Micro Oneliners 2015; (457 - 560) Immuno, Agar, Taxonomy

Front 1

457. Ingestion of a raw potato delivers a new vaccine protein to elicit an immune response. The immune structure to interact with the vaccine protein?

Back 1

Lamina propria mucosae

Front 2

458. Inflammation and the resulting increase in vascular permeability permit leakage into damaged or infected sites are effected by

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Phagocytic cells and acute phase proteins

Front 3

459. The serum of a pt, who has IgG and IgM deficiency, appears to fix complement in an assay for tetanus antibodies. What is the explanation?

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Activation of the alternate pathway

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460. A 3-year-old boy with genetic C3 deficiency has recurrent ear and lung infections due to pyogenic bacteria. Deficiency of what?

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B lymphocytes

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461. A very young child, w/ recurrent infections due to Staphylococcus aureus, now has numerous granulomas. TOW?

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Chronic granulomatous dz

Front 6

462. Treatment with which protease enzyme causes decrease in avidity of IgG w/o changing the specificity of the antibody?

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Papain

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463. Cells activated by both γ-IFN and CD40 are

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Macrophages

Front 8

464. High-dose chemo has caused severe bone marrow suppression in a pt with hematologic malignancy. Reversal is plausible with what?

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GCSF

Front 9

465. Function of the T-lymphocyte receptor (CD3) complex of transmembrane proteins?

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Signal transduction

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466. The MHC class I pathway presents an antigen directly to what?

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CD8+ T lymphocytes

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467. HSV infection can block the transfer of antigenic peptides from the cytoplasm to the ER of the infected cells. As a result of this, action of what cell type is compromised?

Back 11

CD8+ T cells

Front 12

468. Infection of the thyroid gland can induce the expression of MHC II molecules. Which cell types would initiate an autoimmune response, leading to Hashimoto’s thyroiditis?

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CD4+ T cells.

Front 13

469. PPD skin test (+) in a pt , who was vaccinated against turberculosis in his native country, reflects response of what cell type?

Back 13

CD4+ T lymphocytes (Th1 response  γ-IFN)

Front 14

470. A man with hx of MI is given a morphine injection for a new episode of chest pain; 10 mins later, he has itching and urticaria. Mechanism of this reaction?

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mediators from sensitized mast cells

Front 15

471. Loss of skin pigments, sense of touch, inability to feel objects and pain in a pt from Africa, whose skin scraping contains AFBs, is caused by

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Th1-mediated DTH reactions

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472. A man with polycystic kidney dz, who receives a renal transplant and cyclosporine, develops a high temp and swelling and tenderness in the grafted kidney. TOW?

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Immunity to the donor MHC antigens.

Front 17

473. A man who now has progressive stupor and laryngeal spasms for 3 days after pt was being attacked by a wild bat in a cave a month ago should have received

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Inactivated rabies virus vaccine

Front 18

474. Alternative and lectin pathways of complements activated by

Back 18

bacterial surfaces

Front 19

475. Classic complement pathway is activated by antibody-antigen complexes involving antibody class type

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IgM >> IgG

Front 20

476. Chemotactic and anaphylotoxic complements are

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C3a, C5a

Front 21

477. Successful opsonization of all non-encapsulated bacteria are by complement

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C3b

Front 22

478. Defect or deficiency of which complements predisposes individuals to infections caused by Neisseria spp., the causative agents of gonorrhea and meningitis

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C6-C9

Front 23

479. Antimicrobial (immune) response important for intracellular bacterial infections involves cell type

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Th1 CD4 T cells

Front 24

480. Immune response important for viral infections involves cell type

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CD8 cytolytic T cells

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481. Major antibody in secretions and plays a significant role in first-line defense at the mucosal level is

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IgA

Front 26

482. Main antibody in the initial “primary” immune response and allows good complement activation is

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IgM

Front 27

483. Fc region of this immunoglobulin binds to eosinophils, basophils and mast cells and is significant mediator of allergic (hypersensitivity) reactions

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IgE

Front 28

484. What on macrophages enables them to sense that the material is microbial in origin, and must therefore be eliminated quickly?

