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300 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Damage to the brain brought about by trauma rather than congenital or chronic degenerative disease. |
Traumatic Brain Injury |
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Any condition that causes seizures often related to some kind of neurologic damage in the shape of tumors, head injuries or infectious epilepsy. |
Seizure Disorders |
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Collection of problems including insomnia, sleep apnea, restless leg syndrome, narcolepsy & circadian rhythm disruption (difficulty getting enough sleep) |
Sleep Disorders |
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____ is another name for a nerve cell |
Neuron |
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What is the best description of disinfection? a. destruction of all microorganisms within a given field b. use of measures to promote health & prevent disease c. destruction of microorganisms through direct exposure to chemical or physical agents d. the prevention of infection through the inhibition of microorganism growth |
C |
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What are some possible consequences of chronic inflammation? a. abscesses, calcium deposits, heterotopic ossificans b. fistulae, excessive scar tissue, strictures c. ulcers, stasis, dermatitis, poor circulation d. bleeding, anemia, low platelets |
B |
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What is the best description of boils? a. local staphylococcal infections of the skin b. systemic streptocolical infections that begin at the hairshaft c. local slow growing viral infection d. systemic agressive viral infections |
A |
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What is cellulitis? a. systemic streptococcal infection that begins in the skin b. a systemic & agressive viral infection of the skin c. a local staphylococcal infection of the hair shaft d. a slow-growing viral infection of the skin |
A |
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What is the causative agent for ringworm? a. dermatophyte b. virus c. bacterium d. parasitic worm |
A |
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Tinea corporis usually looks like: a. scaly red rings that are pale in the middle & appear on trunk or extremities b. bald patches on scalp c. blisters & itching between toes d. an itchy rash in the groin |
A |
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After a primary outbreak, what happens to the herpes simplex virus? a. it moves from affecting mouth to genitals b. goes into dormancy in the affected nerve root c. it is eradicated from the body d. creates subsequent outbreaks in a monthly pattern of flare & remission |
B |
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What is true about genital herpes simplex? a. it decreases the risk of transmision of HIV b. it appears only on the penis or inside the vaginal canal c. it can appear anywhere around the groin or buttocks d. it is more communicable than oral herpes simplex |
C |
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What is impetigo? a. animal parasite b. viral infection c. bacterial infection d. fungal infection |
C |
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The causative agent for scabies? a. virus that causes genital herpes b. a parasitic worm c. a microscopic mite d. easily visible insects |
C |
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The diagnostic feature associated with head lice? a. easily detected colonies of insects b. bald patches on the scalp c. characteristic lesions on the scalp d. presence of nits in the hair |
D |
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Warts are: a. slow growing bacterial infections b. slow growing viral infections c. slow growing fungal infections d. caused by animal parasites |
B |
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What is acne rosacea? a. sign of alcoholism b. chronic infection of sebaceous glands c. idiopathic skin condition d. acute infection of sebaceous glands |
C |
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When acne affects adolescents, it is usually associated with: a. poor hygiene b. high fat diet c. excessive estrogen production d. excessive testosterone production |
D |
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Which lesions are associated with acne? a. whiteheads, verruca vulgaris, st anthony's fire b. pimples, tinea corporis, furuncles c. pimples, comedones, cysts d. blackheads, seborrhea, onychomycosis |
C |
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Contact irritant dermatitis occurs: a. only in persons allergic to latex b. only in person allergic to nickel c. only in persons allergic to soap & other substances d. in anyone who repeatedly uses harsh chemicals or other irritants without protecting skin |
D |
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Another name for hives: a. neurodermatitis b. erysipelas c. tinea corpis d. urticaria |
D |
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Psoriasis typically runs into which patterns: a. episodes of unremitting itchiness b. outbreak never followed by another c. periodic periods of flare & remission d. chronic lesions that reach a level of severity & then never change |
C |
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The leading cause of death by skin cancer is: a. actinic keratosis b. squamous cell carcinoma c. malignant melanoma d. basal cell carcinoma |
C |
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Decubitus Ulcers are usually the result of a. poor circulation to the skin around points of bony contact with surface b. infection with helicobacter pylori c. spinal cord injury d. poor circulation to the skin because of severely blocked arteries & arterioles |
A |
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Keloid scars occur when: a. skin injuries heal inefficiently b. deep injuries create an abundance of scar tissue that overflows into epidermis c. third-degree burns heal with contracted connective tissue d. scar tissue doesn't stay within boundaries of the skin injury |
D |
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Used massage for stiff joint & wound healing after surgery |
Ambrose Pare |
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The thumb is an example of this type of joint a. hinge b. saddle c. pivot d. ball & socket |
B |
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The malleolus is formed by what two bones? a. tibia & fibula b. femur & tibia c. humerus & ulna d. femur & fibula |
A |
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What is the definition of a foramen? a. depression b. hollow c. hole thru a bone d. four men gathered together |
C |
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Where is the medullary cavity found: a. within the diaphysis b. within the abdominal cavity c. within the cranium d. within the thoracic cavity |
A |
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What is another name fo the hip? a. Coxae (innominate) b. coccyx c. mandible d. manubrium |
