4.)then, a __-like enzyme forms small pore in peptidoglycan

T4


polysaccharides


wall


lysozyme

1.)next, the tail sheath __and viral DNA passes into the cytoplasm


2.)bacteriophages abandon the __outside the cell and only the viral genome reaches the cytoplasm


3.)entry of the viral genome into a host cell only results in virus replication if the viral genome can be __

contracts


capsid


read

1.)for the replication of some viruses, RNA viruses, specific viral __must also enter the host cell along with the viral genome


2.)bacteriophage T4 consist of an __head, within which the viral linear double stranded DNA is folded, and a long, complex tail which ends in a series of tail fibers and tail pins that contact cell surfaces

proteins


icosahedral

1.)once the virus enters, why is the DNA inside bacteriophages heads under high pressure?


2.)in more complex DNA viruses such as bacteriophage T4, the virus encodes its own DNA __


3.)sometimes a population of virions of a single virus contain genomes with the same set of genes but arranged in a different order, this is called __permutation and is a hallmark of the T4 genome

osmotic forces


polymerase


circular

1.)with a minute after T4 DNA enters the host cytoplasm, the synthesis of host DNA and RNA ceases and __of specific phage genes begins


2.)the T4 genome encodes 3 major sets of proteins called __, __, and __


3.)early proteins include enzymes for the synthesis and glucosylation of the unusual T4 base ____

transcription


early, middle, and late proteins


5-hydroxymethylcytosine

1.)early proteins are also include enzymes that function in the T4 __ to produce copies of the phage-specific genome


2.)early proteins also function in proteins that modify hot __polymerase


3.)middle proteins function in additional proteins that modify host __polymerase

replisome


RNA


RNA

1.)late proteins are synthesized later, and include proteins of virus __


2.)are late proteins typically structural components and synthesized in larger amounts


3.)does the T4 genome encode its own RNA polymerase?


4.)the bacteriophage T4 genome is forcibly pumped into a preassembled __using an energy linked packaging motor

coat


yes


no


capsid

1.)the motor components for making the capsid are encoded by viral genes, but host cell metabolism is needed to produce the __and supply the __required fort he pumping process


2.)the packaging process has 3 stages, the first is when precursors of the bacteriophage head called __are assembled but remain empty

proteins, ATP


proheads


1.)next, the double stranded linear T4 DNA genome is then pumped into the prohead under pressure using __as the driving force


2.)lastly, the packaging motor itself is discarded and the capsid head is __


3.)after the head has been filled, the T4 tail, __ fibers, and other components are added

ATP


sealed


tail

1.)__viruses can undergo a stable genetic relationship within the host, but can also kill cells through lytic cycle


2.)__is a state where most virus genes are not expressed and virus genome (prophage) is replicated in synchrony with host chromosome


3.)__is a bacterium containing a prophage


4.)under certain conditions, lysogenic viruses may revert to the __pathway and begin to produce virions

temperate


lysogeny


lysogen


lytic

1.)__ is the state of the genome of a temperate virus when it is replicating in synchrony with that of the prokaryotic host, typically integrated into the host genome


2.)two well characterized temperate bacteriophages are __and P1


3.)during lysogeny, the temperate virus genome is either integrated into the bacterial chromosome (lambda) or can exist in the cytoplasm as a __(P1)

prophage


lambda


plasmid


1.)bacteriophage Lambda is __, __ DNA genome


2.)upon penetration, lambda DNA ends base pair, forming the __site, and the DNA ligates and forms double stranded circle


3.)when lambda is lysogentic, its DNA integrates into E. coli chromosome at the ___site

linear, double stranded


cos


lambda attachment

1.)if Lambda enters the lytic pathway, long, linear concatemers of genomic DNA are synthesized by a mechanism called __replication, a process in which one strand in the circular lambda virions have been assembled, cell lysis occurs and the virions are releases.


2.)whether lysis or lysogeny occurs in a lambda infection depends in large part on the levels of 2 key repressor proteins that can accumulated in the cell follow infection, they are called __

rolling circle


lambda repressor(CI protein) and CRO

1.)___causes repression of lambda lytic events


2.)__controls activation of lytic events


3.)in animal viruses, the entire virion enters the animal cell and it must be __before replication occurs, unlike in prokaryotes


4.)eukaryotic cells contain a __, the site of replication for many animal viruses


5.)do all animal viruses contain all known modes of viral genome replication?

CI protein


Cro repressor


uncoated


nucleus


yes

1.)there are many more kinds of enveloped animal viruses than enveloped bacterial viruses exist, as animal viruses leave host cell, they can remove part of the host cells __for their envelope


2.)the entire virion of animal viruses (rather than just the __) enters the host cell in comparison to prokaryotic viruses


3.)the majority of important human viral diseases are caused by __viruses

lipid bilayer


nucleic acid


RNA

1.)most of the RNA viruses have __stranded genomes, the only exception being the __whose genome consist of double stranded DNA


2.)can different animal viruses catalyze at least 4 different outcomes.


