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104 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
457. Ingestion of a raw potato delivers a new vaccine protein to elicit an immune response. The immune structure to interact with the vaccine protein?
Lamina propria mucosae
458. Inflammation and the resulting increase in vascular permeability permit leakage into damaged or infected sites are effected by
Phagocytic cells and acute phase proteins
459. The serum of a pt, who has IgG and IgM deficiency, appears to fix complement in an assay for tetanus antibodies. What is the explanation?
Activation of the alternate pathway
460. A 3-year-old boy with genetic C3 deficiency has recurrent ear and lung infections due to pyogenic bacteria. Deficiency of what?
B lymphocytes
461. A very young child, w/ recurrent infections due to Staphylococcus aureus, now has numerous granulomas. TOW?
Chronic granulomatous dz
462. Treatment with which protease enzyme causes decrease in avidity of IgG w/o changing the specificity of the antibody?
463. Cells activated by both γ-IFN and CD40 are
464. High-dose chemo has caused severe bone marrow suppression in a pt with hematologic malignancy. Reversal is plausible with what?
465. Function of the T-lymphocyte receptor (CD3) complex of transmembrane proteins?
Signal transduction
466. The MHC class I pathway presents an antigen directly to what?
CD8+ T lymphocytes
467. HSV infection can block the transfer of antigenic peptides from the cytoplasm to the ER of the infected cells. As a result of this, action of what cell type is compromised?
CD8+ T cells
468. Infection of the thyroid gland can induce the expression of MHC II molecules. Which cell types would initiate an autoimmune response, leading to Hashimoto’s thyroiditis?
CD4+ T cells.
469. PPD skin test (+) in a pt , who was vaccinated against turberculosis in his native country, reflects response of what cell type?
CD4+ T lymphocytes (Th1 response  γ-IFN)
470. A man with hx of MI is given a morphine injection for a new episode of chest pain; 10 mins later, he has itching and urticaria. Mechanism of this reaction?
mediators from sensitized mast cells
471. Loss of skin pigments, sense of touch, inability to feel objects and pain in a pt from Africa, whose skin scraping contains AFBs, is caused by
Th1-mediated DTH reactions
472. A man with polycystic kidney dz, who receives a renal transplant and cyclosporine, develops a high temp and swelling and tenderness in the grafted kidney. TOW?
Immunity to the donor MHC antigens.
473. A man who now has progressive stupor and laryngeal spasms for 3 days after pt was being attacked by a wild bat in a cave a month ago should have received
Inactivated rabies virus vaccine
474. Alternative and lectin pathways of complements activated by
bacterial surfaces
475. Classic complement pathway is activated by antibody-antigen complexes involving antibody class type
IgM >> IgG
476. Chemotactic and anaphylotoxic complements are
C3a, C5a
477. Successful opsonization of all non-encapsulated bacteria are by complement
478. Defect or deficiency of which complements predisposes individuals to infections caused by Neisseria spp., the causative agents of gonorrhea and meningitis
479. Antimicrobial (immune) response important for intracellular bacterial infections involves cell type
Th1 CD4 T cells
480. Immune response important for viral infections involves cell type
CD8 cytolytic T cells
481. Major antibody in secretions and plays a significant role in first-line defense at the mucosal level is
482. Main antibody in the initial “primary” immune response and allows good complement activation is
483. Fc region of this immunoglobulin binds to eosinophils, basophils and mast cells and is significant mediator of allergic (hypersensitivity) reactions
484. What on macrophages enables them to sense that the material is microbial in origin, and must therefore be eliminated quickly?
Toll-like receptor
485. These oxygen-dependent enzymes: NADPH oxidase, superoxide dismutase, and myeloperoxidase are involved in killing of what?
Gram-positive bacteria
486. These oxygen-independent enzymes/proteins: lysosome, lactoferrin, defensins and other cationic proteins are involved in killing of what?
Gram-negative bacteria
487. Infections persist, because m activation is defective, leading to chronic stimulation of CD4+ T cells in what dz?
Chronic granulomatous Dz
488. Defective respiratory burst, predisposing chronic bacterial infection is associated with deficiency of what?
Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD)
489. All nucleated cells express which MHC I antigens
490. Antigen-presenting cells express MHC II antigens
491. Lymphocyte proliferation (T, B) and NK → cytotoxicity are undertaken by what cytokine?
492. B-cell activation, IgE and IgG4 switch, ↓ TH1 cells/ M (phi), ↓IFN-gamma, TH0 → TH2 are all undertaken by what cytokine?
493. M activation; elevated expression of MHC and FcRs molecules on B cells, IgG2 class switching, increased IL-4 and TH2 are all undertaken by what cytokine?