A |
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The elbow & the knee are 2 examples of this type of joint. a. synarthrotic b. amphiarthrotic c. hinge d. saddle |
C |
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What are the head, neck and torso referred to as: a. axial skeleton b. appendicular skeleton c. atlas skeleton d. axon skeleton |
A |
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What are the 3 divisions of the pelvic girdle? a. ilium, ischium and pubis b. manubrium, body, typhoid process c. iliacus, iliopsoas, pecs d. iliad, idiom, publix |
A |
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Which lists gives examples of long bones? a. humerus, femur, clavicle and tibia b. carpals, tarsals ribs, sternum c. cranial, facial, ossicles, vertebrae d. patella, popliteal, ribs, sternum |
A |
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What is the longest muscle in the body? a. latissimus dorsi b. quadriceps c. sartorius d. Iliotibial Tract |
C |
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Myofilaments are arranged in compartments called: a. myofibrils b. agonists c. visceral d. sarcomeres |
A |
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The liver makes _____ to help with blood clotting a. heparin, prothrombin thrombin b. leukocytes & eosinophils c. vitamin K d. thyrolin & thyrosine |
A |
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The simplest nerve receptors _______ a. are found through out the stomach tissue b. are free nerve endings that sense touch and pain c. die very easily if you are dehydrated d. also carry blood to the organs |
B |
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The ovaries are paired ______ located in the upper pelvic cavity on each side of the uterus a. intestines b. glands c. appendages d. ducts |
B |
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Which water temperature is considered tepid? a. 45 degrees F b. 85 degrees F c. 100 degrees F d. 115 degrees F |
B |
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In what area is the SCM located? a. scalp b. tongue c. shoulder d. neck |
D |
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Quadratus Lumborum Insertion a. costal cartilages lower 4 ribs, abdominal aponeurosis & linea alba b. costal cartilages 5, 6, 7 and xiphoid process c. inferior ribs and last 4 ribs d. 12th rib, TVP L1-L4 |
D |
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What are the 5 facial changes that occur with aging? |
Thinning lips paling skin wrinkles and sagging around eyes sagging neck jawline & mouth corners sag |
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What are the stones used in stone massage effective for the delivery of? a. cold, moisture & lotion b. cold, heat & mild compression c. lotion, oil & herbs d. cold, ice and pressure |
B |
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Which of the following latin terms may be the origin of the acronym from which we derive the word spa? a. sanus per aguam b. servo par ora c. santus alumni d. salut per aquarius |
A |
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What makes the day spa different from other types of spa facilities a. clients go there to lose weight b. clients receive same day service c. it provides smoking cessation treatments d. clients go there for medication management |
B |
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What is the main purpose of paraffin? a. to soften the skin b. to hold in heat and trap in moisture c. to add a glow to the skin d. to chill sore muscles |
B |
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In reflexology, where is the spine located on the foot? a. along the big toe side b. along the little toe side c. in the middle of the foot d. on the heel |
A |
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In ayurveda what are the body's three fundamentals? a. five elements b. doshas c. A & B d. none of the above |
B |
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Fear is the emotion of which element? a. wood b. water c. fire d. metal |
B |
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What season is associated with the wood element? a. spring b. summer c. fall d. winter |
A |
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The liver is what kind of organ? a. hollow b. solid |
A |
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Yang is associated with which organs? a. hollow organs b. solid organs |
B |
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What is energy known as in different languages? a. Qi, Ki, Chi b. Prana c. A & B |
C |
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In what modality do you work 10 vertical zones? a. Thai Massage b. reflexology c. shiatsu d. trigger point |
B |
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Who developed Lymphatic Drainage Therapy? a. Lewis Rudolph b. Don Glassey c. Bruno Chikly d. Don Curry |
C |
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What modality seeks to recognize a hyperirritable spot? a. trager b. trigger point c. craniosacral therapy d. lymphatic drainage therapy |
B |
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What massage modality recognizes restrictions in more superficial tissue? a. myofascial release b. polarity c. trager d. acupuncture |
A |
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What massage modality uses gentle rocking? a. esalen b. trigger point c. swedish d. trager |
D |
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Rolfing is based on what theory or principle? a. reintegration of the body b. structural changes in the body c. rebalancing of the body d. all of the above |
D |
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What visualization technique takes the mind & body through a preplanned outcome of release of negativity a. Qi b. Reiki c. Healing Touch d. Guided Imagery |
D |
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What is a recording of the electrical currents of the brain? a. Electroencephalogram b. MRI c. Skull Xray d. electrocardiogram |
A |
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Meditation can be as _____ as the person doing it a. inappropriate b. relaxing c. ageless d. individual |
B |
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What is the state reached by having a calm mind? a. relaxation response b. alternative realities c. biofeedback d. chanting |
A |
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What you hold in your mind or thoughts can control how your _____ reacts a. friend b. future c. body d. purpose |
C |
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What attitude is NOT a possible contributor to an unbalanced lifestyle? a. get more b. go more c. relax more d. work more |
C |
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What kind of changes trigger our body's fight or flight response? a. planned & happy b. dangerous or life threatening c. adrenal gland warnings d. lethargic mood swings |
B |
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What field of science & method of what are neuropeptides a. thinking cells b. chemical messengers c. rows of cells d. nerves |
