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297 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What is the normal respiratory rate for a newborn foal? What about a foal that is a few hours up to a few weeks old?
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Newborn: 40-80bpm
Few hours-2 weeks: 20-40bpm |
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T/F When neonates are asleep, brief apnea or tachypnea with muscle twitching and rapid eye movements is considered normal.
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True.
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What are 3 clinical signs of increased respiratory effort in the neonate?
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-Nasal flare during inspiration
-Rib retraction -Synchronous abdominal movement |
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T/F Respiratory effort is the most sensitive indicator of respiratory disease in the neonatal animal.
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True.
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T/F Pulmonary auscultation can be normal with severe pulmonary disease not detected by auscultation.
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True.
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When a foal is born and you notice fetal membranes covering the nose, should you intervene? What would you do afterwards?
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Yes, you should remove fetal membranes. Also remove fluid from nasopharynx by extending the head and neck downward and applying suction (if necessary).
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Give one method of supportive care in a foal that is:
(1) Breathing (2) Not breathing |
(1) Intranasal O2 insufflation (humidified by bubbling through sterile water, run at 5-10L/min)
(2) Nasotracheal intubation (ambu bag or other assisted ventilation, breathe at 20bpm) |
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Why is it important to maintain sternal recumbency in a foal with suspected respiratory problems?
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Arterial oxygenation drops by up to 50% in lateral recumbency so it is essential to maintain sternal recumbency to maintain adequate oxygenation.
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What are the time parameters for normal suckling reflex behavior in the neonate? What about standing and suckling?
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Suckle reflex: 5-10 min
Standing/suckling: 2hrs, considered abnormal if they don't suckle by 3 hours |
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What is the treatment protocol for a foal that does not suckle within 3 hours of birth?
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Tube feed colostrum, 2L at 200mL every 2 hours. Have a quantitative IgG test performed at 18-24 hours.
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A foal is brought to you with a strong suckle reflex but is disoriented and cannot locate the udder. What syndrome might you suspect?
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Neonatal maladjustment syndrome (oxygen deprivation at birth)
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(1) What is the normal time parameter for a foal to begin to pass meconium?
(2) When should meconium passage be completed? (3) What does normal meconium look like? |
(1) Begins to pass in a few hours
(2) Complete by 12-24 hours (3) Soft brown/yellow, semi-formed fecal balls ("milk dung") at 24hrs |
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What should the specific gravity be on good quality colostrum from a mare to be used in a colostrum bank?
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SG>1.060
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T/F It is perfectly fine to use a fake cow nipple for feeding a foal.
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False. Use human baby nipples or lamb/kid nipples and warmed milk.
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T/F A nurse goat can be used to feed orphan foals.
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True, they are often trained to stand on bales of hay. A nurse mare can also be used to feed orphan foals.
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T/F You can feed commercial foal milk replacers, goat or kid milk replacers, and modified cows milk to foals.
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True.
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What is the normal time parameter in which the first urination of a foal should take place?
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Within 6-12 hours after birth.
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What is the normal back posture of a neonate that is urinating?
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Back should be ventroflexed
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You see a filly foal that has two streams of urine when she urinates. What DDX is at the top of your list?
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Patent urachus
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T/F The umbilicus should be immediately separated after birth.
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False. Should be left to separate naturally. Some bleeding may occur after birth.
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How long does it normally take for the umbilicus to dry up and fall off? Should you treat it with anything to help this process?
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2-4 days
Dip with 0.5% chlorhexidine solution within 2 hours of birth and repeat 2-3X in the first 24 hours. |
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What is a simple way to treat an early case of patent urachus in a foal?
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Silver nitrate cautery (only advance to the level of the body wall) - but be aware of the risk of concurrent umbilical infection/septicemia
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What is the normal temperature range for a neonatal foal?
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37-39C (98.6-102.2F)
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(1) What should the heart rate be in a neonate within 2 minutes of birth? Within 24 hours?
(2) How high might it reach with excitement? |
(1) >60beats per minute within 2 minutes of birth, 80-100bpm at 24 hours
(2) May reach up to 150bpm with excitement |
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(1) If you were presented with a foal that had pallor w/o icterus, what would you guess the underlying cause was?
(2) What about pallor w/icterus? |
(1) Shock or anemia
(2) Neonatal isoerythrolysis or Tyzzers disease |
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What is the normal jugular fill time in the neonate?
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Distends in 3 seconds
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You observe a foal doing the following: foal is alert but with undirected behaviors like trying to nurse inanimate objects and not following the dam.
Would you consider this abnormal behavior? |
Yes! Is abnormal behavior that points to a CNS problem.
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What is the fluid treatment protocol for a neonate with hypovolemia?
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Administer fluid boluses of 20mL/kg (1L for a 50kg foal) over a 10-20 minute period with evaluation of perfusion after each bolus.
Maintenance: 100mL/kg/d for 10kg 50mL/kg/d for 11-20kg 25mL/kg/d for >20kg |
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What is the cutoff time for standing and suckling in a foal before it is considered to be abnormal?
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Not standing and suckling by 3 hours = abnormal
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T/F Entropion is common in sick/premature neonates (foal).
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True.
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What might you suspect if you saw opacity in the anterior chamber of a neonatal foal's eye?
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May represent blood or fibrin and neutrophils caused by birth trauma or sepsis.
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T/F Excessively sloping pasterns in a foal at birth (due to tendon laxity) will typically resolve with exercise within 24 hours.
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True.
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T/F An exceptionally soft and silky hair coat is characteristic of prematurity or dysmaturity.
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True. May also have floppy ears, domed forehead, and joint/tendon laxity.
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T/F Soft fronds on the bottom of the hooves of neonatal foals are normal and will disappear with exercise in 24 hours.
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True.
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What other condition should you worry about if a foal presents to you with severe tendon and joint laxity?
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Incomplete ossification of the tarsal and carpal bones. Should restrict exercise.
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Briefly describe perinatal asphyxia syndrome of the day old foal.
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AKA Neonatal encephalopathy is a common clinical manifestation of peripartum hypoxia/ischemia/asphyxia.
Is usually attributed to problems with the placenta, fetus, and/or mare. |
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You are presented with a day-old foal with the following signs that appeared acutely:
-Increased HR & RR -Gasping, bradycardia & clonic movements -Primary apnea -Gasping for 4-5 minutes -Secondary apnea (respiratory centre no longer responsive to analeptics) What is your tentative diagnosis? |
Perinatal asphyxia syndrome (PAS) AKA neonatal encephalopathy AKA hypoxemic-ischemic encephalopathy
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What are some of the sequelae of perinatal asphyxia syndrome (if the foal survives the acute onset) in the following organ systems:
-CNS -Heart -Lung |
-CNS: NEUROLOGICAL SIGNS caused by necrosis, edema, hemorrhage
-Heart: HYPOTENSION AND METABOLIC ACIDOSIS caused by myocardial infarcts -Lung: RESPIRATORY DISTRESS caused by meconium aspiration, decreased surfactant production, persistent pulmonary hypertension |
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What are some of the sequelae of perinatal asphyxia syndrome (if the foal survives the acute onset) in the following organ systems:
-Kidney -Liver -Gut |
-Kidney: RENAL FAILURE caused by acute tubular necrosis
-Liver: ICTERUS caused by diffuse cellular necrosis -Gut: ILEUS, ABDOMINAL DISTENTION caused by ischemic necrosis |
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What are four acute treatment options for perinatal asphyxia syndrome in foals?