3.)__infection results in lysis of the host cell, this is the most common outcome


4.)__infection is when viral DNA does not replicate and the host cells are unharmed

single, reoviruses


yes


virulent


latent

1.)with some enveloped animal viruses, release of virions which occurs by a kind of budding process, may be slow, and the host cell may not be lysed and such infections are called __ infections


2.)certain animal viruses can convert a normal cell into a tumor cell, the process is called __


3.)__is when two or more cells become one cell with many nuclei

persistent


transformation


cell fusion

1.)in multicellular organisms, cells in different tissues or organs often express different __on their cell surfaces, therefore they often infect only certain tissues (common cold in respiratory tract only)


2.)__are RNA viruses that replicate through a DNA intermediate


3.)retroviruses transfer information from _to __

proteins


retroviruses


RNA. DNA

1.)retroviruses are __viruses


2.)retroviruses use the enzyme __to carry out the process of copying information from its RNA genome into DNA


3.)retroviruses were the first to show the cause of __


4.)retroviruses also carry the enzymes __and retroviral specific __

enveloped


reverse transcriptase


cancer


integrase, protease

1.)retrovirus virion contains specific __molecules


2.)retroviruses have two identical __RNA molecules of the plus sense


3.)the genome of the retrovirus contains the genes __ which encode structural proteins, __which encode reverse transcriptase, and __which encode envelope proteins


4.)the process of replication of a retrovirus is the __into the cell

tRNA


single stranded


gag, pol, env


entrance

1.)next, there is the removal of the virion __at the membrane


2.)then the __transcription of one of the two RNA occurs


3.)next there is integration of retroviral DNA into the __genome


4.)after integration, the retroviral DNA is now a __

envelope


reverse


host


provirus

1.)next there is transcription of the retroviral __


2.)then there is assembly and packaging of genomic __


3.)lastly, there is budding of enveloped virions and __from the cell


4.)there are about ___prokaryotes per ml of seawater


5.)about __viruses per ml of seawater

DNA


RNA
release


10 to the 6


10 to the 7

1.)__thought to have a major impact on evolution of bacteria, may confer new metabolic or other beneficial properties


2.)many of the prokaryotes in seawater are __, and many of the viruses in seawater may infect marine ___


3.)most of earths genetic diversity resides in _

bacteriophages


Archaea, Archaea


viruses

1.)most viruses are believed to be __


2.)__is the sum total of all viral genes in a particular environment


3.)are most viruses undiscovered?


4.)do most viral genes have unknown functions?


5.)name a retrovirus with an envelope


6.)__tells normal cells when to stop growing

bacteriophages


viral metagenome


yes


yes


HIV


contact inhibition

1.)with cancer cells, the mutation results in loss of __, which means they keep growing forming tumors


2.)__viruses use membrane fusion which is the membrane of the virus fuses with the plasma membrane of the cell into one single membrane that allows the virus to get into the cell.


3.)naked viruses can inject the DNA into __

contact inhibition


enveloped


host cell

1.)some enveloped viruses use __(cell eating) and it is when the host cell engulfs virus


2.)during phagocytosis, once the virus is in the host __happens and removal of the capsid and release of nucleic acid occurs


3.)in __stranded RNA viruses, the RNA is the same as the mRNA.

phagocytosis


uncoating


positive(sense strand)

1.)with positive stranded RNA viruses, MRNA can be translated into __, and the RNA polymerase copies the positive RNA into __


2.)___stranded RNA viruses are the opposite of MRNA and can turn around and become template for making more __strands


3.)where does the process with RNA viruses occur


4.)__viruses get out by budding while __viruses get out by lysis

proteins, negative RNA


negative(antisense strand), positive


cytoplasm, if it was DNA it would be in nucleus


enveloped, naked

1.)__shift is in influenza virus, major changes in viral proteins (antigens) due to gene reassortment


2.)__is a virus whose DNA genome replicates by way of an RNA intermediate


3.)__is a nucleic acid strand that has the opposite sense to (is complementary to) the mRNA


4.)__is a nucleic acid strand that has the same sense as the mRNA

antigenic


hepadnavirus


negative strand


positive strand

1.)__is an infectious protein whose extracellular form lacks nucleic acid


2.)__is a virus whose RNA genome has a DNA intermediate as part of its replication cycle


3.)__is the process of copying genetic information found in RNA into DNA


4.)__is an infectious RNA whose extracellular form lacks a protein

prion


retrovirus


reverse transcription


viroid

1.)smallest viral genome size


2.)largest viral genome size


3.)RNA genomes whether single or double stranded are typically __than DNA viruses


4.)for viral genomes, they are either DNA or RNA, and some are __but most are __


5.) viral mRNA is always considered to be of the __configuration

circovirus 1.75 kilobase single strand


Megavirus, 1.25megabase pairs


smaller


circular, linear


plus

1.)__viruses are among the most complex and largest animal viruses known.


2.)pox viruses DNA replicates in the __


3.)are pox viruses and adenoviruses double stranded DNA animal viruses?


4.)Pox viruses replication of DNA occur in the host __instead of the nucleus

Pox


cytoplasm


yes


cytoplasm

1.)adenoviruses are unique because the replication of their genome proceeds in a __fashion on both DNA template strands.