B |
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What field of science & method of treatment that understood the mind-body interaction emerged in the 70's? a. psychopump b. immunology c. neurology d. psychoneuroimmunology |
D |
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What does eating a balanced food diet lead to? a. better weight control b. high energy levels c. healthy living d. all of the above |
D |
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How many servings of grains per day does the American food pyramid recommend? a. 2-10 b. 2-4 c. 6-11 d. 8-12 |
C |
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When foods reach the stomach, what begins to breakdown protein? a. hydrochloric acid & pepsin b. potassium & phosphates c. sodium & amylase d. ptyalin & saliva |
A |
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What is the layer of tight cell-to-cell walls used to protect the brain called? a. bone calcium barrier b. non brain barrier c. blood toxin barrier d. blood brain barrier |
D |
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What eating disorder is characterized by extreme weight loss and an aversion to food? a. amylophagia b. anorexia nervosa c. bulimia d. artherosclerosis |
B |
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Which of the following dietary conditions can lead to the development of osteoporosis? a. not enough dietary fiber b. low calcium intake c. too much fat in diet d. eating too much salt |
B |
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Which of the substances in food is most often considered a contributor to high blood pressure? a. cholesterol b. sugar c. sodium-salt d. calcium |
A |
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Which of the following choices represents the best way to lose weight? a. not eating at bedtime b. taking diet pills c. eating fewer calories d. eating empty calories |
C |
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Pain resulting from malocclusion (poor alignment) is indicative of which disease? a. temperomandibular joint b. Fibromyalgia c. Thoracic Outlet syndrome d. none of the above |
A |
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Tests for TOS are Wright's test and which other? a. Tennel's test b. Phalen's test c. Adson's test d. none of the above |
C |
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In Thoracic Outlet Syndrome, transverse process of the cervical vertebrae grow longer than normal. Extending into territory where they do not belong.
A. True B. False |
A |
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Carpal Tunnel syndrome involves entrapment of which nerve? a. ulnar b. radial c. median d. brachial |
C |
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What is whiplash also known as a. C.A.D. b. Cervical acceleration-deceleration c. a & b d. torticollis |
C |
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Torticollis is also known as wryneck? a. True b. false |
A |
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Where are FMS patients affected? a. head & neck b. shoulders c. low back d. all of the above |
D |
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Fibromyalgia is closely linked to what other syndrome? a. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome b. Thoracic Outlet Syndrome c. Chronic Fatigue Syndrome d. Myofacial pain syndrome |
C |
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Which plant extract is used typically for minor skin discomfort? a. chamomile b. valerian c. licorice d. aloe vera |
D |
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How do boils usually appear? a. in periods of predictable flare & remission b. one at a time c. in isolated clusters of disease lesions d. spread over large areas of the body |
B |
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What is another name for plant derived drugs? a. phytoceutical b. nutraceutical c. pharmaceutical d. apothecary |
A |
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What are non controlled drugs also listed as? a. at the drugstore b. controlled drugs c. over the counter (OTC) d. substances |
C |
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In naming process of steroids, what are the usual last three letters of the drug? a. are b. one c. rhy d. ate |
B |
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Which category of medications is used to relieve pain? a. antacid b. anticoagulant c. muscle relaxant d. analgesic |
D |
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What is the primary factor of pharmacokinetics that is of importance to a massage therapist? a. amount absorbed into body b. gut motility c. rate & route of excretion d. metabolic rate |
A |
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What are injections into cavity of a joint considered? a. intracutaneous b. inhalation c. intraarticular d. subcutaneous |
C |
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What is a common route for administration of a drug that is applied to the skin? a. topical b. intradermal c. intrathecal d. buccal |
A |
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Insulin is considered an anti-______ medication a. thyroid b. diabetic c. carditonic d. decongestant |
B |
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Most of the body's communication systems are what in nature? a. chemical b. biological c. electrical d. receptors |
A |
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What is toxicology the study of? a. the uses of drugs to treat disease b. poisons & their actions c. chemical analysis d. tissue damage |
B |
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What is defined as the study of drugs? a. pharmacodynamics b. herbology c. pharmaceutical d. pharmacology |
D |
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What does the suffix -cyte mean? |
Cell |
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What does the suffix -algia mean? |
Pain |
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What does the suffix -genesis mean? |
development, production, creation |
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What does the suffix -gram mean? |
record |
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What does the suffix -logy mean? |
Study of |
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What does the suffix -megaly mean? |
Enlargement |
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What does the suffix -oma mean? |
Tumor |
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What does the suffix -pathy mean? |
Disease |
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What does the suffix -scopy mean? |
Examination using a scope |
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What are the 3 parts of the small intestine? a. cecum, transverse colon, rectum b. fondus, body, pylorus c. duodenum, jejunum, ileum d. incisors, canines, pre molars, molars |
C |
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What is the mixture of food & gastric juices called? a. fecal matter b. bile c. lumen d. chyme |