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-Remove membranes and suction airways
-Tactile stimulation of breathing -Ventilate with ambubag -Nasal O2 insufflation once breathing ALSO: -minimize O2 consumption by warming the patient, minimizing stress, give glucose IV -chest compressions if bradycardic -epinephrine if persistent bradycardia (over 60 seconds) -Doxopram can be considered (respiratory analeptic) |
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You are presented with a foal who appeared normal at birth and began showing the following signs somewhere between 6-24 hours post delivery:
-Loss of suckle reflex -Excessive chewing/salivation -Aimless wandering (‘wanderers’) -Abnormal vocalization (‘barkers’) -Hyperexcitability, jerky movements -Convulsions (‘convulsives’) -Periods of apnea/abnormal respiratory pattern -Weakness, ataxia -Depressed spinal reflexes What would be your top differential? |
Neonatal encephalopathy
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T/F With neonatal encephalopathy, the IgG is usually normal but CSF fluid has decreased protein levels.
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False. Low IgG is common, CSF is normal or xanthochromic with INCREASED protein and WBC.
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What are 5 ruleouts for Neonatal Encephalopathy?
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-Sepsis
-Meningitis -Trauma -Congenital neurologic conditions -Metabolic problems |
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What are the three main broad components of treatment for neonatal encephalopathy?
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Nursing care (O2 if needed, etc.)
Control seizures Plasma IV if FPT present |
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What are 4 signs in neonatal encephalopathy that indicate a poor prognosis?
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-History of severe dystocia
-Foal never stood/demonstrated suckle -FPT and secondary infections - >4days duration without improvement |
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What is the difference between a premature neonate and a dysmature neonate?
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Premature: <320 days gestation the foal is born
Dysmature: foal is undersized for gestational age |
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In foals that are delivered prematurely (unready for birth), what will the following parameters usually be?
-Cortisol and T3 -ACTH -WBC |
-Cortisol and T3: low levels
-ACTH: poor response -WBC: <5x10^9/L |
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In "term foals", what value should the T3 be in comparison to an adult?
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10-20X adult value
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What is a serious angular limb deformity that can occur with premature/dysmature foals?
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Incomplete ossification of tarsal/carpal bones. They can collapse in premature/dysmature foals that attempt to ambulate
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What are 5 common (broad) complications of premature/dysmature foals?
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-Repiratory difficulty
-Abnormal glucose homeostasis -Angular limb deformatites -Corneal ulceration -Acquired patent urachus |
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What are 4 poor prognostic indicators of a premature/dysmature foal?
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-Early abrupt delivery
-Very low birth weight -In utero infection -Asphyxia during delivery |
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T/F Foals that are delivered naturally but prematurely by a healthy mare after chronic in utero stress have a FAIR prognosis.
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True.
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What are the three basic mechanisms causing failure of passive transfer?
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(1) Poor quality or inadequate quantity of colostrum
(2) Failure of timely ingestion of colostrum (3) Failure of colostrum absorption |
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Fill in the blanks:
Intestinal absorption of Ig is _________ after birth, _________ significantly by 12 h, and is _________ by 24 h. |
Intestinal absorption of Ig is
(MAXIMAL) after birth (DECLINES) significantly by 12 h, and is (NEGLIGIBLE) by 24 h. |
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T/F Older dams, premature leakage of colostrum, severe maternal illness, and premature foals are all common causes of FPT in foals.
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True.
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T/F The Holstein breed has great quality colostrum.
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False. Poor quality.
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T/F Large colostral volume in cows usually results in better quality colostrum.
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False. Has a dilution effect, poor quality.
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T/F First and second lactation cows have higher quality colostrum than later lactation cows.
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False. Poorer quality colostrum
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T/F FPT has no obvious clinical signs by itself.
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True. Is diagnosed by gluteraldehyde coagulation test and/or ELISA test.
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T/F The gold standard test for FPT (IgG measurement) is gluteraldehyde coagulation test.
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False. Is single radial diffusion (SRID) test. Is difficult to perform, takes several days, and is expensive.
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What are the three most common (general) clinical presentations in an animal with FPT?
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Pneumonia
Sepsis Diarrhea |
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What should the specific gravity be in satisfactory equine colostrum?
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SG>1.060.
The SG of milk is 1.040 |
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What is the best indicator of quality colostrum in a producing dairy cow?
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Cows producing <8.5kg of colostrum in the first milking is generally an indicator of good quality.
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What are the three treatment goals of FPT?
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(1) Minimize exposure to pathogens
(2) Supply immunoglobulins (3) Treat secondary bacterial infections |
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How much colostrum can you feed to a calf that is younger than 12 hours of age?
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>2.8L of colostrum in the first feeding
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How much colostrum can you feed to a foal that is younger than 12 hours of age?
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-1-2L in small frequent amounts (200mL) for the first 8 hours (colostrum bank colostrum).
-Bovine colostrum: 4L during the first 24 hours, has a shorter 1/2 life in foals. |
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What treatment options do you have in a FPT foal that is >18 hours of age?
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Commercial plasma
Local donor plasma -Plasma IV @ 20mL/kg can raise the serum IgG by 200-300mg/dl |
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What treatment options do you have for a FPT calf that is diagnosed at >18hours of age?
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Plasma
Whole blood Oral colostrum |
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T/F In bacteremia, patients are ill, in septicemia, patients are also ill.
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False. In bacteremia, patients are NOT ill necessarily.
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What bacteria is the most common isolate from calves and foals with septicemia/bacteremia?
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E. coli
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T/F If you find a gram (+) bacteria in a foal with bacteremia/septicemia, you should also assume that a gram (-) species is present also.
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True.
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What is the empiric treatment of choice for a foal with septicemia/bacteremia?
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Penicillin + an aminoglycoside (Gentamicin)
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You are presented with an otherwise healthy newborn foal that is straining to defecate repeatedly, swishing her tail, is restless, and keeps looking at her abdomen.
What is your top differential? How would you treat this foal? |
Meconium impaction
Digital removal of meconium, enema, DSS and water or mineral oil via nasogastric tube. |
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What is a patent urachus?
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Persistence following birth of the tubular connection between the bladder and umbilicus. In normal foals the urachus is closed at birth and urine is voided via the urethra.
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What are the three mechanisms of thrombocytopenia?