2.)first virus in which a vaccine was developed for


3.)what is the small pox vaccine


4.)a __is a substance capable of eliciting an immune response in an animal that protects the animal from future infection with the same agent

leading


small pox


vaccinia


vaccine

1.)adenoviruses are a group of small and naked __viruses that contain linear __ stranded DNA genomes


2.)adenoviruses cause mild __infections in humans


3.)for adenoviruses, DNA replicates in the __


4.)replication of adenoviruses requires protein __and avoids synthesis of a __strand

icosahedral, double


respiratory


nucleus


primers, lagging

1.)the complementary DNA strands for adenoviruses have __ repeats that play a role in the replication process


2.)replication of the adenoviral genome begins at either end of the linear DNA genome and the terminal protein facilitates this process because it contains a covalently bound __that serves as a primer for the DNA __


3.)can some DNA animal viruses induce cancer

inverted terminal


cytosine, polymerase


yes

1.)what two animal viruses induce cancer and do they contain double or single stranded DNA genomes


2.)polymavirus SV40 induces __in animals


3.)polymavirus SV40 has a __virion with an __head


4.)polymavirus SV40 has no __in the virion and it replicates in host __

polyomavirus SV40, Herpeviruses, double


tumors


nonenveloped, iscosahedral


enzymes, nucleus

1.)Polyomavirus SV40 DNA is ___ and it has a small genome with __genes


2.)in __host cells, virus infection results in the formation of new virions and the lysis of the host cell


3.)in __host cells, the virus DNA becomes integrated into host DNA (analogous to prophage), genetically altering cells in the process

circular, overlapping


permissive


nonpermissive

1.)in reference to nonpermissive host cells, such cells can show loss of growth inhibition and become malignant, a process called __


2.)so basically when SV40 infects a host cell, what two outcomes can occur


3.)__is a large group of viruses that cause disease in humans and animals


4.)Herpesviruses are able to remain __for extended periods of time

transformation


permissive or nonpermissive host


herpesviruses


latent

1.)an important group of herpesviruses causes clinical forms of cancer, an example is __virus


2.)for herpesviruses, infection follows attachment of virions to specific cell __


3.)3 classes of mRNAs are produced with the herpesviruses, __encodeds five regulatory proteins, __encodes DNA replication proteins, and __encodes structural proteins of the virus particle

Epstein-Barr


receptor


immediate early, delayed early, late

1.)Epstein-Barr virus causes __


2.)another herpes virus is __, which is present in nearly three quarters of all adults in the US and can cause pneumonia, retinitis, and GI disorders


3.)one of the key proteins synthesized during the delayed early stage

1.)burkitt's lymphoma


2.)cytomegalovirus


3.)viral-specific DNA polymerase and DNA binding protein

1.)replication of positive strand RNA viruses requires a __strand RNA intermediate from which new positive strands are synthesized


2.)__is a small positive strand RNA virus


3.)Poliovirus viral RNA is translated directly, producing a single long, giant protein (__) that undergoes self-cleavage to generate 20 smaller proteins necessary for nucleic acid replication and virus assembly

negative


poliovirus


polyprotein

1.)poliovirus host RNA and protein synthesis are inhibited when poliovirus __ begins


2.)__is a single protein that self-cleaves into several smaller proteins including virion structural proteins


3.)__are a larger positive strand RNA virus


4.)coronaviruses cause __infections including SARS in humans and other animals

replication


polyprotein


coronaviruses


respiratory

1.)coronaviruses are enveloped and contain __shaped glycoprotein spikes on their surfaces


2.)because coronaviruses is of the plus sense, its genome can function directly in the cell as __


3.)coronaviruses produces __mRNA(encodes for only one protein)


4.)__stranded RNA viruses are complementary to the mRNA, they are copied into mRNA by an enzyme present in the __

club


mRNA


monocistronic


negative, virion

1.)only negative strand RNA animal viruses that infect __are known


2.)__are negative strand RNA animal viruses that cause rabies in animals and humans and vesicular stomatitis in cattle, pigs, and horses


3.)rhabdovirus virion is __shaped

Eukarya


Rhabdoviruses


bullet


1.)RNA of rhabdoviruses is transcribed in the host cytoplasm into two distinct classes, first is a series of mRNAs encoding the __of the virus and second is the __strand RNA that is a copy of the complete viral genome


2.)unlike positive strand viruses, a rhabdovirus genome cannot be directly __but must first be transcribed by the replicase

structural genes, positive


translated

1.)__is an enveloped, pleomorphic(able to assume different forms because of the way it buds as it leaves the cell) virus


2.)influenze virus is present in the virion in a number of separate pieces, a condition called __genome


influenza


segmented

1.)surface proteins interact with host cell surfaces, one is __which causes clumping of red blood cells, and the other is __which breaks down sialic acid component of host cytoplasmic membrane


2.)two processes that help influenza elude the host immune system



hemagglutinin(immunity), neuraminidase


antigenic shift, antigenic drift

1.)__is when portions of the RNA genome from two genetically distinct strains of virus infecting the same cell are reassorted


2.)the antigenic shift generates __that express a unique set of surface proteins


3.)__is when the structure of neuraminidase and hemagglutinin proteins are subtly altered

antigenic shift


virions


antigenic drift

1.)__are double stranded RNA viruses that are non-enveloped nucleocapsid with a double shell of icosahedral symmetry


2.)reoviruses virions contain __encoded enzymes necessary to synthesize mRNA and the new RNA genomes