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Toll-like receptor

Front 29

485. These oxygen-dependent enzymes: NADPH oxidase, superoxide dismutase, and myeloperoxidase are involved in killing of what?

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Gram-positive bacteria

Front 30

486. These oxygen-independent enzymes/proteins: lysosome, lactoferrin, defensins and other cationic proteins are involved in killing of what?

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Gram-negative bacteria

Front 31

487. Infections persist, because m activation is defective, leading to chronic stimulation of CD4+ T cells in what dz?

Back 31

Chronic granulomatous Dz

Front 32

488. Defective respiratory burst, predisposing chronic bacterial infection is associated with deficiency of what?

Back 32

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD)

Front 33

489. All nucleated cells express which MHC I antigens

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HLA-A, B, C

Front 34

490. Antigen-presenting cells express MHC II antigens

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HLA-DP, DQ, DR

Front 35

491. Lymphocyte proliferation (T, B) and NK → cytotoxicity are undertaken by what cytokine?

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IL-2

Front 36

492. B-cell activation, IgE and IgG4 switch, ↓ TH1 cells/ M (phi), ↓IFN-gamma, TH0 → TH2 are all undertaken by what cytokine?

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IL-4

Front 37

493. M activation; elevated expression of MHC and FcRs molecules on B cells, IgG2 class switching, increased IL-4 and TH2 are all undertaken by what cytokine?

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IFN gamma

Front 38

494. The Th1 response, driven primarily by IFN-gamma leads to the activation of

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macrophages

Front 39

495. The Th2 response, driven primarily by IL-4 and IL-5, leads to the production of IgE and IgG4 and to the activation of

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Mast cells and eosinophils

Front 40

496. Variable T and B cells in DiGeroge’s syndrome is associated with

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Thymic aplasia

Front 41

497. No B cells and immunoglobulins in X-linked agammaglobulinemia (Bruton’s) is associated with

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Loss of Btk tyrosine kinase

Front 42

498. Lack of anti-polysaccharide antibody and impaired T-cell activation causing Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome is associated with

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X-linked-defective WASP gene

Front 43

499. Inability to control B cell growth in X-linked lympho-proliferative syndrome is associated with

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SH2D1A mutant

Front 44

500. Glomerulonephritis, pulmonary hemorrhage in Goodpasture’s syndrome is caused by what autoantigen?

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basement membrane collagen type IV

Front 45

501. Hyperthyroidism in Grave’s Dz is caused by what autoantigen?

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Thyroid-stimulating hormone

Front 46

502. Progressive muscle weakness in Myasthenia gravis is caused by what autoantigen?

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Acetyl choline receptor

Front 47

503. Brain degeneration, paralysis in Multiple sclerosis (MS) is caused by what autoantigen?

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Myelin basic protein, proteolipid protein

Front 48

504. Localized allergies (e.g., drug allergy, asthma, hay fever) and anaphylaxis (food, drug) w/ systemic inflammation throughout circulation are associated with reaction?

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Type I hypersensitivity

Front 49

505. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia: Ab’s produced vs RBC membrane Ag’s, mismatched blood (transfusion rxn), and allergies to antibiotics (e.g., penicillins, sulfa drugs) are associated with reaction?

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Type II hypersensitivity

Front 50

506. Grave’s Disease, Myasthenia Gravis, Goodpasture’s syndrome are all associated with reaction?

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"Type II hypersensitivity

Front 51

507. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, serum sickness tonhorse diphtheria anti-toxin, systemic lupus erythematosis (SLE), and rheumatoid arthritis are all associated with reaction?

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"Type III hypersensitivity

Front 52

508. Poison ivy, erythematous induration in tuberculin skin test, and transplantation/graft rejection are all associated with reaction?