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(1) Decreased production
(2) Increased loss w/ underlying disease (eg IMTP, EIA, Anaplasma phagocytophilia, BVD) (3) Increased utilization: massive blood loss, DIC, hemolytic uremic syndrome |
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T/F Normal values for platelets are much lower in LA species than small animal species.
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True. 100-350 x 10^9/L is normal range
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T/F Exercise or excitement can cause thrombocytosis.
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True.
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T/F A functional platelet disorder has the same clinical signs as thrombocytopenia.
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True. Normal number of platelets but they have an abnormal function.
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What breed of cattle have a hereditary functional platelet disorder?
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Simmental cattle (calves)
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When treating an animal for vitamin K deficiency (as in cases of dicoumarol/warfarin toxicosis), which form of vitamin K should you use?
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K1: 0.3-0.5mg/kg SC
do NOT give K3 |
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What bacteria is associated with purpura hemorrhagica and vasculitis in horses?
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Strep equi subsp. equi (strangles)
-Purpura hemorrhagic is a life threatening immune complex mediated vasculitis in horses. |
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What is the treatment of choice for purpura hemorrhagica in horses?
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Aggressive immune suppression therapy: Dexamethasone 0.05-0.2mg/kg IV or IM. Be wary of laminitis at the higher dose.
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T/F DIC consists of simultaneous microvascular clotting and hemorrhagic diathesis and is an end stage diagnosis.
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True. Will have prolonged PT, APTT, FDPs>40mg/ml, and decreased AT III levels.
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Why should cross matching be done if considering blood transfusion therapy in horses? Cows?
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To prevent spread of EIA infected blood. Cows should be BLV negative.
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Why should you be careful about how much blood you collect from a donor cow?
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Hypoxemic dementia can occur with excessive blood loss
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What breed of cattle get bovine leucocyte adhesion deficiency (BLAD)?
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Up to 6% of holsteins in the US have BLAD
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What does the neutrophil count look like in a cow with bovine leucocyte adhesion deficiency (BLAD)?
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Through the roof! Phenomenally high levels: >40x10^9/L. Neutrophils are unable to get to infection sites or sites of inflammation.
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What are the two forms of bovine lymphosarcoma (bovine lymphoma)?
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(1) Sporadic
(2) Enzootic or Endemic |
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What virus is bovine lymphoma associated with?
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Bovine leukosis virus (BLV). This is the enzootic or endemic form of bovine lymphoma.
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What are the three subcategories of sporadic bovine lymphoma?
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(1) Juvenile or calf - dairy, lymphadenopathy (general or regional)
(2) Thymic or adolescent - beef breeds, thymus enlarged (3) Cutaneous form - 1-3 yrs, best prognosis of the three |
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What is the most common neoplastic disease of cattle?
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Enzootic (adult) bovine leukosis caused by BLV virus
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T/F BLV (enzootic bovine leukosis) can be transmitted by rectal sleeves used by veterinarians.
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True. Other methods include: infected animals, and congenital infection.
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What organs are affected by enzootic lymphoma in cattle?
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Abomasum
RA of heart Visceral lymph nodes Peripheral lymph nodes Uterus - may present as repro issue |
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What are the three forms of persistently BLV infected animals?
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(1) Asymptomatic
(2) Persistent lymphocytosis (3) Malignant lymphosarcoma (tumors and lymphadenopathy) |
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What are 3 specific signs seen in enzootic BLV infection in cattle?
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Lymphadenopathy
Internal lymphadenopathy Posterior paresis BLV often has a lot of vague signs so ask the client/producer about the cattle test status and if unknown, test for BLV |
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What are 2 methods of diagnosis of bovine lymphoma in the individual cow?
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ELISA
RIA serology |
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What is the main method of diagnosis of bovine lymphoma in the herd?
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AGID serology
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What are some control/prevention methods of BLV in cattle (5)?
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(1) Purchase BLV negative animals to maintain a negative herd
(2) Do not feed colostrum from infected cows (3) Use AI - can be spread with natural breeding (4) Clean calving, dehorning, foot trimming, other instruments (5) Single use needles and rectal sleeves |
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T/F Equine lymphosarcome (lymphoma) has a viral association similar to bovine lymphoma.
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False. Is sporadic like the bovine form but has NO viral association.
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T/F Testing for equine lymphoma is the same as testing for bovine lymphoma; ELISA and RIA serology in individual animals.
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False. No viral tests for horses. Have to do biopsy, cytology, CBC to look for abnormal lymphocytes, radiographs, or ultrasound.
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What is the prognosis (general) for equine lymphoma: multicentric, thymic, and cutaneous forms?
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Poor for multicentric and tymic forms.
Cutaneous has the best chance of survival, will respond to steroids. |
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What is the etiological agent of caseous lymphadenitis in small ruminants? Horses?
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Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis in small ruminants.
Strep. equi subsp. equi in horses and sometimes C. pseudotuberculosis (pigeon fever AKA dryland strangles) |
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T/F Caseous lymphadenitis is not a contagious disease in small ruminants so shearing is not a focal point of spread.
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False. Is very contagious, spread at shearing. Have draining abscess.
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Where on the animal does ulcerative lymphangitis occur?
What are 4 causative agents? |
On the distal limbs
Strep zooepidemicus C. pseudotuberculosis Rhodococcus equi Sporotrichium schenkii |
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T/F Sporotrichosis can affect horses, cats, cattle, and people.
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True. Is an infectious fungal disease that mainly affects horses. Sporotrichium schenkii is the etiological agent. Treat with Na iodine.
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The following signs describe which state of dehydration:
-Animal is less active -Slight prolonged skin tent (2-3 sec) -Dry mucus membranes -CRT<2seconds |
Mild dehydration (5-7%)
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The following signs describe which state of dehydration:
-Depressed state/inactive -Eyes may appear sunken in orbits (ruminants) -Cool extremities -Increased CRT (2-4 sec) -Skin tent ~3-5 seconds -Tachycardia and weak pulse |
Moderate dehydration (8-9%)
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The following signs describe which state of dehydration:
-+/- Recumbency -Moribund (terminal decline) -Skin tent >5 seconds -CRT>5 sec -Signs of shock -Eyes are sunken (ruminants) |
Severe dehydration (10-12%)
Death occurs at greater than 12% dehydration |
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At what percent dehydration are no clinical signs observed?
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At less than 5%.
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Where are the best place(s) to check a skin tent on a horse? Cow?
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Horse - on the neck (lateral)
Cow - over the eyelid |
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T/F You can rehydrate an animal orally when they are 7-8% dehydrated.
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False. Only up to 5-6% dehydrated can you give oral rehydration a try. If the animal is >7% dehydrated, IV therapy is warranted.
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What is the maintenance fluid rate for an adult large animal (in mL/kg/hr)?
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2mL/kg/hr
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What is the maintenance fluid rate for a neonatal large animal (in mL/kg/hr)?