3.)so how are the double stranded RNA viruses(reoviruses) different than other RNA viruses

reoviruses


virus


occurs only off of the plus strand template

1.)reoviruses are part of the __, enteric, and orphan viruses


2.)like the influenza virus genome, the reoviral genome is segmented into __molecules of linear double stranded RNA


3.)reovirus replication events occur exclusively in the host __but within the __itself because the host has enzymes that recognize double stranded RNA as foreign and would destroy it

respiratory


10-12


cytoplasm, nucleocapsid

1.)two different classes of viruses that use reverse transcriptase


2.)retrovirus have __genomes whereas the hepadnaviruses have __genomes


3.)retroviruses have enveloped virions that contain two copies of the __genome


4.)retroviruses virion contains several enzymes including reverse transcriptase used to make __copy of genome

retroviruses, hepadnaviruses


RNA, DNA


RNA


DNA

1.)is the retroviruses gene expression and protein processing complex?


2.)all retroviruses have 3 genes, __encodes several small viral structural proteins, __is translated into a large polyprotein, and the __product is processed into two distinct envelope proteins


3.)reverse transcriptase needs a __for DNA synthesis

yes


gag, pol, env


primer

1.)__virions are small, irregular shaped particles and include hepatitis B


2.)hepadnaviruses viral replication occurs through an __intermediate


3.)hepadnaviruses have unusual genomes, they are tiny and only partially __stranded


4.)__are infectious RNA molecules that lack a protein coat

hepadnaviruses


RNA


double


viroids

1.)__are the smallest known pathogens (246-399 bp)


2.)viroids cause a number of important __diseases


3.)viroids are small, __and __stranded RNA molecules


4.)viroids do not encode __, they are completely dependent on host encoded enzymes

viroids


plant


circular, single


proteins


1.)are viroids classified as naked?


2.)__are infectious proteins whose extracellular form contains no nucleic acid


3.)prions are known to cause disease in __(transmissible spongiform encephalopathies)


4.)prions are infectious agents whose extracellular form consist entirely of __


5.)do prions contain RNA and DNA

yes


prions


animals


proteins


no

1.)what is bovine spongiform encephalopathy


2.)collectively, animal prion diseases are known as__


3.)so what encodes the prion if theres no nucleic acids?


4.)the host cell contains a gene ___, which encodes the native form of the prion

mad cow disease


transmissible spongiform encephalopathies


host cell


Prnp (prion protein)

1.)prion misfolding results in __symptoms of disease (resistance to proteases, insolubility, and aggregation.


2.)an organism that has developed a nutritional requirement through mutation


3.)the ability to take up DNA and become genetically transformed


4.)the transfer of genes from one prokaryotic cell to another by a mechanism requiring cell-to-cell contact

neurological


auxotroph


competence


conjugation

1.)the use of an electric pulse to enable cells to take up DNA


2.)the complete genetic makeup of an organism; the complete description of a cells genetic information


3.)a mutation in which insertion or deletion of nucleotides changes the groups of three bases in which the genetic code is read within an mRNA, usually resulting in a faulty product

electroporation


genotype


frameshift

1.)a cell with the F plasmid integrated into the chromosome


2.)a mutation caused by external agents such as mutagenic chemicals or radiation


3.)a mutation in which a single codon is altered so that one amino acid in a protein is replaced with a different amino acid


4.)an agent that causes mutation


5.)an organism whose genome carries a mutation

Hfr cell


induced mutation


missense mutation


mutagen


mutant

1.)a heritable change in the base sequence of the genome of an organism


2.)a mutation in which the codon for an amino acid is changed to a stop codon


3.)the observable characteristics of an organism


4.)a mutation that involves a single base pair


5.)a resorting or rearrangement of DNA fragments resulting in a new sequence combination

mutation


nonsense mutation


phenotype


point mutation


recombination

1.)an alteration in DNA that reverses the effects of a prior mutation


2.)a mechanism of replicating double-stranded circular DNA that starts by nicking and unrolling one strand and using the other


3.)a procedure that permits the identification of organisms by phenotype or genotype, but does not inhibit or enhance the growth of particular phenotypes or genotypes

reversion


rolling circle replication


screening

1.)placing organisms under conditions that favor or inhibit the growth of those with a particular phenotype or genotype


2.)type of mutation in which there is no change in the amino acid sequence.


3.)a change in DNA sequence that has no effect on the phenotype


4.)a mutation that occurs naturally without the help of mutagenic chemicals or radiation

selection


sense mutation(same as silent mutation)


silent mutation


spontaneous mutation

1.)the transfer of host cell genes from one cell to another by a virus


2.)the transfer of bacterial genes involving free DNA


3.)the transformation of a prokaryotic cell by DNA or RNA from a virus, used to describe the process of genetic transformation in eukaryotic cells

transduction


transformation


transfection

1.)a type of transposable element that carries genes in addition to those required for transposition


2.)a bacterial strain isolated from nature or one used as a parent in a genetics investigation


3.)__is a heritable change in DNA sequence that can lead to a change in phenotpye

transposon


wild-type strain


mutation

1.)__is a strain of any cell or virus differing from parental strain in genotype


2.)__typically refers to strain isolated from nature


3.)__mutations are those that give the mutant a growth advantage under certain conditions, useful in genetic research


4.)__mutation are those that usually have neither an advantage nor a disadvantage over the parent

mutant


wild-type strain


selectable


nonselectable

1.)detection of non-selectable mutations requires examining a larger number of __and looking for differences (screening)


2.)is screening always more tedious then selection?