IFN gamma
494. The Th1 response, driven primarily by IFN-gamma leads to the activation of
495. The Th2 response, driven primarily by IL-4 and IL-5, leads to the production of IgE and IgG4 and to the activation of
Mast cells and eosinophils
496. Variable T and B cells in DiGeroge’s syndrome is associated with
Thymic aplasia
497. No B cells and immunoglobulins in X-linked agammaglobulinemia (Bruton’s) is associated with
Loss of Btk tyrosine kinase
498. Lack of anti-polysaccharide antibody and impaired T-cell activation causing Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome is associated with
X-linked-defective WASP gene
499. Inability to control B cell growth in X-linked lympho-proliferative syndrome is associated with
SH2D1A mutant
500. Glomerulonephritis, pulmonary hemorrhage in Goodpasture’s syndrome is caused by what autoantigen?
basement membrane collagen type IV
501. Hyperthyroidism in Grave’s Dz is caused by what autoantigen?
Thyroid-stimulating hormone
502. Progressive muscle weakness in Myasthenia gravis is caused by what autoantigen?
Acetyl choline receptor
503. Brain degeneration, paralysis in Multiple sclerosis (MS) is caused by what autoantigen?
Myelin basic protein, proteolipid protein
504. Localized allergies (e.g., drug allergy, asthma, hay fever) and anaphylaxis (food, drug) w/ systemic inflammation throughout circulation are associated with reaction?
Type I hypersensitivity
505. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia: Ab’s produced vs RBC membrane Ag’s, mismatched blood (transfusion rxn), and allergies to antibiotics (e.g., penicillins, sulfa drugs) are associated with reaction?
Type II hypersensitivity
506. Grave’s Disease, Myasthenia Gravis, Goodpasture’s syndrome are all associated with reaction?
"Type II hypersensitivity
507. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, serum sickness tonhorse diphtheria anti-toxin, systemic lupus erythematosis (SLE), and rheumatoid arthritis are all associated with reaction?
"Type III hypersensitivity
508. Poison ivy, erythematous induration in tuberculin skin test, and transplantation/graft rejection are all associated with reaction?
Type IV hypersensitivity
509. Periodic acid Schiff (PAS) stain targeted at glycogen and mucopolysaccharides is used to diagnose
Whipple’s disease
510. For microscopic visualization, mycobacteria with highlipid-content cell wall requires
Acid-fast stain
511. Acid-fast bacteria (aka: mycobacteria) are visualized by microscopy using
Ziehl-Neelsen stain
512. Non-stainable bacteria that are considered atypical and intracellular may be detected by microscopy using
Giemsa stain
513. Rickettsia and chlamydia do not stain with Gram stain because they are
Strictly intracellular
514. Special culture medium required to grow Haemophilus influenzae is
Chocolate agar w/ X (hematin) and V (NAD) factors
515. Special culture medium required to grow Bordetella pertussis is
Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar
516. Special culture medium required to grow Corynebacterium diphtheriae is
Tellurite or Loeffler’s agar
517. Special culture medium required to grow Neisseria gonorrhoeae is
Thayer-Martin (agar) media
518. Special culture medium required to grow Mycoplasma pneumoniae is
Eaton’s agar
519. Special culture medium required to grow Mycobacterium tuberculosis is
Lowenstein-Jensen agar
520. Special culture medium required to grow Legionella pneumophila is
Buffered charcoal-yeast- extract (BCYE) agar with iron and cysteine
521. Growth/differential medium required to grow and differentiate Escherichia coli from non-sterile body fluid/tissue is
MacConkey agar
522. Growth/differential medium required to grow and differentiate Staphylococcus aureus from non-sterile body fluid/tissue (e.g., skin, abscesses) is
Mannitol-salt agar
523. Nutrient rich medium required to support growth of fastidious organisms (e.g., Streptococus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis) from the sterile body fluid/tissue is
Chocolate agar
524. Special culture medium required to grow moulds or yeasts from a presumed fungal infection is
Sabouraud’s dextrose agar
525. Thee anaerobes, such as ABC (Actinomyces, Bacteroides, and Clostridium) organisms do not grow in presence of oxygen because they lack
Catalase and superoxide dismutase
526. The encapsulated bacteria (Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria meningitidis, Klebsiella pneumoniae, Streptococcus agalactae) are all virulent by virtue of the property of resistance to
527. Edema factor and lethal factor carried by protective antigen are associated with