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3-4mL/kg/hr
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How can you estimate continued fluid loss in a dehydrated animal?
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Take the maintenance dose and add another maintenance dose to it or two maintenance doses to it. This will roughly account for ongoing losses.
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What is the maximum fluid rate you can give to a large animal (SHOCK RATE)?
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50-60mL/kg/hr can only give for 0.5-1hr max.
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What is the maximum rate that fluid can flow into an animal with a 12-14 guage catheter?
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6-8 liters/hr
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When considering the correction of RAPID fluid deficit, half of the fluid deficit should be corrected in _____ hours and the entire deficit in ______ hours.
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When considering the correction of RAPID fluid deficit, half of the fluid deficit should be corrected in (2-3 hours) and the entire deficit in (6-12 hours).
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When considering the correction of SLOW fluid deficit, half of the fluid deficit should be corrected in _____ hours and the entire deficit in _____ hours.
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When considering the correction of SLOW fluid deficit, half of the fluid deficit should be corrected in (3-6 hours) and the entire deficit in (12-24 hours).
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List 4 "rehydrating" type fluids.
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0.9% NaCl
Lactated Ringers Solution Multisol Plasmalyte |
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List 2 combination fluid types used for NPO patients.
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0.45% NaCl or 2.5%Dextrose + KCl (often come as pre-made solutions)
2 parts 5% Dextrose + 1 part 0.9% NaCl +KCl (ideal solution but you have to measure it yourself often times) |
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T/F 5% Dextrose should NEVER be used as a rehydrating solution.
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True.
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Which ion deficiency usually accompanies metabolic alkalosis?
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Hypochloremia
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What is the key to treating metabolic acidosis with an elevated anion gap?
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Reperfusion is the key, not an alkalinizing fluid. Get the patient to pee out the lactate via renal excretion.
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T/F Lactate is metabolized into bicarbonate in multiple places in the body whereas acetate/citrate is metabolized into bicarbonate in the liver exclusively.
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False. Other way around. Lactate in the liver, acetate/citrate in multiple places in the body.
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How do you treat a metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap?
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If mild (pH>7.25) maybe give NaBicarbonate
If moderate to severe (pH<7.25), definitely give NaBicarbonate. |
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In terms of potassium abnormalities, is hyperkalemia or hypokalemia more common?
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Hypokalemia is more common, can be a result of severe diarrhea.
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(1) What are some treatment options for a hypokalemic patient?
(2) What is the maximal potassium rate you can give to a patient? |
(1) Rehydration
NaBicarb IV glucose (drives K+ intracellularly) (2) 0.5 (usual max) to 1 (ER situations) mmol/kg/hr |
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According to Stewart's Theory of Strong Ions & Acid/Base, what are the three components to biological fluids?
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(1) Water
(2) Strong Electrolytes (Na, K, Cl) (3) Weak acids (proteins, phosphates, sulfates, ketones, exogenous acids, lactate) |
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Cations are (ACIDIFYING/ALKANIZING)
Anions are (ACIDIFYING/ALKANIZING) |
Cations are (ALKANIZING) eg Na+
Anions are (ACIDIFYING) eg Cl- |
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pCO2 is the ___________ component
Strong Ion measurement is the __________ component Anion gap assesses ___________ _________. |
pCO2 is the (RESPIRATORY) component
Strong Ion measurement is the (METABOLIC) component Anion gap assesses (UNMEASURED ANIONS). |
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T/F TCO2 on serum chemistries is a rough estimate of bicarbonate.
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True.
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What is the formula for calculating a bicarbonate deficit?
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0.3 x (body weight in kg) x (bicarb desired - bicarb measured)
0.3 is a constant of bicarb diffusion in an adult, 0.4 is used for neonates |
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What is the formula for calculating a strong ion measurement?
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Na + K - Cl = SID
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If you calculate your strong ion difference and the patient doesn't appear to be acidotic (on paper), where is the problem likely to be stemming from?
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Unmeasured anions (anion gap), like lactate.
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What is the formula for unmeasured anions (anion gap)?
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AG = (Na + K) - (Cl + HCO3)
AG = SID - HCO3 |
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(1) What is the normal range for a strong ion difference?
(2) What should you use to treat if the SID is lower than normal? (3) What should you use to treat if the SID is higher than normal? |
(1) 37-47mmol/L
(2) If below 37mmol/L, treat with Multisol, Plasmalyte and if the value is 27mmol/L or lower add calculated dose of sodium bicarbonate (3) If SID is >47mmol/L, treat with LRS, Dextrose, or NaCl. NaCl is usually best. |
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What two fluid types expands the intravascular space only?
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Plasma
Colloids: dextran, hetastarch |
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When is use of hypertonic saline indicated?
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SEVERE circulatory collapse with limited loss of ECF and ICF fluid. NOT to be used in MODERATE or SEVERE dehydration (animal doesn't have the ECF to draw upon).
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T/F Hemorrhagic shock and acute endotoxic shock are two examples of situations in which hypertonic saline can be used.
|
True.
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What is the dose used for hypertonic saline?
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5-7% dosed at 3-5mL/kg given IV over 10 minutes
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Name 5 causes of metabolic acidosis in bovine patients.
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(1) Acute ruminal acidosis
(2) Acute diarrhea (3) Hypovolemic shock (4) Endotoxic shock (5) Saliva loss |
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Name 4 causes of metabolic alkalosis in bovine patients.
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(1) Abomasal reflux (RDA)
(2) Forestomach stasis (3) Anorexia (4) Potassium depletion |
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Name 4 causes of metabolic acidosis in equine patients.
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(1) Acute diarrhea
(2) Strangulating bowel (3) Hypovolemic shock (4) Endotoxic shock |
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Name 6 causes of metabolic alkalosis in equine patients.
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(1) Gastric reflux
(2) Massive sweat loss (3) Saliva loss (4) Potassium depletion (5) Use of bicarb milkshakes (6) Chronic diuretic use (K depletion) |
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Baldy calves is a congenital skin condition in cattle caused by what?
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Zinc metabolism defect
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Junctional epitheliolysis bullosa (JEB) disease results in necrosing lesions around the vulva, perineum, and the hoofs can fall off.
What breed of horses get this disease? |
Belgian horses
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Copper toxicity causes what to occur around the eye region in the skin of cattle?
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"Spectacles" around the eye, the hair falls out around the eye.
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T/F Equine sarcoidosis is the same thing as equine sarcoids.
|
False. The term sarcoidosis comes from human medicine. It is a systemic disease with fibrotic infiltration of multiple body systems including the skin.
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Name 5 common skin diseases that manifest themselves as nodular skin lesions.
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(1) Nodular necrobiosis aka eosinophilic granuloma aka collagenolytic granuloma
(2) Hypodermiasis aka warbles (3) Urticaria (hives) (4) Erythema multiforme (5) Miscellaneous (cutaneous lymphosarcoma, mastocytoma, calcinosis circumscripta, atheroma |
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What two drugs can be used to treat nodular necrobiosis in horses?