3.)nutritionally defective mutants can be detected by the technique of __


4.)replica plating is useful for identification of cells with an nutritional requirement for growth (__)

colonies


yes


replica plating


auxotroph

1.)a colony from a master plate can be transferred onto an agar plate lacking the nutrient, parental colonies will grow normally, where those of the __will not.


2.)the inability of a colony to grow on medium lacking the nutrient signals that it is a __


3.)__mutations are those made environmentally or deliberately

mutant


mutant


induced

1.)induced mutations can result from exposure to natural __or oxygen __


2.)__mutations are those that occur without external intervention


3.)the bulk of spontaneous mutations result from occasional errors in the pairing of bases by __during DNA replication


4.)__mutations are mutations that change only one base pair

radiation, radicals


Spontaneous


DNA polymerase


point

1.)point mutations can lead to single __change in a protein, an __protein, or __change


2.)what is an example of a one point mutation


3.)___mutations do not affect amino acid sequence


4.)__mutations are when the amino acid changed, therefore the polypeptides are altered


5.)__mutation is when a codon becomes a stop codon, polypeptide is incomplete

amino acid, incomplete, no


sickle cell anemia


silent


missense


nonsense

1.)__and insertions cause more dramatic changes in DNA


2.)__mutations are deletions or insertions that result in a shift in the reading frame


3.)frame-shift mutations often result in complete loss of __ function


4.)__are mutations in which one purine base (A or G) is substituted for another purine or one pyrimidine base is substituted for another pyrimidine

deletions


frame-shift


gene


transitions

1.)__are point mutations in which a purine base is substituted for a pyrimidine, or vice versa


2.)genetic engineering allows for the introduction of specific mutations (__)


3.)insertion or deletion of three base pairs adds or removes a __


4.)are point mutations typically reversible?

transversions


site directed mutagenesis


whole codon


yes

1.)__is an alternation in DNA that reverses the effects of a prior mutation


2.)a __is a strain in which the original phenotype is restored


3.)two types of revertants


4.)__revertant is when the mutation is at the same site as original mutation

reversion


revertant


same-site revertant, second-side revertant


same-site

1.)__revertant is when the mutation is at a different site in the DNA


2.)second-site mutations can restore a wild type phenotype if they function as __mutations, which are mutations that compensate for the effect of the original mutation


3.)form most microorganisms, errors in DNA replication occur at a frequency of __to __per kilobase

second-site


suppressor


10-6, 10-7

1.)do DNA viruses have error rates 100-1000X greater?


2.)the mutation rate in RNA genomes is __fold higher than in DNA genomes


3.)some RNA polymerases have __capabilities, however RNA repair mechanisms similar to DNA repair mechanisms do not exist

yes


100


proofreading

1.)the __test makes practical use of bacterial mutations to detect for potentially hazardous chemicals


2.)the Ames test looks for an increase in __of bacteria in the presence of suspected mutagen


3.)the Ames test is a __test that is used for potential __


4.)__are chemical, physical, or biological agents that increase mutation rates

Ames


mutation


reverse, carcogens


mutagens

1.)a class of chemical mutagens, ____, are molecules that resemble the purine and pyrimidine bases of DNA in structure yet display faulty pairing properties


2.)other chemical mutagens induce chemical __in one base or another, resulting in faulty base pairing or related changes


3.)another group of chemical mutagens, the __, are planar molecules that function as intercalating agents, which lead to fameshifts

nucleotide base analogs


modifications


acridines

1.)two main categories of mutagenic electromagnetic radiation


2.)in ___, purines and pyrimidines strongly absorb UV


3.)__is one effect of UV radiation, it is when two adjacent pyrimidine bases (C or T) on the same strand of DNA become covalently bonded to one another, it impedes DNA polymerase activity (misreading)

non-ionizing, ionizing


non-ionizing


pyrimidine dimer

1.)__radiation is more powerful than UV radiation and includes short wavelengths


2.)ionizing radiation ionize __and produce __(damage macromolecules in the cell)


3.)a type of DNA repair in which the mutated base is still recognizable and can be repaired without referring to the other strand


4.)a type of DNA repair in which the damaged DNA is removed and repaired using opposite strand as template

ionizing


water, free radicals


direct reversal


repair of single strand damage

1.)a type of DNA repair in which there is a break in the DNA, it requires more error prone repair mechanisms


2.)when DNA damage is large scale, the cell may use a different type of repair system, the mechanism is called the ___regulatory system, this system is more error prone, it allows replication to proceed and cell to replicate but errors are more likely

repair of double strand damage


SOS

1.)perfect fidelity in organisms is counterproductive because it prevents __


2.)is the mutation rate of an organism subject to change?


3.)___is 20-200 times morer esistant to radiation than E. coli


4.)__is the physical exchange of DNA b/w genetic elements


evolution


yes


Deinococcus radiodurans


recombination

1.)__is the process that results in genetic exchange b/w homologous DNA from two different sources


2.)selective __can be used to detect rare genetic recombinants


3.)__is the genetic transfer process by which DNA is incorporated into a recipient cell and brings about genetic change

homologous recombination


medium


transformation

1.)transformation was discovered by __in the late 1920s, he worked with Streptococcus pneumonia and this process set the stage for the discovery of DNA


2.)__is when cells are capable of taking up DNA and being transformed


3.)In __transformable bacteria, competence is regulated

Frederick Griffith


competence


naturally

1.)in other strains, are specific procedures necessary to make cells competent?