D |
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What is the ring of muscle that acts like a valve called? a. sphincter b. papillae c. plicae d. uvula |
A |
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What are the folds that make up the inner lining of the stomach called? a. chyme b. rugae c. plicae d. fat |
B |
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Where does carbohydrate digestion begin? a. mouth b. esophagus c. stomach d. intestines |
A |
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What are the 3 divisions of the stomach a. fundus, body, pylorus b. appendix, small intestine, large intestine c. duodenum, jejunem, ileum d. appendix, gall bladder, pancreas |
A |
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What are the wavelike rhythmical contractions that push food thru the gastrointestinal tract called? a. peritoneum b. deglutition c. peristalsis d. mastication |
C |
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What is the hollow space in the food tube called? a. esophagus b. eustachian c. lumen d. serosa |
A |
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Which structure is also known as the voicebox? a. larnyx b. pharnyx c. trachea d. mouth |
A |
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What two systems are involved in gas exchange? a. respiratory & digestive b. respiratory & circulatory c. digestive & coronary d. digestive & urinary |
B |
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What is the function of the kidney? a. store urine b. make urine c. excrete urine d. to pass urine |
B |
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Of what are the approximately 16 to 20 c shaped rings of the trachea made of? a. bone b. muscle c. cartilage d. ligament |
C |
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Which is the largest organ in the lymphatic system? a. tonsils b. thymus c. spleen d. pancreas |
C |
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Which has stronger thicker walls a. arteries b. veins c. capillaries d. all the same |
A |
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What structure is known as the functional unit of the cardiovascular system? a. heart b. arteries c. veins d. capillaries |
A |
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What hapens to blood in the lungs a. drops off oxygen and picks up carbon dioxide b. drops off carbon dioxide and picks up oxygen c. picks up both carbon dioxide and oxygen d. drops off both carbon dioxide and oxygen |
B |
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What are the heart actions of contraction and relaxation called a contract & relax reflex b. systole and diastole c. systemic & pulmonary d. specific and non-specific |
B |
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In which cavity is the heart located? a. abdominal b. dorsal c. mediastinum d. pelvic |
C |
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What is the primary function of the skin? a. odor release b. protection c. tanning d. identification |
B |
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Touch deprivation is one of the leading causes of agression in children a. true b. false |
A |
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In a recent study conducted by Touch Research Institute, mothers receiving massage during labor experienced decrease levels of: a. anxiety b. pain c. hunger d. a and b |
D |
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Some of the most stressed muscles during prenancy are trapezius, erector spinae, quadratus lumborum and a. psoas b. gastrocnemius c. serratus anterior d. rhomboids |
A |
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From the 13th to the 23rd week of pregnancy, the sidelying position is preferred because of what structure? a. fetal position b. inferior vena cava c. bladder d. uterus |
B |
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Which of the following circulatory changes take place during pregnancy? a. pulse rate increases b. heart murmurs c. heart palpitations d. all of the above |
D |
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List 5 steps you can take to ensure the client is satisfied? |
time greeting focus on client warm and comfortable use accessories robe |
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What would be a good choice of lubricants for a pregnant woman? a. shea or cocoa butter b. comfrey oil c. myrrh oil d. creme with cinnamon oil |
A |
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Which hormone stimulates uterine growth? a. human chorlonic gonadotropin b. thyroxin c. estrogen d. calcitonin |
C |
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Swedish massage with its effleurage & petrissage strokes is always the best modality to use with hospice patients. a. true b. false |
A |
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Massage in the hospice setting offers which of the following benefits? a. relief from pain b. relief from insomnia c. relief from nausea & constipation d. all of the above |
D |
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It is extremely important to obtain client history on seniors, especially knowledge of: a. any medications being taken b. age c. weight d. height |
A |
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When working with seniors it is important to listen with your ears, hands, and _____ a. heart b. conscience c. wallet d. all of the above |
A |
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Spondylosis usually occurs: a. in the most mobile parts of the spine b. in the most stable parts of the spine c. in the sacroiliac joint d. all throughout the spine |
A |
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A bunion forms when: a. the 1st toe is laterally deviated and the bursa overlying the joint is inflamed b. walking barefoot & wearing shoes with inadequate support cause the fascia on plantar surface of foot to rip c. a person has to kneel for prolonged periods as part of an occupation d. the tenosynovial sheath that protects the toe extensions becomes irritated & inflamed |
A |
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Massage with a person with bursitis a. should be followed with ice to reduce pain & inflammation b. should be avoided altogether until the inflammation subsides c. should avoid the affected area until the inflammation has subsided d. should address the affected area to reduce pain & inflammation |
C |
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Another name for dupuytren's contracture is: a. ganglion cyst b. de Gluervain tenosynovitis c. plantar fasciitis d. palmar fasciitis |
D |
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A client with a ganglion cyst should a. receive ice massage on cyst to reduce inflammation b. receive stretching with longitudinal strokes to blend the cyst back into the tenosynvial sheath c. receive massage but not directly on cyst d. receive friction directly on the cyst to help it dissipate |
C |