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-Triamcinolone (but can cause laminitis)
-Prednisone *most the time this disease is just annoying for the owner to look at so if it isn't bothering the horse, you can leave them. |
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T/F Hypodermiasis aka warbles caused by Hypoderma bovis and H. lineatum mostly affects horses.
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False. Most commonly seen in cattle. Horses are a dead end host.
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How does hypodermiasis cause economic loss in cattle?
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If the hides are to be used for leather and there are holes in it from erupting warbles (larval stage), then the hide isn't worth much.
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If you saw a bunch of cows running around aimlessly in the pasture in the fall season, what parasitic infection might you suspect?
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Hypodermiasis. Gad flies lay their eggs in the fall and are very irritating/annoying to cattle, they will lose condition running around trying to avoid the flies.
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T/F Urticaria (hives) more often affect horses but can be seen in Channel Island breeds as a result of a milk allergy.
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True.
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What is the most important concept of treating urticaria (hives)?
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Remove the underlying cause (contact, eating, breathing in some antigen).
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What are three treatment options for urticaria (hives)?
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(1) Bathe the animal to remove any surface antigens
(2) Antihistamine - Hydroxazine hydrochloride (3) Prednisolone *Can also try elimination diets or environmental elimination trials |
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What is erythema multiforme usually a result of?
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Drug reaction
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If you saw a lesion that seemed to be causing a decrease in the amount of air flow in a show horse and looked like a "false nostril" on the skin, what might you suspect?
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Atheroma
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T/F Verrucous lesions (warts) occur in YOUNG cattle, horses, goats, and sheep.
|
True.
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T/F Verrucous lesions (warts) usually occur on the head (face), neck, muzzle, teats, and other areas; may be generalized in immunosupressed animals.
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True.
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Give 3 examples of large animal skin diseases that appear like dry, hairy, leathery lesions.
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(1) Verrucous sarcoids
(2) Papillomatous digital dermatitis (3) Melanomas |
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T/F Sarcoids are the most common skin tumors of horses.
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***TRUE
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T/F Verrucous sarcoids is the same as sarcoidosis.
|
False!
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T/F Papillomatous Digital Dermatitis is a major cause of lameness and decreased milk production in dairy cows.
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True.
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What are some risk factors that contribute to the incidence of Papillomatous Digital Dermatitis in cattle?
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-Wet environment, poor footing
-Zinc deficiency -Fomites |
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T/F Melanomas in gray horses can be benign or malignant.
|
True. Are usually firm, dome shaped, pigmented, and hairless. Occur on the ventrum of the tail, perineum, genitalia, commisure of lips, udder, parotid salivary gland, and periocular.
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What are two drugs you can use to treat skin melanoma in horses?
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Cisplatin
Cimetidine |
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What is the most common and economically important tumor of cattle (for economic loss)?
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Squamous cell carcinoma (Cancer eye)***
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T/F Squamous cell carcinoma in cattle starts as hyperplastic plaques on the lateral and medial limbus and eyelid margins.
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True.
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Where does skin squamous cell carcinoma occur most frequently in horses?
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Mucocutaneous junctions; especially genitalia and eyes.
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What are 3 choices for treatment of skin SCC in horses?
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-5-flurouracil - for early plaques on horse penis
-Cryotherapy -Excision |
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What are the 3 'S's for granulomatous lesions in horses?
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(1) Squamous cell carcinoma
(2) Summer sores (Habronemiasis) (3) Sarcoids |
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What is the most common skin tumor in horses worldwide that is unique to horses?
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Sarcoids*****
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T/F Sarcoids have a papilloma virus association and often step from an old wound site.
|
True.
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What are 4 treatment options for sarcoids in horses?
|
Xterra cream
Cryotherapy Excision (high rate of recurrence) Intralesional cisplatin *Combo therapy works the best (ie surgical debulk + cryotherapy or intralesion cisplatin + surgical debulk, etc.) |
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What amoeba like organism might fit into the equine 3 'S's if you lived in the Gulf states region or near large ponds or lakes?
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Pythium insidiosum (phycomycosis/pythiosis)
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T/F Early diagnosis and treatment is key for cases of Phycomycosis/pythiosis, otherwise the prognosis is grave.
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True.
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The following skin diseases fit under which broad category of skin conditions?
-Onchocerciasis -Contagious ecthyma (Orf) -Ringworm (dermatomycosis) -Dermatophilus congolensis -Ectoparasites |
Hair loss and skin changes (pruritis, scaling, crusting, thickening, secondary infections, erythema)
-Generally nasty skin |
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The following skin diseases fit under which broad category of skin conditions?
-Photosensitization -Culicoides hypersensitivity -Parakeratosis (zinc deficiency) -Pemphigus foliaceus -Scratches or grease heel -Dry gangrene |
Hair loss and skin changes (pruritis, scaling, crusting, thickening, secondary infections, erythema)
-Generally nasty skin |
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What category of virus is contagious ecthyma (orf) related with?
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Poxvirus
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Where are lesions seen in a sheep or goat with contagious ecthyma?
|
Mucosal junctions
Lips Coronary bands Teats |
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T/F Neonates from adult animals with contagious ecthyma will often be poor doers.
|
True. The mom probably won't let them nurse due to painful lesions on the teats.
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T/F Sheep and cattle are more commonly affected than goats and horses by dermatomycoses (ringworm).
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False. Horses and cattle are more commonly affected.
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What two species are usually responsible for dermatomycoses (ringworm) in large animals?
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Trichophyton spp
Microsporum spp |
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What is Girth itch?
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Ringworm in horses seen around the girth of the horse.
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T/F Pruritus is always a feature of ringworm in horses.
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False. Not necessarily a feature of this disease.
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What are 3 topical treatments of ringworm for horses?
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-Povidone iodine preparations
-Lime sulfur solution -Tresaderm (Thiabendazole) - for spot treatments |
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T/F Dermatophilus congolensis is a very common bacterial infection.
|
True. Is a very very very very very very very very very very very very very very very very very very very very very very very very very very very very very very very very very very very very very very very very very very very very very very very very common bacterial infection. Very.
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Dermatophilus congolensis is called ____ _____ in horses and _______________ in ruminants.
|
RAIN SCALD in horses
STREPTOTHRICOSIS in ruminants. |
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-You see a horse with scabs on it and with tufts of hair in it. You decide to pick one of these scabs and there is a "paintbrush" lesion underneath when the scab is removed.
-You decide to do a gram stain on some of the scabby material and an impression slide from the skin. You see gram positive bacteria with branching filaments that ultimately fragment by both transverse and longitudinal separation. What is your diagnosis? |
Dermatophilus congolensis
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How can you treat rain scald (Dermatophilus congolensis) in horses?