2.)electricity can be used to force cells to take up DNA, this is called __


3.)__is when transformation of bacteria with DNA is extracted from a bacterial virus


4.)__is transfer of DNA from one cell to another by a bacteriophage

yes


electroporation


transfection


transduction


1.)__transduction is when DNA from any portion of the host genome is packaged inside the virion


2.)__transduction is when DNA from a specific region of the host chromosome is integrated directly into the virus genome


3.)__transduction is when DNA is derived from virtually any portion of the host genome is packaged inside the mature virion

generalized


specialized


generalized

1.)with generalized transduction, defective virus particle incorporates fragment of the cells __randomly


2.)with generalized transduction, a virus can be temperate or __, an it has __efficiency


3.)__transduction is when DNA from a specific region of the host chromosome is integrated directly in the virus genome

chromosome


virulent, low


specialized

1.)with specialized transduction, DNA of temperate virus exercises incorrectly and takes adjacent __genes along with it, also, transducing efficiency can be __


2.)__is the alteration of the phenotype of a host cell by a lysogenization


3.)phage conversion is when a nondefective temperate phage lysogenizes a cell and becomes a __

host, high


phage conversion


prophage

1.)with phage conversion, the host cell becomes __to further infection by the same phage


2.)__(mating) is a mechanism of genetic transfer that involves cell-to-cell contact


3.)conjugation is a __encoded mechanism that can mediate DNA transfer b/w unrelated cells


4.)the process of conjugation requires a __cell which contains the conjugative plasmid and a __cell which does not


immune


bacterial conjugation


plasmid


donor, recipient

1.)donor cells are F_ and recipient cells are F_


2.)__are a circular DNA molecule, 100Kbp, and it contains genes that regulate DNA replication


3.)F plasmids contains several __elements that allow the plasmid to integrate into the host chromosome


4.)the F plasmid contains a __region which participates in mating pair formation and also containing genes that encode transfer funct.

+, -


F (fertility) plasmid


transposable


Tra


1.)is the sex pilus essential for conjugation?


2.)sex pilus is only produced by the __cell


3.)DNA synthesis is necessary for DNA __by conjugation


4.)DNA is synthesized by __replication, which is also a mechanisms used by some viruses


5.)the F plasmid is an __, a plasmid that can integrate into the host chromosome

yes


donor


transfer


rolling circle


episome

1.)cells possessing a nonintegrated F plasmid are called __


2.)cells possessing an integrated F plasmid are called __


4.)__is high rates of genetic recombination b/w genes on the donor chromosome and those of the recipient

F+


Hfr (high frequency of recombination)


hfr

1.)the presence of the F plasmid results in alteration in cell properties; the ability to synthesize F ___, the mobilization of DNA for transfer to another __, and alteration of surface __so that cell can no longer act as a recipient in conjugation


pilus, cell, receptors

1.)the F plasmid and the chromosome of E. coli both carry several copies of mobile elements called __sequences which provide regions of sequence homology b/w chromosomal and F plasmid DNA


2.)when the plasmid is part of the chromosome, the chromosomal genes are transferred with the __

insertion


plasmid

1.)__cell does not become Hfr because only a portion of the integrated F plasmid is transferred by the donor


2.)discrete segments of DNA that moves as a unit from one location to another within other DNA molecules are ___


3.)can transposable elements be found in all three domains of life

recipient


transposable elements


yes

1.)transposable elements move by a process called ___


2.)frequency of transposition is 1 in __ to 1 in __per generation and was first observed by __


3.)two main types of transposable elements in bacteria are __and __


transposition


1000, 10,000,000, McClintock


transposons, insertions sequences


1.)both transposons and insertions sequences carry genes encoding __, the enzyme necessary for transposition, and they have shorted __terminal repeats at the their ends


2.)__are the simplest transposable element


3.)insertion sequences are __nucleotides long, the inverted repeats are __base pairs, the only gene is for the __, it is found in __and chromosomes of bacteria and archaea and also in some __

1.)transposase, inverted


2.)insertion sequences


3.)1,000, 10-50, transposase, plasmids, bacteriophages

1.)__are larger than insertion sequences


2.)with transposons, __moves any DNA b/w inverted repeats


3.)insertion of a transposable element generates a __target sequence


4.)transposons may include antibiotic resistance, examples are __and __

transposons


transposase


duplicate


Tn5, Tn10

1.)An enzyme occurring in certain yeasts and in the intestinal juices of mammals, especially one that catalyzes the hydrolysis of lactose into glucose and galactose


2.)genetic elements into which genes can be recombined and replicated


3.)a technique for separation of nucleic acid molecules by passing an electric current through a gel made of polyacrylamide

beta-galactosidase


cloning vector


gel-electrophoresis

1.)the formation of a double helix by the base pairing of single strands of DNA or RNA from two different (but related) sources


2.)the isolation and incorporation of a fragment of DNA into a vector where it can be replicated