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A distinguishing feature of osteogenesis imperfecta is: a. general muscle weakness b. easily fractured bones c enlarged bones in lower extremity d. dwarfism |
B |
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Reflex massage is indicated during pregnancy? a. true b. false |
A |
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Soleus Origin a. medial epicondyle femur b. posterior fibula c. soleal line, posterior head & upper shaft of fibula d. lateral epicondyle femur |
C |
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Gastrocnemius Origin a. lateral condyle femur b. soleal line tibia, posterior head and upper shaft of fibula c. medial epicondyle femur, lateral epicondyle femur d. lateral epicondyle femur |
C |
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Tibialis Posterior Insertion a. posterior medial tibial condyle b. posterior proximal tibial shaft c. anterior proximal tibial shaft d. navicular & adjacent tarsals & metatarsals on plantar surface |
D |
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Flexor Digiti Minimi Brevis Insertion a. base of 5th metatarsal b. base 1st metatarsal (plantar), base 1st cuneiform (plantar) c. base proximal 1st d. base proximal 5th |
D |
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Which muscle? Action: extend 2nd to 5th fingers, assist extend wrist Origin: common extensor tendon from lateral epicondyle humerus Insert; Middle & distal phalanges 2nd to 5th fingers |
Extensor Digitorum |
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Which muscle? Action: flex 1st toe, weak plantar flex ankle, invert foot Origin: Middle half posterior fibula Insert: Distal phalange 1st toe |
Flexor Hallucis Longus |
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Which muscle? Action: Extend 2nd to 4th toes Origin: Calcaneus (dorsal) Insert: 2nd - 4th toes via extensor digitorum longus tendons |
Extensor Digitorum Brevis |
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Which muscle? Action: Laterally rotate hip, ABDuct hip when hip is flexed Origin: Anterior surface of sacrum Insert: Greater Trochanter |
Piriformis |
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Which muscle? Action: ABDuct 1st toe, assist to flex 1st toe Origin: Calcaneus (plantar) Insert: Proximal phalange of 1st toe & medial sesamoid bone |
Abductor Hallucis |
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Occipitofrontalis Origin a. frontalis: skin & fascia eyebrows, occipitalis: nuchal line of occipital bone b. maxilla c. maxilla, mandible, lips, buccinator d. lateral surface of temporal bone |
A |
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Gluteus Maximus Insertion a. gluteal tuberosity of femur & iliotibial tract b. greater trochanter of femur c. anterior surface of greater trochanter of femur d. lesser trochanter of femur |
A |
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Which band of connective tissue forms the roof the carpal tunnel a. pisohamate ligament b. palmar radiocarpal ligament c. radial collateral ligament d. flexor retinaculum |
D |
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Which muscles of the spine are most superficial a. suboccipitals b. splenius muscles c. transversospinalis d. erector spinae |
D |
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Which muscles can be outlined by finding the SP of C2, TVP C1 and the space between the superior nuchal line & C2. a. transversospinalis b. erector spinae c. splenius capitis and cervicis d. suboccipitals |
D |
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Which edge of the Quadratus Lumborum is most accessible? a. posterior b. lateral c. inferior d. superior |
B |
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Which suboccipital muscle does not attach at the occiput? a. oblique capitis inferior b. rectus capitis posterior major c. rectus capitis posterior minor d. oblique capitis superior |
A |
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Which of the following is actually an abdominal muscle located on the posterior side of the thorax? a. transverse abdominis b. latissimus dorsi c. iliocostalis d. quadratus lumborum |
D |
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What could you ask your partner to do so you can differentiate between the quadratus lumborum and the erector spinae? a. twist to the right b. arch your back c. hike up your hip d. do an abdominal crunch |
C |
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When are the only muscles with fibers that lie across the posterior surface of the sacrum? a. quadratus lumborum b. multifidi c. spinalis d. rotatores |
B |
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Which muscle acts as a synergist with the internal oblique & during flexion of the vertebral spine? a. rotatores b. semispinalis capitis c. longissimus d. external oblique |
D |
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When exploring between the scapulae which muscle tissue must you palpate to access erector spinae fibers? a. trapezius & rhomboids b. latissimus dorsi c. serratus anterior & posterior d. rotatores and multifidi |
A |
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Which section of the vertebral column is comprised of 12 vertebrae? a. cervical b. thoracic c. lumbar d. coccyx |
B |
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The thorax is composed of what two structures? a. vertebrae & rib cage b. sternum and rib cage c. sternum and clavicle d. TVP and SP |
B |
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How many ribs on each side of the body? a. 8 b. 10 c. 12 d. 14 |
C |
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The hind foot is union of what two bones? |
Calcaneus Talus |
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The foot contains how many bones? |
26 |
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What is the bone at the heel of the foot? |
Calcaneus |
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How many metatarsals? How many phalanges |
5 14 |
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What bony landmarks are the large conspicuous knobs on either side of the ankle? Where do they come from? |
Lateral malleolus medial malleolus Distal ends of tibia and fibula |
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Which bone is beneath the talus & protects 2" posteriorly from malleoli? |
Calcaneus |
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What are the two "calf" muscles? |
Soleus Gastrocnemius |
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What are the 2 muscles on the lateral side of the calf? |
Peroneus Longus Peroneus Brevis |
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What are the extensor muscles located on anterior leg & dorsum of the foot? |
Tibialis Anterior Extensor Digitorum Longus Extensor Hallucis Longus |
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Flexors of the ankle & toes on posterior leg? |
Tibialis Posterior Flexor Digitorum Longus Flexor Hallucis Longus |
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What muscle is called the "second heart" because its important role, its strong contractions play in returning blood to the heart? |