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Type IV hypersensitivity

Front 53

509. Periodic acid Schiff (PAS) stain targeted at glycogen and mucopolysaccharides is used to diagnose

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Whipple’s disease

Front 54

510. For microscopic visualization, mycobacteria with highlipid-content cell wall requires

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Acid-fast stain

Front 55

511. Acid-fast bacteria (aka: mycobacteria) are visualized by microscopy using

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Ziehl-Neelsen stain

Front 56

512. Non-stainable bacteria that are considered atypical and intracellular may be detected by microscopy using

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Giemsa stain

Front 57

513. Rickettsia and chlamydia do not stain with Gram stain because they are

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Strictly intracellular

Front 58

514. Special culture medium required to grow Haemophilus influenzae is

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Chocolate agar w/ X (hematin) and V (NAD) factors

Front 59

515. Special culture medium required to grow Bordetella pertussis is

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Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar

Front 60

516. Special culture medium required to grow Corynebacterium diphtheriae is

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Tellurite or Loeffler’s agar

Front 61

517. Special culture medium required to grow Neisseria gonorrhoeae is

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Thayer-Martin (agar) media

Front 62

518. Special culture medium required to grow Mycoplasma pneumoniae is

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Eaton’s agar

Front 63

519. Special culture medium required to grow Mycobacterium tuberculosis is

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Lowenstein-Jensen agar

Front 64

520. Special culture medium required to grow Legionella pneumophila is

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Buffered charcoal-yeast- extract (BCYE) agar with iron and cysteine

Front 65

521. Growth/differential medium required to grow and differentiate Escherichia coli from non-sterile body fluid/tissue is

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MacConkey agar

Front 66

522. Growth/differential medium required to grow and differentiate Staphylococcus aureus from non-sterile body fluid/tissue (e.g., skin, abscesses) is

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Mannitol-salt agar

Front 67

523. Nutrient rich medium required to support growth of fastidious organisms (e.g., Streptococus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis) from the sterile body fluid/tissue is

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Chocolate agar

Front 68

524. Special culture medium required to grow moulds or yeasts from a presumed fungal infection is

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Sabouraud’s dextrose agar

Front 69

525. Thee anaerobes, such as ABC (Actinomyces, Bacteroides, and Clostridium) organisms do not grow in presence of oxygen because they lack

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Catalase and superoxide dismutase

Front 70

526. The encapsulated bacteria (Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria meningitidis, Klebsiella pneumoniae, Streptococcus agalactae) are all virulent by virtue of the property of resistance to

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Phagocytosis

Front 71

527. Edema factor and lethal factor carried by protective antigen are associated with

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Bacillus anthracis

Front 72

528. A-B subunit toxin (plasmid encoded): ADP ribosylating activity is associated with

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Bordetella pertussis

Front 73

529. Neurotoxin toxin (prophage carrier) that caused flaccid paralysis is associated with

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Clostridium botulinum

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530. Enterotoxin A and cytotoxin B are syngerstically active in

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Clostridium difficile

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531. Phospholipase C and enterotoxin are non-synergistically (in different diseases) associated with various subspecies of

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Clostridium perfringens

Front 76

532. Peripheral neuro toxin causing spastic paralysis (carried in plasmid) is associated with

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Clostridium tetani

Front 77

533. A-B subunit toxin (carried in bacteriophage) causing inhibition of protein synthesis in target cells is associated with

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"Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Front 78

534. Heat-labile toxin (LT, carried/coded in plasmid), heat-stable toxin (ST, also carried/coded in plasmid), and Shiga-like toxin (carried/coded in bacteriophage) are non-synergistically associated with various toxic strains of

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Escherichia coli

Front 79

535. Exotoxin A is associated with a pyocyanin-producing Gram-negative bacterial species:

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Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Front 80

536. Shiga toxin, an enterotoxin is associated with

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Shigella dysenteriae

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537. TSST-1, exfoliating toxin (carried in plasmid), alpha toxin

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Staphylococcus aureus

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538. Pyrogenic exotoxin SpeA, SpeC (carried in bacteriophage) and hemolysins O & S (general cytotoxins) are associated with

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Streptococcus pyogenes (know also: M proteins surface virulence factor)

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539. Gram-positive Cocci in pairs and chains are:

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o Streptococcus (“Lancetshaped” Streptococcus pneumoniae) o Enterococcus, o Peptostreptococcus (anaerobe)

Front 84

540. Gram-positive Cocci in Clusters are:

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o Bacillus (large; aerobe) o Clostridium (“Box carshaped”: Clostridium perfringens) o Corynebacterium (palisading; aerobe) o Propionibacterium (pleomorphic; anaerobe) o Listeria (small)o Nocardia (branching, filamentous, aerobe) o Actinomyces (branching, filamentous, anaerobe)

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541. Gram-negative Cocci are

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o Neisseria (diplococci: “kidney bean-shaped”) o Moraxella catarrhalis (diplococci) o Veillonella (anaerobe)

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542. Gram-negative Rods are

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o Enterobacteriaceae (E.coli, Klebsiella, Salmonella; “Safety pinshaped”: Yersinia pestis) o Pseudomonas o Bacteroides (anaerobe) o Fusobacterium (anaerobe) o Haemophilus (pleomorphic) o Brucella (coccobacillus) o Vibrio (curved) o Campylobacter (“Seagull” appearance) o Helicobacter (curved)"

Front 87

543. Facultative intracellular bacteria are non-susceptible to β-lactam antibiotics and are commonly known species of :

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Brucella, Francisella, Legionella, Mycobacterium, Yersinia

Front 88

544. Non-envelope, icosahedral, smallest virus with linear single-stranded (ss-) DNA is

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parvovirus B19

Front 89

545. Non-envelope, icosahedral virus with circular double stranded (ds-) DNA (super-coiled) is

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papilloma viruses; JC, BK viruses

Front 90

546. Enveloped, icosahedral virus with incomplete, circular dsDNA is

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hepatitis B virus

Front 91

547. Enveloped, icosahedral virus with linear, ds-DNA is

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herpes viruses (e.g., HSV 1,2; VZV; CMV; EBV; HHV-6; HHV-8 (KSHV))

Front 92

548. Enveloped (“Donut”-shaped), largest virus with helical, linear, ds-DNA is

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smallpox

Front 93

549. Non-enveloped, icosahedral virus with linear, positivepolarity, ss-RNA is

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polioviruses; rhinoviruses; echoviruses; coxsackieviruses; enteroviruses; HAV

Front 94

550. Non-enveloped, icosahedral ('Star of David') virus with linear, positive-polarity, ss-RNA is

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noroviruses

Front 95

551. Enveloped, icosahedral virus with linear, positive-polarity, ss-RNA is (Flaviviruses)

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"HCV; dengue virus; yellow fever virus; West Nile virus; Japanese encephalitis virus

Front 96

552. Enveloped, icosahedral virus with linear, positive-polarity, ss-RNA is (Togaviruses)

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rubella virus; Eastern equine encephalitis (EEE) and WEE viruses

Front 97

553. Non-enveloped (“Rota” or wheel-shaped) icosahedral virus with linear ds-RNA (10segments)

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rotaviruses

Front 98

554. Enveloped, helical virus with linear, negative polarity, ssRNA (8 segments) is

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influenza viruses types A, B, and C

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555. Enveloped, icosahedral virus with linear, positive-polarity, ss-RNA (diploid) is

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HIV-1 and 2; HTLV-1 and 2

Front 100

556. Enveloped, helical virus with linear, negative-polarity ssRNA (3 segments) is

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Hantaan (Sin Nombre) virus

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557. Enveloped (“crown”-shaped virus), helical virus with linear, positive-polarity, ss-RNA is

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SARS Corona virus type 4

Front 102

558. Enveloped (“bullet”-shaped virus), helical virus with linear, negative-polarity, ss-RNA is

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rabies virus

Front 103

559. Enveloped, complex virus with linear, negative-polarity, ssRNA is

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Marburg and Ebola viruses

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560. Enveloped (largest RNA viruses), helical virus with linear, negative-polarity, ss-RNA is

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Paraifluenza viruses, Mumps, Measles, RSV