3.)a strand of nucleic acid that can be labeled and used to hybridize to a complementary molecule from a mixture of other nucleic acids

hybridization


molecular cloning


nucleic acid probe

1.)a short length of DNA or RNA used to initiate synthesis of a new DNA strand


2.)enzymes that recognize and cleave specific DNA sequences, generating either blunt or single stranded (sticky) ends


3.)The site in a polynucleotide chain as to where the restriction enzyme cleaves nucleotides by hydrolyzing the phosphodiester bond between them

primer


restriction enzyme


restriction site

1.)construction in vitro of a gene with a specific mutation


2.)a self replicating DNA molecule that is used to carry clones genes or other DNA segments for genetic engineering


3.)biosynthetic human growth hormone, prepared by recombinant means and having the same amino acid sequence as the natural hormone; used to treat growth failure and AIDS-associated cachexia or weight loss.

site-directed mutagensis


vector


somatrophin

1.)a laboratory apparatus most commonly used to amplify segments of DNA via the polymerase chain reaction (PCR).


2.) Method for identifying bacterial clones containing plasmids with inserts.


3.)the analysis of DNA from samples of body tissues or fluids in order to identify individuals.

thermocycler


blue/white selection


DNA fingerprinting

1.)the use of in vitro techniques in the isolation, manipulation, alteration, and expression of DNA or RNA and in the development of genetically modified organisms


2.)a gene in the lac operon of E. coli encoding β-galactosidase, it is widely used as a reporter gene

genetic engineering


Lac Z gene

1.)a hybridization procedure where RNA is the target in the gel and DNA or RNA is the probe


2.)a short segment of DNA which contains many (up to ~20) restriction sites - a standard feature of engineered plasmids.


3.)a map showing the location of restriction enzyme cut sites on a segment of DNA

northern blot


polylinker site


restriction map

1.)artificial amplification of a DNA sequence by repeated cycles of strand separation and replication


2.)in reference to nucleic acids, deducing the order of nucleotides in a NDA or RNA molecule


3.)a hybridization procedure where DNA is the target in the gel and RNA or DNA is the probe


4.)a plant or animal with foreign DNA inserted into its genome

polymerase chain reaction


sequencing


southern blot


transgenic animals


1.)medium containing a synthetic analog of lactose


2.) a naturally occurring protein hormone found in all dairy cattle. It is produced by the pituitary gland. The primary function of somatotropin is the coordination of nutrient use in the body to assure nutrients are used where they are most needed.

X-gal media


rBST

1.)___ is using in vitro techniques to alter genetic material in the laboratory


2.)__enzymes recognize specific DNA sequences and cut DNA at those sites, widespread among prokaryotes and rare in eukaryotes


3.)restriction enzymes protect prokaryotes from hostile __DNA and is essential for __DNA manipulation

genetic engineering


restriction


foreign, in vitro

1.)restriction enzymes recognize __sequences (__)


2.)most of the DNA sequences recognized by type II restriction enzymes are short inverted repeats of __-__base pairs long


3.)___sequences are when the two strands of the recognition sequences have the same sequence if one is read from the left and the other from the right

inverted repeats (palindromes)


4-8


palindrome

1.)__recognizes a 6 base pair sequence


2.)the endonuclease activity of EcoRI makes staggered cuts, leaving short, single stranded overhangs known as __ends


3.)restriction enzymes protect cell from invasion from ___DNA


4.)restriction enzymes destroy __DNA and must protect their own DNA from inadvertent destruction

EcoRI


sticky


foreign


foreign

1.)__enzymes protect cells DNA for restriction enzymes


2.)modification enzymes chemically modify __ in restriction recognition sequence, and modification generally consist of __of DNA


3.)__separates DNA molecules based on size


4.)electrophoresis uses an __field to separate charged molecules

modification


nucleotides, methylation


gel electrophoresis


electric

1.)Gels are usually made of __, a polysaccharide


2.)nucleic acids migrate through gel toward the __electrode due to their negatively charged phosphate groups


3.)gels can be stained with __and DNA can be visualized under UV light


4.)the same DNA that has been cut with different restriction enzymes will have __binding patterns on an agarose gel

agarose


positive


ethidium bromide


different

1.)size of fragments can be determined by comparison to a standard called a DNA __


2.)__is base pairing of single strands of DNA or RNA from two different sources to give a hybrid double helix


3.)a segment of single stranded DNA that is used in hybridization and has a predetermined identity is called a __

ladder


nucleic acid hybridization


nucleic acid probe

1.)__is a hybridization procedure where DNA is in the gel and probe is RNA or DNA, while __is when RNA is in the gel


2.)__uses fluorescent probe attached to oligonucleotide


3.)__is basically DNA replication in a test tube


4.)what else is PCR called

southern blot, northern blot


FISH (fluorescent In Situ Hybridization)


polymerase chain reaction (PCR)


DNA amplification

1.)steps in PCR


2.)applications for PCR are as followed; __studies, surveying different groups of __organisms, amplifying small amounts of __, identifying a specific __, or looking for a specific gene


3.)__PCR can make DNA from an RNA template

1.)add DNA, add Primer, add DNA polymerase (taq polymerase or Pfu polymerase), heat and cool, heat and cool