Soleus |
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What muscle has a short muscle belly but longest tendon in the body |
Plantaris |
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Superficial band stretching between ASIS & pubic tubercle. Superior border of femoral triangle and lower edge of abdominal aponeurosis? |
Inguinal Ligament |
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What two muscles comprise Iliopsoas? |
Iliacus Psoas Major |
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A solid deposit of crystalline substances inside the kidney. Symptoms none to extreme pain |
Kidney stones |
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Over the counter medications refers to the drugs you buy where? a. at grocery store b. with a prescription c. self-prescribed d. online |
C |
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Type of alternating tapotement that strikes the surface of the body with quick snapping movements |
Hacking |
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What does the prefix angi(o)- mean? |
Vessel |
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Teres Major Origin a. inferior angle of scapula b. upper axillary border of scapula c. deltoid tuberosity of humerus d. root of spine scapula |
A |
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Pronator Teres Origin b. distal 1/4 anterior ulna c. distal 1/4 anterior radius d. bases of proximal phalanx or thumb, medial side |
A |
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Adductor Hallucis Action a. Flex MP joint 1st toe b. ADDuct, flex MP joint 1st toe c. Flex, ADDuct 5th toe MP joint d. Flex 1st toe & plantar flex ankle |
B |
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Semispinalis Origin a. cervical & thoracic SP, occipital bone b. cervical & thoracic TVP, mastoid process c. cervical & thoracic TVP d. Cervical & thoracic TVP, occipital |
C |
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Biceps Brachii - origin a. coracoid process of scapula - medial border of superior surface b. Infraglenoid tubercle, posterior humerus above spiral groove c. Coracoid process and supraglenoid tubercle scapula d. lateral supracondylar ridge humerus |
C |
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The "fight or flight" response to stress is an activation of which part of the nervous system? a. somatic b. parasympathetic c. sympathetic d. voluntary |
C |
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Part of the brain controlling "vital functions" a. cerebrum b. diencephalon c. cerebellum d. brain stem |
D |
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Nerve bundle which passes between the anterior & middle scalene muscles as it moves toward the axilla a. cervical plexus b. lumbrosacral plexus c. brachial plexus d. phrenic nerve |
C |
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What is the best description of inflammation? a. Reaction to pathogenic invasion b. the formation of abscesses around the site of infection c. swelling with pain & pus d. response to damage or threat of infection |
D |
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Most cells in the body are nourished by a. filtration b. diffusion c. pinocytosis d. osmosis |
B |
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Which of the following is often a major factor in beginning the process of developing artherosclerosis a. hypertension b. thrombophlebitis c. stroke d. aneurysm |
A |
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If a therapist has broken skin on the fingers, hands, forearms or elbows or comes into contact with body fluids such as blood, mother's milk, or semen, the handwashing procedure should take how long? a. 15 seconds b. 30 seconds c. 1 minute d. 2 minutes |
D |
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Where are apocrine sweat glands located? What do they do? Primarily in what 2 regions? |
Hairy areas secrete odor in times of stress axillary and groin |
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Breasts are ______ glands The ring of pigmented skin surrounding the nipple is ________ Each gland contains _____ to ______ lobes around the nipples Attach to underlying muscle & fascia & to overlying skin via _______ |
Mammary Areola 15 25 ligaments |
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What are the 3 main pigments involved in skin color? |
Melanin Hemoglobin Carotene |
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Melanin is found in the _________ Ranges in color from ______ to ________ We all have the same number of _______ however, the amount of melanin produced depends on _______ ________ and ________ to _____ ________ It is a natural ________ Increase can produce? (3) |
Epidermis Yellow black melanocytes genetic factors, exposure to UV light sunscreen moles, freckles and age spots |
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Carotene is a ______ pigment found in _______ Naturally gives skin a _____ tint Increased consumption of plant food containing high amounts of Carotene can cause temporary ________ |
Yellow, dermis yellow yellowing |
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Hemoglobin is a oxygen-carrying _______ pigment molecule in the ______ In those with light skin it shows thru as ______ |
Red blood pink |
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Localized bacterial infections of the skin. Causative agent is usually staphylococcus aureus single postules or clustered as carbuncles |
Boils |
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Streptococcus infection that kills skin cells, leading to painful inflammation of the skin. Usually face or lower leg. Redness, tenderness, fever and headache |
Cellulitis |
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Viral infection resulting in cold sores or fever blisters on face, around mouth or genitals, thighs, buttucks. |
Herpes Simplex |
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Pectineus Action |
Adduct hip Flex hip |
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Masseter Action |
Elevate mandible Retract mandible |
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Human Growth Hormone Location? Action: |
Pituitary Anterior Synthesizes protein for muscle and bone growth; metabolism |
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Tough membrane that interconnects select bones by attaching to their periosteum |
Interosseous Ligaments |
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Progesterone Location? Action? |
Ovaries Prepares endometrium for pregnancy |
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Relaxin Location? Action? |
Ovaries Softens connective tissue of pregnant woman for fetal delivery |
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What is the epiphysial line? |
Replaces epiphyseal plate when bone growth is complete |
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What ligament is a strong, thin strap that crosses the knee joint from the lateral epicondyle of femur to the head of the fibula?