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-Bathe the horse, remove the crusts
-Systemic penicillin or TMS if severe infection |
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T/F Lice are species specific in large animals.
|
TRUE*** The complete life cycle occurs on certain species.
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T/F Blunt headed lice are sucking lice and pointy headed lice are chewing lice.
|
False. Blunt = chewing; pointy = sucking
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T/F Pruritis is a hallmark of mite infestation in large animals.
|
True***
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What is "Clyde itch"?
|
Leg mites in horses - Chorioptes equi. Often seen in Clydesdales because they have long hair for mites to live in.
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T/F Chorioptic mange is transmissible to humans.
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FALSE, is NOT transmissible to humans.**
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T/F Psoroptic mange (common in sheep and cattle) is transmissible to humans.
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FALSE! Is not.**
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T/F Sarcoptic mange (uncommon except in pigs) is transmissible to humans.
|
TRUE! They are short legged and burrow in the skin.**
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What are 5 examples of primary photosensitization agents in horses and cattle?
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(1) Phenothiazine
(2) St. John's wort (3) Buckwheat (4) Alsike clover (5) Brassica spp |
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How does secondary photosensitization cause skin lesions?
|
The liver fails to metabolize chlorophyll, phylloerythrin (the photosensitization agent) accumulates and lesions occur.
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What is the etiological agent of "Summer Itch," "Sweet Itch," and "Queensland Itch?"
|
Culicoides midges (small flies). This is a condition in equines caused by an allergic hypersensitivity response to the bites of these midges.
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T/F The acquired form of parakeratosis is common in Danish Fresian cattle and part of Baldy Calf Syndrome in Hosteins.
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False. Acquired from is caused by dietary zinc deficiency. The inherited defect in zinc metabolism is the result of lethal trait A-46 in Danish Fresian Cattle, and part of Baldy Calf Syndrome of Holsteins.
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T/F Pemphigus foliaceus of horses is an autoimmune disease of the epidermis.
|
True.
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You are presented with a horse with vesiculopustular lesions which started at the head and limbs but have spread throughout the body. The horse is pruritic and seems to be in a great deal of pain. The horse has been treated with steroids before but there was no response.
What is your top DDX? |
Pemphigus Foliaceus of horses
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What is the Nikolsky sign?
|
Occurs when the epidermis is not properly attached and can slide off. Is part of pemphigus foliaceus of horses.
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T/F You should rule out a drug reaction to Cimetidine or Ampicillin before diagnosing Pemphigus Foliaceus.
|
True.
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The prognosis for Pemphigus foliaceus in young animals is _______ and the prognosis in older horses is _______.
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FAIR - can spontaneously resolve (reversible)
GUARDED |
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What is the treatment of choice for Pemphigus foliaceus in horses?
|
Immunosupression:
-Prednisolone -Dexamethasone -Aurothioglucose |
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T/F Scratches or grease heel of horses has multifactorial causes of disease.
|
True.
Wet environment, bacteria, fungi, leg mites, photodermatitis, etc. |
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What is the etiological agent of dry gangrene (ergotism)?
|
Claviceps purpura (mycotoxicosis) which is injested with grain. The fungus can be seen with the naked eye.
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T/F Mycotoxicosis of Claviceps purpura causes vasoconstriction of peripheral vessels resulting in lameness and sloughing of distal extremities.
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True. This is the causative agent of dry gangrene.
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T/F Mycotoxicosis of Claviceps purpura is the etiological agent of fescue foot of cattle.
|
False. Is Neotyphodium but has similar action as Claviceps purpura mycotoxicosis.
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What are 3 DDX to fescue foot of cattle?
|
Ergotism
Frost bite Selenium toxicosis |
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What are 5 DDX for tail rubbing in horses?
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Lice
Pin worms (Oxyuris equi) Culicoides hypersensitivity Mites Habit |
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Name 5 things that can cause depigmentation in the skin of large animals.
|
Leukoderma
Cryotherapy Aural plaques Coital exanthema Juvenile Arabian Leukoderma (Arabian Fading Syndrome) |
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What is leukotrichia?
|
Loss of hair pigment.
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Which breed of horse has "doomed hair follicles?"
|
Appaloosas - they get follicular dystrophy or dysplasia.
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What is the difference between telogen effluvium and anagen defluxion (effluvium)?
|
These are both caused by some other systemic insult.
Telogen - hair is in normal shedding phase, then ~2 MONTHS after an insult, all the hair falls out Anagen - hair is damaged in the growth phase and hair falls out within 2 WEEKS after an insult. |
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What is the pathophysiology of pituitary pars intermedia dysfunction (PPID) in horses?
|
Loss of dopamine-mediated inhibition of the pars intermedia melanotropes causing an uncontrolled/increased release of POMC-derived peptides, primarily ACTH. ATCH triggers cortisol release from the adrenals.
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What are 5 characteristic signs of a horse with pituitary pars intermedia dysfunction (PPID)?
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(1) Hirsutism
(2) Laminitis (of unknown origin) (3) Muscle atrophy and weight loss (4) Abnormal accumulation of fat (5) Increased susceptibility to infection (secondary infections present) |
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What is the gold standard test for diagnosing pituitary pars intermedia dysfunction (PPID) in horses?
|
Overnight dexamethasone suppression test
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T/F A horse with suspected PPID should NOT be diagnosed by using a overnight dexamethasone suppression test.
|
True.
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T/F ACTH concentrations in normal horses are significantly higher in the fall compared to spring.
|
True. Have to consider this when testing for pituitary pars intermedia dysfunction (PPID).
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What test can you perform to diagnose pituitary pars intermedia dysfunction (PPID) in a horse with diagnosed laminitis?
|
Thyroid-releasing hormone (TRH) stimulation test. Horses with PPID have increases serum cortisol after TRH administration. Normal horses do not.
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What is the preferred medical treatment for pituitary pars intermedia dysfunction (PPID)?
|
Pergolide (dopamine agonist). Can be paired with Cyprohepatide as an adjunct therapy.
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What three things is Equine Metabolic Syndrome characterized by?
|
(1) Obesity/regional adiposity
(2) Laminitis (3) Insulin resistance |
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T/F Hirsutism is a feature of Equine Metabolic Syndrome, similar to pituitary pars intermedia dysfunction (PPID).
|
False. Hirsutism is NOT a feature of Equine Metabolic Syndrome.
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The following clinical pathology is characteristic of what equine metabolic/endocrine disease?
-Hyperglycemia (insulin resistant) -Glucosuria -Stress leukogram -Elevated cortisol -Elevated ACTH |
Pituitary pars intermedia dysfunction (PPID)
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What are 2 diagnostic tests you can use to diagnose Equine Metabolic Syndrome?
|
Resting insulin concentrations
Combined glucose-insulin test |
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What are the two mainstays of Equine Metabolic Syndrome treatment?
|
Exercise
Diet |
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T/F Grass/pastures is an excellent choice for reducing the signs of Equine Metabolic Syndrome.
|
False. Grass/pasture may be detrimental for predisposed horses, especially those that suffer from repeated episodes of laminitis.