2.)phylogenetic, environmental, DNA, bacteria


3.)reverse transcription

1.)__PCR uses fluorescent probe to monitor the amplification process


2.)__is isolation and incorporation of a piece of DNA into a vector so it can be replicated and manipulated


3.)three main steps of gene cloning is __and __of source DNA, __of DNA fragment into cloning vector, and introduction of cloned DNA into _organism

quantitative


molecular cloning


isolation, fragmentation, insertion, host

1.)with regards to isolation and fragmentation of source DNA, the source DNAC an be genomic __, __, or PCR ___


2.)genomic DNA must first be __digestion


3.)with regards to insertion of DNA fragment into a cloning vector, most vectors are derived from __or __, and DNA is inserted __

DNA, RNA, amplified fragments


restriction


plasmids, viruses, in vitro

1.)__is an enzyme that joins two DNA molecules and works with sticky or blunt ends


2.)with regards to introduction of cloned DNA into host organism, __is often used to get recombinant DNA into host


3.)once you get he gene into a cell, then you have to figure out what?

DNA ligase


transformation


which cell it is n

1.)if cells express the foreign gene and its expression can be detected, is screening relatively easy?


2.)__are blood serum proteins produced by animals and made by injecting animals with specific protein antigen


3.)if the gene is not expressed you have to look for the DNA, __look for binding of labeled nucleic acid probe to DNA from specific colonies

yes


antibodies


nucleic acid probes

1.)Systems are available for de novo synthesis of DNA, or __


2.)__mutagenesis uses synthetic DNA plus DNA cloning techniques to introduce mutations into genes at precisely determined sites


3.)synthesized DNA is used for __and __, and in site directed mutagenesis


4.)__are natural vectors and have useful properties as cloning vectors

DNA synthesizers


site-directed


primers, probes


plasmids

1.)plasmids are __in size, and are easy to isolate __


2.)plasmids have an __ origin of replication and have __copy number (get multiple copies of cloned gene per cell


3.)vector transfer is carried out by chemical __or __


4.)__is a common cloning vector

small, DNA


independent, multiple


transformation, electroporation


PUC19

1.)PUC19 contains __resistance and __genes


2.)PUC19 contains __(multiple cloning site) within lacZ gene


3.)lacZ codes for what


4.)in reference to blue/white screening, __colonies do not have vector with foreign DNA inserted (they make B-galactosidase), __colonies have foreign DNA inserted (mutants)


ampicillin, lacZ


polylinker


B-galactosidase


blue, white

1.)what is it called when lacZ is inactivated by insertion of foreign DNA


2.)inactivated lacZ cannot process Xgal (just like lactose), so __color does not develop


3.)ideal host for cloning vectors should be capable of __growth in an inexpensive medium, __, capable of incorporating __, genetically stable in __, equipped with appropriate __ to allow replication of the vector

insertional inactivation


blue


rapid, nonpathogenic, DNA, culture, enzymes

1.)__is the use of living organisms for industrial or commercial applications


2.)__is an organism whose genome has been altered


3.)genetic engineering allows expression of __genes in prokaryotes


4.)the above question is achieved by cloning the gene via __, and finding the gene via a protein

biotechnology


genetically modified organism


eukaryotic


mRNA


1.)protein synthesis in a foreign host is subject to other problems which include __by intracellular proteases, __to prokaryotic host, and formation of __bodies


2.)fushion of a target protein with a carrier protein facilitates protein __


3.)__WAs the first human protein made commercially by genetic engineering

degradation, toxicity, inclusion


purification


insulin

1.)__, a growth hormone, is another widely produced hormone


2.)somatotropin is cloned as __from mRNA


3.)__is commonly used in the dairy industry, stimulates milk production in cows


4.)many mammalian proteins are produced by genetic engineering, these include hormones and proteins for __and other blood processes

somatotropin


cDNA


Recombinant bovine somatotropin (rBST)


blood clotting

1.)__are organisms that contains gene from another organism


2.)plants can be genetically modified through several approaches, these include __, __gun methods, and use of __from bacterium Agrobacterium tumefaciens


3.)the plant pathogen __can be used to introduce DNA into plants

transgenic organism


electroporation, particle, plasmids


Agrobacterium tumefaciens

1.)A. tumefaciens contains the __plasmid, which is responsible for virulence


2.)the __plasmid contains genes that mobilize DNA for transfer to the plant


3.)the segment of Ti plasmid that is transferred to the plant is called the __


4.)one widely used approach for genetically engineering insect resistance in plants involves introducing genes encoding the toxic protein of __

Ti


Ti


T-DNA


Bacillus thuringiensis

1.)can genetic engineering be used to develop transgenic animals?


2.)transgenic animals are useful for improving __and other animals for human consumption


3.)__is a single vaccine that immunizes against two different diseases


4.)__vaccine is a vaccine made by inserting genes from a p athogenic virus into a relatively harmless carrier

yes


livestock


Polyvalent vaccine


vector vaccine

1.)__vaccines contain only a specific protein or proteins from a pathogenic organism


2.)the preparation of a viral subunit vaccine is as followed, fragmentation of a viral DNA by __enzymes, __of viral coat protein genes into a suitable vector, provision of proper conditions for expression (promoter, reading frame etc), and reinsertion and __of the viral genes in a microbe

subunit


restriction, cloning, expression