Protects from? |
Fibular collateral ligament Bow legged |
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Transverse Abdominis Insertion |
Linea alba, abdominal fascia |
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Small Intestine meridian begins? |
Little finger |
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Specific immunity calls on _________ cells to help when pathogens reappear. Body is able to recognize many different ________ When an _____ is identified, a complex reaction with highly specialized cells called? (2) The ______ is bound by ______ and "______" for destruction. _____ are cells that recognize & destroy these specific molecules. |
memory antigens antigen T cells and B cells antigen, antibodies, marked Lymphocytes |
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If I have tina cruris, I have: a. shingles b. athlete's foot c. jock itch d. hives |
C |
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Massage for client with interstitial cystitis is: a. indicated as long as client can be made comfortable b. indicated with doctor's permission c. contraindicated until all signs of infection have passed d. indicated when client is taking antibiotics |
A |
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Under development of a tissue or organ usually due to a decrease in the number of cells |
Hypoplasia |
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What type of heat produces an analgesic effect |
Mild heat |
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Spinalis Origin a. cervical & thoracic TVP, occipital bone b. cervical & thoracic SP, occipital bone c. sacrum, PSIS, TVP all vertebrae d. ligamentum nuchae, cervical & thoracic SP |
D |
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Which muscle? Action: Extend vertebral column & head Origin: TVP thoracic vertebrae, articular processes of lower cervicals Insert: SP of upper thoracic & cervicals (except C-1) and superior nuchal line of occiput |
Semispinalis |
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What is included in upper respiratory tract? What is included in lower respiratory tract? |
Nose and sinus cavities, pharnyx Larnyx, trachea, bronchiole, alveoli |
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Which muscle? Action: Uni: laterally deviate mandible to opp side. Bi: elevate mandible, protract mandible Origin: medial surface of lateral pterygoid plate of sphenoid bone and tuberosity of mandible Insert: Angle and ramus of mandible |
Medial Pterygoid |
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Which muscle? Action: Uni: laterally deviate mandible to opp side Bi: protract mandible Origin: Infratemporal surface & crest of greater wing sphenoid bone. lateral surface of lateral pterygoid plate of sphenoid Insert: Articular disc of TMJ capsule, neck of mandible |
Lateral Pterygoid |
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What does the suffix -trophy mean? |
Nourish, grow, develop |
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Which movement of the vertebral column will lengthen the fibers of multifidi on the right side a. rotation to the right b. rotation to the left c. extension d. lateral flexion to the right |
B |
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What is another name for Dystonia of Sternocleidomastoid? Dystonia of vocal cords? Dystonia with repetitive blinking & squinting eyes? Dystonia in hand? |
Spasmodic Torticollis Vocal Dystonia Blepharospasm Writer's Cramp |
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Which foot bone articulates with the tibia and the fibula? What joint? |
Talus Talocrural Joint |
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Who wrote about mechanotherapeutics? |
Edgar Cyriax |
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Father of neuomuscular therapy? a. Jack Meagher b. Andrew Taylor Still b. W.G. Sutherland d. Dr. Stanley Lief |
D |
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Founded psychotherapeutic body techniques? |
Wilhelm Reich |
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The lateral rotators of the hip share a common attachment on or very near which bony landmark? |
Greater Trochanter |
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What is the largest synovial joint in the body? What kind of joint? |
tibiofemoral joint (knee) modified hinge |
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Cluster of nerve cell bodies found in the peripheral nervous system? |
Ganglia |
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Plantaris Origin a. lateral condyle femur b. lateral condyle & lateral shaft tibia, interosseous membrane c. anterior shaft of fibula and interosseous membrane d. lateral epicondyle femur |
D |
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Which muscle? Action: Weak plantar flex ankle, weak flex knee Origin: Lateral condyle of femur Insert: Calcaneus via calcaneal tendon |
Plantaris |
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To destroy all organisms on surgical instruments, you should: a. chlorine soak to disinfect b. separate/dispose on infected person c. sterilization pressurized steam bath d. wash with soapy water |
D |
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Vince had too much to drink. He should wait a. 6 hrs direct 12 hrs indirect b. 8 hrs direct, 18 hrs indirect c. 12 hrs direct, 24 hrs indirect d. 24 hrs direct, 48 hrs indirect |
C |
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Movement of dissolved substance from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration |
Diffusion |
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Which shoulder movement would lengthen fibers of teres minor a. flexion b. lateral rotation c. ADDuction d. horizontal ABDuction |
A |
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Tibialis Anterior Action |
Dorsiflex ankle Invert foot |
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Another term for stroke is a. cerebrovascular accident b. cerebrospinal obstruction c. ischemic cerebral attack d. myocardial infarction |
A |
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Tibialis Anterior Origin a. lateral condyle & lateral shaft tibia, interosseous membrane b. lateral epicondyle femur c. posterior fibula d. lateral condyle femur |
A |
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Peroneus Brevis - Origin a. posterior tibia b. lateral condyle femur c. lower 2/3 lateral shaft fibula d. upper 2/3 head and lateral shaft fibula |
C |
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Peroneus Longus - Origin a. lateral condyle & lateral shaft of tibia, interosseous membrane b. upper 2/3 head and lateral shaft of fibula c. base of metatarsal great toe d. lateral epicondyle femur |
B |
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Scapula, clavicle, head & jaw movement Structure moves anteriorly? Structure moves posteriorly? |
Protraction Retraction |
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The mechanical and chemical breakdown of food from its complex form into simple molecules |
Digestion |
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Situation in which all of the fibers in the spinal cord have been damaged by trauma, or bony growths in spinal canal |