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Hyperlipemia in horses is a _______ condition compared to hyperlipidemia in horses.
|
Hyperlipemia = severe condition
Hyperlipidemia = milder condition |
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What is the cutoff range of serum triglyceride concentration in a horse with Hyperlipidemia?
|
Serum triglyceride concentrations must be <500mg/dL to be considered hyperlipidemia.
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What is the cutoff range of serum triglyceride concentration in a horse with Hyperlipemia?
|
Serum triglyceride concentrations must be >500mg/dL to be considered hyperlipemia. This condition can rapidly become irreversible and must be treated immediately.
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T/F Hyperlipemia/hyperlipidemia is similar to ketosis in cattle in that it stems from a stressing event and negative energy balance.
|
True.
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What is an easy diagnostic method that is suggestive of hyperlipemia/hyperlipidemia in horses?
|
Spin down a blood sample and look for white and yellow opacity caused by lipids.
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What are 3 medications you can give to horses with hyperlipemia/hyperlipidemia?
|
Insulin
IV glucose Heparin |
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In hypocalcemia in large animal species, horses become _______ and ________ whereas cows have ________ ________.
|
In hypocalcemia in large animal species, horses become SPASTIC and TETANIC whereas cows have FLACCID PARALYSIS.
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What are 7 possible causes of hypocalcemia in horses?
|
Lactation
Long distance transportation Sepsis and endotoxemia Excessive sweating Cantharidin toxicity Excessive salivation Hypoparathyroidism |
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T/F Hypocalcemia in horses can be indicative of chronic renal disease.
|
False. Hypercalcemia can be indicative of chronic renal disease in horses. This is the opposite of what occurs in most species.
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Horses on a ______ calcium ______ phosphorus diet can get nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism.
|
LOW calcium HIGH phosphorus diet.
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T/F Decreased thyroid hormone levels is more detrimental in adult horses than in young horses.
|
False. More detrimental in young, growing horses due to their role in growth, maturation or organ systems, and regulation of metabolism.
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T/F Hyperthyroidism is extremely rare in horses whereas thyroid gland neoplasia is more common (in older horses).
|
True.
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What is the difference between Syndrome 1 and Syndrome 2 Hypothyroidism in foals?
|
Syndrome 1: foal is born w/ visible goiter as a result of too much or too little iodine or goitogenic plants during gestation.
Syndrome 2: dietary deficiency or toxicity of the mare during gestation but NO visible enlarged thyroid gland of the foal at birth. |
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T/F In Syndrome 2 Hypothyroidism in foals, there is no visibly enlarged thyroid gland although histologically it is hyperplastic.
|
True. These foals often show signs of dysmaturity.
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|
Ionized calcium has important roles in what three things?
*think conduction of nerves and muscle function |
(1) Nerve membrane stability
(2) Release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction (3) Muscle contraction |
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**Magnesium has an important role in nerve __________ _________.
|
Magnesium has an important role in nerve MEMBRANE STABILITY.
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T/F Calcitonin only has a significant role in hypercalcemia.
|
True.
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|
What breed of cow is overrepresented for bovine parturient paresis (milk fever)?
|
Jersey cows
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How many hours after giving birth do dairy cattle typically get parturient paresis (milk fever)?
|
Usually within 72 hours of parturition
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What are 4 diseases besides bovine parturient paresis (milk fever) that stem from hypocalcemia?
|
(1) Retained fetal membranes
(2) Mastitis (3) Delayed involution (4) DAs |
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|
If you took blood and measured the Ca2+ in a group of recently freshened dairy cows, the majority of them would have low calcium.
Why do some cows get bovine parturient paresis (milk fever) and others don't? |
-Older cows produce more milk (greater Ca2+ demand).
-Older cows also have a harder time mobilizing Ca2+ out of the bone for systemic use and are more likely to succumb to milk fever than younger cows. |
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What are 5 features/clinical signs of stage 2 milk fever (bovine parturient paresis)?
Is this stage considered "classic milk fever?" |
(1) Recumbent but sternal
(2) Tachycardia with distant heart sound (3) Subnormal temperature (4) Head tucked in to flank (5) Anorexia -this is classic milk fever |
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What are 3 features/clinical signs of stage 1 milk fever (bovine parturient paresis)?
Is this stage considered "classic milk fever?" |
(1) Hyperexcitable or hypersensitive
(2) Muscle tremors (3) Ataxia This is not classic milk fever. |
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What are 3 features/clinical signs of stage 3 milk fever (bovine parturient paresis)?
|
(1) Flaccid paralysis
(2) Muscle fasciculations (3) Lateral recumbency or coma |
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|
**What will the following clinical pathology values be for a case of bovine parturient paresis?
-Calcium -Phosphate -Magnesium -Albumin |
-Calcium: hypocalcemia (<1.6 mmol/L)
-Phosphate: mild hypophosphatemia -Magnesium: normal or hypermagnesemia -Albumin: hypoalbuminemia (contributes to low total calcium) |
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|
What is the treatment of choice for bovine parturient paresis (milk fever)?
|
IV Calcium borogluconate (1-1.5 bottles, 500mL bottles) given SLOWLY. Farmer can give oral gels for stage I.
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T/F In bovine parturient paresis (milk fever), 75% stand within 2 hours of treatment with calcium borogluconate and 25% relapse.
|
True. Prognosis is excellent if the cow is not recumbent for a prolonged period of time prior to treatment. If cow is not standing within 24 hours after treatment, prognosis is guarded.
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|
When (during pregnancy, lactation, etc.) do sheep get milk fever?
|
Usually in the last 4-6 weeks of gestation (multiple births, increased calcium demand for mineralization of bone)
|
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When (during pregnancy, lactation, etc.) do goats get milk fever?
|
Usually during the first month of lactation, not right after kidding as seen in the cow (calving).
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T/F Goats usually get flaccid paralysis signs signs with milk fever while sheep get tetanic signs.
|
False.