Bacillus anthracis
528. A-B subunit toxin (plasmid encoded): ADP ribosylating activity is associated with
Bordetella pertussis
529. Neurotoxin toxin (prophage carrier) that caused flaccid paralysis is associated with
Clostridium botulinum
530. Enterotoxin A and cytotoxin B are syngerstically active in
Clostridium difficile
531. Phospholipase C and enterotoxin are non-synergistically (in different diseases) associated with various subspecies of
Clostridium perfringens
532. Peripheral neuro toxin causing spastic paralysis (carried in plasmid) is associated with
Clostridium tetani
533. A-B subunit toxin (carried in bacteriophage) causing inhibition of protein synthesis in target cells is associated with
"Corynebacterium diphtheriae
534. Heat-labile toxin (LT, carried/coded in plasmid), heat-stable toxin (ST, also carried/coded in plasmid), and Shiga-like toxin (carried/coded in bacteriophage) are non-synergistically associated with various toxic strains of
Escherichia coli
535. Exotoxin A is associated with a pyocyanin-producing Gram-negative bacterial species:
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
536. Shiga toxin, an enterotoxin is associated with
Shigella dysenteriae
537. TSST-1, exfoliating toxin (carried in plasmid), alpha toxin
Staphylococcus aureus
538. Pyrogenic exotoxin SpeA, SpeC (carried in bacteriophage) and hemolysins O & S (general cytotoxins) are associated with
Streptococcus pyogenes (know also: M proteins surface virulence factor)
539. Gram-positive Cocci in pairs and chains are:
o Streptococcus (“Lancetshaped” Streptococcus pneumoniae) o Enterococcus, o Peptostreptococcus (anaerobe)
540. Gram-positive Cocci in Clusters are:
o Bacillus (large; aerobe) o Clostridium (“Box carshaped”: Clostridium perfringens) o Corynebacterium (palisading; aerobe) o Propionibacterium (pleomorphic; anaerobe) o Listeria (small)o Nocardia (branching, filamentous, aerobe) o Actinomyces (branching, filamentous, anaerobe)
541. Gram-negative Cocci are
o Neisseria (diplococci: “kidney bean-shaped”) o Moraxella catarrhalis (diplococci) o Veillonella (anaerobe)
542. Gram-negative Rods are
o Enterobacteriaceae (E.coli, Klebsiella, Salmonella; “Safety pinshaped”: Yersinia pestis) o Pseudomonas o Bacteroides (anaerobe) o Fusobacterium (anaerobe) o Haemophilus (pleomorphic) o Brucella (coccobacillus) o Vibrio (curved) o Campylobacter (“Seagull” appearance) o Helicobacter (curved)"
543. Facultative intracellular bacteria are non-susceptible to β-lactam antibiotics and are commonly known species of :
Brucella, Francisella, Legionella, Mycobacterium, Yersinia
544. Non-envelope, icosahedral, smallest virus with linear single-stranded (ss-) DNA is
parvovirus B19
545. Non-envelope, icosahedral virus with circular double stranded (ds-) DNA (super-coiled) is
papilloma viruses; JC, BK viruses
546. Enveloped, icosahedral virus with incomplete, circular dsDNA is
hepatitis B virus
547. Enveloped, icosahedral virus with linear, ds-DNA is
herpes viruses (e.g., HSV 1,2; VZV; CMV; EBV; HHV-6; HHV-8 (KSHV))
548. Enveloped (“Donut”-shaped), largest virus with helical, linear, ds-DNA is
549. Non-enveloped, icosahedral virus with linear, positivepolarity, ss-RNA is
polioviruses; rhinoviruses; echoviruses; coxsackieviruses; enteroviruses; HAV
550. Non-enveloped, icosahedral ('Star of David') virus with linear, positive-polarity, ss-RNA is
551. Enveloped, icosahedral virus with linear, positive-polarity, ss-RNA is (Flaviviruses)
"HCV; dengue virus; yellow fever virus; West Nile virus; Japanese encephalitis virus
552. Enveloped, icosahedral virus with linear, positive-polarity, ss-RNA is (Togaviruses)
rubella virus; Eastern equine encephalitis (EEE) and WEE viruses

553. Non-enveloped (“Rota” or wheel-shaped) icosahedral virus with linear ds-RNA (10segments)


554. Enveloped, helical virus with linear, negative polarity, ssRNA (8 segments) is
influenza viruses types A, B, and C
555. Enveloped, icosahedral virus with linear, positive-polarity, ss-RNA (diploid) is
HIV-1 and 2; HTLV-1 and 2
556. Enveloped, helical virus with linear, negative-polarity ssRNA (3 segments) is
Hantaan (Sin Nombre) virus
557. Enveloped (“crown”-shaped virus), helical virus with linear, positive-polarity, ss-RNA is
SARS Corona virus type 4
558. Enveloped (“bullet”-shaped virus), helical virus with linear, negative-polarity, ss-RNA is
rabies virus
559. Enveloped, complex virus with linear, negative-polarity, ssRNA is
Marburg and Ebola viruses
560. Enveloped (largest RNA viruses), helical virus with linear, negative-polarity, ss-RNA is
Paraifluenza viruses, Mumps, Measles, RSV