Spinal Cord Injury |
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Neurobiochemical imbalance in the brain resulting in problems with focus, impulse control and motor activity. It occurs among children and adults? |
Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder |
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Use of material in methods or dosages that result in damage to the user & people whom the user contacts. |
Chemical dependency |
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Umbrella term covering a number of mood disorders that can result in persistent feelings of sadness, guilt of hopelessness |
Depression |
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Group of psychological problems involving compulsions around food and weight gain or loss |
Eating disorders |
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Adductor Magnus Origin a. anterior and lateral femoral shaft b. inferior ramus of pubis c. inner surface of femur d. inferior ramus pubis, ischial tuberosity and ramus of ischium |
D |
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Which muscle? Action: Unilaterally elevate scapula, downward rotate scapula, laterally flex head and neck, rotate head/neck to same side Origin: TVP C1-C4 Insert: Upper region of medial border & superior angle scapula |
Levator Scapula |
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Extensor Digitorum Longus - Insertion a. extensor expansion 4 lateral toes b. middle & distal phalange 4 lateral toes c. tendons flexor digitorum longus d. middle phalanges 4 lateral toes |
B |
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Muscular, collapsible tube located behind the trachea that extends from the pharnyx to the stomach. |
Esophagus |
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J shaped, saclike organ that lies beneath the diaphragm & empties into the duodenum |
Stomach |
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Small (3-4 inch) sac on the under surface of the liver that stores and contracts bile? |
Gall Bladder |
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Located on the posterior wall of the abdomen, against the back of the body wall musculature and just above the waist. They are one of the major homeostatic devices of the body. |
Kidneys |
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Two narrow tubes that extend from the kidney and connect to the bladder |
Ureters |
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What does the suffix -iasis mean? |
Condition of |
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What does the suffix -ectomy mean? |
Excision, removal of |
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What does the suffix -asis mean? |
Condition usually abnormal |
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What does the prefix enter(o)- mean? |
Intestines |
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What does the prefix phleb- mean? |
Vein |
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What does the suffix -pnea mean? |
Breathing |
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What does the prefix pneum(o)- mean? |
Lung, air, gas |
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Splenius Capitis Insertion a. thoracolumbar aponeurosis, lumbar & thoracic TVP b. cervical & thoracic SP, occipital bone c. mastoid, occipital bone d. cervical & thoracic TVP |
C |
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Union, bliss & sense of empathy a. solar plexus b. sacral c. crown d. 3rd eye |
C |
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Masseter Insertion |
Angle and ramus of mandible |
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Gracilis Origin |
Inferior rami of pubis |
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Adductor Longus Insertion |
medial lip linea aspera of femur |
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What is the strongest hip flexor? a. rectus abdomiis b. rectus femoris c. bicep femoris d. iliopsoas |
D |
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Widespread outbreak of a contagious disease |
Epidemic |
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What is the mechanism that pushes waste-filled plasmas into the kidneys? The speed with this happens is called? Normal rate is? |
Filtration Glomerular Filtration Rate 120 ml/min |
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Muscle of plantar flexion that attaches below the knee |
Soleus |
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Toe dancer's muscle? |
Gastrocnemius |
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What is the prefix that means within? What term describes within cells? |
Intra Intracellular |
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What is the suffix that means to dissolve? What term describes self-dissolution? |
-lysis autolysis |
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What is the suffix that means abnormal or excessive flow? What term describes excessive lipid in the feces? |
-rrhea Steatorrhea |
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What gland produces adrenocorticotropic hormone? Function? |
Pituitary Anterior Regulates endocrine activity of Adrenal Cortex and cortisol secretion |
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An idiopathic disease that involves the destruction of myelin sheaths around both motor and sensory neurons in the central nervous system. |
Multiple sclerosis |
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Opponens Pollicis Action |
Flex thumb ADDuct thumb |
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Imbalances of the Pericardium meridian? EC |
Emotional disturbances Circulatory disorders |
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Anterior Scalene Origin |
TVP C3-C6 |
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Pectineus Origin |
Superior ramus of pubis |
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Temporalis Insertion |
Coronoid process mandible |
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Splenius Capitis Origin |
Nuchal ligament SP C7-T3 |
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Extension of spine a. teres major b. interspinalis c. supraspinatus d. trapezius |
B |
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What is the name of the anterior curve of the vertebral column in the neck? a. thoracic kyphosis b. thoracic lordosis c. cervical kyphosis d. cervical lordosis |
D |
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Sartorius Insertion |
Medial proximal tibial shaft |
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What are the 3 muscles of the hamstrings? |
Semitendinosus Semimembranosus Biceps Femoris |
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Which ligament holds 2 processes together on the scapula |
Coracoacromial ligament |
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The fibers of which muscle blend with deltoid & attach to the greater tubercle |
pectoralis Major |
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Drawing out the energy contained in food, leaving the remaining matter to be eliminated by waste. a. small intestine b. large intestine c. liver d. bladder |
A |