Goats - tetanic signs Sheep - flaccid paralysis |
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T/F Having low calcium levels in your cow's transition diet is an easy and effective way of preventing milk fever.
|
False. Hard to formulate a ratio with calcium in such a small amount. Feeding anionic salts is a better method, especially when feeding a TMR ration.
|
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T/F Hypomagnesemia in Cattle (grass tetany) is caused by cattle being fed a poor diet or cattle eating lush grasses.
|
False. It can be caused by feeding a poor diet but wheat, barley, and oats are much more common than lush grasses for causing this problem.
|
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|
Potatoes are ____ in magnesium and ____ in potassium and can be the cause of hypomagnesemia in cattle in feedlots that feed potatoes.
|
Potatoes:
LOW in magnesium HIGH in potassium |
|
|
Hypomagnesemia is more often seen in:
-NON LACTATING or LACTATING CATTLE -OLDER COWS or YOUNGER CATTLE -CHANNEL ISLAND BREEDS or EURO BEEF BREEDS -FASTING or UNDERFEEDING or BOTH |
-LACTATING CATTLE
-OLDER COWS (4th or 5th lactation) -EURO BEEF BREEDS -BOTH |
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T/F In Hypomagnesemia (grass tetany) you will observe a muffled, distant sounding heart beat and in milk fever you will observe a loud, tachycardic heart beat.
|
False. In Hypomagnesemia (grass tetany) you will observe a loud, tachycardic heart beat. In milk fever you will observe a distant sounding heart beat.
|
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|
What are 5 features/clinical signs of hypomagnesemia (grass tetany) in cattle?
|
(1) Aggressive, abnormal behavior
(2) Hyperesthesia (3) Muscle fasciculations (4) Ataxia ->Lateral recumbency -> tetanic convulsions |
|
|
What will the following clinical pathology values read for a case of grass tetany in cattle?
- Magnesium - Calcium - Phosphorous |
- Magnesium: hypomagnesemia, very low, <0.5 mmol/L
- Calcium: mild-mod hypocalcemia - Phosphorous: hypophosphotemia |
|
|
What is the treatment of choice for grass tetany (hypomagnesemia) in cattle?
|
-Calcium borogluconate and magnesium hypophosphate (5%) solutions - 1 to 1.5 bottles. Label says Cal Plus.
-Can supplement with additional magnesium if deemed necessary. |
|
|
Which of the following animals commonly get transport tetany (hypomagnesemia)?
-Horses -Cows -Sheep -Goats -Ostrich |
-Horses
- -Sheep (pregnant) -Goats (lactating) - |
|
|
Which of the following animals can get milk tetany?
-Horses -Cows -Sheep -Goats -Ostrich |
Young animals on exclusive milk diets.
- -Cows (calves) -Sheep (lambs - - |
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|
What species is nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism (bighead or bran disease) most common in?
|
Horses
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T/F Anorexia in cattle can contribute to hypokalemia.
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True. Diet is normally high in potassium. Also, cattle have a poor ability to retain K+ in serum and have a large concentration of K+ in milk.
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You are presented with a cow that is weak, has decreased rumen contractions, and has been treated multiple times with isoflupredone (Predef).
What is your top differential? |
Hypokalmeic syndrome of dairy cattle.
-Predef is an antiinflammatory and a treatment for ketosis. It is an older steroid that has a major mineralocorticoid effect which can cause K+ excretion. |
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What is the clinical pathology value for potassium in a case of hypokalemic syndrome of dairy cattle?
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Usually <3mmol/L if cause of recumbency
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Once you have diagnosed hypokalemic syndrome in a dairy cow, how would you treat her?
What is the prognosis? |
-Give 0.5-1 mmol KCl/kg/hr IV
-Give 100-200g KCL orally BID-TID (oral supplementation is essential, hard to replace all the K+ IV) -Prognosis is good if treated aggressively and recumbency is not prolonged. It may take the cow 12-24 hours to stand. |
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When in a dairy cow's lactation does ketosis usually occur?
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Within the first 6 weeks of lactation
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What are the three ketone bodies produced with bovine ketosis?
Which one is primarily in the blood? |
-Acetoacetic acid
-Acetone -Beta-hydroxybutyric acid (primary one that is in the blood, measurable) |
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What is the main difference between primary and secondary bovine ketosis?
Which one is more common? |
Primary - caused by a negative energy balance in early lactation. High milk production and sub-optimal nutrition (energy).
Secondary - Animal has a primary disease that is decreasing dietary intake resulting in a negative energy balance. Secondary ketosis is more common. |
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Which two aspects of the kreb cycle and metabolic processing of fat do you target when treating ketosis in dairy cows?
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Proprionate - give propylene glycol (glucose precursor)
Glucose - give dextrose |
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What are 5 common diseases in cattle that can result in secondary ketosis?
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-LDA
-Metritis -Mastitis -RFM (RP’s) -Foot problems |
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What is the best cowside test to run to diagnose/confirm ketosis?
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Milk ketones test is best - is NOT sensitive but is specific.
Urine ketones are poorly correlated to clinical ketosis - if you get negative urine ketones, the cow is definitely negative |
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What 2 other clinical pathology values are altered with bovine ketosis besides altered ketone levels?
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Glucose - hypoglycemia
Liver enzymes - can be mildly elevated with fatty liver disease |
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What are the two treatments of choice for bovine ketosis?
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50% dextrose IV
Propylene glycol PO (farmer can give) |
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T/F Predef can be used to treat primary and secondary ketosis.
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False. Should only be used in cases of primary ketosis.
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How does Predef work to correct primary ketosis and it's associated problems?
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Glucose demand is highest in the mammary gland so you give Predef to decrease MILK PRODUCTION transiently and allow the glucose to be distributed elsewhere in the body and hopefully get the cow more energy so she'll feel like eating.
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How does insulin work to correct ketosis in refractory cases?
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Decreases the mobilization of fatty acids and slightly increases glucose uptake (ketotic cows usually have insulin resistance).
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T/F Hepatic lipidosis in cattle always occurs with ketosis.
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False. Hepatic lipidosis is seen with more severe forms and doesn't always occur with ketosis.
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Which drug (which was recently approved for use in Canada to treat bovine coccidiosis) can be used to prevent bovine ketosis?
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Monensin
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What are three predisposing factors/scenarios that put cows at risk for hepatic lipidosis (fat cow syndrome)?
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-Dry cows gaining too much weight
-Cow being fed a lactating diet in dry period -Prolonged “days open” - getting fat |
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T/F Liver enzymes are usually normal or mildly elevated with fat cow syndrome (hepatic lipidosis).
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True.
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What is the definitive test for diagnosing fat cow syndrome (hepatic lipidosis)?
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Liver biopsy
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T/F A floating liver biopsy in 8.11% copper sulfate solution is a significant finding.
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False. It it floats in water, it is likely fatty liver (significant finding). If it floats in 3.18% copper sulfate solution it may be significant (possibly fatty liver). Floating in 8.11% copper sulfate solution is not that significant/diagnostic.
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What is/are the treatment options for hepatic lipidosis (fat cow syndrome)?
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Same as for ketosis therapy.
-50% Dextrose IV -Propylene glycol PO BID |
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What is the prognosis for hepatic lipidosis in a cow that has fat infiltration of >34%?
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Guarded to poor. In other words, a liver that floats in WATER has a guarded to poor prognosis.
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When does pregnancy toxemia of ewes and does most commonly occur?
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In the last 2-4 weeks of gestation (late gestation). Increased energy demands of fetuses and crowding of the dams abdomen by fetuses (decreases space for feed uptake).
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What is the treatment of choice for pregnancy toxemia of ewes and does?
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Remove the fetuses, induce parturition or perform a C-section. Then treat for ketosis.
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